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  • WMI permissions: Select CommandLine, ProcessId FROM Win32_Process returns no data for CommandLine

    - by user57935
    I am gathering performance data via WMI and would like to avoid having to use an account in the Administrators group for this purpose. The target machine is running Windows Server 2003 with the latest SP/updates. I've done what I believe to be the appropriate configuration to allow our user access to WMI (similar to what is described here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa393266.aspx). Here are the specific steps that were followed: Open Administrative Tools - Computer Management: Under Computer Management (Local) Expand Services and Applications, right click WMI Control and select properties. In the Security tab, expand Root, highlight CIMV2, click Security (near bottom of window); add Performance Monitor Users and enable the options : Enable Account and Remote Enable. ­Open Administrative Tools - Component Services: Under Console Root go to Component Services- Computers - Right click My Computer and select properties, select the COM security tab, in “Access Permissions” click "Edit Default" select(or add then select) “Performance Monitor Users” group and allow local access and remote access and click ok. In “Launch and Activation Permissions” click “Edit Default” select(or add then select) “Performance Monitor Users” group and allow Local and Remote Launch and Activation Permissions. ­Open Administrative Tools - Component Services: Under Console Root go to Component Services- Computers - My Computer - DCOM Config - highlight “Windows Management and Instrumentation” right click and select properties, Select the Security tab, Under “Launch and Activation Permissions” select Customize, then click edit, add the “Performance Users Group” and allow local and remote Remote Launch and Remote Activation privileges. I am able to connect remotely via WMI Explorer but when I perform this query: Select CommandLine, ProcessId FROM Win32_Process I get a valid result but every row has an empty CommandLine. If I add the user to the Administrators group and re-run the query, the CommandLine column contains the expected data. It seems there is a permission I am missing somewhere but I am not having much luck tracking it down. Many thanks in advance.

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  • ASA DHCP Relay configuration..

    - by Jeff
    I have locations in different cities, connected using 2 Cisco ASA devices. my main location, corporate, use the IP 192.168.1.x The second location, remote store, use the IP 192.168.3.x I have a DHCP server (192.168.1.254) at my corporate location. I have created a scope for the 192.168.1.x which works fine for the corporate location. I created a scope for the remote location (192.168.3.x) on my DHCP server and tried to configure the remote ASA DCHP Relay, on the remote ASA: I disabled the DHCP Server on the inside. I enabled DHCP Relay on the inside, with set route set at yes. I set the Global DHCP Relay Servers, specify up to four servers to which DHCP requests would be relayed. I added my DHCP, 192.168.1.254 I flashed these settings to the ASA and gave it a try, didn't do anything. am i missing something - forgetting something. not really sure what im doing wrong. DHCP Settings on remote ASA: dhcp-client update dns server both dhcpd dns 192.168.1.254 dhcpd ping_timeout 750 dhcpd domain JEWELS.LOCAL dhcpd auto_config outside dhcpd update dns both ! dhcpd address 192.168.3.2-192.168.3.33 inside ! dhcprelay server 192.168.1.254 outside dhcprelay enable inside dhcprelay setroute inside on my local ASA: i have two ACLs for UDP ports 67 and 68 permitting any inbound traffic from the remote locations IP ... dhcprelay timeout 120

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  • DD-WRT PPTP VPN problem

    - by Tobias Tromm
    I try to configure a DD-WRT as a PPTP client. The VPN Server is Windows Server 2003. This is my scenario: The Windows 2003 Server has set to give to the VPN Client the 10.0.0.81 fixed IP and to add a network route to the remote home. At the remote home I have changed the PPTP Options at DD-WRT to make the connection. The VPN connection is successfully established. ...and Windows successfully add the route to the remote home 192.168.2.X. From the remote home I can successfully access any computer from the VPN server side. The problem is when I try to access the remote home from the Server side. From Server side I only can access\ping DD-WRT ( by VPN Client IP - 10.0.0.81). What's wrong? How I need to do to be a site-to-site VPN? This is what happen when I try to tracert the remote home from local home.

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  • How to set up a VPN Incoming connection with Windows to tunnel Internet traffic?

    - by Mehrdad
    I want to set up a VPN on a remote server to route all my Internet traffic for privacy reasons. I can set up an incoming connection and connect to it successfully. The problem is, I can just see the remote computer and no other Web sites will open. I want the remote server to act like a NAT. How can I do that? Note that I don't want to split Internet traffic. I actually want to send all the traffic to the remote server but need to make it relay the traffic. For the record, my remote server is Windows Web Server 2008 which does not have routing and remote access service. Clarification I'm mostly interested in server configuration. I don't have any problems configuring the client. By the way, Windows Web Server 2008 seems to have the same VPN features built in client OSes (like Vista) and specifically, it doesn't include the RRAS console in MMC. I'm also open to suggestions regarding third party PPTP/L2TP daemons available, if they are free.

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  • multiple ssh aliases is selecting wrong user when forwarding

    - by Chris Beck
    I'm following the dual identity procedure for bitbucket: I have 2 bitbucket accounts ccmcbeck and chrisbeck. The former is personal, the latter is work. On my local Mac, I have this in my ~/.ssh/config Host *.work.com User chris ForwardAgent yes IdentityFile ~/.ssh/work_dsa Host bitbucket-personal HostName bitbucket.org User ccmcbeck ForwardAgent no IdentityFile ~/.ssh/bitbucket_ccmcbeck_rsa Host bitbucket-work HostName bitbucket.org User chrisbeck ForwardAgent no IdentityFile ~/.ssh/bitbucket_chrisbeck_rsa On my local Mac I ssh -T all is good, I get: $ ssh -T git@bitbucket-personal logged in as ccmcbeck. $ ssh -T git@bitbucket-work logged in as chrisbeck. On my local Mac, the ssh version is OpenSSH_6.2p2, OSSLShim 0.9.8r 8 Dec 2011 When I ssh foo.work.com to my Linux box, I get: $ ssh-add -l 1024 ... /Users/chris/.ssh/work_dsa (DSA) 2048 ... /Users/chris/.ssh/bitbucket_ccmcbeck_rsa (RSA) 2048 ... /Users/chris/.ssh/bitbucket_chrisbeck_rsa (RSA) On foo.work.com, I also have this in my ~/.ssh/config Host bitbucket-personal HostName bitbucket.org User ccmcbeck ForwardAgent no IdentityFile ~/.ssh/bitbucket_ccmcbeck_rsa Host bitbucket-work HostName bitbucket.org User chrisbeck ForwardAgent no IdentityFile ~/.ssh/bitbucket_chrisbeck_rsa However, on foo.work.com when I ssh -T, it references the wrong User for git@bitbucket-work $ ssh -T git@bitbucket-personal logged in as ccmcbeck. $ ssh -T git@bitbucket-work logged in as ccmcbeck. On foo.work.com, the ssh version is OpenSSH_4.3p2, OpenSSL 0.9.8e-fips-rhel5 01 Jul 2008 Why is my configuration causing foo.work.com to reference the wrong User?

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  • Microsoft Licensing Scenario/Questions [closed]

    - by user17455
    Possible Duplicate: Can you help me with my software licensing question? I am a member of a team developing a third party application (APP) that listens for and services connections from remote devices via TCP. Also, some of these remote devices allow 1 or more users to interact with the remote device. On some of the remote devices, it is impossible for a user to interact with the device. The user/remote device makes no use of any Windows Server service - not DHCP, not IIS, not File Server, not Print Serer, not AD. The remote device's only connection to the Windows Server machine is through the APP's TCP ports. Our company has no interaction with Microsoft. We do not have a Microsoft sales team. Past inquiries have determined that it is cheaper for us to buy Microsoft software (and CALs) retail than to enter into any kind of "arrangement" with Microsoft. I have many questions about SQL Server CALs and Windows Server 2008 CALs. How can I obtain authoritative/legally binding answers? I am not looking for FREE legal advice. I AM looking for FREE advice about who/what/where I can responsibly spend my money to get meaningful information. I fear that passing this on to the local company law firm will just mean that I will be paying them to educate themselves on Microsoft licensing. And if that's like writing code to a new Microsoft API - they are not going to get it right the first time. Going to Microsoft for answers sounds like swimming up to a hungry shark and asking "One leg or two?" I am hoping someone has been down this road before and knows a law firm/lawyer that is experienced in these matters. Any help/suggestion welcome. Thanks.

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  • use ssh tunnel with phpmyadmin

    - by JohnMerlino
    I been using ssh tunnel to bypass firewall of remote mysql server. On my Ubuntu 12.04 installation, it works via the terminal and it works when using a program called mysql workbench. However, that program freezes often and I want to try phpmyadmin as an alternative. However, I cannot connect to remote server using ssh tunnel on phpmyadmin, albeit I can connect locally. These are the steps I've tried: 1) Open a tunnel, listening on localhost:3307 and forwarding everything to xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx:3306 (used 3307 because MySQL on my local machine uses the default port 3306): ssh -L 3307:localhost:3306 [email protected] So now I have the port for tunnel open and I have my local mysql installation default port: $ netstat -tln Active Internet connections (only servers) Proto Recv-Q Send-Q Local Address Foreign Address State tcp 0 0 127.0.0.1:3306 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN tcp 0 0 127.0.0.1:3307 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:80 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN ... 2) Now I can easily connect to remote server via localhost using the terminal: $ mysql -u user.name -p -h 127.0.0.1 -P 3307 Notice that I expicitly identify 3307 as the port, so traffic forwards to the remote server, and hence it logs me in to the remote server. Unfortunately, the localhost/phpmyadmin local login interface doesn't allow you to specify a port option. So I modify the config-db.php file and change the $dbport variable to 3307, under the impression that the phpmyadmin interface will now work with port 3307: $ sudo vim /etc/phpmyadmin/config-db.php $dbport='3307'; Then I restart the mysql server. Unfortunately, it didn't work. When I use the remote credentials to login, it gives me error: #1045 Cannot log in to the MySQL server

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  • How to determine if my AWS/EC2 server has been compromised / resolution?

    - by ElHaix
    I have recently seen an increase in network in/out activity on my server and am trying to determine if my AWS/EC2 instance has been compromised, and if so, how to resolve? In my security group I have: Inbound: 80 (HTTP) 0.0.0.0/0 Outbound: 80 (HTTP) 0.0.0.0/0 443 (HTTPS) 0.0.0.0/0 Using TCP-UDP Endpoint Viewer: I see a lot of w3wp.exe TCP processes with varying local ports http and numbered, as well as varying remote ports. Some processes go red/yellow/green on updates . I see Remote address for most w3wp processes are my ec2 instance, however I am seeing several to *.deploy.akamaitechnologies.com and *.deploy.static.akamaitechnologies.com with received bytes varying between 4-11 megs. I also see Ec2Config.exe, remote address: 169.254.169.254 System Process Remote Address: fetcher4-4.p.mail.ru (how can I get rid of this one?!) local port: http remote port: 33432 I am also seeing some system processes from 114.216-244-93-rdns.wowrack.com: Protocol: TCP local port: http remote port: varying As well as some baiduspider "System Process"'s. I'm afraid that my system may have been compromised, and wondering if these results are any indication of that. If so, how can I get eliminate these possible threats? I have MS Security Essentials installed.

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  • Whats the difference between pulling from a branch into master and pushing that branch onto master?

    - by Justin808
    In Tortoisegit, on the repository, I right-click and select sync. At the top of the dialog there are options for Local Branch and Remote Branch. If the local branch is named DeveloperA and the remote branch is master and I do a push, what happens? If the local branch is master and remote branch is DeveloperA and I Pull, what happens? If I am on the master branch and right click, select Merge and change the From to be my DeveloperA branch, what happens? If I try to push from master to remote master and the remote is updated git stops and tells me to pull. It seems if I push from DeveloperA to master it doens't stop, it just clobbers, it that correct? We're having an issue using git where the remote master branch gets clobbered at times and we are trying to figure out why. For example there is a developer working on his DeveloperA branch. He'll pull from master to get any updates, then push to master to push out his changes. But there are times that the push lists more files in the Out Commit list than he's edited. The odd thing is he can't revert those files as git is saying they are up to date and have not been modified. Yet when he pushes git pushes the files out. The problem is if there are changes between his pull and push the changes get clobbered.

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  • Cloning a git repository from a machine running OS X

    - by Mike
    Hi folks, I'm trying to host a git repository from my home OS X machine, and I'm stuck on the last step of cloning the repository from a remote system. Here's what I've done so far: On the OS X (10.6.6) machine (heretofore dubbed the "server") I created a new admin user Logged into the new user's account Installed git Created an empty git repository via "git init" Turned on remote login Set port mapping on my router (airport extreme) to send ssh traffic to the server Added a ".ssh" directory to the user's home directory From the remote machine (also an OS X 10.6.6 machine), I sent that machine's public key to the server using scp and the login credentials of the user created in step 1 To test that the server would use the remote machine's public key, I ssh'd to the server using the username of the user created in step 1 and indeed was able to connect successfully without being asked for a password I installed git on the remote machine From the remote machine I attempted to "git clone ssh://[email protected]:myrepo" (where "user", "my.server.address", and "myrepo" are all replaced by the actual username, server address and repo folder name, respectively) However, every time I try the command in step 11, I get asked to confirm the server's RSA fingerprint, then I'm asked for a password, but the password for the user I set up for that machine never works. Any advice on how to make this work would be greatly appreciated!

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  • VPN: Disable class based route addition for Windows XP/Vista

    - by brgsousa
    Paraphrasing this SuperUser link: When you set up a VPN, the Windows default is to enable "Use default gateway on remote network." A new default route is added to the routing table pointing to the remote network's gateway, and the existing default route has its metric increased to force all Internet traffic to traverse the tunnel and use the remote network's gateway. All traffic uses the VPN, and traffic destined for the outside world is directed to the remote gateway. When the VPN drops, the route to the remote gateway is removed and the original default route is set back to the original metric. Unchecking "use default gateway on remote network" means that new default route isn't added, so Internet traffic goes out the local gateway, but a new classful route is added to the routing table, using the local adapter's IP, pointing down the VPN. Only traffic destined for the classful network of the local adapter goes down the VPN. This may not be what you want. Checking "Disable class based route addition" means that classful route isn't added to your machine when the VPN starts up, and you'll need to add the appropriate routes for networks that should be routed through the tunnel. But, the option "Disable class based route addition" is available ONLY for Windows 7. How can I do something like that for Windows XP or Vista since they don't have that option? I have searched about for that but, no solution yet.

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  • PPTP VPN on Server 2008 Enterprise

    - by Mike K
    I asked this question on Server fault and was told that was not allowed so im moving it here. I am running Windows Server 2008 enterprise in my HOME network inside of vmware workstation. I am running this on my home network to setup a PPTP VPN connection at home. I have correctly setup everything I needed to make it work, including opening all the ports, 1723 and 43 (GRE). I am able to connect just fine, but when I connect I dont have internet unless I uncheck use remote gateway. The thing is, I want to use the remote gateway to route all my traffic through that connection. Can someone tell me why this isnt working and how to get it to work. When I have remote gateway checked, and I do an ipconfig I dont get a remote gateway for the VPN connection, its 0.0.0.0 when id assume if connected properly should be 192.168.1.254 (my ATT Home Router). Also, if I cant get the remote gateway issue to work, and I have to uncheck that box to get internet, does this mean my VPN session is no longer encrypted? I am fully aware the PPTP VPN is the weakest VPN encryption out there but still having that extra layer of security when im on an unsecure wifi connection makes me feel a bit better. Thank you for all your help in advance. Someone told me I need to setup a gateway or router configured on the server. If thats the case, how go I go about telling the remote co

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  • InnerHTML IE 8 doesn't work properly? Resetting form.

    - by Craig Whitley
    Yeah this works in FF and Chrome, but for some reason wont work in IE 8. I'm using a radio button to clear a section of a form.. that section is a select box, but I don't want to leave the area empty - instead I want to reset it to what it was when the page loaded. At the moment IE8 is just leaving me with an empty small select box. Html: <select id="city_select" disabled="true" name="location_id" onchange="show_search_button();"><option selected>Select your city</option> </select> Javascript: document.getElementById('city_select').innerHTML = "<option selected>Select your city</option>"; I've also tried using location_id instead of city_select in the javascript but to no avail.. innerText and innerContent dont work either.. though the inner.HTML works in IE8 for an earlier function, but that isnt trying to innerHTML into a form. Does anybody know why this works in Chrome and FF but not IE8? and is there a solution to this? Any help appreciated thanks!

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  • Why would Basic Auth not work with my WCF client to Java SOAP Web Service?

    - by orj
    I have a Java based web service that requires basic authentication to communicate with it. If I type the WSDL url into my browser I'm prompted for Basic Auth. Which I can get by entering the correct credentials. However using my WCF client doesn't work. I construct my WCF client like this: var binding = new BasicHttpBinding { MaxReceivedMessageSize = 2048 * 10240, Security = { Mode = BasicHttpSecurityMode.TransportCredentialOnly, Transport = { ClientCredentialType = HttpClientCredentialType.Basic, Realm = "MYREALM", ProxyCredentialType = HttpProxyCredentialType.None }, Message = { ClientCredentialType = BasicHttpMessageCredentialType.UserName, AlgorithmSuite = SecurityAlgorithmSuite.Default } } }; var client = new WebServiceClient(binding, endpoint); client.ClientCredentials.UserName.UserName = username; client.ClientCredentials.UserName.Password = password; client.DoWebServiceMethod(); I get the following exception. System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized. at System.Net.HttpWebRequest.GetResponse() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) System.ServiceModel.Security.MessageSecurityException: The HTTP request is unauthorized with client authentication scheme 'Basic'. The authentication header received from the server was 'Basic realm="MYREALM"'. From what I can tell I'm doing things right. Where am I going wrong?

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  • WebSVN with VisualSVN Server, anyone gotten authentication to work?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have a VisualSVN Server installed on a Windows server, serving several repositories. Since the web-viewer built into VisualSVN server is a minimalistic subversion browser, I'd like to install WebSVN on top of my repositories. The problem, however, is that I can't seem to get authentication to work. Ideally I'd like my current repository authentication as specified in VisualSVN to work with WebSVN, so that though I see all the repository names in WebSVN, I can't actually browse into them without the right credentials. By visiting the cached copy of the topmost link on this google query you can see what I've found so far that looks promising. (the main blog page seems to have been destroyed, domain of the topmost page I'm referring to is the-wizzard.de) There I found some php functions I could tack onto one of the php files in WebSVN. I followed the modifications there, but all I succeeded in doing was make WebSVN ask me for a username and password and no matter what I input, it won't let me in. Unfortunately, php and apache is largely black magic to me. So, has anyone successfully integrated WebSVN with VisualSVN hosted repositories?

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  • Taking "do the simplest thing that could possible work" too far in TDD: testing for a file-name kno

    - by Support - multilanguage SO
    For TDD you have to Create a test that fail Do the simplest thing that could possible work to pass the test Add more variants of the test and repeat Refactor when a pattern emerge With this approach you're supposing to cover all the cases ( that comes to my mind at least) but I'm wonder if am I being too strict here and if it is possible to "think ahead" some scenarios instead of simple discover them. For instance, I'm processing a file and if it doesn't conform to a certain format I am to throw an InvalidFormatException So my first test was: @Test void testFormat(){ // empty doesn't do anything nor throw anything processor.validate("empty.txt"); try { processor.validate("invalid.txt"); assert false: "Should have thrown InvalidFormatException"; } catch( InvalidFormatException ife ) { assert "Invalid format".equals( ife.getMessage() ); } } I run it and it fails because it doesn't throw an exception. So the next thing that comes to my mind is: "Do the simplest thing that could possible work", so I : public void validate( String fileName ) throws InvalidFormatException { if(fileName.equals("invalid.txt") { throw new InvalidFormatException("Invalid format"); } } Doh!! ( although the real code is a bit more complicated, I found my self doing something like this several times ) I know that I have to eventually add another file name and other test that would make this approach impractical and that would force me to refactor to something that makes sense ( which if I understood correctly is the point of TDD, to discover the patterns the usage unveils ) but: Q: am I taking too literal the "Do the simplest thing..." stuff?

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  • SVN Workflow - Chicken Before the Egg - Before merging V1 with V2, I need code from V1 to work on V2

    - by Jake
    Hi, Our distributed team (3 internal devs and 3+ external devs) use SVN to manage our codebase for a web site. We have a branch for each minor version (4.1.0, 4.1.1, 4.1.2, etc...). We have a trunk which we merge each version into when we do a release and publish to our site. An example of the problem we are having is thus: A new feature is added, lets call it "Ability to Create A Project" to 4.1.1. Another feature which depends on the one in 4.1.1 is scheduled to go in 4.1.2, called "Ability to Add Tasks to Projects". So, on Monday, we say 4.1.1 is 'closed' and needs to be tested. Our remote developers usually will start working on features/tickets for 4.1.2 at this point. Throughout the week we will test 4.1.1 and fix any bugs and commit them back to 4.1.1. Then, on Friday or so, we will tag 4.1.1, merge it with trunk, and finally, merge it with 4.1.2. But, for the 4-5 days we are testing, 4.1.2 doesn't have the code from 4.1.1 that some of the new features for 4.1.2 depend on. So a dev who is adding the "Ability to Add Tasks To Projects" feature, doesn't have the "Ability to Create a Project" feature to build upon, and has to do some file copy shenanigans to be able to keep working on it. What could/should we do to smooth out this process? P.S. Apologies if this question has been asked before - I did search but couldn't find what I'm looking for.

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  • How do I work out IEEE 754 64-bit Floating Point Double Precision?

    - by yousef gassar
    enter code herehello i have done it in 32 but i could dont do it in 62bits please i need help I am stuck on this question and need help. I don't know how to work it out. This is the question. Below are two numbers represented in IEEE 754 64-bit Floating Point Double Precision, the bias of the signed exponent is -1023. Any particular real number ‘N’ represented in 64-bit form (i.e. with the following bit fields; 1-bit Sign, 11-bit Exponent, 52-bit Fraction) can be expressed in the form ±1.F2 × 2X by substituting the bit-field values using formula (IV.I): N = (-1) S × 1.F2 × 2(E – 1023) for 0 < E < 2047.........................….(IV.I) Where N= the number represented, S=Sign bit-value, E=Exponent=X +1023, F=Fraction or Mantissa are the values in the 1, 11 and 52-bit fields respectively in the IEEE 754 64-bit FP representation. Using formula (IV.I), express the 64-bit FP representation of each number as: (i) A binary number of the form:- ±1.F2 × 2X (ii) A decimal number of the form:- ±0.F10 × 10Y {limit F10 to 10 decimal places} Sign 0 1 Exponent 1000 0001 001 11 Fraction 1111 0111 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 52 Sign 1 1 Exponent 1000 0000 000 11 Fraction 1001 0010 0001 1111 1011 0101 0100 0100 0100 0010 1101 0001 1000 52 I know I have to use the formula for each of the these but how do I work it out? Is it like this? N = (-1) S × 1.F2 × 2(E – 1023) = 1 x 1.1111 0111 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 x 1000 0001 00111 (-1023)?

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  • Can't get NUnit to work in Visual Web Develper 2010 express.

    - by UkraineTrain
    First off I was wondering whether it's possible to implement a functionality with Nunit where each time a project is created in Visual Web Developer 2010 I get a dialog asking whether I want to create a unit test project for current application like I saw it happen in the older versions of Visual Web Developer. I've tried just about everything to get NUnit 2.5.5 to work in Visual Web Developer 2010. For example, in nunit.exe.config I added under configuration <startup> <requiredRuntime version="v4.0.30319" /> </startup> and under runtime: <loadFromRemoteSources enabled="true" /> I then tried to launch nunit-console.exe in order to specify in the command line the option /framework=net-4.0, but the console would appear and instantly disappear. It didn't help when I tried running it as an administrator. I've also tried using Nunit as an external tool inside the Visual Web Developer by creating a toolbar as described in the following link: http://www.marthijnvandenheuvel.com/2010/06/09/using-nunit-in-visual-studio-2010/. It shows up as an icon in the toolbar. I ran my project called ToyStore and then clicked Nunit icon in order to launch it and it gave me a "System.IO.FileNotFoundException:Assembly not found:ToyStore.dll". So, needless to say, I'm pretty lost and don't know what to do and would greatly appreciate any help in getting Nunit to work.

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  • How do you handle key down events on Android? I am having issues making it work.

    - by user279112
    For an Android program, I am having trouble handling key down and key up events, and the problem I am having with them can almost certainly be generalized to any sort of user input event. I am using Lunar Lander as one of my main learning devices as I make my first meaningful program, and I noticed that it was using onKeyDown as an overridden method to receive key down events, and it would call one of their more original methods doKeyDown. But when I tried to implement a very small version of my own onKeyDown overide and the actual handler that it calls, it didn't work. I would probably copy and paste my implementations of those two methods, but that doesn't seem to be the problem. You see, I ran the debugger and noticed that they were not getting called - at all. The same goes for my implementations of onKeyUp and the handler that it calls. Something is a little weird here, and when I tried to look at the Android documentation for it, that didn't help at all. I thought that if you had an overide for onKeyDown, then when a key was pressed during execution of the program, onKeyDown would be called as soon as reasonably possible. End of story. But apparently there's something more to it. Apparently you have to do something else somewhere - possibly in the XML when defining the layout or something - to make it work. But I do not know what, and I could not find what in their documentation. What's the secret to this? Thanks!

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  • Can GWT image sprites using ImageBundle be made to work in IE7 and IE6?

    - by aem
    I'm trying to use a ClientBundle in my GWT application to make multiple images get sent as a single file. I declare the bundle like so: public interface MyResources extends ClientBundle { public static final MyResources INSTANCE = GWT.create(MyResources.class); @Source("icon1.png") ImageResource icon1(); @Source("icon2.png") ImageResource icon2(); } This works great in Firefox and IE8, but in IE7 (and earlier) the whole sprite shows up in place of one of my original images - that is, icon1 is next to icon2 next to icon3, and so on. In IE8's developer tools using IE8-as-IE7 mode or Compatibility View, I can see that it's showing an image with a file name like 26BEFD2399A92A5DDA54277BA550C75B.cache.png, which is what I'd expect. So is there any way to make GWT image sprites work in IE7 and lower? If not, is there any way to gracefully degrade so users of other browsers get the speedup of spriting and IE7 and IE6 users get something that looks right but is slower? Edit: The Client Bundle Developer's Guide has a discussion of using ClientBundle and @sprite, and says "Support for IE6 isn't feasible in this format, because structural changes to the DOM are necessary to implement a "windowing" effect. Once it's possible to distinguish ie6 and ie7 in user.agent, we could revisit support for ie6. In the current implementation, the ie6 code won't render correctly, although is a purely cosmetic issue." Is this what's going on in my case, and is there a way to work around it? Showing all the images is "purely a cosmetic issue", but it's a pretty severe one.

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  • Do overlays/tooltips work correctly in Emacs for Windows?

    - by Cheeso
    I'm using Flymake on C# code, emacs v22.2.1 on Windows. The Flymake stuff has been working well for me. For those who don't know, you can read an overview of flymake, but the quick story is that flymake repeatedly builds the source file you are currently working on in the background, for the purpose of doing syntax checking. It then highlights the compiler warnings and erros in the current buffer. Flymake didn't work for C# initially, but I "monkey-patched it" and it works nicely now. If you edit C# in emacs, I highly recommend using flymake. The only problem I have is with the UI. Flymake highlights the errors and warnings nicely, and then inserts "overlays" with the full error or warning text. IF I hover the mouse pointer over the highlighted line in code, the overlay pops up. But as you can see, the overlay (tooltip) is truncated, and it doesn't display correctly. Flymake seems to be doing the right thing, it's the overlay part that seems broken., and overlay seems to do the right thing. It's the tooltip that is displayed incorrectly. Do overlays tooltips work correctly in emacs for Windows? Where do I look to fix this?

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  • Why wouldn't a flex remoteobject be able to work within a custom component?

    - by Gary
    Please enlighten this flex noob. I have a remoteobject within my main.mxml. I can call a function on the service from an init() function on my main.mxml, and my java debugger triggers a breakpoint. When I move the remoteobject declaration and function call into a custom component (that is declared within main.mxml), the remote function on java-side no longer gets called, no breakpoints triggered, no errors, silence. How could this be? No spelling errors, or anything like that. What can I do to figure it out? mxml code: < mx:RemoteObject id="myService" destination="remoteService" endpoint="$(Application.application.home}/messagebroker/amf" > < /mx:RemoteObject > function call is just 'myService.getlist();' when I move it to a custom component, I import mx.core.Application; so the compiler doesn't yell my child component: child.mxml <mx:Panel xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" creationComplete="init()" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.core.Application; public function init():void { helloWorld.sayHello(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:RemoteObject id="helloWorld" destination="helloService" endpoint="$(Application.application.home}/messagebroker/amf" /> <mx:Label text="{helloWorld.sayHello.lastResult}" /> </mx:Panel> my main.mxml: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" creationComplete="init()" xmlns:test="main.flex.*" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ [Bindable] public var home:String; [Bindable] public var uName:String; public function init():void { //passed in by wrapper html home = Application.application.parameters.appHome; uName = Application.application.parameters.uName; } ]]> </mx:Script> <test:child /> </mx:Application>

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  • Why doesn't this jQuery snippet work in IE8 like it does in Chrome/Firefox (live demo included)?

    - by Siracuse
    I asked for help earlier on Stackoverflow involving highlighting spans with the same Class when a mouse hovers over any Span with that same Class. It is working great: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2709686/how-can-i-add-a-border-to-all-the-elements-that-share-a-class-when-the-mouse-has $('span[class]').hover( function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','green'); }, function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','yellow'); } ) Here is an example of it in usage: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html However, it doesn't appear to work properly in IE8, while it DOES work in Chrome/Firefox. Here is a screenshot of it in IE8, with my mouse hovered over the " min) { min" section in the middle. As you can see, it highlighted the span that the mouse is hovering over perfectly fine. However, it has also highlighted some random spans above and below it that don't have the same class! Only the span's with the same Class as the one where the mouse is over should be highlighted green. In this screenshot, only that middle green section should be green. Here is a screenshot of it working properly in Firefox/Chrome with my mouse in the exact same position: This screenshot is correct as the span that the mouse is over (the green section) is the only one in this section that shares that class. Why is IE8 randomly green-highlighting spans when it shouldn't be (they don't share the same class) using my little jQuery snippet? Again, if you want to see it live I have it here: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html

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  • Why doesn't this jQuery snippet work in IE8 like it does in Firefox or Chrome (Live Demo Included) ?

    - by Siracuse
    I asked for help earlier on Stackoverflow involving highlighting spans with the same Class when a mouse hovers over any Span with that same Class. It is working great: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2709686/how-can-i-add-a-border-to-all-the-elements-that-share-a-class-when-the-mouse-has $('span[class]').hover( function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','green'); }, function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','yellow'); } ) Here is an example of it in usage: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html However, it doesn't appear to work properly in IE8, while it DOES work in Chrome/Firefox. Here is a screenshot of it in IE8, with my mouse hovered over the " min) { min" section in the middle. As you can see, it highlighted the span that the mouse is hovering over perfectly fine. However, it has also highlighted some random spans above and below it that don't have the same class! Only the span's with the same Class as the one where the mouse is over should be highlighted green. In this screenshot, only that middle green section should be green. Here is a screenshot of it working properly in Firefox/Chrome with my mouse in the exact same position: This screenshot is correct as the span that the mouse is over (the green section) is the only one in this section that shares that class. Why is IE8 randomly green-highlighting spans when it shouldn't be (they don't share the same class) using my little jQuery snippet? Again, if you want to see it live I have it here: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html

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