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• EC2 SSH access from fedora

  - by Randika Rathugama

  I'm trying to connect to existing instance of EC2 with a new PEM. But I get this error when I try to connect. Here is what I did so far. I created the PEM on EC2 and saved it to ~/.ssh/my-fedora.pem and ran this command; is there anything else I should do? [randika@localhost ~]$ ssh -v -i ~/.ssh/my-fedora.pem [email protected] OpenSSH_5.3p1, OpenSSL 1.0.0-fips-beta4 10 Nov 2009 debug1: Reading configuration data /etc/ssh/ssh_config debug1: Applying options for * debug1: Connecting to ec2-xx-xxx-xxx-xx.compute-1.amazonaws.com [xx-xx-xx-xx] port 22. debug1: Connection established. debug1: identity file /home/randika/.ssh/saberion-fedora.pem type -1 debug1: Remote protocol version 2.0, remote software version OpenSSH_4.7 debug1: match: OpenSSH_4.7 pat OpenSSH_4* debug1: Enabling compatibility mode for protocol 2.0 debug1: Local version string SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.3 debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT received debug1: kex: server->client aes128-ctr hmac-md5 none debug1: kex: client->server aes128-ctr hmac-md5 none debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REQUEST(1024<1024<8192) sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_GROUP debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_INIT sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REPLY debug1: Host 'ec2-xx-xxx-xxx-xx.compute-1.amazonaws.com' is known and matches the RSA host key. debug1: Found key in /home/randika/.ssh/known_hosts:5 debug1: ssh_rsa_verify: signature correct debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS received debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_REQUEST sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_ACCEPT received debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,gssapi-with-mic debug1: Next authentication method: gssapi-with-mic debug1: Unspecified GSS failure. Minor code may provide more information Credentials cache file '/tmp/krb5cc_500' not found debug1: Unspecified GSS failure. Minor code may provide more information Credentials cache file '/tmp/krb5cc_500' not found debug1: Unspecified GSS failure. Minor code may provide more information debug1: Next authentication method: publickey debug1: Offering public key: [email protected] debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,gssapi-with-mic debug1: Offering public key: [email protected] debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,gssapi-with-mic debug1: Trying private key: /home/randika/.ssh/saberion-fedora.pem debug1: read PEM private key done: type RSA debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,gssapi-with-mic debug1: No more authentication methods to try. Permission denied (publickey,gssapi-with-mic).

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• Designing secure consumer blackberry application

  - by Kiran Kuppa

  I am evaluating a requirement for a consumer blackberry application that places high premium on security of user's data. Seems like it is an insurance company. Here are my ideas on how I could go about it. I am sure this would be useful for others who are looking for similar stuff Force the user to use device password. (I am guessing that this would be possible - though not checked it yet). Application can request notifications when the device is about to be locked and just after it has been unlocked. Encryption of application specific data can be managed at those times. Application data would be encrypted with user's password. User's credentials would be encrypted with device password. Remote backup of the data could be done over HTTPS (any better ideas are appreciated) Questions: What if the user forgets his device password. If the user forgets his application password, what is the best and secure way to reset the password? If the user losses the phone, remote backup must be done and the application data must be cleaned up. I have some ideas on how to achieve (3) and shall share them. There must be an off-line verification of the user's identity and the administrator must provide a channel using which the user must be able to send command to the device to perform the wiping of application data. The idea is that the user is ALWAYS in control of his data. Without the user's consent, even the admin must not be able to do activities such as cleaning up the data. In the above scheme of things, it appears as if the user's password need not be sent over the air to server. Am I correct? Thanks, --Kiran Kumar

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• Which non-clustered index should I use?

  - by Junior Mayhé

  Here I am studying nonclustered indexes on SQL Server Management Studio. I've created a table with more than 1 million records. This table has a primary key. CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Customers]( [CustomerId] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [CustomerName] [varchar](100) NOT NULL, [Deleted] [bit] NOT NULL, [Active] [bit] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Customers] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [CustomerId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] This is the query I'll be using to see what execution plan is showing: SELECT CustomerName FROM Customers Well, executing this command with no additional non-clustered index, it leads the execution plan to show me: I/O cost = 3.45646 Operator cost = 4.57715 Now I'm trying to see if it's possible to improve performance, so I've created a non-clustered index for this table: 1) First non-clustered index CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX [IX_CustomerID_CustomerName] ON [dbo].[Customers] ( [CustomerId] ASC, [CustomerName] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, SORT_IN_TEMPDB = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, DROP_EXISTING = OFF, ONLINE = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] GO Executing again the select against Customers table, the execution plan shows me: I/O cost = 2.79942 Operator cost = 3.92001 It seems better. Now I've deleted this just created non-clustered index, in order to create a new one: 2) First non-clustered index CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX [IX_CustomerIDIncludeCustomerName] ON [dbo].[Customers] ( [CustomerId] ASC ) INCLUDE ( [CustomerName]) WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, SORT_IN_TEMPDB = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, DROP_EXISTING = OFF, ONLINE = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] GO With this new non-clustered index, I've executed the select statement again and the execution plan shows me the same result: I/O cost = 2.79942 Operator cost = 3.92001 So, which non-clustered index should I use? Why the costs are the same on execution plan for I/O and Operator? Am I doing something wrong or this is expected? thank you

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• EF + UnitOfWork + SharePoint RunWithElevatedPrivileges

  - by Lorenzo

  In our SharePoint application we have used the UnitOfWork + Repository patterns together with Entity Framework. To avoid the usage of the passthrough authentication we have developed a piece of code that impersonate a single user before creating the ObjectContext instance in a similar way that is described in "Impersonating user with Entity Framework" on this site. The only difference between our code and the referred question is that, to do the impersonation, we are using RunWithElevatedPrivileges to impersonate the Application Pool identity as in the following sample. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(url)) { _context = new MyDataContext(ConfigSingleton.GetInstance().ConnectionString); } }); We have done this way because we expected that creating the ObjectContext after impersonation and, due to the fact that Repositories are receiving the impersonated ObjectContext would solve our requirement. Unfortunately it's not so easy. In fact we experienced that, even if the ObjectContext is created before and under impersonation circumstances, the real connection is made just before executing the query, and so does not use impersonation, which break our requirement. I have checked the ObjectContext class to see if there was any event through which we can inject the impersonation but unfortunately found nothing. Any help?

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• Getting entitlement warning while building an Ad Hoc Distribution Bundle for an Iphone App.

  - by nefsu

  I followed Apple's instructions on how to create an Ad Hoc Distrubution bundle but I keep getting what appears to be a fatal Warning during the build process. As per the instructions, I set the signing identity to my distribution profile at the target (instead of the project), created my Entitlement.plist file and unchecked get-task-allow, linked this file to my target and run the build in distribution for device mode. When I do that, the build completes successful but only after giving the following warning. [WARN]CodeSign warning: entitlements are not applicable for product type 'Application' in SDK 'Device - iPhone OS 3.1.2'; ignoring... The last step in the build is the CodeSign and I've noticed that although it ran without errors, it's missing the --entitlement command line option that is given on the official apple instruction guide. Here is my CodeSign line /usr/bin/codesign -f -s "iPhone Distribution: My Name" --resource-rules=/Volumes/Data/projects/xcode/MyAppName/build/Distribution-iphoneos/MyAppName.app/ResourceRules.plist /Volumes/Data/projects/xcode/MyAppName/build/Distribution-iphoneos/MyAppName.app And here is apple's screen shot of what's expected. Can someone please help me figure out if this is something I'm doing wrong because much to my dismay even the dev forum at apple has very little information on this CodeSign warning.

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• Approach for replacing forms authentication in .NET application

  - by Ash Machine

  My question is about an approach, and I am looking for tips or links to help me develop a solution. I have an .NET 4.0 web forms application that works with Forms authentication using the aspnetdb SQL database of users and passwords. A new feature for the application is a new authentication mechanism using single sign on to allow access for thousands of new users. Essentially, when the user logs in through the new single-sign-on method, I will be able to identify them as legitimate users with a role. So I will have something like HttpContext.Current.Session["email_of_authenticated_user"] (their identity) and HttpContext.Current.Session["role_of_authenticated_user"] (their role). Importantly, I don't necessarily want to maintain these users and roles redundantly in the aspnetdb database which will be retired, but I do want to use the session objects above to allow the user to pass through the application as if they were in passing through with forms authentication. I don't think CustomRoleProviders or CustomMemberProviders are helpful since they do not allow for creating session-level users. So my question is how to use the session level user and role that I do have to "mimic" all the forms authentication goodness like enforcing: [System.Security.Permissions.PrincipalPermission(System.Security.Permissions.SecurityAction.Demand, Role = "Student")] or <authorization> <allow users="wilma, barney" /> </authorization> Thanks for any pointers.

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• Zend: Fetching row from session db table after generating session id

  - by Nux

  Hi, I'm trying to update the session table used by Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable directly after authenticating the user and writing the session to the DB. But I can neither update nor fetch the newly inserted row, even though the session id I use to check (Zend_Session::getId()) is valid and the row is indeed inserted into the table. Upon fetching all session ids (on the same request) the one I newly inserted is missing from the results. It does appear in the results if I fetch it with something else. I've checked whether it is a problem with transactions and that does not seem to be the problem - there is no active transaction when I'm fetching the results. I've also tried fetching a few seconds after writing using sleep(), which doesn't help. $auth->getStorage()->write($ident); //sleep(1) $update = $this->db->update('session', array('uid' => $ident->user_id), 'id='.$this->db->quote(Zend_Session::getId())); $qload = 'SELECT id FROM session'; $load = $this->db->fetchAll($qload); echo $qload; print_r($load); $update fails. $load doesn't contain the row that was written with $auth-getStorage()-write($identity). $qload does contain the correct query - copying it to somewhere else leads to the expected result, that is the inserted row is included in the results. Database used is MySQL - InnoDB. If someone knows how to directly fix this (i.e. on the same request, not doing something like updating after redirecting to another page) without modifying Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable: Thank you very much!

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• SWFUpload Authentication

  - by durilai

  I am using SWFUpload to do file uploading in a ASP.NET MVC 1.0 website. It is working fine, but I am not able to authenticate the upload method. The HttpContext.User.Identity.Name returns an empty string. I am assuming this is because the Flash movie is making the post. I am also using the wrapper provided here: http://blog.codeville.net/2008/11/24/jquery-ajax-uploader-plugin-with-progress-bar/. The controller action below gets fired, but as mentiond above the user object is not passed. Any help is appreciated! View HTML <form enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post" action="/Media/Upload/Photo"> <input type="file" id="userPhoto_Photo" name="userPhoto_Photo" /> </form> Javascript $(function() { $("#userPhoto").makeAsyncUploader({ upload_url: '/Media/Upload', flash_url: '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/Flash/swfUpload-2.2.0.1.swf") %>', file_size_limit: '1 MB', file_types: '*.jpg; *.png; *.gif', button_action: SWFUpload.BUTTON_ACTION.SELECT_FILE, button_width: 210, button_height: 35, button_image_url: '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/Images/UploadPhoto.png") %>', button_text: '', button_cursor: SWFUpload.CURSOR.HAND, button_window_mode: SWFUpload.WINDOW_MODE.TRANSPARENT }); }); Controller Action [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Upload() { if (Request.Files.Count == 1) { //Upload work } return RedirectToAction("Index", "Profile"); }

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• Getting the first result from a LINQ query - why does ElementAt<T>(0) fails when First<T>() succeeds

  - by Mr Roys

  I have a method AddStudent() which looks for a student with the same name and returns an existing student from the database if there is a student with the same name, otherwise it creates a new student and adds it to the database. I'm curious why se = students.First<StudentEntity>(); succeeds when se = students.ElementAt<StudentEntity>(0); fails when I try to get the first result from the LINQ query. Aren't the two methods the same? The full code for the method is shown below. public Student AddStudent(string name) { using (SchoolEntities db = new SchoolEntities()) { // find student with same name via LINQ var students = from s in db.StudentEntitySet where s.name == name select s; StudentEntity se = default(StudentEntity); // if student with the same name is already present, return // that student if (students.Count<StudentEntity>() > 0) { // if i use ElementAt, if fails with a "LINQ to Entities does not // recognize the method 'StudentEntity ElementAt[StudentEntity] // (System.Linq.IQueryable`1[StudentEntity], Int32)' method, // and this method cannot be translated into a store expression.", // but not when I use First. Why? // se = students.ElementAt<StudentEntity>(0); se = students.First<StudentEntity>(); } else { // passing 0 for first parameter (id) since it's represented by // a BigInt IDENTITY field in the database so any value // doesn't matter. se = StudentEntity.CreateStudentEntity(0, name); db.AddToStudentEntitySet(se); db.SaveChanges(); } // create a Student object from the Entity object return new Student(se); } } Thanks!

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• JSF/Seam - new component instance on submit?

  - by purecharger

  And my confusion with JSF continues. This is a continuation of a question asked yesterday, but I feel it warrants a new question. I have a single seam component that expects a URL parameter to be injected for retrieving a List<String> from a method. This works perfectly on the first navigation to the page. The List is used to display many different selectOneRadio groups that populate a <h:form/>. Now on the submit, I cannot get the URL parameter to be injected or otherwise set on the component! Adding <h:inputHidden/> causes FacesExceptions to be thrown. Then I tried setting the List as an instance variable on the object, and when the subsequent call is made on the submit (which I also do not understand why that is done) I check to see if the variable is non-null: if it isn't, return it. Now I found that a new instance of the component is created on submit!!! getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@5fd98420 #### This is when submit is clicked getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@22aacbce The component has the following annotations: Stateful @Scope(ScopeType.CONVERSATION) @Name("bean") @Restrict("#{identity.loggedIn}") Can someone explain why there is a new instance of the component created? I'm really not quite sure how to go about handling this. I thought the hidden parameter would work, because that is how I would do it with straight HTML, and I'm a little surprised that its not working for JSF/Seam.

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• DDD and MVC: Difference between 'Model' and 'Entity'

  - by Nathan Loding

  I'm seriously confused about the concept of the 'Model' in MVC. Most frameworks that exist today put the Model between the Controller and the database, and the Model almost acts like a database abstraction layer. The concept of 'Fat Model Skinny Controller' is lost as the Controller starts doing more and more logic. In DDD, there is also the concept of a Domain Entity, which has a unique identity to it. As I understand it, a user is a good example of an Entity (unique userid, for instance). The Entity has a life-cycle -- it's values can change throughout the course of the action -- and then it's saved or discarded. The Entity I describe above is what I thought Model was supposed to be in MVC? How off-base am I? To clutter things more, you throw in other patterns, such as the Repository pattern (maybe putting a Service in there). It's pretty clear how the Repository would interact with an Entity -- how does it with a Model? Controllers can have multiple Models, which makes it seem like a Model is less a "database table" than it is a unique Entity. So, in very rough terms, which is better? No "Model" really ... class MyController { public function index() { $repo = new PostRepository(); $posts = $repo->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); foreach($posts as $post) { echo $post->Author; } } } Or this, which has a Model as the DAO? class MyController { public function index() { $model = new PostModel(); // maybe this returns a PostRepository? $posts = $model->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); while($posts->getNext()) { echo $posts->Post->Author; } } } Both those examples didn't even do what I was describing above. I'm clearly lost. Any input?

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• calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

  - by CraigJSte

  Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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• SQL Server insert performance

  - by Jose

  I have an insert query that gets generated like this INSERT INTO InvoiceDetail (LegacyId,InvoiceId,DetailTypeId,Fee,FeeTax,Investigatorid,SalespersonId,CreateDate,CreatedById,IsChargeBack,Expense,RepoAgentId,PayeeName,ExpensePaymentId,AdjustDetailId) VALUES(1,1,2,1500.0000,0.0000,163,1002,'11/30/2001 12:00:00 AM',1116,0,550.0000,850,NULL,@ExpensePay1,NULL); DECLARE @InvDetail1 INT; SET @InvDetail1 = (SELECT @@IDENTITY); This query is generated for only 110K rows. It takes 30 minutes for all of these query's to execute I checked the query plan and the largest % nodes are A Clustered Index Insert at 57% query cost which has a long xml that I don't want to post. A Table Spool which is 38% query cost <RelOp AvgRowSize="35" EstimateCPU="5.01038E-05" EstimateIO="0" EstimateRebinds="0" EstimateRewinds="0" EstimateRows="1" LogicalOp="Eager Spool" NodeId="80" Parallel="false" PhysicalOp="Table Spool" EstimatedTotalSubtreeCost="0.0466109"> <OutputList> <ColumnReference Database="[SkipPro]" Schema="[dbo]" Table="[InvoiceDetail]" Column="InvoiceId" /> <ColumnReference Database="[SkipPro]" Schema="[dbo]" Table="[InvoiceDetail]" Column="InvestigatorId" /> <ColumnReference Column="Expr1054" /> <ColumnReference Column="Expr1055" /> </OutputList> <Spool PrimaryNodeId="3" /> </RelOp> So my question is what is there that I can do to improve the speed of this thing? I already run ALTER TABLE TABLENAME NOCHECK CONSTRAINTS ALL Before the queries and then ALTER TABLE TABLENAME NOCHECK CONSTRAINTS ALL after the queries. And that didn't shave off hardly anything off of the time. Know I am running these queries in a .NET application that uses a SqlCommand object to send the query. I then tried to output the sql commands to a file and then execute it using sqlcmd, but I wasn't getting any updates on how it was doing, so I gave up on that. Any ideas or hints or help?

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• Issue Querying LDAP DirectoryEntry in ASP.NET

  - by davemackey

  I have users login to my application via Active Directory and then pull from their AD information to garner information about that user like so: Dim ID as FormsIdentity = DirectCast(User.Identity, FormsIdentity) Dim ticket as FormsAuthenticationTicket = ID.Ticket Dim adDirectory as New DirectoryEntry("LDAP://DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com") Dim adTicketID as String = ticket.Name.Substring(0, 5) Session("people_id") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("employeeID").Value Session("person_name") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("displayName").Value Now, I want to be able to impersonate other users...so that I can "test" the application as them, so I added a textbox and a button to the page and when the button is clicked the text is assigned to a session variable like so: Session("impersonate_user") = TextBox1.Text When the page reloads I check to see if Session("impersonate_user") has a value other than "" and then attempt to query Active Directory using this session variable like so: If CStr(Session("impersonate_user")) <> "" Then Dim adDirectory as New DirectoryEntry(LDAP://DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com") Dim adTicketID as String = CStr(Session("impersonate_user")) Session("people_id") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("employeeID").Value Session("person_name")= adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("displayName").Value Else [use the actual ticket.name to get this info.] End If But this doesn't work. Instead, it throws an error on the first Session line stating, "DirectoryServicesCOMException was unhandled by user code There is no such object on the server." Why? I know I'm giving it a valid username! Is something strange happening in the casting of the session? The code is essentially the same between each method except that in one method rather than pulling from ticket.Name I pull from a session variable for the login I'll be looking up with AD.

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• deadlock because of foreign key?

  - by George2

  Hello everyone, I am using SQL Server 2008 Enterprise. I met with deadlock in the following store procedure, but because of my fault, I did not record the deadlock graph. But now I can not reproduce deadlock issue. I want to have a postmortem to find the root cause of deadlock to avoid deadlock in the future. The deadlock happens on delete statement. For the delete statement, Param1 is a column of table FooTable, Param1 is a foreign key of another table (refers to another primary key clustered index column of the other table). There is no index on Param1 itself for table FooTable. FooTable has another column which is used as clustered primary key, but not Param1 column. Here is my guess why there is deadlock, and I want to let people review whether my analysis is correct? Since Param1 column has no index, there will be a table scan, and will acquire table level lock, because of foreign key, the delete operation will also need to check master table (e.g. to acquire lock on master table); Some operation on master table acquires master table lock, but want to acquire lock on FooTable; (1) and (2) cause cycle lock which makes deadlock happen. My analysis correct? Any reproduce scenario? create PROCEDURE [dbo].[FooProc] ( @Param1 int ,@Param2 int ,@Param3 int ) AS DELETE FooTable WHERE Param1 = @Param1 INSERT INTO FooTable ( Param1 ,Param2 ,Param3 ) VALUES ( @Param1 ,@Param2 ,@Param3 ) DECLARE @ID bigint SET @ID = ISNULL(@@Identity,-1) IF @ID > 0 BEGIN SELECT IdentityStr FROM FooTable WHERE ID = @ID END thanks in advance, George

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• [hibernate - jpa] @CollectionOfElements without create the apposite table

  - by blow

  Hi all. I have this: Municipality class @Entity public class Municipality implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Long id; private String country; private String province; private String name; @Column(name="cod_catasto") private String codCatastale; private String cap; @CollectionOfElements private List<Address> addressList; public Municipality() { } ... Address class @Embeddable public class Address implements Serializable { @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY) @Cascade(CascadeType.SAVE_UPDATE) private Municipality municipality; @Column(length=45) private String address; public Address() { } ... Address is embedded in another class Person. When i save an instance of Person, hibernate create 3 tables: PERSON, MUNICIPALITY and MUNICIPALITY_ADDRESSLIST. MUNICIPALITY_ADDRESSLIST contains 2 fields: MUNICIPALITY_ID (FK) and STREET. I don't want this table, i only want the ID of table MUNICIPALITY into table PERSON(that embeds Address), what should i do? I tried to add @JoinTable in Municipality entity like this: @CollectionOfElements @JoinTable(name="person") private List<Address> addressList; It partially worked, but i cant choose the column name of table PERSON that contains ID of the table MUNICIPALITY, it is, by hibernate choose, simply "MUNICIPALITY_ID"... Thbaks.

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• Adding a custom subview (created in a xib) to a view controller's view - What am I doing wrong

  - by Fran

  I've created a view in a xib (with an activity indicator, a progress view and a label). Then I've created .h/.m files: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface MyCustomView : UIView { IBOutlet UIActivityIndicatorView *actIndicator; IBOutlet UIProgressView *progressBar; IBOutlet UILabel *statusMsg; } @end #import "MyCustomView.h" @implementation MyCustomView - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if ((self = [super initWithFrame:frame])) { // Initialization code } return self; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end In IB, I set the file's owner and view identity to MyCustomView and connect the IBOutlet to the File's owner In MyViewController.m, I've: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; UIView *subView = [[MyCustomView alloc] initWithFrame:myTableView.frame]; [subView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor colorWithRed:0.0 green:0.0 blue:0.0 alpha:0.5]]; [myTableView addSubview:subView]; [subView release]; } When I run the app, the view is added, but I can't see the label, the progress bar and the activity indicator. What am I doing wrong?

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• Validate domain against LDAP?

  - by lucian.jp

  I have a procedure to get the name of the logged user show on the site. I get it this way : var winIdentity = (WindowsIdentity) HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; if (winIdentity != null) { string domainUser = winIdentity.Name.Replace(@"\", "/"); string domain = winIdentity.Name.Split('\\')[0]; string user = winIdentity.Name.Split('\\')[1]; var myDe = new DirectoryEntry(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["LDAP"].ConnectionString, ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["LDAPCredentials"].Split(';')[0], ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["LDAPCredentials"].Split(';')[1]); var deSearcher = new DirectorySearcher(myDe) {Filter = "(&(sAMAccountName=" + user + "))"}; SearchResult result = deSearcher.FindOne(); if (result != null) { DirectoryEntry userDe = result.GetDirectoryEntry(); lblNameAD.Text = string.Format(lblNameAD.Text, userDe.Properties["givenName"].Value, userDe.Properties["sn"].Value); } else { var adEntry = new DirectoryEntry("WinNT://" + domainUser); string fullname = adEntry.Properties["FullName"].Value.ToString(); lblNameAD.Text = string.Format(lblNameAD.Text, !string.IsNullOrEmpty(fullname) ? fullname : user, null); } } Probleme id that if I have a local useraccount with the same username that one from LDAP, it passes the check and return the name. EX: local\MyUser domain\MyUser Both return the name from AD even if the one from local isn't a domain account. It would be perfect if I could search in LDAP for domainuser, but it seems I can't. I also tried to restrict the DC with the DirectorySearcher but the domain name is "domain", but I only have "dc=dom" and "dc=com" and no DC for full domain name.

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• Linq-to-SQL: How to shape the data with group by?

  - by Cheeso

  I have an example database, it contains tables for Movies, People and Credits. The Movie table contains a Title and an Id. The People table contains a Name and an Id. The Credits table relates Movies to the People that worked on those Movies, in a particular role. The table looks like this: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Credits] ( [Id] [int] IDENTITY (1, 1) NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, [PersonId] [int] NOT NULL FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES People(Id), [MovieId] [int] NOT NULL FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES Movies(Id), [Role] [char] (1) NULL In this simple example, the [Role] column is a single character, by my convention either 'A' to indicate the person was an actor on that particular movie, or 'D' for director. I'd like to perform a query on a particular person that returns the person's name, plus a list of all the movies the person has worked on, and the roles in those movies. If I were to serialize it to json, it might look like this: { "name" : "Clint Eastwood", "movies" : [ { "title": "Unforgiven", "roles": ["actor", "director"] }, { "title": "Sands of Iwo Jima", "roles": ["director"] }, { "title": "Dirty Harry", "roles": ["actor"] }, ... ] } How can I write a LINQ-to-SQL query that shapes the output like that? I'm having trouble doing it efficiently. if I use this query: int personId = 10007; var persons = from p in db.People where p.Id == personId select new { name = p.Name, movies = (from m in db.Movies join c in db.Credits on m.Id equals c.MovieId where (c.PersonId == personId) select new { title = m.Title, role = (c.Role=="D"?"director":"actor") }) }; I get something like this: { "name" : "Clint Eastwood", "movies" : [ { "title": "Unforgiven", "role": "actor" }, { "title": "Unforgiven", "role": "director" }, { "title": "Sands of Iwo Jima", "role": "director" }, { "title": "Dirty Harry", "role": "actor" }, ... ] } ...but as you can see there's a duplicate of each movie for which Eastwood played multiple roles. How can I shape the output the way I want?

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• SQL Server 2005, wide indexes, computed columns, and sargable queries

  - by luksan

  In my database, assume we have a table defined as follows: CREATE TABLE [Chemical]( [ChemicalId] int NOT NULL IDENTITY(1,1) PRIMARY KEY, [Name] nvarchar(max) NOT NULL, [Description] nvarchar(max) NULL ) The value for Name can be very large, so we must use nvarchar(max). Unfortunately, we want to create an index on this column, but nvarchar(max) is not supported inside an index. So we create the following computed column and associated index based upon it: ALTER TABLE [Chemical] ADD [Name_Indexable] AS LEFT([Name], 20) CREATE INDEX [IX_Name] ON [Chemical]([Name_Indexable]) INCLUDE([Name]) The index will not be unique but we can enforce uniqueness via a trigger. If we perform the following query, the execution plan results in a index scan, which is not what we want: SELECT [ChemicalId], [Name], [Description] FROM [Chemical] WHERE [Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-2-carboxylic acid, 4'',5-dihydroxy-2'',3-dimethyl-5'',6-bis[(1-oxo-2-propen-1-yl)oxy]-, methyl ester' However, if we modify the query to make it "sargable," then the execution plan results in an index seek, which is what we want: SELECT [ChemicalId], [Name], [Description] FROM [Chemical] WHERE [Indexable_Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-' AND [Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-2-carboxylic acid, 4'',5-dihydroxy-2'',3-dimethyl-5'',6-bis[(1-oxo-2-propen-1-yl)oxy]-, methyl ester' Is this a good solution if we control the format of all queries executed against the database via our middle tier? Is there a better way? Is this a major kludge? Should we be using full-text indexing?

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• SQL Concurrent test update question

  - by ptoinson

  Howdy Folks, I have a SQLServer 2008 database in which I have a table for Tags. A tag is just an id and a name. The definition of the tags table looks like: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Tag]( [ID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Name] [varchar](255) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT [PK_Tag] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [ID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ) Name is also a unique index. further I have several processes adding data to this table at a pretty rapid rate. These processes use a stored proc that looks like: ALTER PROC [dbo].[lg_Tag_Insert] @Name varchar(255) AS DECLARE @ID int SET @ID = (select ID from Tag where Name=@Name ) if @ID is null begin INSERT Tag(Name) VALUES (@Name) RETURN SCOPE_IDENTITY() end else begin return @ID end My issues is that, other than being a novice at concurrent database design, there seems to be a race condition that is causing me to occasionally get an error that I'm trying to enter duplicate keys (Name) into the DB. The error is: Cannot insert duplicate key row in object 'dbo.Tag' with unique index 'IX_Tag_Name'. This makes sense, I'm just not sure how to fix this. If it where code I would know how to lock the right areas. SQLServer is quite a different beast. First question is what is the proper way to code this 'check, then update pattern'? It seems I need to get an exclusive lock on the row during the check, rather than a shared lock, but it's not clear to me the best way to do that. Any help in the right direction will be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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• Misalignement in the output Bitmap created from a byte array

  - by Daniel

  I am trying to understand why I have troubles creating a Bitmap from a byte array. I post this after a careful scrutiny of the existing posts about Bitmap creation from byte arrays, like the followings: Creating a bitmap from a byte[], Working with Image and Bitmap in c#?, C#: Bitmap Creation using bytes array My code is aimed to execute a filter on a digital image 8bppIndexed writing the pixel value on a byte [] buffer to be converted again (after some processing to manage gray levels) in a 8BppIndexed Bitmap My input image is a trivial image created by means of specific perl code: https://www.box.com/shared/zqt46c4pcvmxhc92i7ct Of course, after executing the filter the output image has lost the first and last rows and the first and last columns, due to the way the filter manage borders, so from the original 256 x 256 image i get a 254 x 254 image. Just to stay focused on the issue I have commented the code responsible for executing the filter so that the operation really performed is an obvious: ComputedPixel = InputImage.GetPixel(myColumn, myRow).R; I know, i should use lock and unlock but I prefer one headache one by one. Anyway this code should be a sort of identity transform, and at last i use: private unsafe void FillOutputImage() { OutputImage = new Bitmap (OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows , PixelFormat .Format8bppIndexed); ColorPalette ncp = OutputImage.Palette; for (int i = 0; i < 256; i++) ncp.Entries[i] = Color .FromArgb(255, i, i, i); OutputImage.Palette = ncp; Rectangle area = new Rectangle(0, 0, OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows); var data = OutputImage.LockBits(area, ImageLockMode.WriteOnly, OutputImage.PixelFormat); Marshal .Copy (byteBuffer, 0, data.Scan0, byteBuffer.Length); OutputImage.UnlockBits(data); } The output image I get is the following: https://www.box.com/shared/p6tubyi6dsf7cyregg9e It is quite clear that I am losing a pixel per row, but i cannot understand why: I have carefully controlled all the parameters: OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows and the byte [] byteBuffer length and content even writing known values as way to test. The code is nearly identical to other code posted in stackOverflow and elsewhere. Someone maybe could help to identify where the problem is? Thanks a lot

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• Google App Engine JDO error caused by GregorianCalendar ?

  - by Frank

  My class looks like this : import javax.jdo.annotations.IdGeneratorStrategy; import javax.jdo.annotations.IdentityType; import javax.jdo.annotations.PersistenceCapable; import javax.jdo.annotations.Persistent; import javax.jdo.annotations.PrimaryKey; @PersistenceCapable(identityType=IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class Contact_Info implements Serializable { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy=IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) Long Id; public static final long serialVersionUID=26362862L; @Persistent String Contact_Id=""; @Persistent GregorianCalendar Date_1; public Contact_Info() { } public void setId(Long value) { Id=value; } public Long getId() { return Id; } public void setContact_Id(String value) { Contact_Id=value; } public String getContact_Id() { return Contact_Id; } public void setDate_1(GregorianCalendar value) { Date_1=value; } public GregorianCalendar getDate_1() { return Date_1; } public String toString() { return Contact_Id; } } When it's run, I got the following error : java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException org.datanucleus.store.appengine.EntityUtils.getPropertyName(EntityUtils.java:62) org.datanucleus.store.appengine.DatastoreFieldManager.storeObjectField(DatastoreFieldManager.java:839) org.datanucleus.state.AbstractStateManager.providedObjectField(AbstractStateManager.java:1037) PayPal_Monitor.Contact_Info.jdoProvideField(Contact_Info.java) PayPal_Monitor.Contact_Info.jdoProvideFields(Contact_Info.java) org.datanucleus.state.JDOStateManagerImpl.provideFields(JDOStateManagerImpl.java:2715) org.datanucleus.store.appengine.DatastorePersistenceHandler.insertPreProcess(DatastorePersistenceHandler.java:341) org.datanucleus.store.appengine.DatastorePersistenceHandler.insertObjects(DatastorePersistenceHandler.java:251) If I take out the "GregorianCalendar Date_1", it works correctly, what should I do to fix it ? I do need the date in it. Frank

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• Adding a minimum display time for Silverlight splash screen.

  - by David

  When hosting a silverlight application on a webpage it is possible to use the splashscreensource parameter to specify a simple Silverlight 1.0 (xaml+javascript) control to be displayed while the real xap file is downloaded, and which can receive notification of the downloads progress through onSourceDownloadProgressChanged. If the xap file is in cache, the splash screen is not shown (and if the download only takes 1 second, the splash screen will only be shown for 1 second). I know this is not best practice in general, but I am looking for a way to specify a minimum display time for the splash screen - even if the xap cached or the download is fast, the splash screen would remain up for at least, let's say, 5 seconds (for example to show a required legal disclaimer, corporate identity mark or other bug). I do want to do it in the splash screen exclusively (rather then in the main xap) as I want it to be clean and uninterupted (for example a sound bug) and shown to the user as soon as they open the page, rather then after the download (which could take anywhere from 1 to 20+ seconds). I'd prefer not to accomplish this with preloading - replacing the splash screen with a full Silverlight xap application (with it's own loading screen), which then programmably loads and displays the full xap after a minimum wait time.

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• Discriminator based on joined property

  - by Andrew

  Suppose I have this relationship: abstract class Base { int Id; int JoinedId; ... } class Joined { int Id; int Discriminator; ... } class Sub1 : Base { ... } class Sub2 : Base { ... } for the following tables: table Base ( Id int, JoinedId int, ... ) table Joined ( Id int, Discriminator int, ... ) I would like to set up a table-per-hierarchy inheritance mapping for the Base, Sub1, Sub2 relationships, but using the Disciminator property from the Joined class as the discriminator. Here's the general idea for the mapping file: <class name="Base" table="Base"> <id name="Id"><generator class="identity"/></id> <discriminator /> <!-- ??? or <join> or <many-to-one>? --> <subclass name="Sub1" discriminator-value="1">...</subclass> <subclass name="Sub2" discriminator-value="2">...</subclass> </class> Is there any way of accomplishing something like this with the <discriminator>, <join>, or <many-to-one>? NHiberante seems to assume the discriminator is a column on the given table (which makes sense to me.. I know this is unorthodox). Thanks.

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