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  • SurfaceView for Camera Preview won't get destroyed when pressing Power-Botton

    - by for3st
    I want to implement a camera preview. For that I have a custom View CameraView extends ViewGroup that in the constructor programatically creates an surfaceView. I have the following components (higly simplified for beverity): ScannerFragment.java public View onCreateView(..) { //inflate view and get cameraView } public void onResume() { //open camera -> set rotation -> startPreview (in a thread) -> //set preview callback -> start decoding worker } public void onPause() { // stop decoding worker -> stop Preview -> release camera } CameraView.java extends ViewGroup public void setUpCalledInConstructor(Context context) { //create a surfaceview and add it to this viewgroup -> //get SurfaceHolder and set callback } /* SurfaceHolder.Callback */ public void surfaceCreated(SurfaceHolder holder) { camera.setPreviewDisplay(holder); } public void surfaceDestroyed(SurfaceHolder holder) { //NOTHING is done here } public void surfaceChanged(SurfaceHolder holder, int format, int w, int h) { camera.getParameters().setPreviewSize(previewSize.width, previewSize.height); } fragment_scanner.xml <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:tools="http://schemas.android.com/tools" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent"> <com.myapp.camera.CameraView android:id="@+id/cameraPreview" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent"/> </RelativeLayout> I think I have set the lifecycle correct (getting resources onResume(), releasing it onPause() roughly said) and the following works just fine: pressing home and returning pressing Taskswitcher and returning rotation But one thing doesn't work and that is when I press the power-button on the device and then return to the camera-preview. The result is: the preview is stuck with the image that was last captured before button was pressed. If I rotate it works fine again, since it will get through the lifecycle. After some research I found out that this is probably due to the fact that surfaceView won't get destroyed when the power-button is pressed, i.e. SurfaceHolder.Callback.surfaceDestroyed(SurfaceHolder holder) won't be called. And in fact when I compare the (very verbose) log output of the home-button-case and the power-button-case it's the same except that 'surfaceDestroyed' won't get called. So far I found no solution whatsoever to work around it. I purposely avoid any resource cleaning code in my surfaceDestroyed(), but this does not help. My idea was to manually destroy the surfaceView like asked in this question but this seems not possible. I also tested other applications with surfaceViews/cameras and they don't seem to have this issue. So I would appreciate any hints or tips on that.

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  • How to communicate between Client and Server in a Client-Server Application?

    - by Sanoj
    I would like to implement an Client-Server Application, where the business-logic, security validations and a database are at the server and the user interface are at the client. I would like to implement clients in different languages i.e. one in WPF/.NET, one Swing/Java , one in Android/Java and maybe one HTML/JavaScript client. The server will be on Internet, so I would like to be able to have encrypted communication. The client will send some lists of items to be added to the database, or update items, and do some transactions. The server will check if the items are already updated by another client, or update the item, add new items or delete items. How do I solve the communication between clients and the server in such a system? I have been thinking about: http/https webserver, and sending messages in JSON or XML and use Web Sockets for bi-directional communication. Use http in a RESTful way, except when WebSockets are needed. But I guess there are better solutions for native desktop applications than http? CORBA - I have just heard about it, and it's old and complex. Not much talk about it these days. XMPP/Jabber - I have just heard about it and I don't know if it fits me at all. EJabberd seams to be a popular implementation. AMQP - I have just heard about it and I don't know if it fits me at all. RabbitMQ seams to be a popular implementation. Windows Communication Foundation, Java RMI, Java Message Service - but are they language independent? I guess some of these alternatives are on different levels, maybe I can have i.e xmpp or amqp in web sockets over https? What technologys are used for this problem in companies today? and what is recommended to use? I have no experience of them other than webservers and http. Please give me some guidance in this jungle. What are the pros and cons of these technologies in my situation?

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  • Java WebStart: <property ...> ignored when using <extension>?

    - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen
    I have a problem modernizing a Java WebStart application under Java 6 u 13 (the latest at this moment) We desire to use the new mechanism to have several master configuration files each with their own configuration , which then "include" another jnlp file which is autogenerated to ensure that the jar list is accurate. After quite a bit of poking I have made it work, except for the fact that the properties defined in the master file is not available to the program when Main is invoked. The master JNLP looks like (anonymized): <jnlp> <information> <title>...</title> <vendor>...</vendor> <description>...</description> <description kind="short">...</description> <homepage href="http://....jnlp"/> <icon href="http://....gif"/> <!-- <offline-allowed/> --> </information> <security> <all-permissions/> </security> <resources> <j2se version="1.6+"/> <extension href="http://...extension.jnlp" /> <property name="server.name" value="SERVER"/> </resources> <application-desc main-class="Main"/> </jnlp> and the extension.jnlp looks like: <!-- Generated automatically. Do not edit! --> <jnlp> <information> <title>extension built 2009-04-22 12:39:58 CEST</title> <vendor>...</vendor> </information> <security><all-permissions/></security> <resources> <jar href="A.jar" /> <jar href="B.jar" /> <jar href="logback-classic-0.9.14.jar" /> <jar href="logback-core-0.9.14.jar" /> <jar href="slf4j-api-1.5.6.jar" /> </resources> <component-desc /> </jnlp> I have tried putting the proprty in the extension.jnlp too. Did not help. The JVM is reused and not relaunched according to the log in the Java Plugin Console. Any suggestions?

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  • a question about rails general practice with REST, json, and ajax

    - by Nik
    Hi all, I have this question concerning REST I think: I have read a few rest tutorials and the feeling I get from them is that each action in a restful controller tends to be lean and almost single purpose: "Index gives off a collection of a model show gives off one model edit/new a prep place for changing/create a model update/create changes and makes new model deletes removes one model" After reading all these tutorials, rest seems to be to be a means to create an interface for a model, much like active resource type of thing. the mantra seems to be "controller provides data and data only and is also pretty convention over configuration, so expect projects_path to return a bunch of projects" I can understand that, and I like the cleanliness. But here's when I run into some trouble in reality in applying these guidelines: say three models, Project with attrib title, User with attrib name, and Location with attrib address. Say in views/users/index.html.erb, I want to use Ajax to fetch and display a project in a div#project_display when the user clicks on a project element, I know that I can use views/projects/show.js.rjs like this: page.replace_html 'project_display' "#{@project.name}" where in the projects_controller.rb def show @project = Project.find(params[:id]) repsond_to do |format| format.js and other formats... end end I have no problem in doing that for a couple of years now. BUT doesn't that mean that my JS response for the project#show action is LOCkED to present data to div#project_display element and show only whatever I that rjs template says it should show? That's very limiting and doesn't sound very "interface" like. I have never used JSON before or much XML, so I thought, maybe the JS response should send back raw stuff, like JSON and somehow the page on which the ajax request was called has the instruction on what do to with these raw data. That sounds a lot more flexible, doesn't it? Because look back at that exmpale, what if in the views/locations/index.html.erb, I want to do the exact same thing except I want to put the response in div#project_goes_here and the response should be #{project.name} I know this is a trivial change but that's the point: the RJS only allows one template at a time. So I think the JSON route is the way to go, but how does the already loaded page, the one that the ajax call came from, know when or how to "look forward" to incoming data? I read that PrototypeJS has this template thing, I wouldn't mind using it with JSON, but if you can demonstrate this or other means for displaying received-from-ajax data, I am all attention. Thank You

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  • How to catch 'exceptions' for out of order execution in Workflow Foundation 4?

    - by Alex Key
    Hi, I am attempting to model a worklfow using a "WCF Workflow Service" in .net / vs 2010 that needs to handle out of order execution gracefully (but not allow it - if thath makes sense!?) For example I have 2 receive activities one called Initialize and the other called GetValue inside a FlowChart. In most cases Initialize should be called first and GetValue after (as modled in the flow chart). However if GetValue is executed before Initialize I do not want to return an "out of order" exception (although when I look at the WCF test client, I can't actually see an exception). But instead a custom exception saying something like "you must initialize first". In theory I could model this with lots of parallel activities and conditions to check if Initialized / Running / Terminated etc. But the business process I am modelling if very very similar to a state machine... except it must handle people executing things in the wrong order. Ideally I would like to catch the "out of order" exception (thought I don't think it's really an exception as such), check the 'exception' to see which function was attempted to run and then handle it. I have done some research around enabling AllowBufferedReceive. However I don't want to be able to execute out of order (I don't think), but instead give a detailed response if it does happen. I've looked at the new beta state machine template for WF 4 - but i'm not sure if it does what i'm after? I'm not sure if I have the wrong end of the stick, so any help would be greatly appreciated. [EDIT] To help clarify... Sorry it's a tricky one to explain. The standard I am trying to implement (the e-learning standard SCORM RTE) is structured like a state machine i.e. certain functions can only be executed in certain states. However the standard specifies that if the calling clients tries to execute a function that it is not meant to, then a warning should be issued... for example "you cannot use GetValue(), because you have not yet Initialized". Ideally I'd like to structure the workflow as the theoretical state machine and not need to have to use multiple if/else's to handle all the scenarios where something could be executed out-of-order. I'd like to catch a out-of-order exception (but I don't think there is such an exception - as it's not in the debugger) and rethrow it.

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  • XSLT Stylesheet works with a vbs script, but not Perl

    - by user2472274
    I have a program that is essentially a search application, and it exists in both VBScript and Perl form (I'm trying to make an executable with a GUI). Currently the search application outputs an HTML file, and if a section of text in the HTML is longer than twelve lines then it hides anything after that and includes a clickable More... tag. This is done in XSLT and works with VBScript. I literally copied and pasted the stylesheet into the Perl program that I'm using and it does everything right except for the More... tag. Is there any reason why it would be working with the VBScript but not Perl? I'm using XML::LibXSLT in the Perl script, and here is the template that is supposed to be creating the More... tag <xsl:template name="more"> <xsl:param name="text"/> <xsl:param name="row-id"/> <xsl:param name="cycle" select="1"/> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="($cycle &gt; 12) and contains($text,'&#13;')"> <span class="show" onclick="showID('SHOW{$row-id}');style.display = 'none';">More...</span> <span class="hidden" id="SHOW{$row-id}"> <xsl:call-template name="highlight"> <xsl:with-param name="text" select="$text"/> </xsl:call-template> </span> </xsl:when> <xsl:when test="contains($text,'&#13;')"> <xsl:call-template name="highlight"> <xsl:with-param name="text" select="substring-before($text,'&#13;')"/> </xsl:call-template> <xsl:text>&#13;</xsl:text> <xsl:call-template name="more"> <xsl:with-param name="text" select="substring-after($text,'&#13;')"/> <xsl:with-param name="row-id" select="$row-id"/> <xsl:with-param name="cycle" select="$cycle + 1"/> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:call-template name="highlight"> <xsl:with-param name="text" select="$text"/> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </xsl:template>

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  • RenderTargetBitmap + Resource'd VisualBrush = incomplete image

    - by Will
    I've found a new twist on the "Visual to RenderTargetBitmap" question! I'm rendering previews of WPF stuff for a designer. That means I need to take a WPF visual and render it to a bitmap without that visual ever being displayed. Got a nice little method to do it like to see it here it goes private static BitmapSource CreateBitmapSource(FrameworkElement visual) { Border b = new Border { Width = visual.Width, Height = visual.Height }; b.BorderBrush = Brushes.Black; b.BorderThickness = new Thickness(1); b.Background = Brushes.White; b.Child = visual; b.Measure(new Size(b.Width, b.Height)); b.Arrange(new Rect(b.DesiredSize)); RenderTargetBitmap rtb = new RenderTargetBitmap( (int)b.ActualWidth, (int)b.ActualHeight, 96, 96, PixelFormats.Pbgra32); // intermediate step here to ensure any VisualBrushes are rendered properly DrawingVisual dv = new DrawingVisual(); using (var dc = dv.RenderOpen()) { var vb = new VisualBrush(b); dc.DrawRectangle(vb, null, new Rect(new Point(), b.DesiredSize)); } rtb.Render(dv); return rtb; } Works fine, except for one leeetle thing... if my FrameworkElement has a VisualBrush, that brush doesn't end up in the final rendered bitmap. Something like this: <UserControl.Resources> <VisualBrush x:Key="LOLgo"> <VisualBrush.Visual> <!-- blah blah --> <Grid Background="{StaticResource LOLgo}"> <!-- yadda yadda --> Everything else renders to the bitmap, but that VisualBrush just won't show. The obvious google solutions have been attempted and have failed. Even the ones that specifically mention VisualBrushes missing from RTB'd bitmaps. I have a sneaky suspicion this might be caused by the fact that its a Resource, and that lazy resource isn't being inlined. So a possible fix would be to, somehow(???), force resolution of all static resource references before rendering. But I have absolutely no idea how to do that. Anybody have a fix for this?

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  • itextsharp PdfCopy and landscape pages

    - by Andreas Rehm
    I'm using itextsharp to join mutiple pdf documents and add a footer. My code works fine - except for landscape pages - it isn't detecting the page rotation - the footer is not centerd for landscape: public static int AddPagesFromStream(Document document, PdfCopy pdfCopy, Stream m, bool addFooter, int detailPages, string footer, int footerPageNumOffset, int numPages, string pageLangString, string printLangString) { CreateFont(); try { m.Seek(0, SeekOrigin.Begin); var reader = new PdfReader(m); // get page count var pdfPages = reader.NumberOfPages; var i = 0; // add pages while (i < pdfPages) { i++; // import page with pdfcopy var page = pdfCopy.GetImportedPage(reader, i); // get page center float posX; float posY; var rotation = page.BoundingBox.Rotation; if (rotation == 0 || rotation == 180) { posX = page.Width / 2; posY = 0; } else { posX = page.Height / 2; posY = 20f; } var ps = pdfCopy.CreatePageStamp(page); var cb = ps.GetOverContent(); // add footer cb.SetColorFill(BaseColor.WHITE); var gs1 = new PdfGState {FillOpacity = 0.8f}; cb.SetGState(gs1); cb.Rectangle(0, 0, document.PageSize.Width, 46f + posY); cb.Fill(); // Text cb.SetColorFill(BaseColor.BLACK); cb.SetFontAndSize(baseFont, 7); cb.BeginText(); // create text var pages = string.Format(pageLangString, i + footerPageNumOffset, numPages); cb.ShowTextAligned(PdfContentByte.ALIGN_CENTER, printLangString, posX, 40f + posY, 0f); cb.ShowTextAligned(PdfContentByte.ALIGN_CENTER, footer, posX, 28f + posY, 0f); cb.ShowTextAligned(PdfContentByte.ALIGN_CENTER, pages, posX, 20f + posY, 0f); cb.EndText(); ps.AlterContents(); // add page to new pdf pdfCopy.AddPage(page); } // close PdfReader reader.Close(); // return number of pages return i; } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e); return 0; } } How do I detect the page rotation (e.g. landscape) format in this case? The given example works for PdfReader but not for PdfCopy. Edit: Why do I need PdfCopy? I tried copying a word pdf export. Some word hyperlinks will not work when you try to copy pages with PdfReader. Only PdfCopy transfers all needed page informations. Edit: (SOLVED) You need to use reader.GetPageRotation(i);

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  • Retrieve names of running processes

    - by Dave DeLong
    Hi everyone, First off, I know that similar questions have been asked, but the answers provided haven't been very helpful so far (they all recommend one of the following options). I have a user application that needs to determine if a particular process is running. Here's what I know about the process: The name The user (root) It should already be running, since it's a LaunchDaemon, which means Its parent process should be launchd (pid 1) I've tried several ways to get this, but none have worked so far. Here's what I've tried: Running ps and parsing the output. This works, but it's slow (fork/exec is expensive), and I'd like this to be as fast as possible. Using the GetBSDProcessList function listed here. This also works, but the way in which they say to retrieve the process name (accessing kp_proc.p_comm from each kinfo_proc structure) is flawed. The resulting char* only contains the first 16 characters of the process name, which can be seen in the definition of the kp_proc structure: #define MAXCOMLEN 16 //defined in param.h struct extern_proc { //defined in proc.h ...snip... char p_comm[MAXCOMLEN+1]; ...snip... }; Using libProc.h to retrieve process information: pid_t pids[1024]; int numberOfProcesses = proc_listpids(PROC_ALL_PIDS, 0, NULL, 0); proc_listpids(PROC_ALL_PIDS, 0, pids, sizeof(pids)); for (int i = 0; i < numberOfProcesses; ++i) { if (pids[i] == 0) { continue; } char name[1024]; proc_name(pids[i], name, sizeof(name)); printf("Found process: %s\n", name); } This works, except it has the same flaw as GetBSDProcessList. Only the first portion of the process name is returned. Using the ProcessManager function in Carbon: ProcessSerialNumber psn; psn.lowLongOfPSN = kNoProcess; psn.highLongOfPSN = 0; while (GetNextProcess(&psn) == noErr) { CFStringRef procName = NULL; if (CopyProcessName(&psn, &procName) == noErr) { NSLog(@"Found process: %@", (NSString *)procName); } CFRelease(procName); } This does not work. It only returns process that are registered with the WindowServer (or something like that). In other words, it only returns apps with UIs, and only for the current user. I can't use -[NSWorkspace launchedApplications], since this must be 10.5-compatible. In addition, this only returns information about applications that appear in the Dock for the current user. I know that it's possible to retrieve the name of running processes (since ps can do it), but the question is "Can I do it without forking and exec'ing ps?". Any suggestions?

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  • LINQ Query Returning Multiple Copies Of First Result

    - by Mike G
    I'm trying to figure out why a simple query in LINQ is returning odd results. I have a view defined in the database. It basically brings together several other tables and does some data munging. It really isn't anything special except for the fact that it deals with a large data set and can be a bit slow. I want to query this view based on a long. Two sample queries below show different queries to this view. var la = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).ToList(); var deDa = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).Select(p => new { p.AccountNumber, p.SecurityNumber, p.CUSIP }).ToList(); The first one should hand back a List. The second one will be a list of anonymous objects. When I do these queries in entities framework the first one will hand me back a list of results where they're all exactly the same. The second query will hand me back data where the account number is the one that I queried and the other values differ. This seems to do this on a per account number basis, ie if I were to query for one account number or another all the Position objects for one account would have the same value (the first one in the list of Positions for that account) and the second account would have a set of Position objects that all had the same value (again, the first one in it's list of Position objects). I can write SQL that is in effect the same as either of the two EF queries. They both come back with results (say four) that show the correct data, one account number with different securities numbers. Why does this happen??? Is there something that I could be doing wrong so that if I had four results for the first query above that the first record's data also appears in the 2-4th's objects??? I cannot fathom what would/could be causing this. I've searched Google for all kinds of keywords and haven't seen anyone with this issue. We partial class out the Positions class for added functionality (smart object) and some smart properties. There are even some constructors that provide some view model type support. None of this is invoked in the request (I'm 99% sure of this). However, we do this same pattern all over the app. The only thing I can think of is that the mapping in the EDMX is screwy. Is there a way that this would happen if the "primary keys" in the EDMX were not in fact unique given the way the view is constructed? I'm thinking that the dev who imported this model into the EDMX let the designer auto select what would be unique. Any help would give a haggered dev some hope!

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  • Spring.NET & Immediacy CMS (or how to inject to server side controls without using PageHandlerFactor

    - by Simon Rice
    Is there any way to inject dependencies into an Immediacy CMS control using Spring.NET, ideally without having to use to ContextRegistry when initialising the control? Update, with my own answer The issue here is that Immediacy already has a handler defined in web.config that deals with all aspx pages, & so it's not possible add an entry for Spring.NET's PageHandlerFactory in web.config as per a normal webforms app. That rules out making the control implement ISupportsWebDependencyInjection. Furthermore, most of Immediacy's generated pages are aspx pages that don't physically exist on the drive. I have changed the title of the question to reflect this. What I have done to get Dependency Injection working is: Add the usual entries to web.config for Spring.NET as outlined in the documentation, except for the adding the entry to the <httpHandlers> section. In this case I've got my object definitions in Spring.config. Create the following abstract base class that will deal with all of the Dependency Injection work: DIControl.cs public abstract class DIControl : ImmediacyControl { protected virtual string DIName { get { return this.GetType().Name; } } protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { if (ContextRegistry.GetContext().GetObject(DIName, this.GetType()) != null) ContextRegistry.GetContext().ConfigureObject(this, DIName); base.OnInit(e); } } For non-immediacy controls, you can make this server side control inherit from Control or whatever subclass of that you like. For any control with which you wish to use with Spring.NET's Inversion of Control container, define it to inherit from DIControl & add the relelvant entry to Spring.config, for example: SampleControl.cs public class SampleControl : DIControl, INamingContainer { public string Text { get; set; } protected string InjectedText { get; set; } public SampleControl() : base() { Text = "Hello world"; } protected override void RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter output) { output.Write(string.Format("{0} {1}", Text, InjectedText)); } } Spring.config <objects xmlns="http://www.springframework.net"> <object id="SampleControl" type="MyProject.SampleControl, MyAssembly"> <property name="InjectedText" value="from Spring.NET" /> </object> </objects> You can optionally override DIName if you wish to name your entry in Spring.config differently from the name of your class. Provided everything's done correctly, you will have the control writing out "Hello world from Spring.NET!" when used in a page. This solution uses Spring.NET's ContextRegistry from within the control, but I would be surprised if there's no way around that for Immediacy at least since the page objects themselves aren't accessible. However, can this be improved at all from a Spring.NET perspective? Is there maybe an Immediacy plugin that already does this that I'm completely unaware of? Or is there an approach that does this in a more elegant way? I'm open to suggestions.

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  • generated service mock: everything but RhinoMocks fails?

    - by hko
    I have the "quest" to search for the next Mocking Framework for my company, and basically it's down to NSubstitute (simplest syntax, but no strict mocks), FakeItEasy(best reviews, Roy Osherove bonus, and slightly better lib support than NSubstitute), Moq (best "other libs support", biggest featureset, downside: mock.Object). We definitely want to move on from RhinoMocks, e.g. because of the unusefull interactiontest error messages (it should tell me what the parameter was instead, when a verification fails). So I was pretty surprised the other day (that was yesterday) when I found out RhinoMocks could do a thing where every other mock framework fails at: Mocking an autogenerated SomethingService (a typical VS autogenerated service with a default construtor in a partial class). Please don't argue about the design.. I intend to write lightweight integration tests (and some unit tests), and I can't mess around with the service, the product is installed on too many customers system. See this code: // here the NSubstitute and FakeItEasy equivalents throw an exception.. see below TicketStoreService fakeTicketStoreService = MockRepository.GenerateMock<TicketStoreService>(); fakeTicketStoreService.Expect(service => service.DoSomething(Arg.Is(new Guid())).Return(new Guid()); fakeTicketStoreService.DoSomething(Arg.Is(new Guid())); fakeTicketStoreService.VerifyAllExpectations(); Note that DoSomething is a non-virtual methodcall in an autogenerated class. So it shouldn't work, according to common knowledge. But it does. Problem is that it's the only (non commercial) framework that can do this: Rhino.Mocks works, and verification works too FakeItEasy says it doesn't find a default constructor (probably just wrong exception message): No default constructor was found on the type SomeNamespace.TicketStoreService Moq gives something sane and understandable: Invalid setup on a non-virtual (overridable in VB) member: service=> service.DoSomething Nsubstitute gives a message System.NotSupportedException: Cannot serialize member System.ComponentModel.Component.Site of type System.ComponentModel.ISite because it is an interface. I'm really wondering what's going on here with the frameworks, except Moq. The "fancy new" frameworks seem to have an initial perf hit too, probably preparing some Type cache and serializing stuff, whilst RhinoMocks somehow manages to create a very "slim" mock without recursion. I have to admit I didn't like RhinoMocks very well, but here it shines.. unfortunately. So, is there a way to get that to work with newer (non-commercial!) mocking frameworks, or somehow get a sane error message out of Rhino.Mocks? And why can Rhino.Mocks achieve this, when clearly every Mocking framework states it can only work with virtual methods when given a concrete class? Let's not derail the discussion by talking about alternative approaches like Extract&Override or runtime-proxy Mocking frameworks like JustMock/TypeMock/Moles or the new Fakes framework, I know these, but that would be less ideal solutions, for reasons beyond this topic. Any help appreciated..

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  • iPhone App is leaking memory; Instruments and Clang cannot find the leak

    - by Norbert
    Hi, i've developed an iPhone program which is kind of an image manipulation program: The user get an UIImagePickerController and selects an image. Then the program does some heavy calculating in a new thread (for responsiveness of the application). The thread has, of course, its own autorelease pool. When calculation is done, the seperated thread signals the main thread that the result can be presented. The app creates a new view controller, pushes it onto the navigation controller. In short: UIImagePickerController new thread (autorelease pool) does some heavy calculation with image data signal to main thread that it's done main thread creates view controller and pushes it onto navigation controller view controller presents image result My program works well, but if I dismiss the navigation controller's top view controller by tapping on the back button and repeat the whole process several times, my app crashes. But only on the device! Instruments cannot find any leaks (except for some minor ones which I don't feel responsible for: thread creation, NSCFString; overall about 10 kB). Even Clang static analyzer tells me that my could seems to be all right. I know that the UIImage class can cache images and objects returned from convenience methods get freed only whet their autorelease pool gets drained. But most of the time I work with CGImageRef and I use UIImage' alloc, init & release methods to free memory as soon as possible. Currently, I don't know how to isolate the problem. How would you approach this problem? Crash Log: Incident Identifier: F4C202C9-1338-48FC-80AD-46248E6C7154 CrashReporter Key: bb6f526d8b9bb680f25ea8e93bb071566ccf1776 OS Version: iPhone OS 3.1.1 (7C145) Date: 2009-09-26 14:18:57 +0200 Free pages: 372 Wired pages: 7754 Purgeable pages: 0 Largest process: _MY_APP_ Processes Name UUID Count resident pages _MY_APP_ <032690e5a9b396058418d183480a9ab3> 17766 (jettisoned) (active) debugserver <ec29691560aa0e2994f82f822181bffd> 107 syslog_relay <21e13fa2b777218bdb93982e23fb65d3> 62 notification_pro <8a7725017106a28b545fd13ed58bf98c> 64 notification_pro <8a7725017106a28b545fd13ed58bf98c> 64 afcd <98b45027fbb1350977bf1ca313dee527> 65 mediaserverd <eb8fe997a752407bea573cd3adf568d3> 319 ptpd <b17af9cf6c4ad16a557d6377378e8a1e> 142 syslogd <ec8a5bc4483638539fa1266363dee8b8> 68 BTServer <1bb74831f93b1d07c48fb46cc31c15da> 119 apsd <a639ba83e666cc1d539223923ce59581> 165 notifyd <2ed3a1166da84d8d8868e64d549cae9d> 101 CommCenter <f4239480a623fb1c35fa6c725f75b166> 161 SpringBoard <8919df8091fdfab94d9ae05f513c0ce5> 2681 (active) accessoryd <b66bcf6e77c3ee740c6a017f54226200> 90 configd <41e9d763e71dc0eda19b0afec1daee1d> 275 fairplayd <cdce5393153c3d69d23c05de1d492bd4> 108 mDNSResponder <f3ef7a6b24d4f203ed147f476385ec53> 103 lockdownd <6543492543ad16ff0707a46e512944ff> 297 launchd <73ce695fee09fc37dd70b1378af1c818> 71 **End**

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  • Repeating fields in similar database tables

    - by user1738833
    I have been tasked with working on a database that I have never seen before and I'm looking at the DB structure. Some of the central and most heavily queried and joined tables look like virtual duplicates of each other. Here's a massively simplified representation of the situation, with business-sensitive information changed, listing hypothetical table names and fields: TopLevelGroup: PK_TLGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK SubGroup: PK_SubGroupId, FK_ParentTopLevelGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK SubSubGroup: PK_SubSUbGroupId, FK_ParentSubGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK I haven't listed the types of the fields as I don't think it's particularly important to the situation. In addition, it's worth saying that rather than four repeated fields as in the example above, I'm looking at 86 repeated fields. For the most part, those fields genuinely do represent "facts" about the primary table entity, so it's not automatically wrong for that reason. In addition, the "groups" represented here have a property inheritance relationship. If DisplaysXOnBill is NULL in the SubSubGroup, it takes the value of DisplaysXOnBillfrom it's parent, the SubGroup, and so-on up to the TopLevelGroup. Further, the requirements will never require that the model extends beyond three levels, so there is no need for flexibility in that area. Is there a design smell from several tables which describe very similar entities having almost identical fields? If so, what might be a better design of the example above? I'm using the phrase "design smell" to indicate a possible problem. Of course, in any given situation, a particular design might well be the best solution. I'm looking for a more general answer - wondering what might be wrong with this design and what might be the better design were that the case. Possibly related, but not primary questions: Is this database schema in a reasonably normal form (e.g. to 3NF), insofar as can be told from the information I've provided. I can't see a problem with the requirements of 2NF and 3NF, except in their inheriting the requirements of 1NF. Is 1NF satisfied though? Are repeating groups allowed in different tables? Is there a best-practice method for implementing the inheritance relationship in a database as I require? The method above feels clunky to me because any query on the SubSubGroup necessarily needs to join onto the SubGroup and the TopLevelGroup tables to collect inherited facts, which can make even trivial joins requiring facts from the SubSubGroup table rather long-winded. There are, of course, political considerations to making a relatively large change like this. For the purpose of this question, I'm happy to ignore that fact in the interests of keeping the answers ring-fenced to the technical problem.

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  • Perl: Edit hyperlinks in nested tags that aren't on separate lines

    - by user305801
    I have an interesting problem. I wrote the following perl script to recursively loop through a directory and in all html files for img/script/a tags do the following: Convert the entire url to lowercase Replace spaces and %20 with underscores The script works great except when an image tag in wrapped with an anchor tag. Is there a way to modify the current script to also be able to manipulate the links for nested tags that are not on separate lines? Basically if I have <a href="..."><img src="..."></a> the script will only change the link in the anchor tag but skip the img tag. #!/usr/bin/perl use File::Find; $input="/var/www/tecnew/"; sub process { if (-T and m/.+\.(htm|html)/i) { #print "htm/html: $_\n"; open(FILE,"+<$_") or die "couldn't open file $!\n"; $out = ''; while(<FILE>) { $cur_line = $_; if($cur_line =~ m/<a.*>/i) { print "cur_line (unaltered) $cur_line\n"; $cur_line =~ /(^.* href=\")(.+?)(\".*$)/i; $beg = $1; $link = html_clean($2); $end = $3; $cur_line = $beg.$link.$end; print "cur_line (altered) $cur_line\n"; } if($cur_line =~ m/(<img.*>|<script.*>)/i) { print "cur_line (unaltered) $cur_line\n"; $cur_line =~ /(^.* src=\")(.+?)(\".*$)/i; $beg = $1; $link = html_clean($2); $end = $3; $cur_line = $beg.$link.$end; print "cur_line (altered) $cur_line\n"; } $out .= $cur_line; } seek(FILE, 0, 0) or die "can't seek to start of file: $!"; print FILE $out or die "can't print to file: $1"; truncate(FILE, tell(FILE)) or die "can't truncate file: $!"; close(FILE) or die "can't close file: $!"; } } find(\&process, $input); sub html_clean { my($input_string) = @_; $input_string = lc($input_string); $input_string =~ s/%20|\s/_/g; return $input_string; }

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  • Flash Buttons Don't Work: TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null objec

    - by goldenfeelings
    I've read through several threads about this error, but haven't been able to apply it to figure out my situation... My flash file is an approx 5 second animation. Then, the last keyframe of each layer (frame #133) has a button in it. My flash file should stop on this last key frame, and you should be able to click on any of the 6 buttons to navigate to another html page in my website. Here is the Action Script that I have applied to the frame in which the buttons exist (on a separate layer, see screenshot at: http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/wp-content/themes/Footprints/images/flash_buttonissue.jpg stop (); function babieschildren(event:MouseEvent):void { trace("babies children method was called!!!"); var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/babies-children"); navigateToURL(targetURL, "_self"); } bc_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, babieschildren); bc_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, babieschildren); function fams(event:MouseEvent):void { trace("families method was called!!!"); var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/families"); navigateToURL(targetURL, "_self"); } f_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, fams); f_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, fams); function couplesweddings(event:MouseEvent):void { trace("couples weddings method was called!!!"); var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/couples-weddings"); navigateToURL(targetURL, "_self"); } cw_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, couplesweddings); cw_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, couplesweddings); When I test the movie, I get this error in the output box: "TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference." The test movie does stop on the appropriate frame, but the buttons don't do anything (no URL is opened, and the trace statements don't show up in the output box when the buttons are clicked on the test movie). You can view the .swf file here: www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio I'm confident that all 6 buttons do exist in the appropriate frame (frame 133), so I don't think that's what's causing the 1009 error. I also tried deleting each of the three function/addEventListener sections one at a time and testing, and I still got the 1009 error every time. If I delete ALL of the action script except for the "stop ()" line, then I do NOT get the 1009 error. Any ideas?? I'm very new to Flash, so if I haven't clarified something that I need to, let me know!

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  • bundler/capistrano is not installing gems with correct ruby version

    - by Douglas
    I'm trying to deploy my first app on a server with Capistrano, and I'm a bit lost with managing gemsets and ruby version. These are my (server and workstation) versions : Rails 3.2.8 RVM 1.16.17 Gem 1.8.24 Bundler 1.2.1 pg gem 0.14.1 My gemset are : Gemsets for ruby-1.9.3-p194 (found in /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194) (default) global = rail3dev20120606 I set the default gemset with : rvm use 1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606 --default --passenger When I run a : cap bundle:install The task end with success, but when I do a : gem list There are many missing gems though they are present in my Gemfile. When I go to check my gems in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/ I find a folder called 1.9.1 and in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/gems/ I can fond all of my needed gems (specified in Gemfile). I'm sure there is a problem with ruby version, but how do I solve this ? At the moment, if I do any rake command, I got a ruby crash [Bug] Segmentation fault, as it try to access the db and using postgresql_adapter. I think as many gems are missing there must have some gem dependencies not verified, and maybe a gem is using an incompatible ruby version 1.9.1 though it expect a 1.9.3. I think the issue is around managing ruby versions and gems. I'm certainly doing some mix with gemset and my capistrano deployement. I'm missing experience and info. Could anybody advise me how to handle this on the server ? What are the best practices ? How am I suppose to update my ruby version ? with Capistrano deploy.rb ? manually ? with/without rvm ? I saw a new version of ruby 1.9.3-p327 has just released. Should I use gemset or not ? What about the :rvm_ruby_string in my deploy.rb. Is it correctly spelled or should I remove the p194 part ? Should I Remove the :rvm_ruby_string ? Keep it ? Use a .rvmrc file ??? I'm really lost and some kind help would be welcome. This is my config/deploy.rb in any case : require 'bundler/capistrano' require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'deploy') + '/capistrano_database' set :rvm_type, :system set :rvm_ruby_string, 'ruby-1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606' require 'rvm/capistrano' set :application, 'opf' set :deploy_to, '/var/www/opf' set :rails_env, 'production' set :user, 'the_user' set :use_sudo, false set :group_writable, false set :scm, :git set :repository, '[email protected]:user/opf.git' set :branch, 'master' default_run_options[:pty] = true set :deploy_via, :remote_cache server '192.168.5.200', :web, :app, :db, :primary => true # If you are using Passenger mod_rails uncomment this: namespace :deploy do task :start do ; end task :stop do ; end task :restart, :roles => :app, :except => { :no_release => true } do run "#{try_sudo} touch #{File.join(current_path,'tmp','restart.txt')}" end end Thanks for any help

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  • How to give default values for the sum, count if no data exist in mysql query which uses group by?

    - by Salil
    I am using following query which works fine for me except one problem SELECT f.period as month, sum(p.revenue * ((100-q.rate)/100)) as revenue ,count(distinct q.label) as tot_stmt FROM files f, reports p, rates q,albums a where f.period in ('2010-06-01','2010-05-01','2010-04-01','2010-03-01') and f.period_closed = true and q.period = f.period and a.id = q.album_id and p.file_id = f.id and p.upc = a.upc and p.revenue is not null GROUP BY month ORDER BY month DESC O/P = month            revenue     tot_stmt 2010-06-01     10.00         2 2010-05-01     340.47       2 I want result like following month            revenue     tot_stmt 2010-06-01     10.00         2 2010-05-01     340.47       2 2010-04-01     0.00           0 2010-03-01     0.00           0 Regards, Salil Gaikwad

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  • Constructor versus setter injection

    - by Chris
    Hi, I'm currently designing an API where I wish to allow configuration via a variety of methods. One method is via an XML configuration schema and another method is through an API that I wish to play nicely with Spring. My XML schema parsing code was previously hidden and therefore the only concern was for it to work but now I wish to build a public API and I'm quite concerned about best-practice. It seems that many favor javabean type PoJo's with default zero parameter constructors and then setter injection. The problem I am trying to tackle is that some setter methods implementations are dependent on other setter methods being called before them in sequence. I could write anal setters that will tolerate themselves being called in many orders but that will not solve the problem of a user forgetting to set the appropriate setter and therefore the bean being in an incomplete state. The only solution I can think of is to forget about the objects being 'beans' and enforce the required parameters via constructor injection. An example of this is in the default setting of the id of a component based on the id of the parent components. My Interface public interface IMyIdentityInterface { public String getId(); /* A null value should create a unique meaningful default */ public void setId(String id); public IMyIdentityInterface getParent(); public void setParent(IMyIdentityInterface parent); } Base Implementation of interface: public abstract class MyIdentityBaseClass implements IMyIdentityInterface { private String _id; private IMyIdentityInterface _parent; public MyIdentityBaseClass () {} @Override public String getId() { return _id; } /** * If the id is null, then use the id of the parent component * appended with a lower-cased simple name of the current impl * class along with a counter suffix to enforce uniqueness */ @Override public void setId(String id) { if (id == null) { IMyIdentityInterface parent = getParent(); if (parent == null) { // this may be the top level component or it may be that // the user called setId() before setParent(..) } else { _id = Helpers.makeIdFromParent(parent,getClass()); } } else { _id = id; } } @Override public IMyIdentityInterface getParent() { return _parent; } @Override public void setParent(IMyIdentityInterface parent) { _parent = parent; } } Every component in the framework will have a parent except for the top level component. Using the setter type of injection, then the setters will have different behavior based on the order of the calling of the setters. In this case, would you agree, that a constructor taking a reference to the parent is better and dropping the parent setter method from the interface entirely? Is it considered bad practice if I wish to be able to configure these components using an IoC container? Chris

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  • Question about DBD::CSB Statement-Functions

    - by sid_com
    From the SQL::Statement::Functions documentation: Function syntax When using SQL::Statement/SQL::Parser directly to parse SQL, functions (either built-in or user-defined) may occur anywhere in a SQL statement that values, column names, table names, or predicates may occur. When using the modules through a DBD or in any other context in which the SQL is both parsed and executed, functions can occur in the same places except that they can not occur in the column selection clause of a SELECT statement that contains a FROM clause. # valid for both parsing and executing SELECT MyFunc(args); SELECT * FROM MyFunc(args); SELECT * FROM x WHERE MyFuncs(args); SELECT * FROM x WHERE y < MyFuncs(args); # valid only for parsing (won't work from a DBD) SELECT MyFunc(args) FROM x WHERE y; Reading this I would expect that the first SELECT-statement of my example shouldn't work and the second should but it is quite the contrary. #!/usr/bin/env perl use warnings; use strict; use 5.010; use DBI; open my $fh, '>', 'test.csv' or die $!; say $fh "id,name"; say $fh "1,Brown"; say $fh "2,Smith"; say $fh "7,Smith"; say $fh "8,Green"; close $fh; my $dbh = DBI->connect ( 'dbi:CSV:', undef, undef, { RaiseError => 1, f_ext => '.csv', }); my $table = 'test'; say "\nSELECT 1"; my $sth = $dbh->prepare ( "SELECT MAX( id ) FROM $table WHERE name LIKE 'Smith'" ); $sth->execute (); $sth->dump_results(); say "\nSELECT 2"; $sth = $dbh->prepare ( "SELECT * FROM $table WHERE id = MAX( id )" ); $sth->execute (); $sth->dump_results(); outputs: SELECT 1 '7' 1 rows SELECT 2 Unknown function 'MAX' at /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.10.0/SQL/Parser.pm line 2893. DBD::CSV::db prepare failed: Unknown function 'MAX' at /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.10.0/SQL/Parser.pm line 2894. [for Statement "SELECT * FROM test WHERE id = MAX( id )"] at ./so_3.pl line 30. DBD::CSV::db prepare failed: Unknown function 'MAX' at /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.10.0/SQL/Parser.pm line 2894. [for Statement "SELECT * FROM test WHERE id = MAX( id )"] at ./so_3.pl line 30. Could someone explaine me this behavior?

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  • AJAX response not valid in C++ but Apache

    - by fehergeri
    I want to make a server written in C++ to power my game. I learned the basics of sockets and wrote a basic chat program that worked well. Now I want to create an HTTP server like Apache, but only for the AJAX request-response part. I think just for the beginning i copied one Apache response text, and i sent the exact response with the C++ server program. The problem that is that the browser (Firefox) connnects to the apache and everything works fine, except all of the requests get a correct response. But if i send this with the C++ client, then FireBug tells me that the response status is OK (200) but there is no actual response text. (How is this possible?) This response-text is exactly the same what apache sends. I made a bit-bit comparison and they were the same. The php file wich is the original response <?php echo "AS";echo rand(0,9); ?> And the origional source code: Socket.h http://pastebin.com/bW9qxtrR Socket.cpp http://pastebin.com/S3c8RFM7 main.cpp http://pastebin.com/ckExuXsR index.html http://pastebin.com/mcfEEqPP < this is the requester file. ajax.js http://pastebin.com/uXJe9hVC benchmark.js http://pastebin.com/djSYtKg9 jQuery is not needed. The main.cpp there is lot of trash code like main3 and main4 functions, these do not affect the result. I know that the response stuff in the C++ code is not really good because the connection closing is not the best; I will fix that later now I want to send a success response first. UPDATE: now i tested today a lot again and i find out there is no problem with the socket. I used the fiddler program to capture the the good answer and to capture the bad. They were the same. After this i turned off my socket application, and forced fiddler to auto respond, and the answer from the 'bad' answer still bat. So after that i replaced the bad with the good and nothing happedned. The bad answer with the good text still bad on the :8888 port but the other on the original :80 port was good, but they were absolutly the same and the same program sended it (fiddler) i think there is something missing if the response is not on the same server address (even not the same port). UPDATE: oh my god! i cant send ajax request to a remote server. now i know this.

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  • What is the difference between NULL in C++ and null in Java?

    - by Stephano
    I've been trying to figure out why C++ is making me crazy typing NULL. Suddenly it hits me the other day; I've been typing null (lower case) in Java for years. Now suddenly I'm programming in C++ and that little chunk of muscle memory is making me crazy. Wikiperipatetic defines C++ NULL as part of the stddef: A macro that expands to a null pointer constant. It may be defined as ((void*)0), 0 or 0L depending on the compiler and the language. Sun's docs tells me this about Java's "null literal": The null type has one value, the null reference, represented by the literal null, which is formed from ASCII characters. A null literal is always of the null type. So this is all very nice. I know what a null pointer reference is, and thank you for the compiler notes. Now I'm a little fuzzy on the idea of a literal in Java so I read on... A literal is the source code representation of a fixed value; literals are represented directly in your code without requiring computation. There's also a special null literal that can be used as a value for any reference type. null may be assigned to any variable, except variables of primitive types. There's little you can do with a null value beyond testing for its presence. Therefore, null is often used in programs as a marker to indicate that some object is unavailable. Ok, so I think I get it now. In C++ NULL is a macro that, when compiled, defines the null pointer constant. In Java, null is a fixed value that any non-primitive can be assigned too; great for testing in a handy if statement. Java does not have pointers, so I can see why they kept null a simple value rather than anything fancy. But why did java decide to change the all caps NULL to null? Furthermore, am I missing anything here?

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  • Hide a base class method from derived class, but still visible outside of assembly

    - by clintp
    This is a question about tidyness. The project is already working, I'm satisfied with the design but I have a couple of loose ends that I'd like to tie up. My project has a plugin architecture. The main body of the program dispatches work to the plugins that each reside in their own AppDomain. The plugins are described with an interface, which is used by the main program (to get the signature for invoking DispatchTaskToPlugin) and by the plugins themselves as an API contract: namespace AppServer.Plugin.Common { public interface IAppServerPlugin { void Register(); void DispatchTaskToPlugin(Task t); // Other methods omitted } } In the main body of the program Register() is called so that the plugin can register its callback methods with the base class, and then later DispatchTaskToPlugin() is called to get the plugin running. The plugins themselves are in two parts. There's a base class that implements the framework for the plugin (setup, housekeeping, teardown, etc..). This is where DispatchTaskToPlugin is actually defined: namespace AppServer.Plugin { abstract public class BasePlugin : MarshalByRefObject, AppServer.Plugin.Common.IAppServerPlugin { public void DispatchTaskToPlugin(Task t) { // ... // Eventual call to actual plugin code // } // Other methods omitted } } The actual plugins themselves only need to implement a Register() method (to give the base class the delegates to call eventually) and then their business logic. namespace AppServer.Plugin { public class Plugin : BasePlugin { override public void Register() { // Calls a method in the base class to register itself. } // Various callback methods, business logic, etc... } } Now in the base class (BasePlugin) I've implemented all kinds of convenience methods, collected data, etc.. for the plugins to use. Everything's kosher except for that lingering method DispatchTaskToPlugin(). It's not supposed to be callable from the Plugin class implementations -- they have no use for it. It's only needed by the dispatcher in the main body of the program. How can I prevent the derived classes (Plugin) from seeing the method in the base class (BasePlugin/DispatchTaskToPlugin) but still have it visible from outside of the assembly? I can split hairs and have DispatchTaskToPlugin() throw an exception if it's called from the derived classes, but that's closing the barn door a little late. I'd like to keep it out of Intellisense or possibly have the compiler take care of this for me. Suggestions?

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  • Random strange behaviour on Google Maps v2

    - by fesja
    hi, I'm having a particular fight with Google Maps v2 on Chrome. The map is shown well on all browsers except Chrome, that without any particular reason, it does any of these things as you can see on the image: Moving the center to the south Showing the markers to the right, but if i move the map, they moved too to the next section of the map. Perfect I have the following javascript: if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); var bounds = new GLatLngBounds(); map.enableScrollWheelZoom(); map.addControl(new GSmallMapControl()); map.addControl(new GMapTypeControl()); map.removeMapType(G_HYBRID_MAP); var zoomout = 1; var pcenter_0 = new GLatLng(40.420300, -3.705770); var marker_0 = new GMarker(pcenter_0, {draggable: false}); map.addOverlay(marker_0); marker_0.bindInfoWindowHtml('info', {pixelOffset:new GSize(32,5), maxWidth:200} ); bounds.extend(marker_0.getPoint()); var pcenter_1 = new GLatLng(41.385719, 2.170050); var marker_1 = new GMarker(pcenter_1, {draggable: false}); map.addOverlay(marker_1); marker_1.bindInfoWindowHtml('', {pixelOffset:new GSize(32,5), maxWidth:200} ); bounds.extend(marker_1.getPoint()); var pcenter_2 = new GLatLng(48.856918, 2.341210); var marker_2 = new GMarker(pcenter_2, {draggable: false}); map.addOverlay(marker_2); marker_2.bindInfoWindowHtml('info', {pixelOffset:new GSize(32,5), maxWidth:200} ); bounds.extend(marker_2.getPoint()); var pcenter_3 = new GLatLng(37.779160, -122.420052); var marker_3 = new GMarker(pcenter_3, {draggable: false}); map.addOverlay(marker_3); marker_3.bindInfoWindowHtml('', {pixelOffset:new GSize(32,5), maxWidth:200} ); bounds.extend(marker_3.getPoint()); var pcenter_4 = new GLatLng(48.202541, 16.368799); var marker_4 = new GMarker(pcenter_4, {draggable: false}); map.addOverlay(marker_4); marker_4.bindInfoWindowHtml('', {pixelOffset:new GSize(32,5), maxWidth:200} ); bounds.extend(marker_4.getPoint()); zoomToBounds(zoomout); } function zoomToBounds(zoomout) { map.setCenter(bounds.getCenter()); var zoom = map.getBoundsZoomLevel(bounds)-zoomout; if(zoom < 1) zoom = 1; map.setZoom(zoom); map.checkResizeAndCenter(); } Do you have any idea or clue of what can be happening? It's very annoying to have this random javascript errors.. If you need more info, please ask! thanks! Update to add html code (before javascript) <div id="index_map"> <div id="map"></div> </div> I've aldo updated the markers code

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  • Distinct rand() sequences yielding the same results in an expression

    - by suszterpatt
    Ok, this is a really weird one. I have an MPI program, where each process has to generate random numbers in a fixed range (the range is read from file). What happens is that even though I seed each process with a different value, and the numbers generated by rand() are different in each process, the expression to generate the random numbers still yields the same sequence between them. Here's all relevant code: // 'rank' will be unique for each process int rank; MPI_Comm_rank(MPI_COMM_WORLD, &rank); // seed the RNG with a different value for each process srand(time(NULL) + rank); // print some random numbers to see if we get a unique sequence in each process // 'log' is a uniquely named file, each process has its own log << rand() << " " << rand() << " " << rand() << std::endl; // do boring deterministic stuff while (true) { // waitTimeMin and waitTimeMax are integers, Max is always greater than Min waitSecs = waitTimeMin + rand() % (waitTimeMax - waitTimeMin); log << "waiting " << waitSecs << " seconds" << std::endl; sleep(waitSecs); // do more boring deterministic stuff } Here's the output of each process, with 3 processes generating numbers in the range [1,9]. process 1: 15190 28284 3149 waiting 6 seconds waiting 8 seconds waiting 9 seconds waiting 4 seconds process 2: 286 6264 3153 waiting 6 seconds waiting 8 seconds waiting 9 seconds waiting 4 seconds process 3: 18151 17013 3156 waiting 6 seconds waiting 8 seconds waiting 9 seconds waiting 4 seconds So while rand() clearly generates different numbers, the expression to calculate waitSecs still evaluates to the same sequence on all processes. What's even weirder: if I run the program with the same parameteres again, only the first 3 random numbers will change, the rest of the "random" sequence will be exactly the same in each run! Changing the range of numbers will obviously produce a different result from this one, but the same parameters always yield the same sequence, between processes and between executions: except for the first 3 numbers. Just what the hell is going on here?

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