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  • Scipy Negative Distance? What?

    - by disappearedng
    I have a input file which are all floating point numbers to 4 decimal place. i.e. 13359 0.0000 0.0000 0.0001 0.0001 0.0002` 0.0003 0.0007 ... (the first is the id). My class uses the loadVectorsFromFile method which multiplies it by 10000 and then int() these numbers. On top of that, I also loop through each vector to ensure that there are no negative values inside. However, when I perform _hclustering, I am continually seeing the error, "Linkage Z contains negative values". I seriously think this is a bug because: I checked my values, the values are no where small enough or big enough to approach the limits of the floating point numbers and the formula that I used to derive the values in the file uses absolute value (my input is DEFINITELY right). Can someone enligten me as to why I am seeing this weird error? What is going on that is causing this negative distance error? ===== def loadVectorsFromFile(self, limit, loc, assertAllPositive=True, inflate=True): """Inflate to prevent "negative" distance, we use 4 decimal points, so *10000 """ vectors = {} self.winfo("Each vector is set to have %d limit in length" % limit) with open( loc ) as inf: for line in filter(None, inf.read().split('\n')): l = line.split('\t') if limit: scores = map(float, l[1:limit+1]) else: scores = map(float, l[1:]) if inflate: vectors[ l[0]] = map( lambda x: int(x*10000), scores) #int might save space else: vectors[ l[0]] = scores if assertAllPositive: #Assert that it has no negative value for dirID, l in vectors.iteritems(): if reduce(operator.or_, map( lambda x: x < 0, l)): self.werror( "Vector %s has negative values!" % dirID) return vectors def main( self, inputDir, outputDir, limit=0, inFname="data.vectors.all", mappingFname='all.id.features.group.intermediate'): """ Loads vector from a file and start clustering INPUT vectors is { featureID: tfidfVector (list), } """ IDFeatureDic = loadIdFeatureGroupDicFromIntermediate( pjoin(self.configDir, mappingFname)) if not os.path.exists(outputDir): os.makedirs(outputDir) vectors = self.loadVectorsFromFile( limit, pjoin( inputDir, inFname)) for threshold in map( lambda x:float(x)/30, range(20,30)): clusters = self._hclustering(threshold, vectors) if clusters: outputLoc = pjoin(outputDir, "threshold.%s.result" % str(threshold)) with open(outputLoc, 'w') as outf: for clusterNo, cluster in clusters.iteritems(): outf.write('%s\n' % str(clusterNo)) for featureID in cluster: feature, group = IDFeatureDic[featureID] outline = "%s\t%s\n" % (feature, group) outf.write(outline.encode('utf-8')) outf.write("\n") else: continue def _hclustering(self, threshold, vectors): """function which you should call to vary the threshold vectors: { featureID: [ tfidf scores, tfidf score, .. ] """ clusters = defaultdict(list) if len(vectors) > 1: try: results = hierarchy.fclusterdata( vectors.values(), threshold, metric='cosine') except ValueError, e: self.werror("_hclustering: %s" % str(e)) return False for i, featureID in enumerate( vectors.keys()):

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  • WPF - Only want one expander open at a time

    - by Portsmouth
    I have a UserControl with a templated grouped listbox with expanders and only want one expander open at any time. I have browsed through the site but haven't found anything except binding the IsExpanded to IsSelected which isn't quite what I want. I am trying to put some code in the Expanded event that would loop through Expanders and close all the ones that aren't the expander passed in the Expanded event. I can't seem to figure out how to get at them. I've tried ListBox.Items.Groups but didn't see how to get at them and tried ListBox.ItemContainerGenerator.ContainerFromItem (or Index) but nothing came back. Thanks <ListBox Name="ListBox"> <ListBox.GroupStyle > <GroupStyle> <GroupStyle.ContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Border BorderBrush="CadetBlue" BorderThickness="1"> <Expander BorderThickness="0,0,0,1" Expanded="Expander_Expanded" Focusable="False" IsExpanded="{Binding IsSelected, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType= {x:Type ListBoxItem}}}" > <Expander.Header> <Grid> <StackPanel Height="30" Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Foreground="Navy" FontWeight="Bold" Text="{Binding Path=Name}" Margin="5,0,0,0" MinWidth="200" Padding="3" VerticalAlignment="Center" /> <TextBlock Foreground="Navy" FontWeight="Bold" Text=" Setups: " VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Right"/> <TextBlock Foreground="Navy" FontWeight="Bold" Text="{Binding Path=ItemCount}" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Right" /> </StackPanel> </Grid> </Expander.Header> <Expander.Content> <Grid Background="white" > <ItemsPresenter /> </Grid> </Expander.Content> <Expander.Style > <Style TargetType="{x:Type Expander}"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="true"> <Setter Property="Background"> <Setter.Value> <LinearGradientBrush StartPoint="0,0" EndPoint="0,1"> <GradientStop Color="WhiteSmoke" Offset="0.0" /> <GradientStop Color="Orange" Offset="1.0" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="false" <Setter Property="Background"> <Setter.Value> </code>

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  • Can Hudson branch promotion get based on project stability?

    - by Wayne
    Hudson CI server displays stability "weather" which is cool. And it allows one project build to kick off based on the successful build of another. However, how can you make that secondary project dependent additionally on the stability of multiple builds of the first project? Specifically, project "stable_deploy" needs to only kick off to promote a version to "stable" if project "integrate" with version 8.3.4.1233 has built and tested successfully at least 8 times--in a row. Until then, it's still in integration mode. IMPORTANT: A significant caveat to this is that a single set of Hudson projects gets used as a "pipeline" to process each new version through to release. So a project may have built successfully 8 times in a rolw but the latest version 8.3.4.1233 may be only the 2 most recent builds. The builds prior to that may be an earlier version. We're open to completely reorganizing this but the pipeline idea seemed to greatly reduce the amount of manually project creation and deletion. Is there a better way to track version release "pipeline"? In particular, we will have multiple versions in this pipeline simultaneously in the future due to fixes or patches to older versions. We don't see how to do that yet, except to create new pipeline projects for each version which is a real hassle. Here's some background details: The TickZoom application has some very complete unit tests some of which simulates real time trading environments. Add to that TickZoom makes elaborate use of parallelization for leveraging multi-core computers. Needless to say, during development of a new version, there can be stability issues during integration testing which get uncovered by running the build and auto tests repeatedly. A version which builds and tests cleanly 8 times in a row without change plus has undergone some real world testing by users can be deemed "stable" and promoted to the stable branch. Our Hudson projects look like this: test - Only for testing a build, zero user visibility. integrate_deploy - Promotes a test project build to integrate branch and makes it available to public for UA testing. integrate - Repeatedly builds the integrate branch to determine if it's stable enough to promote to stable branch. This runs the builds and test hourly throughout every night. stable_deploy - Promotes an integrate project build to the stable branch and makes it public for users who want the latest and greatest. stable - Builds the stable branch once every night. After 2 weeks of successful builds (14 builds) it can go to "release candidate". And so on... it continues with "release candidate" and then "release".

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  • CSS selectors : should I make my CSS easier to read or optimise the speed

    - by Laurent Bourgault-Roy
    As I was working on a small website, I decided to use the PageSpeed extension to check if their was some improvement I could do to make the site load faster. However I was quite surprise when it told me that my use of CSS selector was "inefficient". I was always told that you should keep the usage of the class attribute in the HTML to a minimum, but if I understand correctly what PageSpeed tell me, it's much more efficient for the browser to match directly against a class name. It make sense to me, but it also mean that I need to put more CSS classes in my HTML. It make my .css file harder to read. I usually tend to mark my CSS like this : #mainContent p.productDescription em.priceTag { ... } Which make it easy to read : I know this will affect the main content and that it affect something in a paragraph tag (so I wont start to put all sort of layout code in it) that describe a product and its something that need emphasis. However it seem I should rewrite it as .priceTag { ... } Which remove all context information about the style. And if I want to use differently formatted price tag (for example, one in a list on the sidebar and one in a paragraph), I need to use something like that .paragraphPriceTag { ... } .listPriceTag { ... } Which really annoy me since I seem to duplicate the semantic of the HTML in my classes. And that mean I can't put common style in an unqualified .priceTag { ... } and thus I need to replicate the style in both CSS rule, making it harder to make change. (Altough for that I could use multiple class selector, but IE6 dont support them) I believe making code harder to read for the sake of speed has never been really considered a very good practice . Except where it is critical, of course. This is why people use PHP/Ruby/C# etc. instead of C/assembly to code their site. It's easier to write and debug. So I was wondering if I should stick with few CSS classes and complex selector or if I should go the optimisation route and remove my fancy CSS selectors for the sake of speed? Does PageSpeed make over the top recommandation? On most modern computer, will it even make a difference?

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  • Which mobile operating system should I code for?

    - by samgoody
    It seems as though mobile computing has fully arrived. I would like to rewrite two of our programs for mobile devices, but am a bit lost as to which platform to target. Complicating this decision: I would need to learn the relevant languages and IDEs - my coding to date has been almost all web based (PHP, JS, Actionscript, etc. Some ASPX). Most users seem to be religious about their mobile decision, so oral conversations leave me more confused then enlightened. I do not yet own a smartphone - will have to buy one once I know which platform to be aiming for. Both of my programs are more for business users, (one is only useful for C.P.A.s). I am a single developer, and cannot develop for more than one platform at a time. Getting it right is important. Based on what I've found on the web, I would've expected RIM to be a shoo-in, and the general order to be as follows: RIM Blackberry - More of them than any other brand. Despite naysayers, they've had double the sales (or perhaps 5X the sales) of any other smartphone, and have continued to grow. And, they have business users. Android - According to Schmidt, they have outsold everyone else except RIM (though I can't find where I read that now), and they are just getting started. According to Comscore, they are already at 8% of the market and expected to hit Shcmidt's claims within six months. Nokia - The largest worldwide. If they would just make up between Maemo or Symbian, I would be far less confused. iPhone - Much more competition by other apps, fewer sales to be had, and a overlord that can delay or cancel my app at any time. Is Cocoa hard to learn? Windows Mobile - Word is that version 7 will not be backwards compatible and losing market share. Palm WebOS - Perhaps this should go first, as it is the only one that offers tools to make my life easy as a web application developer. No competition in marketplace. But not very many users either. However, a search on StackOverflow shows a hugely disproportionate number of iPhone questions versus Blackberry. Likewise, there are clearly more apps on iPhone, so it must be getting developer love. What is the one platform I should develop for? Please back up your answer with the logic.

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  • Form won't submit properly in IE

    - by VUELA
    Hi! My simple donation form submits properly except for Internet Explorer. I'm sure it has to do with issues with change() and focus() or blur(), but all my hundreds of attempts so far have failed me. I tried using .click() instead of change() as mentioned in this post:http://stackoverflow.com/questions/208471/getting-jquery-to-recognise-change-in-ie (and elsewhere), but I could not get it to work! ... so I am overlooking something simple perhaps. Any help is greatly appreciated!! Here is the link to the page: http://www.wsda.org/donate HTML FORM: <form id="donationForm" method="post" action="https://wsda.foxycart.com/cart.php" class="foxycart"> <input type="hidden" id="name" name="name" value="Donation" /> <input type="hidden" id="price" name="price" value="10" /> <div class="row"> <label for="price_select">How much would you like to donate?</label> <select id="price_select" name="price_select"> <option value="10">$10</option> <option value="20">$20</option> <option value="50">$50</option> <option value="100">$100</option> <option value="300">$300</option> <option value="0">Other</option> </select> </div> <div class="row" id="custom_amount"> <label for="price_input">Please enter an amount: $</label> <input type="text" id="price_input" name="price_select" value="" /> </div> <input type="submit" id="DonateBtn" value="Submit Donation »" /> </form> JQUERY: // donation form $("#custom_amount").hide(); $("#price_select").change(function(){ if ($("#price_select").val() == "0") { $("#custom_amount").show(); } else { $("#custom_amount").hide(); } $("#price").val($("#price_select").val()); }); $("#price_input").change(function(){ $("#price").val($("#price_input").val()); });

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  • Event Listener in Google Charts API

    - by DeanGrobler
    I'm busy using Google Charts in one of my projects to display data in a table. Everything is working great. Except that I need to see what line a user selected once they click a button. This would obviously be done with Javascript, but I've been struggling for days now to no avail. Below I've pasted code for a simple example of the table, and the Javascript function that I want to use (that doesn't work). <html> <head> <script type='text/javascript' src='https://www.google.com/jsapi'></script> <script type='text/javascript'> google.load('visualization', '1', {packages:['table']}); google.setOnLoadCallback(drawTable); var table = ""; function drawTable() { var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(); data.addColumn('string', 'Name'); data.addColumn('number', 'Salary'); data.addColumn('boolean', 'Full Time Employee'); data.addRows(4); data.setCell(0, 0, 'Mike'); data.setCell(0, 1, 10000, '$10,000'); data.setCell(0, 2, true); data.setCell(1, 0, 'Jim'); data.setCell(1, 1, 8000, '$8,000'); data.setCell(1, 2, false); data.setCell(2, 0, 'Alice'); data.setCell(2, 1, 12500, '$12,500'); data.setCell(2, 2, true); data.setCell(3, 0, 'Bob'); data.setCell(3, 1, 7000, '$7,000'); data.setCell(3, 2, true); table = new google.visualization.Table(document.getElementById('table_div')); table.draw(data, {showRowNumber: true}); } function selectionHandler() { selectedData = table.getSelection(); row = selectedData[0].row; item = table.getValue(row,0); alert("You selected :" + item); } </script> </head> <body> <div id='table_div'></div> <input type="button" value="Select" onClick="selectionHandler()"> </body> </html> Thanks in advance for anyone taking the time to look at this. I've honestly tried my best with this, hope someone out there can help me out a bit.

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  • Maven webapp with maven-eclipse-plugin doesn't generates <dependent-module>

    - by chrsk
    I use the eclipse:eclipse goal to generate an Eclipse Project environment. The deployment works fine. The goal creates the var classpath entries for all needed dependencies. With m2eclipse there was the Maven Container which defines an export folder which was WEB-INF/lib for me. But i don't want to rely on m2eclipse so i don't use it anymore. the class path entries which are generated by eclipse:eclipse goal don't have such a export folder. While booting the servlet container with WTP it publishes all resources and classes except the libraries to the context. Whats missing to publish the needed libs, or isn't that possible without m2eclipse integration? Enviroment Eclipse 3.5 JEE Galileo Apache Maven 2.2.1 (r801777; 2009-08-06 21:16:01+0200) Java version: 1.6.0_14 m2eclipse The maven-eclipse-plugin configuration <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-eclipse-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.8</version> <configuration> <projectNameTemplate>someproject-[artifactId]</projectNameTemplate> <useProjectReferences>false</useProjectReferences> <downloadSources>false</downloadSources> <downloadJavadocs>false</downloadJavadocs> <wtpmanifest>true</wtpmanifest> <wtpversion>2.0</wtpversion> <wtpapplicationxml>true</wtpapplicationxml> <wtpContextName>someproject-[artifactId]</wtpContextName> <additionalProjectFacets> <jst.web>2.3</jst.web> </additionalProjectFacets> </configuration> </plugin> The generated files After executing the eclipse:eclipse goal, the dependent-module is not listed in my generated .settings/org.eclipse.wst.common.component, so on server booting i miss the depdencies. This is what i get: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project-modules id="moduleCoreId" project-version="1.5.0"> <wb-module deploy-name="someproject-core"> <wb-resource deploy-path="/" source-path="src/main/java"/> <wb-resource deploy-path="/" source-path="src/main/webapp"/> <wb-resource deploy-path="/" source-path="src/main/resources"/> </wb-module> </project-modules>

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  • nhibernate subclass in code

    - by Antonio Nakic Alfirevic
    I would like to set up table-per-classhierarchy inheritance in nhibernate thru code. Everything else is set in XML mapping files except the subclasses. If i up the subclasses in xml all is well, but not from code. This is the code i use - my concrete subclass never gets created:( //the call NHibernate.Cfg.Configuration config = new NHibernate.Cfg.Configuration(); SetSubclass(config, typeof(TAction), typeof(tActionSub1), "Procedure"); //the method public static void SetSubclass(Configuration configuration, Type baseClass, Type subClass, string discriminatorValue) { PersistentClass persBaseClass = configuration.ClassMappings.Where(cm => cm.MappedClass == baseClass).Single(); SingleTableSubclass persSubClass = new SingleTableSubclass(persBaseClass); persSubClass.ClassName = subClass.AssemblyQualifiedName; persSubClass.DiscriminatorValue = discriminatorValue; persSubClass.EntityPersisterClass = typeof(SingleTableEntityPersister); persSubClass.ProxyInterfaceName = (subClass).AssemblyQualifiedName; persSubClass.NodeName = subClass.Name; persSubClass.EntityName = subClass.FullName; persBaseClass.AddSubclass(persSubClass); } the Xml mapping looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" namespace="Riz.Pcm.Domain.BusinessObjects" assembly="Riz.Pcm.Domain"> <class name="Riz.Pcm.Domain.BusinessObjects.TAction, Riz.Pcm.Domain" table="dbo.tAction" lazy="true"> <id name="Id" column="ID"> <generator class="guid" /> </id> <discriminator type="String" formula="(select jt.Name from TJobType jt where jt.Id=JobTypeId)" insert="true" force="false"/> <many-to-one name="Session" column="SessionID" class="TSession" /> <property name="Order" column="Order1" /> <property name="ProcessStart" column="ProcessStart" /> <property name="ProcessEnd" column="ProcessEnd" /> <property name="Status" column="Status" /> <many-to-one name="JobType" column="JobTypeID" class="TJobType" /> <many-to-one name="Unit" column="UnitID" class="TUnit" /> <bag name="TActionProperties" lazy="true" cascade="all-delete-orphan" inverse="true" > <key column="ActionID"></key> <one-to-many class="TActionProperty"></one-to-many> </bag> <!--<subclass name="Riz.Pcm.Domain.tActionSub" discriminator-value="ZPower"></subclass>--> </class> </hibernate-mapping> What am I doing wrong? I can't find any examples on google:(

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  • Git repo planning questions

    - by masonk
    At work, development uses perforce to handle code sharing. I won't say "revision control", because we aren't allowed to check in changes until they are ready for regression testing. In order to get my personal change sets under revision control, I've been given the go-ahead to build my own git and initialize the client view of the perforce depot as a git repo. There are some difficulties in doing this, however. The client view lives in a subfolder of ~, (~/p4), and I want to put ~ under revision control as well, with its own separate history. I can't figure out how to keep the history for ~ separate from ~/p4 without using a submodule. The problem with a submodule is that it looks like I have to go make a repository that will become the submodule and then git submodule add <repo> <path>. But there is nowhere to make the submodule's repository except in ~. There seems to be no safe place to create the initial client view of the depot with git p4 clone. (I'm working off of the assumption that initing or cloning a repo into a subdirectory of a git repo is not supported. At least, I can find nothing authoritative on nested git repos.) edit: Is merely ignoring ~/p4 in the repo rooted at ~ enough to allow me to init a nested repo in ~/p4? My __git_ps1 function still thinks I'm in a git repository when I visit an ignored subdirectory of a git repo, so I'm inclined to think not. I need the "remote" repository created by git p4 sync to be a branch in ~/p4. We are required to keep all of our code in ~/p4 so that it doesn't get backed up. Can I pull from a "remote" branch that is really a local branch? This one is just for convenience, but I thought I could learn something by asking it. For 99% of the project, I just want to start the with the p4 head revision as the inital commit object. For the other 1%, I would like to suck down the entire p4 history so that I can browse it in git. IOW, after I'm done initalizing it, the initial commit of remotes/p4/master branch will contain: revision 1 of //depot/prod/Foo/Bar/* revision X of other files in //depot/prod/*, where X is the head revision and the remotes/p4/master branch contains Y commits, where Y is the number of changelists that had a file in //depot/prod/Foo/Bar/*, with each commit in the history corresponding to one of those p4 changelists, and HEAD looking like p4's head.

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  • Button control subclass: click event does not fire when using UpdatePanel

    - by nw
    Using suggestions from this thread, I created a ModernButton control that uses the HTML button tag instead of input. This control works great except when embedded within an UpdatePanel control. In this case, it does trigger the partial postback, but its click event does not fire. The control is defined thus: [ParseChildren(false)] [PersistChildren(true)] public class ModernButton : Button { private string _iconURL = ""; protected override string TagName { get { return "button"; } } protected override HtmlTextWriterTag TagKey { get { return HtmlTextWriterTag.Button; } } public new string Text { get { return ViewState["NewText"] as string; } set { ViewState["NewText"] = HttpUtility.HtmlDecode(value); } } public string IconURL { get { return this._iconURL; } set { this._iconURL = value.Trim(); } } protected override void OnPreRender(System.EventArgs e) { base.OnPreRender(e); LiteralControl textCtrl = new LiteralControl(this.Text); if (this._iconURL != "") { LiteralControl openDiv = new LiteralControl( string.Format( "<div style=\"background-image:url({0}); background-position:left center; background-repeat:no-repeat; line-height:16px; padding:3px 0 3px 22px;\">", ResolveClientUrl(this._iconURL) ) ); LiteralControl closeDiv = new LiteralControl("</div>"); Controls.AddAt(0, openDiv); Controls.Add(textCtrl); Controls.Add(closeDiv); } else { Controls.Add(textCtrl); } base.Text = UniqueID; } protected override void RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter writer) { RenderChildren(writer); } } I use it so: <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server" ID="uxSearchPanel" ChildrenAsTriggers="true" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="uxSearchButton" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> ... <ctrl:ModernButton ID="uxSearchButton" runat="server" Text="Search" IconURL="Icons/magnifier.png" OnClick="uxSearchButton_Click"></ctrl:ModernButton> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> Which renders: <div id="uxBody_uxSearchPanel"> ... <button type="submit" name="ctl00$uxBody$uxSearchButton" value="ctl00$uxBody$uxSearchButton" id="uxBody_uxSearchButton"> <div style="background-image:url(Icons/magnifier.png); background-position:left center; background-repeat:no-repeat; line-height:16px; padding:3px 0 3px 22px;">Search</div> </button> </div> The ModernButton generates a postback in every case (whether partial or full), but the server-side click event (uxSearchButton_Click) does not fire in the partial postback scenario.

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  • What is a good dumbed-down, safe template system for PHP?

    - by Wilhelm
    (Summary: My users need to be able to edit the structure of their dynamically generated web pages without being able to do any damage.) Greetings, ladies and gentlemen. I am currently working on a service where customers from a specific demographic can create a specific type of web site and fill it with their own content. The system is written in PHP. Many of the users of this system wish to edit how their particular web site looks, or, more commonly, have a designer do it for them. Editing the CSS is fine and dandy, but sometimes that's not enough. Sometimes they want to shuffle the entire page structure around by editing the raw HTML of the dynamically created web pages. The templating system used by WordPress is, as far as I can see, perfect for my use. Except for one thing which is critically important. In addition to being able to edit how comments are displayed or where the menu goes, someone editing a template can have that template execute arbitrary PHP code. As the same codebase runs all these different sites, with all content in the same databse, allowing my users to run arbitrary code is clearly out of the question. So what I need, is a dumbed-down, idiot-proof templating system where my users can edit most of the page structure on their own, pulling in the dynamic sections wherever, without being able to even echo 1+1;. Observe the following psuedocode: <!DOCTYPE html> <title><!-- $title --></title> <!-- header() --> <!-- menu() --> <div>Some random custom crap added by the user.</div> <!-- page_content() --> That's the degree of power I'd like to grant my users. They don't need to do their own loops or calculations or anything. Just include my variables and functions and leave the rest to me. I'm sure I'm not the only person on the planet that needs something like this. Do you know of any ready-made templating systems I could use? Thanks in advance for your reply.

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  • Alternatives to requiring users to register for an account?

    - by jamieb
    I'm working on a side project to build a new web app idea of mine. For the sake of discussion, let's say this app displays a random photograph of a famous work of art. On a scale of 1 to 5, users are asked to rate how well they like each piece of art, and then are shown the next photo. Eventually, the app is able to get an sense of the person's style and is able to recommend artwork that he/she may find pleasing. The whole concept is similar to Netflix. I understand how to do all the preference matching logic (although not as sophisticated as Netflix). But I'd like to find a way to do this without requiring that users create an account first. This is a novelty website that a typical user might use only a handful of times. Requiring registration is overkill and will likely drastically reduce it's utility. I'd like to allow people to begin rating artwork within five seconds of their initial pageview, yet maintain the integrity of the voting (since recommendations are predicated on how other people have rated the various pieces of artwork). Can it be done? Some ideas: OpenID. The perfect solution except for the fact that it's not wildly used and my target audience isn't the most technically adept demographic. Text message. User inputs phone number and is texted a four digit code to key into the web app. Quick, easy, and great way to limit abuse. However, privacy concerns abound... people are probably even less likely to give me their phone number than their email address. Facebook login. I personally don't have a Facebook account due to privacy concerns. And I'd really hate to support such a proprietary platform. Hash code/Bookmark. Vistor's initial pageview generates a 5 or 6 digit alphanumeric code that is embedded in each subsequent URL. They can bookmark any page to save their state. Good: Very simple system that doesn't require any user action. Bad: Very easy to stuff the ballot box, might be difficult to account for users sharing the link containing their ID code via email or social networking sites.

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  • Why am I getting the extra xmlns="" using LinqToXML?

    - by Hcabnettek
    Hello all, I'm using LinqToXML to generate a piece of XML. Everything works great except I'm throwing in some empty namespace declarations somehow. Does anyone out there know what I'm doing incorrectly? Here is my code private string SerializeInventory(IEnumerable<InventoryInformation> inventory) { var zones = inventory.Select(c => new { c.ZoneId , c.ZoneName , c.Direction }).Distinct(); XNamespace ns = "http://www.dummy-tmdd-address"; XNamespace xsi = "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"; var xml = new XElement(ns + "InventoryList" , new XAttribute(XNamespace.Xmlns + "xsi", xsi) , zones.Select(station => new XElement("StationInventory" , new XElement("station-id", station.ZoneId) , new XElement("station-name", station.ZoneName) , new XElement("station-travel-direction", station.Direction) , new XElement("detector-list" , inventory.Where(p => p.ZoneId == station.ZoneId).Select(plaza => new XElement("detector" , new XElement("detector-id", plaza.PlazaId))))))); xml.Save(@"c:\tmpXml\myXmlDoc.xml"); return xml.ToString(); } And here is the resulting xml. I hope it renders correctly? The browser may hide the tags. - <InventoryList xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns="http://www.dummy-tmdd-address"> <StationInventory xmlns=""> <station-id>999</station-id> <station-name>Zone 999-SEB</station-name> <station-travel-direction>SEB</station-travel-direction> <detector-list> <detector> <detector-id>7503</detector-id> </detector> <detector> <detector-id>2705</detector-id> </detector> </detector-list> </StationInventory> </InventoryList> Notice the empty namespace declaration in the first child element. Any ideas how I can remedy this? Any tips are of course appreciated. Thanks All, ~ck

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  • .net ViewState in page lifecycle

    - by caltrop
    I have a page containing a control called PhoneInfo.ascx. PhoneInfo is dynamically created using LoadControl() and then the initControl() function is called passing in an initialization object to set some initial textbox values within PhoneInfo. The user then changes these values and hits a submit button on the page which is wired up to the "submit_click" event. This event invokes the GetPhone() function within PhoneInfo. The returned value has all of the new user entered values except that the phoneId value (stored in ViewState and NOT edited by the user) always comes back as null. I believe that the viewstate is responsible for keeping track of user entered data across a postback, so I can't understand how the user values are coming back but not the explicitly set ViewState["PhoneId"] value! If I set the ViewState["PhoneId"] value in PhoneInfo's page_load event, it retrieves it correctly after the postback, but this isn't an option because I can only initialize that value when the page is ready to provide it. I'm sure I am just messing up the page lifecycle somehow, any suggestion or questions would really help! I have included a much simplified version of the actual code below. Containing page's codebehind protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Phone phone = controlToBind as Phone; PhoneInfo phoneInfo = (PhoneInfo)LoadControl("phoneInfo.ascx"); //Create phoneInfo control phoneInfo.InitControl(phone); //use controlToBind to initialize the new control Controls.Add(phoneInfo); } protected void submit_click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Phone phone = phoneInfo.GetPhone(); } PhoneInfo.ascx codebehind protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } public void InitControl(Phone phone) { if (phone != null) { ViewState["PhoneId"] = phone.Id; txt_areaCode.Text = SafeConvert.ToString(phone.AreaCode); txt_number.Text = SafeConvert.ToString(phone.Number); ddl_type.SelectedValue = SafeConvert.ToString((int)phone.Type); } } public Phone GetPhone() { Phone phone = new Phone(); if ((int)ViewState["PhoneId"] >= 0) phone.Id = (int)ViewState["PhoneId"]; phone.AreaCode = SafeConvert.ToInt(txt_areaCode.Text); phone.Number = SafeConvert.ToInt(txt_number.Text); phone.Type = (PhoneType)Enum.ToObject(typeof(PhoneType), SafeConvert.ToInt(ddl_type.SelectedValue)); return phone; } }

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  • Issues with mx:method, mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject, and sub-classing mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.Remo

    - by Ryan Wilson
    I am looking to subclass RemoteObject. Instead of: <mx:RemoteObject ... > <mx:method ... /> <mx:method ... /> </mx:RemoteObject> I want to do something like: <remoting:CustomRemoteObject ...> <mx:method ... /> <mx:method ... /> </remoting:CustomRemoteObject> where CustomRemoteObject extends mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject like so: package remoting { import mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject; public class CustomRemoteObject extends RemoteObject { public function CustomRemoteObject(destination:String=null) { super(destination); } } } However, when doing so and declaring a CustomRemoteObject in MXML as above, the flex compiler shows the error: Could not resolve <mx:method> to a component implementation At first I thought it had something to do with CustomRemoteObject failing to do something, despite that (or since) it had no change except as to the name. So, I copied the source from mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject into CustomRemoteObject and modified it so the only difference was a refactoring of the class and package name. But still, the same error. Unlike many MXML components, I cannot cmd+click <mx:method> in FlashBuilder to open the source. Likewise, I have not found a reference in mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject, mx.rpc.remoting.RemoteObject, or mx.rpc.remoting.AbstractService, and have been unsuccessful in find its source online. Which leads me to the questions in the title: What exactly is <mx:method>? (yes, I know it's a declaration of a RemoteObject method, and I know how to use it, but it's peculiar in regard to other components) Why did my attempt at subclassing RemoteObject fail, despite it effectually being a rename? Perhaps the root, why can mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject as an MXML declaration accept <mx:method> child tags, yet the source of said class cannot when refactored in name only?

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  • IE and Content-disposition inline vs. extension-token

    - by pinkgothic
    Preamble So IE does Mime-Type sniffing. That part's old news. Suggestions of how to combat it tend to be along the lines of 'supply a content-type IE trusts' (i.e. anything that isn't text/plain or application/octet-stream) or 'add extraneous data at the start of the file that is definitely of the type you're serving'. Now, I'm working on an application that has to allow message attachments (like in e-mails), and we want to close up XSS vectors. IE's mime sniffing is one of those vectors - a text/plain file with html content will trigger as html. Recoding isn't an option at this point, changing the attachments the user has provided can only happen if there is absolutely no doubt about the maliciousness of the file - and someone might want to send HTML as text. Now, Microsoft's MSDN article implies the situation might be easier to fix than advertised: If Internet Explorer knows the Content-Type specified and there is no Content-Disposition data, Internet Explorer performs a "MIME sniff," [...] Great! Except I don't have IE nor current means to reliably install it (I realise this is a fairly sad state for a webdeveloper to be in, I hope to fix this soon) and this is grey theory that I can't quite seem to get confirmed one way or the other. Local sources say that line is hogwash - IE will mime sniff anything that is Content-Disposition: inline / <default> and not specific enough for its tastes in -Type. But what about x-* ('extension-token' in the RFC)? Trying to google for how browsers handle Content-Disposition: <extension-token> hasn't yielded anything (though I may just be doing it wrong, my understanding of Google is seriously slipping lately). I found one question that looked promising, but turned out to be a misunderstanding on side of the thread author, meaning that the train of thought was never actually addressed there. Question(s) Does IE really Mime sniff if you expressly pass Content-Disposition: inline? If so: Does anyone here know how browsers handle Content-Disposition: <extension-token>? If they do this in a way that is for my purposes benign, by presuming it to be synonymous with the default (effectively 'inline', though I hear it's not defined anywhere?), is it specific enough for IE not to Mime sniff? Or am I actually shooting myself in the foot by thinking of pursuing this avenue?

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  • bug/error in basis set path algorithm i can't figure out

    - by Roy McAvoy
    The following looks through a 2d array to find basis set paths. It is supposed to print out the individual paths but not repeat any and end when all paths are found. It however doesn't stop at the last path and has a bug in it somewhere in which the following happens: It goes halfway through the path and then goes to zero and ends the path for some reason. For example the table is filled with the following: all 0s, except for [1][2], [1][3], [2][4], [2][5], [3][5], [4][6], [5][6], [6][0] which all have a 1 in them. The desired paths are P1: 1 2 4 6 0 P2: 1 3 5 6 0 P3: 1 2 5 6 0. The output I get when i run the program is 12460 13560 1250 124 Any and all help on this is much appreciated, this is just the function that scans through the array looking for paths, I can add the entire program if that would be helpful. Thanks.. void find_path(int map[][MAX], int x){ int path =0; int m=1; int blah=0; bool path_found = false; do { for(int n=0;n<(x+1);n++){ if(map[m][n]==-1){ blah=(n+1); if(blah<(x+1)){ for(blah;blah<(x+1);blah++){ if(map[m][blah]==1){ map[m][blah]=-1; path=m; path_found = true; cout<<path; m=blah; n=0; } } } else{ path=m; path_found=false; cout<<path; m=n; if(m==0){ path=0; cout<<path<<endl; m=1; path_found=false; } } } else if(map[m][n]==1){ map[m][n]=-1; path=m; path_found = true; cout<<path; m=n; if(m==0){ path=0; cout<<path<<endl; m=1; path_found=false; } } } } while(m<(x+1) && path_found); }

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  • php adding images to another image, exact positioning

    - by user271619
    I have a cool snippet of code that works well, except one thing. The code will take an icon I want to add to an existing picture. I can position it where I want too! Which is exactly what I need to do. However, I'm stuck on one thing, concerning the placement. The code "starting position" (on the main image: navIcons.png) is from the Bottom Right. I have 2 variables: $move_left = 10; & $move_up = 8;. So, the means I can position the icon.png 10px left, and 8px up, from the bottom right corner. I really really want to start the positioning from the Top Left of the image, so I'm really moving the icon 10px right & 8px down, from the top left position of the main image. Can someone look at my code and see if I'm just missing something that inverts that starting position? function attachIcon($imgname) { $mark = imagecreatefrompng($imgname); imagesavealpha($mark, true); list($icon_width, $icon_height) = getimagesize($imgname); $img = imagecreatefrompng('images/sprites/navIcons.png'); imagesavealpha($img, true); $move_left = 10; $move_up = 9; list($mainpic_width, $mainpic_height) = getimagesize('images/sprites/navIcons.png'); imagecopy($img, $mark, $mainpic_width-$icon_width-$move_left, $mainpic_height-$icon_height-$move_up, 0, 0, $icon_width, $icon_height); imagepng($img); // display the image + positioned icon in the browser //imagepng($img,'newnavIcon.png'); // rewrite the image with icon attached. } header('Content-Type: image/png'); attachIcon('icon.png'); ? For those who are wondering why I'd even bother doing this. In a nutshell, I like to add 16x16 icons to 1 single image, while using css to display that individual icon. This does involve me downloading the image (sprite) and open photoshop, add the new icon (positioning it), and reuploading it to the server. Not a massive ordeal, but just having fun with php.

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  • Asynchronous vs Synchronous vs Threading in an iPhone App

    - by Coocoo4Cocoa
    I'm in the design stage for an app which will utilize a REST web service and sort of have a dilemma in as far as using asynchronous vs synchronous vs threading. Here's the scenario. Say you have three options to drill down into, each one having its own REST-based resource. I can either lazily load each one with a synchronous request, but that'll block the UI and prevent the user from hitting a back navigation button while data is retrieved. This case applies almost anywhere except for when your application requires a login screen. I can't see any reason to use synchronous HTTP requests vs asynchronous because of that reason alone. The only time it makes sense is to have a worker thread make your synchronous request, and notify the main thread when the request is done. This will prevent the block. The question then is bench marking your code and seeing which has more overhead, a threaded synchronous request or an asynchronous request. The problem with asynchronous requests is you need to either setup a smart notification or delegate system as you can have multiple requests for multiple resources happening at any given time. The other problem with them is if I have a class, say a singleton which is handling all of my data, I can't use asynchronous requests in a getter method. Meaning the following won't go: - (NSArray *)users { if(users == nil) users = do_async_request // NO GOOD return users; } whereas the following: - (NSArray *)users { if(users == nil) users == do_sync_request // OK. return users; } You also might have priority. What I mean by priority is if you look at Apple's Mail application on the iPhone, you'll notice they first suck down your entire POP/IMAP tree before making a second request to retrieve the first 2 lines (the default) of your message. I suppose my question to you experts is this. When are you using asynchronous, synchronous, threads -- and when are you using either async/sync in a thread? What kind of delegation system do you have setup to know what to do when a async request completes? Are you prioritizing your async requests? There's a gamut of solutions to this all too common problem. It's simple to hack something out. The problem is, I don't want to hack and I want to have something that's simple and easy to maintain.

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  • access exception when invoking method of an anonymous class using java reflection

    - by Asaf David
    Hello I'm trying to use an event dispatcher to allow a model to notify subscribed listeners when it changes. the event dispatcher receives a handler class and a method name to call during dispatch. the presenter subscribes to the model changes and provide a Handler implementation to be called on changes. Here's the code (I'm sorry it's a bit long). EventDispacther: package utils; public class EventDispatcher<T> { List<T> listeners; private String methodName; public EventDispatcher(String methodName) { listeners = new ArrayList<T>(); this.methodName = methodName; } public void add(T listener) { listeners.add(listener); } public void dispatch() { for (T listener : listeners) { try { Method method = listener.getClass().getMethod(methodName); method.invoke(listener); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } } } } Model: package model; public class Model { private EventDispatcher<ModelChangedHandler> dispatcher; public Model() { dispatcher = new EventDispatcher<ModelChangedHandler>("modelChanged"); } public void whenModelChange(ModelChangedHandler handler) { dispatcher.add(handler); } public void change() { dispatcher.dispatch(); } } ModelChangedHandler: package model; public interface ModelChangedHandler { void modelChanged(); } Presenter: package presenter; public class Presenter { private final Model model; public Presenter(Model model) { this.model = model; this.model.whenModelChange(new ModelChangedHandler() { @Override public void modelChanged() { System.out.println("model changed"); } }); } } Main: package main; public class Main { public static void main(String[] args) { Model model = new Model(); Presenter presenter = new Presenter(model); model.change(); } } Now, I except to get the "model changed" message. However, I'm getting an java.lang.IllegalAccessException: Class utils.EventDispatcher can not access a member of class presenter.Presenter$1 with modifiers "public". I understand that the class to blame is the anonymous class i created inside the presenter, however I don't know how to make it any more 'public' than it currently is. If i replace it with a named nested class it seem to work. It also works if the Presenter and the EventDispatcher are in the same package, but I can't allow that (several presenters in different packages should use the EventDispatcher) any ideas?

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  • Having trouble getting MEF imports to be resolved

    - by Dave
    This is sort of a continuation of one of my earlier posts, which involves the resolving of modules in my WPF application. This question is specifically related to the effect of interdependencies of modules and the method of constructing those modules (i.e. via MEF or through new) on MEF's ability to resolve relationships. First of all, here is a simple UML diagram of my test application: I have tried two approaches: left approach: the App implements IError right approach: the App has a member that implements IError Left approach My code behind looked like this (just the MEF-related stuff): // app.cs [Export(typeof(IError))] public partial class Window1 : Window, IError { [Import] public CandyCo.Shared.LibraryInterfaces.IPlugin Plugin { get; set; } [Export] public CandyCo.Shared.LibraryInterfaces.ICandySettings Settings { get; set; } private ICandySettings Settings; public Window1() { // I create the preferences here with new, instead of using MEF. I wonder // if that's my whole problem? If I use MEF, and want to have parameters // going to the constructor, then do I have to [Export] a POCO (i.e. string)? Settings = new CandySettings( "Settings", @"c:\settings.xml"); var catalog = new DirectoryCatalog( "."); var container = new CompositionContainer( catalog); try { container.ComposeParts( this); } catch( CompositionException ex) { foreach( CompositionError e in ex.Errors) { string description = e.Description; string details = e.Exception.Message; } throw; } } } // plugin.cs [Export(typeof(IPlugin))] public class Plugin : IPlugin { [Import] public CandyCo.Shared.LibraryInterfaces.ICandySettings CandySettings { get; set; } [Import] public CandyCo.Shared.LibraryInterfaces.IError ErrorInterface { get; set; } [ImportingConstructor] public Plugin( ICandySettings candy_settings, IError error_interface) { CandySettings = candy_settings; ErrorInterface = error_interface; } } // candysettings.cs [Export(typeof(ICandySettings))] public class CandySettings : ICandySettings { ... } Right-side approach Basically the same as the left-side approach, except that I created a class that inherits from IError in the same assembly as Window1. I then used an [Import] to try to get MEF to resolve that for me. Can anyone explain how the two ways I have approached MEF here are flawed? I have been in the dark for so long that instead of reading about MEF and trying different suggestions, I've added MEF to my solution and am stepping into the code. The part where it looks like it fails is when it calls partManager.GetSavedImport(). For some reason, the importCache is null, which I don't understand. All the way up to this point, it's been looking at the part (Window1) and trying to resolve two imported interfaces -- IError and IPlugin. I would have expected it to enter code that looks at other assemblies in the same executable folder, and then check it for exports so that it knows how to resolve the imports...

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  • Evaluating points in time by months, but without referencing years in Rails

    - by MikeH
    FYI, There is some overlap in the initial description of this question with a question I asked yesterday, but the question is different. My app has users who have seasonal products. When a user selects a product, we allow him to also select the product's season. We accomplish this by letting him select a start date and an end date for each product. We're using date_select to generate two sets of drop-downs: one for the start date and one for the end date. Including years doesn't make sense for our model. So we're using the option: discard_year => true When you use discard_year => true, Rails sets a year in the database, it just doesn't appear in the views. Rails sets all the years to either 0001 or 0002 in our app. Yes, we could make it 2009 and 2010 or any other pair. But the point is that we want the months and days to function independent of a particular year. If we used 2009 and 2010, then those dates would be wrong next year because we don't expect these records to be updated every year. My problem is that we need to dynamically evaluate the availability of products based on their relationship to the current month. For example, assume it's March 15. Regardless of the year, I need a method that can tell me that a product available from October to January is not available right now. If we were using actual years, this would be pretty easy. For example, in the products model, I can do this: def is_available? (season_start.past? && season_end.future?) end I can also evaluate a start_date and an end_date against current_date However, in setup I've described above where we have arbitrary years that only make sense relative to each other, these methods don't work. For example, is_available? would return false for all my products because their end date is in the year 0001 or 0002. What I need is a method just like the ones I used as examples above, except that they evaluate against current_month instead of current_date, and past? and future months instead of years. I have no idea how to do this or whether Rails has any built in functionality that could help. I've gone through all the date and time methods/helpers in the API docs, but I'm not seeing anything equivalent to what I'm describing. Thanks.

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  • Tomcat 403 error after LDAP authentication.

    - by user352636
    I'm currently trying to use an LDAP server to authenticate users who are trying to access our Tomcat setup. I believe I have managed to get the LDAP authentication working in the form of a JNDI realm call from Tomcat, but immediately after the user enters their password Tomcat starts throwing 403 (permission denied) errors for everything except from the root page (ttp://localhost:1337/). I have no idea why this is happening. I am following the example at http://blog.mc-thias.org/?title=tomcat_ldap_authentication&more=1&c=1&tb=1&pb=1 . server.xml (the interesting/changed bits) <Realm className="org.apache.catalina.realm.JNDIRealm" debug="99" connectionURL="ldap://localhost:389" userPattern="uid={0},ou=People,o=test,dc=company,dc=uk" userSubTree="true" roleBase="ou=Roles,o=test,dc=company,dc=uk" roleName="cn" roleSearch="memberUid={1}" /> <Valve className="org.apache.catalina.authenticator.SingleSignOn" /> web.xml (the interesting/changed bits) <security-constraint> <display-name>Security Constraint</display-name> <web-resource-collection> <web-resource-name>Protected Area</web-resource-name> <!-- Define the context-relative URL(s) to be protected --> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> <!-- If you list http methods, only those methods are protected --> </web-resource-collection> <auth-constraint> <!-- Anyone with one of the listed roles may access this area --> <role-name>admin</role-name> <role-name>regular</role-name> </auth-constraint> </security-constraint> <!-- Default login configuration uses form-based authentication --> <login-config> <auth-method>BASIC</auth-method> </login-config> <!-- Security roles referenced by this web application --> <security-role> <role-name>admin</role-name> <role-name>regular</role-name> </security-role> I cannot access my LDAP setup at the moment, but I believe it is alright as the login is accepted by the BASIC auth method, it's just tomcat that is rejecting it. The roles should be as defined in web.xml - admin and regular. If there is any other information you require me to provide, please just ask! My thanks in advance to anyone who can help, and my apologies for any major mistakes I have made - yesterday was pretty much the first time I'd ever heard of LDAP =D. EDIT: Fixed the second xml segment. Apologies for the formating-fail.

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  • How can I inject Javascript (including Prototype.js) in other sites without cluttering the global na

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I'm currently on a project that is a big site that uses the Prototype library, and there is already a humongous amount of Javascript code. We're now working on a piece of code that will get "injected" into other people's sites (picture people adding a <script> tag in their sites) which will then run our code and add a bunch of DOM elements and functionality to their site. This will have new pieces of code, and will also reuse a lot of the code that we use on our main site. The problem I have is that it's of course not cool to just add a <script> that will include Prototype in people's pages. If we do that in a page that's already using ANY framework, we're guaranteed to screw everything up. jQuery gives us the option to "rename" the $ object, so it could handle this situation decently, except obviously for the fact that we're not using jQuery, so we'd have to migrate everything. Right now i'm contemplating a number of ugly choices, and I'm not sure what's best... Rewrite everything to use jQuery, with a renamed $ object everywhere. Creating a "new" Prototype library with only the subset we'd be using in "injected" code, and renaming $ to something else. Then again I'd have to adapt the parts of my code that would be shared somehow. Not using a library at all in injected code, to keep it as clean as possible, and rewriting the shared code to use no library at all. This would obviously degenerate into us creating our own frankenstein of a library, which is probably the worst case scenario ever. I'm wondering what you guys think I could do, and also whether there's some magic option that would solve all my problems... For example, do you think I could use something like Caja / Cajita to sandbox my own code and isolate it from the rest of the site, and have Prototype inside of there? Or am I completely missing the point with that? I also read once about a technique for bookmarklets, were you add your code like this: (function() { /* your code */ })(); And then your code is all inside your anonymous function and you haven't touched the global namespace at all. Do you think I could make one file containing: (function() { /* Full Code of the Prototype file here */ /* All my code that will run in the "other" site */ InitializeStuff_CreateDOMElements_AttachEventHandlers(); })(); Would that work? Would it accomplish the objective of not cluttering the global namespace, and not killing the functionality on a site that uses jQuery, for example? Or is Prototype too complex somehow to isolate it like that? (NOTE: I think I know that that would create closures everywhere and that's slower, but I don't care too much about performance, my code is not doing anything that complex)

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