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  • A better way to delete a list of elements from multiple tables

    - by manyxcxi
    I know this looks like a 'please write the code' request, but some basic pointer/principles for doing this the right way should be enough to get me going. I have the following stored procedure: CREATE PROCEDURE `TAA`.`runClean` (IN idlist varchar(1000)) BEGIN DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND ROLLBACK; DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION ROLLBACK; DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLWARNING ROLLBACK; START TRANSACTION; DELETE FROM RunningReports WHERE run_id IN (idlist); DELETE FROM TMD_INDATA_INVOICE WHERE run_id IN (idlist); DELETE FROM TMD_INDATA_LINE WHERE run_id IN (idlist); DELETE FROM TMD_OUTDATA_INVOICE WHERE run_id IN (idlist); DELETE FROM TMD_OUTDATA_LINE WHERE run_id IN (idlist); DELETE FROM TMD_TEST WHERE run_id IN (idlist); DELETE FROM RunHistory WHERE id IN (idlist); COMMIT; END $$ It is called by a PHP script to clean out old run history. It is not particularly efficient as you can see and I would like to speed it up. The PHP script gathers the ids to remove from the tables with the following query: $query = "SELECT id, stop_time FROM RunHistory WHERE config_id = $configId AND save = 0 AND NOT(stop_time IS NULL) ORDER BY stop_time"; It keeps the last five run entries and deletes all the rest. So using this query to bring back all the IDs, it determines which ones to delete and keeps the 'newest' five. After gathering the IDs it sends them to the stored procedure to remove them from the associated tables. I'm not very good with SQL, but I ASSUME that using an IN statement and not joining these tables together is probably the least efficient way I can do this, but I don't know enough to ask anything but "how do I do this better?" If possible, I would like to do this all in my stored procedure using a query to gather all the IDs except for the five 'newest', then delete them. Another twist, run entries can be marked save (save = 1) and should not be deleted. The RunHistory table looks like this: CREATE TABLE `TAA`.`RunHistory` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `start_time` datetime default NULL, `stop_time` datetime default NULL, `config_id` int(11) NOT NULL, [...] `save` tinyint(1) NOT NULL default '0', PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=0 DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8;

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  • Using empty row as default in a ComboBox with Style "DropDownList"?

    - by Pesche Helfer
    Hi board I am trying to write a method, that takes a ComboBox, a DataTable and a TextBox as arguments. The purpose of it is to filter the members displayed in the ComboBox according to the TextBox.Text. The DataTable contains the entire list of possible entries that will then be filtered. For filtering, I create a DataView of the DataTable, add a RowFilter and then bind this View to the ComboBox as DataSource. To prevent the user from typing into the ComboBox, I choose the DropDownStyle DropDownList. That’s working fine so far, except that the user should also be able to choose nothing / empty line. In fact, this should be the default member to be displayed (to prevent choosing a wrong member by accident, if the user clicks through the dialog too fast). I tried to solve this problem by adding a new Row to the view. While this works for some cases, the main issue here is that any DataTable can be passed to the method. If the DataTable contains columns that cannot be null and don’t contain a default value, I suppose I will raise an error by adding an empty row. A possibility would be to create a view that contains only the column that is defined as DisplayMember, and the one that is defined as ValueMember. Alas, this can’t be done with a view in C#. I would like to avoid creating a true copy of the DataTable at all cost, since who knows how big it will get with time. Do you have any suggestions how to get around this problem? Instead of a view, could I create an object containing two members and assign the DisplayMember and the ValueMember to these members? Would the members be passed as reference (what I hope) or would true copied be created (in which case it would not be a solution)? Thank you very much for your help! Best regards public static void ComboFilter(ComboBox cb, DataTable dtSource, TextBox filterTextBox) { cb.DropDownStyle = ComboBoxStyle.DropDownList; string displayMember = cb.DisplayMember; DataView filterView = new DataView(dtSource); filterView.AddNew(); filterView.RowFilter = displayMember + " LIKE '%" + filterTextBox.Text + "%'"; cb.DataSource = filterView; }

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  • I have to select the checkbox two times to check/uncheck in jTable

    - by 117526709403775781607
    I have a jTable code i intend to use, but the problem with it is that when i click on the checkbox once it doesn't select/deselect it, instead i have to click twice. But if i select any other cell in the row except the one containing the checkbox the purpose is solved. HERE IS MY CODE : public class TableSelectionTest extends JFrame implements ListSelectionListener { private final int COLUMN_COUNT = 5; private TblModel model; public TableSelectionTest() { initialize(); setDefaultCloseOperation(EXIT_ON_CLOSE); pack(); } private void initialize() { List data = new ArrayList(); for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { Object record[] = new Object[COLUMN_COUNT]; record[0] = Boolean.FALSE; for (int j = 1; j < COLUMN_COUNT; j++) { record[j] = new Integer(j); } data.add(record); } model = new TblModel(data); JTable table = new JTable(model); table.getSelectionModel().setSelectionMode(ListSelectionModel.SINGLE_SELECTION); table.getSelectionModel().addListSelectionListener (this); JScrollPane scroll = new JScrollPane(table); getContentPane().add(scroll, BorderLayout.CENTER); } public static void main(String[] args) { TableSelectionTest f = new TableSelectionTest(); f.show(); } class TblModel extends AbstractTableModel { private List data; public TblModel(List data) { this.data = data; } public int getColumnCount() { return COLUMN_COUNT; } public int getRowCount() { return data == null ? 0 : data.size(); } public void setValueAt(Object value, int rowIndex, int columnIndex) { getRecord(rowIndex)[columnIndex] = value; super.fireTableCellUpdated(rowIndex, columnIndex); } public Object getValueAt(int rowIndex, int columnIndex) { return getRecord(rowIndex)[columnIndex]; } public boolean isCellEditable(int rowIndex, int columnIndex) { if(columnIndex == 0) return true; else return false; } public Class getColumnClass(int columnIndex) { if (data == null || data.size() == 0) { return Object.class; } Object o = getValueAt(0, columnIndex); return o == null ? Object.class : o.getClass(); } private Object[] getRecord(int rowIndex) { return (Object[]) data.get(rowIndex); } } public void valueChanged(ListSelectionEvent e) { if (!e.getValueIsAdjusting()) { ListSelectionModel lsm = (ListSelectionModel) e.getSource(); int index = lsm.getMinSelectionIndex(); if(model.getRecord(index)[0] == Boolean.FALSE) model.setValueAt(Boolean.TRUE, index, 0); else if(model.getRecord(index)[0] == Boolean.TRUE) model.setValueAt(Boolean.FALSE, index, 0); } } } Please reply soon as it is bugging me a lot Thank you in advance :)

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  • Windows Question: RunOnce/Second Boot Issues [closed]

    - by Greg
    Moved to Super User: Windows Question: RunOnce/Second Boot Issues I am attempting to create a Windows XP SP3 image that will run my application on Second Boot. Here is the intended workflow. 1) Run Image Prep Utility (I wrote) on windows to add my runonce entries and clean a few things up. 2) Reboot to ghost, make image file. 3) Package into my ISO and distribute. 4) System will be imaged by user. 5) On first boot, I have about 5 things that run, one of which includes a driver updater (I wrote) for my own specific devices. 6) One of the entries inside of HKCU/../runonce is a reg file, which adds another key to HKLM/../runonce. This is how second boot is acquired. 7) As a result of the driver updater, user is prompted to reboot. 8) My application is then launched from HKLM/../runonce on second boot. This workflow works perfectly, except for a select few legacy systems that contain devices that cause the add hardware wizard to pop up. When the add hardware wizard pops up is when I begin to see problems. It's important to note, that if I manually inspect the registry after the add hardware wizard pops up, it appears as I would expect, with all the first boot scripts having run, and it's sitting in a state I would correctly expect it to be in for a second boot scenario. The problem comes when I click next on the add hardware wizard, it seems to re-run the single entry I've added, and re-executes the runonce scripts. (only one script now as it's already executed and cleared out the initial entries). This causes my application to open as if it were a second boot, only when next is clicked on the add hardware wizard. If I click cancel, and reboot, then it also works as expected. I don't care as much about other solutions, because I could design a system that doesn't fully rely on Microsoft's registry. I simply can't find any information as to WHY this is happening. I believe this is some type of Microsoft issue that's presenting itself as a result of an overstretched image that's expected to support too many legacy platforms, but any help that can be provided would be appreciated. Thanks,

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  • breakpoint inside QComboBox subclass not working

    - by yan bellavance
    I have subclassed QComboBox to customize it for special needs. The subclass is used to promote QComboBoxes in a ui file from QtDesigner. Everything works except that when I put a break point in a slot, the program does not stop at the breakpoint. I do however know that it is being called from the result it generates. I checked other slots in my program and they work fine with breakpoints. Doing a clean and rebuild all did not fix it. What could be causing this and is there anything I can do about it? The slot in question is the only one in the subclass and is called "do_indexChanged()". You can find the slot on line 37 of the class header below and the signal-slot connection on line 10 of the class source file. CLASS HEADER: #ifndef WVQCOMBOBOX_H #define WVQCOMBOBOX_H #include <QWidget> #include <QObject> #include <QComboBox> #include <QVariant> class wvQComboBox : public QComboBox { Q_OBJECT //Q_PROPERTY(bool writeEnable READ writeEnable WRITE setWriteEnable) public: explicit wvQComboBox(QWidget *parent = 0); bool writeEnable() { return this->property("writeEnable").toBool(); } void setWriteEnable(const bool & writeEnable){ this->setProperty("writeEnable",writeEnable); } bool newValReady() { return this->property("newValReady").toBool(); } void setNewValReady(const bool & newValReady){ this->setProperty("newValReady",newValReady); } QString getNewVal(); int getNewValIndex(); int oldVal; //comboBox Index before user edit began private slots: void do_indexChanged(){ this->setWriteEnable(true); if(oldVal!=currentIndex()){ this->setNewValReady(true); oldVal=currentIndex(); } } protected: void focusInEvent ( QFocusEvent * event ); //void focusOutEvent ( QFocusEvent * event );//dont need because of currentIndexChanged(int) }; #endif // WVQCOMBOBOX_H #include "wvqcombobox.h" wvQComboBox::wvQComboBox(QWidget *parent) : QComboBox(parent) { this->setWriteEnable(true); this->setNewValReady(false); oldVal=this->currentIndex(); connect(this,SIGNAL(currentIndexChanged(int)),this,SLOT(do_indexChanged())); } void wvQComboBox::focusInEvent ( QFocusEvent * event ) { this->setWriteEnable(false); oldVal=this->currentIndex(); } QString wvQComboBox::getNewVal(){ setNewValReady(false); return this->currentText(); } int wvQComboBox::getNewValIndex(){ setNewValReady(false); return this->currentIndex(); }

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  • iPhone: Grouped tables and navigation controller issues

    - by Jack Griffiths
    Hi there, I've set up a grouped table on my app, and pushing to new views works fine. Except for one thing. The titles and stack layout are all weird. Here's the breakdown: I have two sections in my table. When I tap on the first row in the first section, it takes me to the correct view, but the title of the new view is the name of the first row in the second section of the table. In turn, the second row in the first section's title is the second row in the second section's title. If I tap on the second row in the second section of the root view table, the navigation button goes to the second row in the first section of the table. So here's a diagram of my table: Table Section 1 Row 1 Row 2 Row 3 Table Section 2 Row A Row B Row C So if I tap on row 3, the title of the pushed view is Row C. The navigation button tells me to go back to Row 3, then eventually ending up at the root view. Here's my implementation file pushing the views: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { //CSS if ([[arryClientSide objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual:@"CSS"]) { CSSViewController *css = [[CSSViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"CSSViewController" bundle:nil]; [css setTitle:@"CSS"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:css animated:YES]; } //HTML if ([[arryClientSide objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual:@"HTML"]) { HTMLViewController *html = [[HTMLViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"HTMLViewController" bundle:nil]; [html setTitle:@"HTML"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:html animated:YES]; } //JS if ([[arryClientSide objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual:@"JavaScript"]) { JSViewController *js = [[JSViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"JSViewController" bundle:nil]; [js setTitle:@"JavaScript"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:js animated:YES]; } //PHP if ([[arryServerSide objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual:@"PHP"]) { PHPViewController *php = [[PHPViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"PHPViewController" bundle:nil]; [php setTitle:@"PHP"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:php animated:YES]; } //SQL if ([[arryServerSide objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual:@"SQL"]) { SQLViewController *sql = [[SQLViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SQLViewController" bundle:nil]; [sql setTitle:@"SQL"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:sql animated:YES]; } & the array feeding the table's data: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; arryClientSide = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"CSS",@"HTML",@"JavaScript",nil]; arryServerSide = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"Objective-C", @"PHP",@"SQL",nil]; // arryResources = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"HTML Colour Codes", @"Useful Resources", @"About",nil]; self.title = @"Select a Language"; [super viewDidLoad]; // Uncomment the following line to display an Edit button in the navigation bar for this view controller. // self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = self.editButtonItem; } Any help would be greatly appreciated. Jack

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  • Alert on gridview edit based on permission

    - by Vicky
    I have a gridview with edit option at the start of the row. Also I maintain a seperate table called Permission where I maintain user permissions. I have three different types of permissions like Admin, Leads, Programmers. These all three will have access to the gridview. Except admin if anyone tries to edit the gridview on clicking the edit option, I need to give an alert like This row has important validation and make sure you make proper changes. When I edit, the action with happen on table called Application. The table has a column called Comments. Also the alert should happen only when they try to edit rows where the Comments column have these values in them. ManLog datas Funding Approved Exported Applications My try so far. public bool IsApplicationUser(string userName) { return CheckUser(userName); } public static bool CheckUser(string userName) { string CS = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ConnectionString"].ToString(); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(CS)) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(); command.Connection = connection; string strquery = "select * from Permissions where AppCode='Nest' and UserID = '" + userName + "'"; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(strquery, connection); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); da.Fill(dt); } if (dt.Rows.Count >= 1) return true; else return true; } protected void Details_RowCommand(object sender, GridViewCommandEventArgs e) { string currentUser = HttpContext.Current.Request.LogonUserIdentity.Name; string str = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ConnectionString"].ToString(); string[] words = currentUser.Split('\\'); currentUser = words[1]; bool appuser = IsApplicationUser(currentUser); if (appuser) { DataSet ds = new DataSet(); using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(str)) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(); command.Connection = connection; string strquery = "select Role_Cd from User_Role where AppCode='PM' and UserID = '" + currentUser + "'"; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(strquery, connection); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); da.Fill(ds); } if (e.CommandName.Equals("Edit") && ds.Tables[0].Rows[0]["Role_Cd"].ToString().Trim() != "ADMIN") { int index = Convert.ToInt32(e.CommandArgument); GridView gvCurrentGrid = (GridView)sender; GridViewRow row = gvCurrentGrid.Rows[index]; string strID = ((Label)row.FindControl("lblID")).Text; string strAppName = ((Label)row.FindControl("lblAppName")).Text; Response.Redirect("AddApplication.aspx?ID=" + strID + "&AppName=" + strAppName + "&Edit=True"); } } } Kindly let me know if I need to add something. Thanks for any suggestions.

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  • .NET: Is there a way to finagle a default namespace in an XPath 1.0 query?

    - by Cheeso
    I'm building a tool that performs xpath 1.0 queries on XHTML documents. The requirement to use a namespace prefix in the query is killing me. The query looks like this: html/body/div[@class='contents']/div[@class='body']/ div[@class='pgdbbyauthor']/h2[a[@name][starts-with(.,'Quick')]]/ following-sibling::ul[1]/li/a (all on one line) ...which is bad enough, except because it's xpath 1.0, I need to use an explicit namespace prefix on each QName, so it looks like this: ns1:html/ns1:body/ns1:div[@class='contents']/ns1:div[@class='body']/ ns1:div[@class='pgdbbyauthor']/ns1:h2[ns1:a[@name][starts-with(.,'Quick')]]/ following-sibling::ns1:ul[1]/ns1:li/ns1:a To set up the query, I do something like this: var xpathDoc = new XPathDocument(new StringReader(theText)); var nav = xpathDoc.CreateNavigator(); var xmlns = new XmlNamespaceManager(nav.NameTable); foreach (string prefix in xmlNamespaces.Keys) xmlns.AddNamespace(prefix, xmlNamespaces[prefix]); XPathNodeIterator selection = nav.Select(xpathExpression, xmlns); But what I want is for the xpathExpression to use the implicit default namespace. Is there a way for me to transform the unadorned xpath expression, after it's been written, to inject a namespace prefix for each element name in the query? I'm thinking, anything between two slashes, I could inject a prefix there. Excepting of course axis names like "parent::" and "preceding-sibling::" . And wildcards. That's what I mean by "finagle a default namespace". Is this hack gonna work? Addendum Here's what I mean. suppose I have an xpath expression, and before passing it to nav.Select(), I transform it. Something like this: string FixupWithDefaultNamespace(string expr) { string s = expr; s = Regex.Replace(s, "^(?!::)([^/:]+)(?=/)", "ns1:$1"); // beginning s = Regex.Replace(s, "/([^/:]+)(?=/)", "/ns1:$1"); // stanza s = Regex.Replace(s, "::([A-Za-z][^/:*]*)(?=/)", "::ns1:$1"); // axis specifier s = Regex.Replace(s, "\\[([A-Za-z][^/:*\\(]*)(?=[\\[\\]])", "[ns1:$1"); // predicate s = Regex.Replace(s, "/([A-Za-z][^/:]*)(?!<::)$", "/ns1:$1"); // end s = Regex.Replace(s, "^([A-Za-z][^/:]*)$", "ns1:$1"); // edge case s = Regex.Replace(s, "([-A-Za-z]+)\\(([^/:\\.,\\)]+)(?=[,\\)])", "$1(ns1:$2"); // xpath functions return s; } This actually works for simple cases I tried. To use the example from above - if the input is the first xpath expression, the output I get is the 2nd one, with all the ns1 prefixes. The real question is, is it hopeless to expect this Regex.Replace approach to work, as the xpath expressions get more complicated?

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  • help Implementing Object Oriented ansi-C approach??

    - by No Money
    Hey there, I am an Intermediate programmer in Java and know some of the basics in C++. I recently started to scam over "C language" [please note that i emphasized on C language and want to stick with C as i found it to be a perfect tool, so no need for suggestions focusing on why should i move back to C++ or Java]. Moving on, I code an Object Oriented approach in C but kindda scramble with the pointers part. Please understand that I am just a noob trying to extend my knowledge beyond what i learned in High School. Here is my code..... #include <stdio.h> typedef struct per{ int privateint; char *privateString; struct per (*New) (); void (*deleteperOBJ) (struct t_person *); void (*setperNumber) ((struct*) t_person,int); void (*setperString) ((struct*) t_person,char *); void (*dumpperState) ((struct*) t_person); }t_person; void setperNumber(t_person *const per,int num){ if(per==NULL) return; per->privateint=num; } void setperString(t_person *const per,char *string){ if(per==NULL) return; per->privateString=string; } void dumpperState(t_person *const per){ if(per==NULL) return; printf("value of private int==%d\n", per->privateint); printf("value of private string==%s\n", per->privateString); } void deleteperOBJ(struct t_person *const per){ free((void*)t_person->per); t_person ->per = NULL; } main(){ t_person *const per = (struct*) malloc(sizeof(t_person)); per = t_person -> struct per -> New(); per -> setperNumber (t_person *per, 123); per -> setperString(t_person *per, "No money"); dumpperState(t_person *per); deleteperOBJ(t_person *per); } Just to warn you, this program has several errors and since I am a beginner I couldn't help except to post this thread as a question. I am looking forward for assistance. Thanks in advance.

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  • approximating log10[x^k0 + k1]

    - by Yale Zhang
    Greetings. I'm trying to approximate the function Log10[x^k0 + k1], where .21 < k0 < 21, 0 < k1 < ~2000, and x is integer < 2^14. k0 & k1 are constant. For practical purposes, you can assume k0 = 2.12, k1 = 2660. The desired accuracy is 5*10^-4 relative error. This function is virtually identical to Log[x], except near 0, where it differs a lot. I already have came up with a SIMD implementation that is ~1.15x faster than a simple lookup table, but would like to improve it if possible, which I think is very hard due to lack of efficient instructions. My SIMD implementation uses 16bit fixed point arithmetic to evaluate a 3rd degree polynomial (I use least squares fit). The polynomial uses different coefficients for different input ranges. There are 8 ranges, and range i spans (64)2^i to (64)2^(i + 1). The rational behind this is the derivatives of Log[x] drop rapidly with x, meaning a polynomial will fit it more accurately since polynomials are an exact fit for functions that have a derivative of 0 beyond a certain order. SIMD table lookups are done very efficiently with a single _mm_shuffle_epi8(). I use SSE's float to int conversion to get the exponent and significand used for the fixed point approximation. I also software pipelined the loop to get ~1.25x speedup, so further code optimizations are probably unlikely. What I'm asking is if there's a more efficient approximation at a higher level? For example: Can this function be decomposed into functions with a limited domain like log2((2^x) * significand) = x + log2(significand) hence eliminating the need to deal with different ranges (table lookups). The main problem I think is adding the k1 term kills all those nice log properties that we know and love, making it not possible. Or is it? Iterative method? don't think so because the Newton method for log[x] is already a complicated expression Exploiting locality of neighboring pixels? - if the range of the 8 inputs fall in the same approximation range, then I can look up a single coefficient, instead of looking up separate coefficients for each element. Thus, I can use this as a fast common case, and use a slower, general code path when it isn't. But for my data, the range needs to be ~2000 before this property hold 70% of the time, which doesn't seem to make this method competitive. Please, give me some opinion, especially if you're an applied mathematician, even if you say it can't be done. Thanks.

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  • Are there known problems with >= and <= and the eval function in JS?

    - by Augier
    I am currently writing a JS rules engine which at one point needs to evaluate boolean expressions using the eval() function. Firstly I construct an equation as such: var equation = "relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue" + " " + relation.operator + " " + "relation.value"; relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue is the value I want to compare. relation.operator is the operator (either "==", "!=", <=, "<", "", ="). relation.value is the value I want to compare with. I then simply pass this string to the eval function and it returns true or false as such: return eval(equation); This works absolutely fine (with words and numbers) or all of the operators except for = and <=. E.g. When evaluating the equation: relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue <= 100 It returns true when previousValue = 0,1,10,100 & all negative numbers but false for everything in between. I would greatly appreciate the help of anyone to either answer my question or to help me find an alternative solution. Regards, Augier. P.S. I don't need a speech on the insecurities of the eval() function. Any value given to relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue is predefined. edit: Here is the full function: function evaluateRelation(relation) { console.log("Evaluating relation") var currentValue; //if multiple values if(relation.value.indexOf(";") != -1) { var values = relation.value.split(";"); for (x in values) { var equation = "relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue" + " " + relation.operator + " " + "values[x]"; currentValue = eval(equation); if (currentValue) return true; } return false; } //if single value else { //Evaluate the relation and get boolean var equation = "relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue" + " " + relation.operator + " " + "relation.value"; console.log("relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue " + relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue); console.log(equation); return eval(equation); } } Answer: Provided by KennyTM below. A string comparison doesn't work. Converting to a numerical was needed.

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  • Chrome extension: sendMessage doesn't work

    - by user3334776
    I've already read the documentation from Google on 'message passing' a few times and have probably looked at over 10 other questions with the same problem and already tried quiet a few variations of most of their "solutions" and of what I have below... This is black magic, right? Either way, here it goes. Manifest File: { "manifest_version" : 2, "name" : "Message Test", "version" : "1.0", "browser_action": { "default_popup": "popup.html" }, "background": { "scripts": ["background.js"] }, "content_scripts": [ { "matches" : ["<all_urls>"], "js": ["message-test.js"] } ] } I'm aware extensions aren't suppose to use inline JS, but I'm leaving this in so the original question can be left as it was since I still can't get the message to send from the background page, When I switch from the popup to the background, I removed the appropriate lines from the manifest.json popup.html file: <html> <head> <script> chrome.tabs.query({active: true, currentWindow: true}, function(tabs) { chrome.tabs.sendMessage(tabs[0].id, {greeting: "hello", theMessage: "Why isn\'t this working?"}, function(response) { console.log(response.farewell); }); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> OR background.js file: chrome.tabs.query({active: true, currentWindow: true}, function(tabs) { chrome.tabs.sendMessage(tabs[0].id, {greeting: "hello", theMessage: "Why isn\'t this working?"}, function(response) { console.log(response.farewell); }); }); message-test.js file: var Mymessage; chrome.runtime.onMessage.addListener(function(message, sender, sendResponse) { if (message.greeting == "hello"){ Mymessage = message.theMessage; alert(Mymessage); } else{ sendResponse({}); } }); No alert(Mymessage) goes off. I'm also trying to execute this after pressing a button from a popup and having a window at a specified url, but that's a later issue. The other files can be found here except with the background.js content wrapped in an addEventListener("click"....: http://pastebin.com/KhqxLx5y AND http://pastebin.com/JaGcp6tj

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  • Few doubts regarding Bitmaps , Images & `using` blocks

    - by imageWorker
    I caught up in this problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2559826/garbage-collector-not-doing-its-job-memory-consumption-1-5gb-outofmemory-exc I feel that there is something wrong in my understanding. Please clarify these things. Destructor & IDisposable.Dispose are two methods for freeing resources that are not not under the control of .NET. Which means, everything except memory. right? using blocks are just better way of calling IDisposable.Dispose() method of an object. This is the main code I'm referring to. class someclass { static someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //statement1 // some code here and return } } here is class I'm using for testing: class someotherClass { public static voide Main() { foreach (string imagePath in imagePathsArray) { using (Bitmap img1 = new Bitmap(imagePath)) { someclass.someMethod(img1); // does some more processing on `img1` } } } } Is there any memory leak with statement1? Question1: If each image size is say 10MB. Then does this bmp object occupy atleast 10MB? What I mean is, will it make completely new copy of entire image? or just refer to it? Question2:should I or should I not put the statement1 in using block? My Argument: We should not. Because using is not for freeing memory but for freeing the resources (file handle in this case). If I use it in using block. It closes file handle here encapsulated by this bmp object. It means we are also closing filehandle for the caller's img1 object. Which is not correct? As of the memory leak. No there is no scope of memory leak here. Because reference bmp is destroyed when this method is returned. Which leaves memory it refered without any pointer. So, its garbage collected. Am I right? Edit: class someclass { static Bitmap someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //can I use `using` block on this enclosing `return bmp`; ??? // do some processing on bmp here return bmp; } }

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  • How to perform add/update of a model object that contains EntitySet

    - by David Liddle
    I have a similar concept to the SO questions/tags scenario however am trying to decide the best way of implementation. Tables Questions, QuestionTags and Tags Questions QuestionTags Tags --------- ------------ ---- QID QID TID QName TID TName When adding/updating a question I have 2 textboxes. The important part is a single textbox that allows users to enter in multiple Tags separated by spaces. I am using Linq2Sql so the Questions model has an EntitySet of QuestionTags with then link to Tags. My question is regarding the adding/updating of Questions (part 1), and also how to best show QuestionTags for a Question (part 2). Part 1 Before performing an add/update, my service layer needs to deal with 3 scenarios before passing to their respective repositories. Insert Tags that do not already exist Insert/Update Question Insert QuestionTags - when updating need to remove existing QuestionTags Here is my code below however started to get into a bit of a muddle. I've created extension methods on my repositories to get Tags WithNames etc. public void Add(Question q, string tags) { var tagList = tags.Split(new string[] { " " }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries).ToList(); using (DB.TransactionScope ts = new DB.TransactionScope()) { var existingTags = TagsRepository.Get() .WithName(tagList) .ToList(); var newTags = (from t in tagList select new Tag { TName = t }).Except(existingTags, new TagsComparer()).ToList(); TagsRepository.Add(newTags); //need to insert QuestionTags QuestionsRepository.Add(q); ts.Complete(); } } Part 2 My second question is, when displaying a list of Questions how is it best to show their QuestionTags? For example, I have an Index view that shows a list of Questions in a table. One of the columns shows an image and when the user hovers over it shows the list of Tags. My current implementation is to create a custom ViewModel and show a List of QuestionIndexViewModel in the View. QuestionIndexViewModel { Question Question { get; set; } string Tags { get; set; } } However, this seems a bit clumsy and quite a few DB calls. public ViewResult Index() { var model= new List<QuestionIndexViewModel>(); //make a call to get a list of questions //foreach question make a call to get their QuestionTags, //to be able to get their Tag names and then join them //to form a single string. return View(model); } Also, just for test purposes using SQL Profiler, I decided to iterate through the QuestionTags entity set of a Question in my ViewModel however nothing was picked up in Profiler? What would be the reason for this?

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  • New to asp.net. Need help debugging this email form.

    - by Roeland
    Hey guys, First of all, I am a php developer and most of .net is alien to me which is why I am posting here! I just migrated over a site from one set of webhosting to another. The whole site is written in .net. None of the site is database driven so most of it works, except for the contact form. The output on the site simple states there was an error with "There has been an error - please try to submit the contact form again, if you continue to experience problems, please notify our webmaster." This is just a simple message it pops out of it gets to the "catch" part of the email function. I went into web.config and changed the parameters: <emailaddresses> <add name="System" value="[email protected]"/> <add name="Contact" value="[email protected]"/> <add name="Info" value="[email protected]"/> </emailaddresses> <general> <add name="WebSiteDomain" value="hoyespharmacy.com"/> </general> Then the .cs file for contact contains the mail function EmailFormData(): private void EmailFormData() { try { StringBuilder body = new StringBuilder(); body.Append("Name" + ": " + txtName.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Phone" + ": " + txtPhone.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Email" + ": " + txtEmail.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Fax" + ": " + txtEmail.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Subject" + ": " + ddlSubject.SelectedValue + "\n\r"); body.Append("Message" + ": " + txtMessage.Text); MailMessage mail = new MailMessage(); mail.IsBodyHtml = false; mail.To.Add(new MailAddress(Settings.GetEmailAddress("System"))); mail.Subject = "Contact Us Form Submission"; mail.From = new MailAddress(Settings.GetEmailAddress("System"), Settings.WebSiteDomain); mail.Body = body.ToString(); SmtpClient smtpcl = new SmtpClient(); smtpcl.Send(mail); } catch { Utilities.RedirectPermanently(Request.Url.AbsolutePath + "?messageSent=false"); } } How do I see what the actual error is. I figure I can do something with the "catch" part of the function.. Any pointers? Thanks!

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  • Infinite loop when adding a row to a list in a class in python3

    - by Margaret
    I have a script which contains two classes. (I'm obviously deleting a lot of stuff that I don't believe is relevant to the error I'm dealing with.) The eventual task is to create a decision tree, as I mentioned in this question. Unfortunately, I'm getting an infinite loop, and I'm having difficulty identifying why. I've identified the line of code that's going haywire, but I would have thought the iterator and the list I'm adding to would be different objects. Is there some side effect of list's .append functionality that I'm not aware of? Or am I making some other blindingly obvious mistake? class Dataset: individuals = [] #Becomes a list of dictionaries, in which each dictionary is a row from the CSV with the headers as keys def field_set(self): #Returns a list of the fields in individuals[] that can be used to split the data (i.e. have more than one value amongst the individuals def classified(self, predicted_value): #Returns True if all the individuals have the same value for predicted_value def fields_exhausted(self, predicted_value): #Returns True if all the individuals are identical except for predicted_value def lowest_entropy_value(self, predicted_value): #Returns the field that will reduce <a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Entropy_%28information_theory%29">entropy</a> the most def __init__(self, individuals=[]): and class Node: ds = Dataset() #The data that is associated with this Node links = [] #List of Nodes, the offspring Nodes of this node level = 0 #Tree depth of this Node split_value = '' #Field used to split out this Node from the parent node node_value = '' #Value used to split out this Node from the parent Node def split_dataset(self, split_value): fields = [] #List of options for split_value amongst the individuals datasets = {} #Dictionary of Datasets, each one with a value from fields[] as its key for field in self.ds.field_set()[split_value]: #Populates the keys of fields[] fields.append(field) datasets[field] = Dataset() for i in self.ds.individuals: #Adds individuals to the datasets.dataset that matches their result for split_value datasets[i[split_value]].individuals.append(i) #<---Causes an infinite loop on the second hit for field in fields: #Creates subnodes from each of the datasets.Dataset options self.add_subnode(datasets[field],split_value,field) def add_subnode(self, dataset, split_value='', node_value=''): def __init__(self, level, dataset=Dataset()): My initialisation code is currently: if __name__ == '__main__': filename = (sys.argv[1]) #Takes in a CSV file predicted_value = "# class" #Identifies the field from the CSV file that should be predicted base_dataset = parse_csv(filename) #Turns the CSV file into a list of lists parsed_dataset = individual_list(base_dataset) #Turns the list of lists into a list of dictionaries root = Node(0, Dataset(parsed_dataset)) #Creates a root node, passing it the full dataset root.split_dataset(root.ds.lowest_entropy_value(predicted_value)) #Performs the first split, creating multiple subnodes n = root.links[0] n.split_dataset(n.ds.lowest_entropy_value(predicted_value)) #Attempts to split the first subnode.

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  • Emulating Button Press Using Kinect/SimpleOpenNI + Processing Depth

    - by Alex Lu
    I am using Kinect with Simple OpenNI and Processing, and I was trying to use the Z position of a hand to emulate a button press. So far when I try it using one hand it works really well, however, when I try to get it to work with a second hand, only one of the hands work. (I know it can be more efficient by moving everything except the fill out of the if statements, but I kept those in there just in case I want to change the sizes or something.) irz and ilz are the initial Z positions of the hands when they are first recognized by onCreateHands and rz and lz are the current Z positions. As of now, the code works fine with one hand, but the other hand will either stay pressed or unpressed. If i comment one of the sections out, it works fine as well. if (rz - irz > 0) { pushStyle(); fill(60); ellipse(rx, ry, 10, 10); popStyle(); rpressed = true; } else { pushStyle(); noFill(); ellipse(rx, ry, 10, 10); popStyle(); rpressed = false; } if (lz - ilz > 0) { pushStyle(); fill(60); ellipse(lx, ly, 10, 10); popStyle(); lpressed = true; } else { pushStyle(); noFill(); ellipse(lx, ly, 10, 10); popStyle(); lpressed = false; } I tried outputting the values of rz - irz and lz - ilz and the numbers range from small negative values to small positive values (around -8 to 8) for lz - ilz. But rz - irz outputs numbers from around 8-30 depending on each time I run it and is never consistent. Also, when I comment out the code for the lz-ilz, the values for rz-irz look just fine and it operates as intended. Is there a reason tracking both Z positions throws off one hand? And is there a way to get it to work? Thanks!

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  • Jetty: Stopping programatically causes "1 threads could not be stopped"

    - by Ondra Žižka
    Hi, I have an embedded Jetty 6.1.26 instance. I want to shut it down by HTTP GET sent to /shutdown. So I created a JettyShutdownServlet: @Override protected void doGet(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws ServletException, IOException { resp.setStatus(202, "Shutting down."); resp.setContentType("text/plain"); ServletOutputStream os = resp.getOutputStream(); os.println("Shutting down."); os.close(); resp.flushBuffer(); // Stop the server. try { log.info("Shutting down the server..."); server.stop(); } catch (Exception ex) { log.error("Error when stopping Jetty server: "+ex.getMessage(), ex); } However, when I send the request, Jetty does not stop - a thread keeps hanging in org.mortbay.thread.QueuedThreadPool on the line with this.wait(): // We are idle // wait for a dispatched job synchronized (this) { if (_job==null) this.wait(getMaxIdleTimeMs()); job=_job; _job=null; } ... 2011-01-10 20:14:20,375 INFO org.mortbay.log jetty-6.1.26 2011-01-10 20:14:34,756 INFO org.mortbay.log Started [email protected]:17283 2011-01-10 20:25:40,006 INFO org.jboss.qa.mavenhoe.MavenHoeApp Shutting down the server... 2011-01-10 20:25:40,006 INFO org.mortbay.log Graceful shutdown [email protected]:17283 2011-01-10 20:25:40,006 INFO org.mortbay.log Graceful shutdown org.mortbay.jetty.servlet.Context@1672bbb{/,null} 2011-01-10 20:25:40,006 INFO org.mortbay.log Graceful shutdown org.mortbay.jetty.webapp.WebAppContext@18d30fb{/jsp,file:/home/ondra/work/Mavenhoe/trunk/target/classes/org/jboss/qa/mavenhoe/web/jsp} 2011-01-10 20:25:43,007 INFO org.mortbay.log Stopped [email protected]:17283 2011-01-10 20:25:43,009 WARN org.mortbay.log 1 threads could not be stopped 2011-01-10 20:26:43,010 INFO org.mortbay.log Shutdown hook executing 2011-01-10 20:26:43,011 INFO org.mortbay.log Shutdown hook complete It blocks for exactly one minute, then shuts down. I've added the Graceful shutdown, which should allow me to shut the server down from a servlet; However, it does not work as you can see from the log. I've solved it this way: Server server = new Server( PORT ); server.setGracefulShutdown( 3000 ); server.setStopAtShutdown(true); ... server.start(); if( server.getThreadPool() instanceof QueuedThreadPool ){ ((QueuedThreadPool) server.getThreadPool()).setMaxIdleTimeMs( 2000 ); } setMaxIdleTimeMs() needs to be called after the start(), becase the threadPool is created in start(). However, the threads are already created and waiting, so it only applies after all threads are used at least once. I don't know what else to do except some awfulness like interrupting all threads or System.exit(). Any ideas? Is there a good way? Thanks, Ondra

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How can I explain an invalid type violation to an end-user with Html.ValidationSummary?

    - by Terminal Frost
    Serious n00b warning here; please take mercy! So I finished the Nerd Dinner MVC Tutorial and I'm now in the process of converting a VB.NET application to ASP.NET MVC using the Nerd Dinner program as a sort of rough template. I am using the "IsValid / GetRuleViolations()" pattern to identify invalid user input or values that violate business rules. I am using LINQ to SQL and am taking advantage of the "OnValidate()" hook that allows me to run the validation and throw an application exception upon trying to save changes to the database via the CustomerRepository class. Anyway, everything works well, except that by the time the form values reach my validation method invalid types have already been converted to a default or existing value. (I have a "StreetNumber" property that is an integer, though I imagine this would be a problem for DateTime or any other non-strings as well.) Now, I am guessing that the UpdateModel() method throws an exception and then alters the value because the Html.ValidationMessage is displayed next to the StreetNumber field but my validation method never sees the original input. There are two problems with this: While the Html.ValidationMessage does signal that something is wrong, there is no corresponding entry in the Html.ValidationSummary. If I could even get the exception message to show up there indicating an invalid cast or something that would be better than nothing. My validation method which resides in my Customer partial class never sees the original user input so I do not know if the problem is a missing entry or an invalid type. I can't figure out how I can keep my validation logic nice and neat in one place and still get access to the form values. I could of course write some logic in the View that processes the user input, however that seems like the exact opposite of what I should be doing with MVC. Do I need a new validation pattern or is there some way to pass the original form values to my model class for processing? CustomerController Code // POST: /Customers/Edit/[id] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { Customer customer = customerRepository.GetCustomer(id); try { UpdateModel(customer); customerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = customer.AccountID }); } catch { foreach (var issue in customer.GetRuleViolations()) ModelState.AddModelError(issue.PropertyName, issue.ErrorMessage); } return View(customer); }

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  • how to refactor user-permission system?

    - by John
    Sorry for lengthy question. I can't tell if this should be a programming question or a project management question. Any advice will help. I inherited a reasonably large web project (1 year old) from a solo freelancer who architected it then abandoned it. The project was a mess, but I cleaned up what I could, and now the system is more maintainable. I need suggestions on how to extend the user-permission system. As it is now, the database has a t_user table with the column t_user.membership_type. Currently, there are 4 membership types with the following properties: 3 of the membership types are almost functionally the same, except for the different monthly fees each must pay 1 of the membership type is a "fake-user" type which has limited access ( different business logic also applies) With regards to the fake-user type, if you look in the system's business logic files, you will see a lot of hard-coded IF statements that do something like if (fake-user) { // do something } else { // a paid member of type 1,2 or 3 // proceed normally } My client asked me to add 3 more membership types to the system, each of them with unique features to be implemented this month, and substantive "to-be-determined" features next month. My first reaction is that I need to refactor the user-permission system. But it concerns me that I don't have enough information on the "to-be-determined" membership type features for next month. Refactoring the user-permission system will take a substantive amount of time. I don't want to refactor something and throw it out the following month. I get substantive feature requests on a monthly basis that come out of the blue. There is no project road map. I've asked my client to provide me with a roadmap of what they intend to do with the new membership types, but their answer is along the lines of "We just want to do [feature here] this month. We'll think of something new next month." So questions that come to mind are: 1) Is it dangerous for me to refactor the user permission system not knowing what membership type features exist beyond a month from now? 2) Should I refactor the user permission system regardless? Or just continue adding IF statements as needed in all my controller files? Or can you recommend a different approach to user permission systems? Maybe role-based ? 3) Should this project have a road map? For a 1 year old project like mine, how far into the future should this roadmap project? 4) Any general advice on the best way to add 3 new membership types?

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  • java web application best practices

    - by Bruce
    Hi all I'm trying to figure out the optimum way to develop and release a fairly simple web application, and I'm running into several problems. I'll outline the decisions I've made, because somewhere I've clearly gone off the rails.. Hugely grateful for any help! I have what I think is a fairly simple web application. It contains a couple of jsps that reference a couple of java beans, and the usual static html, js, css and images. Decision 1) I wanted to have a clear and clean release procedure, such that I could develop on my local machine and then release reliably to a production machine. I therefore made the decision to package the application into a war file (including all the static resources), to minimize the separate bits and pieces I would need to release. So far so good? Decision 2) I wanted things on my local machine to be as similar as possible to the production environment. So in my html, for example, I may have a reference to a static file such as http://static.foo.com/file . To keep this code working seamlessly on dev and prod, I decided to put static.foo.com in my /etc/hosts when developing locally, so that all the urls work correctly without changing anything. Decision 3) I decided to use eclipse and maven to give me a best practice environment for administering and building my project. So I have a nice tight set up now, except that: Every time I want to change anything in development, like one line in an html file, I have to rebuild the entire project and then wait for tomcat to load the war before I can see if it's what I wanted. So my questions are: 1) Is there a way to connect up eclipse and tomcat so that I don't have to rebuild the war each time? ie tomcat is looking straight at my actual workspace to serve up the static files? 2)I think I'm maybe making things harder by using /etc/hosts to reflect production urls - is there a better way that doesn't involve manually changing over urls (relative urls are fine of course, but where you have many subdomains, say one for static files and one for dynamic, you have to write out the full path, surely?) 3) Is this really best practice?? How do people set things up so that they balance the requirement for an automated, all-encompassing build process on the one hand, and the speed and flexibility to be able to develop javascript and html and css quickly, as quickly as if one just pointed apache at the directory and developed live? What do people find works? Many thanks!

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  • How to use Facebook graph API to retrieve fan photos uploaded to wall of fan page?

    - by Joe
    I am creating an external photo gallery using PHP and the Facebook graph API. It pulls thumbnails as well as the large image from albums on our Facebook Fan Page. Everything works perfect, except I'm only able to retrieve photos that an ADMIN posts to our page. (graph.facebook.com/myalbumid/photos) Is there a way to use graph api to load publicy uploaded photos from fans? I want to retrieve the pictures from the "Photos from" album, but trying to get the ID for the graph query is not like other albums... it looks like this: http://www.facebook.com/media/set/?set=o.116860675007039 Another note: The only way i've come close to retreiving this data is by using the "feed" option.. ie: graph.facebook.com/pageid/feed EDIT: This is about as far as I could get- it works, but has certain issues stated below. Maybe someone could expand on this, or provide a better solution. (Using FB PHP SDK) <?php require_once ('config.php'); // get all photos for album $photos = $facebook->api("/YourID/tagged"); $maxitem =10; $count = 0; foreach($photos['data'] as $photo) { if ($photo['type'] == "photo"): echo "<img src='{$photo['picture']}' />", "<br />"; endif; $count+= 1; if ($count >= "$maxitem") break; } ?> Issues with this: 1) The fact that I don't know a method for graph querying specific "types" of Tags, I had to run a conditional statement to display photos. 2) You cannot effectively use the "?limit=#" with this, because as I said the "tagged" query contains all types (photo, video, and status). So if you are going for a photo gallery and wish to avoid running an entire query by using ?limit, you will lose images. 3) The only content that shows up in the "tagged" query is from people that are not Admins of the page. This isn't the end of the world, but I don't understand why Facebook wouldn't allow yourself to be shown in this data as long as you posted it "as yourself" and not as the page.

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  • Help With LINQ: Mixed Joins and Specifying Default Values

    - by Corey O.
    I am trying to figure out how to do a mixed-join in LINQ with specific access to 2 LINQ objects. Here is an example of how the actual TSQL query might look: SELECT * FROM [User] AS [a] INNER JOIN [GroupUser] AS [b] ON [a].[UserID] = [b].[UserID] INNER JOIN [Group] AS [c] ON [b].[GroupID] = [c].[GroupID] LEFT JOIN [GroupEntries] AS [d] ON [a].[GroupID] = [d].[GroupID] WHERE [a].[UserID] = @UserID At the end, basically what I would like is an enumerable object full of GroupEntry objects. What am interested is the last two tables/objects in this query. I will be displaying Groups as a group header, and all of the Entries underneath their group heading. If there are no entries for a group, I still want to see that group as a header without any entries. Here's what I have so far: So from that I'd like to make a function: public void DisplayEntriesByUser(int user_id) { MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); IEnumberable<GroupEntries> entries = ( from user in db.Users where user.UserID == user_id join group_user in db.GroupUsers on user.UserID = group_user.UserID into a from join1 in a join group in db.Groups on join1.GroupID equals group.GroupID into b from join2 in b join entry in db.Entries.DefaultIfEmpty() on join2.GroupID equals entry.GroupID select entry ); Group last_group_id = 0; foreach(GroupEntry entry in entries) { if (last_group_id == 0 || entry.GroupID != last_group_id) { last_group_id = entry.GroupID; System.Console.WriteLine("---{0}---", entry.Group.GroupName.ToString().ToUpper()); } if (entry.EntryID) { System.Console.WriteLine(" {0}: {1}", entry.Title, entry.Text); } } } The example above does not work quite as expected. There are 2 problems that I have not been able to solve: I still seem to be getting an INNER JOIN instead of a LEFT JOIN on the last join. I am not getting any empty results, so groups without entries do not appear. I need to figure out a way so that I can fill in the default values for blank sets of entries. That is, if there is a group without an entry, I would like to have a mostly blank entry returned, except that I'd want the EntryID to be null or 0, the GroupID to be that of of the empty group that it represents, and I'd need a handle on the entry.Group object (i.e. it's parent, empty Group object). Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Note: Table names and real-world representation were derived purely for this example, but their relations simplify what I'm trying to do.

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  • Internet Explorer 8 + Deflate

    - by Andreas Bonini
    I have a very weird problem.. I really do hope someone has an answer because I wouldn't know where else to ask. I am writing a cgi application in C++ which is executed by Apache and outputs HTML code. I am compressing the HTML output myself - from within my C++ application - since my web host doesn't support mod_deflate for some reason. I tested this with Firefox 2, Firefox 3, Opera 9, Opera 10, Google Chrome, Safari, IE6, IE7, IE8, even wget.. It works with ANYTHING except IE8. IE8 just says "Internet Explorer cannot display the webpage", with no information whatsoever. I know it's because of the compression only because it works if I disable it. Do you know what I'm doing wrong? I use zlib to compress it, and the exact code is: /* Compress it */ int compressed_output_size = content.length() + (content.length() * 0.2) + 16; char *compressed_output = (char *)Alloc(compressed_output_size); int compressed_output_length; Compress(compressed_output, compressed_output_size, (void *)content.c_str(), content.length(), &compressed_output_length); /* Send the compressed header */ cout << "Content-Encoding: deflate\r\n"; cout << boost::format("Content-Length: %d\r\n") % compressed_output_length; cgiHeaderContentType("text/html"); cout.write(compressed_output, compressed_output_length); static void Compress(void *to, size_t to_size, void *from, size_t from_size, int *final_size) { int ret; z_stream stream; stream.zalloc = Z_NULL; stream.zfree = Z_NULL; stream.opaque = Z_NULL; if ((ret = deflateInit(&stream, CompressionSpeed)) != Z_OK) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflateInit() failed: %d", ret); stream.next_out = (Bytef *)to; stream.avail_out = (uInt)to_size; stream.next_in = (Bytef *)from; stream.avail_in = (uInt)from_size; if ((ret = deflate(&stream, Z_NO_FLUSH)) != Z_OK) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflate() failed: %d", ret); if (stream.avail_in != 0) COMPRESSION_ERROR("stream.avail_in is not 0 (it's %d)", stream.avail_in); if ((ret = deflate(&stream, Z_FINISH)) != Z_STREAM_END) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflate() failed: %d", ret); if ((ret = deflateEnd(&stream)) != Z_OK) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflateEnd() failed: %d", ret); if (final_size) *final_size = stream.total_out; return; }

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  • what to do with a flawed C++ skills test

    - by Mike Landis
    In the following gcc.gnu.org post, Nathan Myers says that a C++ skills test at SANS Consulting Services contained three errors in nine questions: Looking around, one of fthe first on-line C++ skills tests I ran across was: http://www.geekinterview.com/question_details/13090 I looked at question 1... find(int x,int y) { return ((x<y)?0:(x-y)):} call find(a,find(a,b)) use to find (a) maximum of a,b (b) minimum of a,b (c) positive difference of a,b (d) sum of a,b ... immediately wondering why would anyone write anything so obtuse. Getting past the absurdity, I didn't really like any of the answers, immediately eliminating (a) and (b) because you can get back zero (which is neither a nor b) in a variety of circumstances. Sum or difference seemed more likely, except that you could also get zero regardless of the magnitudes of a and b. So... I put Matlab to work (code below) and found: when either a or b is negative you get zero; when b a you get a; otherwise you get b, so the answer is (b) min(a,b), if a and b are positive, though strictly speaking the answer should be none of the above because there are no range restrictions on either variable. That forces test takers into a dilemma - choose the best available answer and be wrong in 3 of 4 quadrants, or don't answer, leaving the door open to the conclusion that the grader thinks you couldn't figure it out. The solution for test givers is to fix the test, but in the interim, what's the right course of action for test takers? Complain about the questions? function z = findfunc(x,y) for i=1:length(x) if x(i) < y(i) z(i) = 0; else z(i) = x(i) - y(i); end end end function [b,d1,z] = plotstuff() k = 50; a = [-k:1:k]; b = (2*k+1) * rand(length(a),1) - k; d1 = findfunc(a,b); z = findfunc(a,d1); plot( a, b, 'r.', a, d1, 'g-', a, z, 'b-'); end

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