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• C#/SQL: How to create dynamic tables/fields in C# using SQL Statements

  - by eibhrum

  Hi, I just wanna ask if there's a way in C#/ASP.NET to create 'dynamic' tables/fields similar to phpMyAdmin: Any suggestions/comments?

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• Problem with Unit testing of ASP.NET project (NullReferenceException when running the test)

  - by Alex

  Hi, I'm trying to create a bunch of MS visual studio unit tests for my n-tiered web app but for some reason I can't run those tests and I get the following error - "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" What I'm trying to do is testing of my data access layer where I use LINQ data context class to execute a certain function and return a result,however during the debugging process I found out that all the tests fail as soon as they get to the LINQ data context class and it has something to do with the connection string but I cant figure out what is the problem. The debugging of tests fails here(the second line): public EICDataClassesDataContext() : base(global::System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["EICDatabaseConnectionString"].ConnectionString, mappingSource) { OnCreated(); } And my test is as follows: TestMethod()] public void OnGetCustomerIDTest() { FrontLineStaffDataAccess target = new FrontLineStaffDataAccess(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value string regNo = "jonh"; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value int expected = 10; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value int actual; actual = target.OnGetCustomerID(regNo); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } The method which I call from DAL is: public int OnGetCustomerID(string regNo) { using (LINQDataAccess.EICDataClassesDataContext dataContext = new LINQDataAccess.EICDataClassesDataContext()) { IEnumerable<LINQDataAccess.GetCustomerIDResult> sProcCustomerIDResult = dataContext.GetCustomerID(regNo); int customerID = sProcCustomerIDResult.First().CustomerID; return customerID; } } So basically everything fails after it reaches the 1st line of DA layer method and when it tries to instantiate the LINQ data access class... I've spent around 10 hours trying to troubleshoot the problem but no result...I would really appreciate any help! UPDATE: Finally I've fixed this!!!!:) I dont know why but for some reasons in the app.config file the connection to my database was as follows: AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\EICDatabase.MDF So what I did is I just changed the path and instead of |DataDirectory| I put the actual path where my MDF file sits,i.e C:\Users\1\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\EICWebSystem\EICWebSystem\App_Data\EICDatabase.mdf After I had done that it worked out!But still it's a bit not clear what was the problem...probably incorrect path to the database?My web.config of ASP.NET project contains the |DataDirectory|\EICDatabase.MDF path though..

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• ASP.NET MVC View Engine Resolution Sequence

  - by intangible02

  I created a simple ASP.NET MVC version 1.0 application. I have a ProductController which has one action Index. In the view, I created a corresponding Index.aspx under Product subfolder. Then I referenced the Spark dll and created Index.spark under the same Product view folder. The Application_Start looks like protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ViewEngines.Engines.Clear(); ViewEngines.Engines.Add(new Spark.Web.Mvc.SparkViewFactory()); ViewEngines.Engines.Add(new WebFormViewEngine()); } My expectation is that since the Spark engine registers before default WebFormViewEngine, when browse the Index action in Product controller, the Spark engine should be used, and WebFormViewEngine should be used for all other urls. However, the test shows that the Index action for Product controller also uses the WebFormViewEngine. If I comment out the registration of WebFormViewEnginer (the last line in the code), I can see that the Index action is rendered by Spark engine and the rest urls generates an error (since the defualt engine is gone), it proves that all my Spark code is correct. Now my question is how the view engine is resolved? Why the registration sequence does not take effect?

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• Development environment for ASP.NET with EpiServer

  - by Binary255

  At our company we are going to develop more for the Windows platform than we have done up until now. As this scale of Windows development is new to us it would be nice with some feedback from experienced developers. Requirements we have: 5 developers from the beginning. 15 developers a year from now. All developers should be able to develop at the same time. Be able to develop solution for ASP.NET and EpiServer 5. Our idea: A shared server which developers use for development through Terminal Services. SQL Server Express. Start with some free express edition of Visual Studio, upgrade to a commercial version if we need the additional features. Use IIS and not the web server built into Visual Studio. Questions: Are we on the right track? In terms of license costs the above should be cheapest, right? What do you think about multiple developers doing development using a shared TS-server? Do you know of any company which has a similar development environment? Are we going to miss some features of the full Visual Studio version immediately? Is using Express version a bad choice? Is IIS the best choice? If use IIS the developers may use the same port for deployment. If we use the built in web server each one has to set their own port as we're sharing a machine. Comment answer: We are thinking about a shared server as it will most likely decrease the license costs. So it's purely a cost issue. We are using CVS for version control. Our situation is that we develop on Mac and Linux, that's why buying 1 server license + Visual Studio licenses seems to be a cost effective way of starting this type of development.

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• Moving a ASP.NET application to the cloud

  - by user102533

  I am new to cloud computing, so please bear with me here. I have an existing ASP.NET application with SQL Server 2008 hosted on a Virtual Private Server. Here's what it briefly does: The front end accepts user's requests and adds them to a DB table A Windows Service running in the background picks up the request, processes it and sets a flag. The Windows Services also creates a file for the user to download. User downloads file I'd like to move this web application with the service to the cloud. The architecture I envision is that I'll have 1 Web server in which I will install the front end and the windows service. I'll also have a cloud files server for file storage. The windows service should somehow create a file and transfer it to the cloud file server (I assume this is possible?) My questions: Does the architecture look like I am going in the right direction? I know Amazon has been providing cloud services for a long time. If I want to do minimal changes to my application, should I go with Amazon, Rackspace, Azure or some other provider? I understand that I would not only pay for file storage and web server but also for the bandwidth of users downloading the file and the windows servic uploading the file to the cloud server. Can I assume these costs are negligible? Should I go with VPS + Cloud Files combination to begin with? Any other thoughts/suggestions?

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• Add reference to .dll asp.net

  - by Andy

  Hi, I have a simple question about adding references to a .NET project. I'm adding reCAPTCHA to a website and i have downloaded the dll. After setting the reference to the dll i build and run the project and gets this error: [ReflectionTypeLoadException: Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information.] System.Reflection.Module._GetTypesInternal(StackCrawlMark& stackMark) +0 System.Reflection.Assembly.GetTypes() +96 StarSuite.Core.Settings.GetSingletonInstancesOfBaseType(Type baseType, String staticMethodName, Type returnType) +149 [ApplicationException: Unable to load types from 'Recaptcha, Version=1.0.5.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=9afc4d65b28c38c2'. LoaderExceptions: [FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified.] ] What am i missing, why do i get this error?

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• How do I send an XML document to an ASP.NET MVC page for manipuation

  - by Decker

  I have some hierarchical data stored as an multiple XML files on the server according to a vendor's schema. In my ASP.NET MVC (2!) application, I'd like the user to choose one of these hierarchies (i.e. file -- I provide a list in my controller's Index action). When the user selects one to "edit" my edit action should return a page that presents the XML hierarchy (it's a representation of a folder tree). So my thoughts are that the view would return HTML that contained a JQuery on load ajax call back to the server for the XML data -- at which point I would present the tree using one of the many JQuery tree controls. On the client side I'd like the user to manipulate the tree and when done, I'd like to post back the new hierarchy where I would replace the original XML file that represents that hierarchy. So my questions are: What form should I use to send the data down? XML or JSON?. If I send down XML then I would have to not only read the XML -- which JQuery can do -- but I would also have to be able to modify that XML and then send it back. Can I use JQuery to modify this XML DOM? And will all the namespace declarations be preserved? What form should I send the data back? If I originally sent the client the hierarchy as JSON (using JsonResult), then presumably I would have a hierarchy of javascript objects. What options would I have to post that back? Would I have to recreate the XML reprentation on the client and post that back? Or should I serialize back to JSON, post that to the server, and then have the server do the work of recreating the XML according to the schema. Thanks for any advice.

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• ASP.NET lock thread method

  - by Peter

  Hello, I'm developing an ASP.NET forms webapplication using C#. I have a method which creates a new Order for a customer. It looks similar to this; private string CreateOrder(string userName) { // Fetch current order Order order = FetchOrder(userName); if (order.OrderId == 0) { // Has no order yet, create a new one order.OrderNumber = Utility.GenerateOrderNumber(); order.Save(); } return order; } The problem here is, it is possible that 1 customer in two requests (threads) could cause this method to be called twice while another thread is also inside this method. This can cause two orders to be created. How can I properly lock this method, so it can only be executed by one thread at a time per customer? I tried; Mutex mutex = null; private string CreateOrder(string userName) { if (mutex == null) { mutex = new Mutex(true, userName); } mutex.WaitOne(); // Code from above mutex.ReleaseMutex(); mutex = null; return order; } This works, but on some occasions it hangs on WaitOne and I don't know why. Is there an error, or should I use another method to lock? Thanks

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• How to elegantly handle ReturnUrl when using UrlRewrite in ASP.NET 2.0 WebForms

  - by Brian Kim

  I have a folder with multiple .aspx pages that I want to restrict access to. I have added web.config to that folder with <deny users="?"/>. The problem is that ReturnUrl is auto-generated with physical path to the .aspx file while I'm using UrlRewrite. Is there a way to manipulate ReturnUrl without doing manual authentication check and redirection? Is there a way to set ReturnUrl from code-behind or from web.config? EDIT: The application is using ASP.NET 2.0 WebForms. I cannot use 3.5 routing. EDIT 2: It seems like 401 status code is never captured. It returns 302 for protected page and redirects to login page with ReturnUrl. It does not return 401 for protected page. Hmm... Interesting... Ref: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa480476.aspx This makes things harder... I might have to write reverse rewrite mapping rules to regex match ReturnUrl and replace it if it doesn't return 401... If it does return 401 I can either set RawUrl to Response.RedirectLocation or replace ReturnUrl with RawUrl. Anyone else have any other ideas?

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• Upload image from Silverlight to ASP .net MVC 2.0 Action

  - by Raha

  Hello ... I have been trying really hard to Upload a photo from a Silverlight app to ASP .net MVC app. I simply use WebClient like this in Silverlight : private bool UploadFile(string fileName, Stream data) { try { UriBuilder ub = new UriBuilder("http://localhost:59933/Admin/Upload"); ub.Query = string.Format("filename={0}", fileName); WebClient wc = new WebClient(); wc.OpenReadCompleted += (sender, e) => { PushData(data, e.Result); e.Result.Close(); data.Close(); }; wc.OpenWriteAsync(ub.Uri); } catch (Exception) { throw; } return true; } private void PushData(Stream input, Stream output) { byte[] buffer = new byte[4096]; int byteRead; while ((byteRead = input.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length)) != 0) { output.Write(buffer, 0, byteRead); } } On the other hand I have created a simple action called Upload like this: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Upload() { //Some code here } The problem is that it doesn't hit the break point in Upload method. Is this even possible ? The reason why I am using Silverlight is that I want to preview the image before uploading it to server and it is very simple in Silverlight. I failed to do that in JavaScript and that is why Silverlight might be more useful here.

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• Problem with EDM in ASP.NET MVC

  - by Mannsi

  Hello, I have a question that is pretty similar to this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/899734/strongly-typed-asp-net-mvc-with-entity-framework but the solutions for that question don't work for me. Let me start by saying that I don't know a great deal about the subject I am asking about. I have the following code [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(PaymentInformation paymentInformationToEdit, int pensionFundID) { var originalPaymentInformation = (from PIs in _db.PaymentInformation where PIs.employeeNumber == paymentInformation.employeeNumber select PIs).First(); var laborUnion = (from LUs in _db.LaborUnion where LUs.laborUnionID = laborUnionID select LUs)First(); paymentInformationToEdit.laborUnion = laborUnion; _db.ApplyProperyChanges(originalPaymentInformation.EntityKey.EntitySetName, paymentInformationToEdit); _db.SaveChanges(); } I get an error when I try for the ApplyProperyChanges saying 'The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state'. I don't know how to change the state to either, or even if I am doing something fundamentally wrong. Please advice. EDIT: I hope this is the way to go here on stackoverflow. I haven't gotten an answer that solved my problem but Gregoire below posted a possible solution that I didn't understand. I hope this edit bumps my question so somebody will see it and help me. Sorry if this is not the way to go.

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• Can ASP.net MVC 2 Project and CMS can be Combined together

  - by coolguy97

  Hi, I have developed project using Asp.net MVC 2.Now the content part of My site i don't want to build a Cms for that So my question is can i used any existing CMS developed in MVC2 so that The content part will be taken care of by the CMS and Application part by developed project by me. I have used CMS like Silverstripe which is quite easy which also provides ORM to develop application on their Sapphire engine which but developed in PHP. If it is Combined then when writing Code i will write like this [This just Sample Imaginary Code.I just want CMS to be easy] <logo><Pick_up_from_CMS ID=logo></logo> <menu><Pick_up_from_CMS ID=menu></menu> <header><Pick_up_from_CMS ID=header></header> <body> <Pick_up_from_CMS ID=body> <MY_Application_Logic ID=Logic1><!--This May be my Registration or Search form> --> </body> <footer><Pick_up_from_CMS ID=footer></footer>

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• ASP.NET Event delegation between user controls

  - by Ishan

  Give the following control hierarchy on a ASP.NET page: Page HeaderControl       (User Control) TitleControl       (Server Control) TabsControl       (User Control) other controls I'm trying to raise an event (or some notification) in the TitleControl that bubbles to the Page level. Then, I'd like to (optionally) register an event handler at the Page codebehind that will take the EventArgs and modify the TabsControl in the example above. The important thing to note is that this design will allow me to drop these controls into any Page and make the entire system work seamlessly if the event handler is wired up. The solution should not involve a call to FindControl() since that becomes a strong association. If no handler is defined in the containing Page, the event is still raised by TitleControl but is not handled. My basic goal is to use event-based programming so that I can decouple the user controls from each other. The event from TitleControl is only raised in some instances, and this seemed to be (in my head) the preferred approach. However, I can't seem to find a way to cleanly achieve this. Here are my (poor) attempts: Using HttpContext.Current.Items Add the EventArgs to the Items collection on TitleControl and pick it up on the TabsControl. This works but it's fundamentally hard to decipher since the connection between the two controls is not obvious. Using Reflection Instead of passing events, look for a function on the container Page directly within TitleControl as in: Page.GetType().GetMethod("TabControlHandler").Invoke(Page, EventArgs); This will work, but the method name will have to be a constant that all Page instances will have to defined verbatim. I'm sure that I'm over-thinking this and there must be a prettier solution using delegation, but I can't seem to think of it. Any thoughts?

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• Asp.net MVC error with custom HttpModule

  - by Robert Koritnik

  I have a custom authentication HttpModule that is pretty strait forward. But I want it to run only for managed requests (and not for static ones). Asp.net MVC automatically adds configuration section for IIS7 web server: <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false" /> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> <remove name="ScriptModule" /> <remove name="UrlRoutingModule" /> <add name="ScriptModule" preCondition="managedHandler" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptModule,..." /> <add name="UrlRoutingModule" type="System.Web.Routing.UrlRoutingModule,..." /> </modules> <handlers> ... </handlers> </system.webServer> When I add my own module I also set its preCondition="managedHandler", but since there's runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true" on parent <module> element my preCondition is ignored by design (as I read on MSDN). When I try to set though: <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="false"> I get this error: [image no longer valid] What else (which other module) do I have to set in web.config to make it work with this setting: <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="false">

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• ASP.net dynamic controls issue when trying to reverse them

  - by Mattias Sandsäter

  I add some DropDownList dynamically to my form. It seems to work as it should when I use ...Controls.Add(dropdownlist), but in an attempt to turn them around and show them in reversed order I have tried to use ....Controls.AddAt(0, dropdownlist) However, this causes some strange behaviour. Before we dig in to the code, is there something I should know about dynamic adding, and more specific the AddAt()-method that usually causes trouble? Short description about what I do I start with a DropDownList (level1), when I choose something there, a new list should be added (level2) and so on. You can say you go your way down in a menu structure. Whenever you want you can change your choice at whatever level you want (of course not on later levels that you dont see yet). So lets say you are down to level 4 (You then have four boxes) and change your choice at level1, when the page reloads you are back to two boxes. http://forums.asp.net/p/885886/927411.aspx It seems that my problem was discussed here, but I didn´t see any solution about how I can acheive my intended behaviour.

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• Recommendations, Asp.Net ObjectDataSource bind result of webservice call

  - by DerDres

  I need recommendations on how to solve / structure a solution to the following problem. In an asp.net web application i'll have to visualise results returned from a web service call. Im planning to use a repeater server control and bind this with an objectdatasource. The service returns a result of the form: public class SearchResult : IExtensibleDataObject { [DataMember] public Guid SearchId { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime Timestamp { get; set; } [DataMember] public int Offset { get; set; } [DataMember] public int TotalResults { get; set; } [DataMember] public IList<ResultDocumentData> Documents { get; set; } It is the collection of Documents that I need to visualise with a repeater which will be associated with an ObjectDataSource. The datasource should work on the type ResultDocumentData; the collection property in the class SearchResult. I think I need to wrap the call to the webservice in a dataaccess layer class, that will have a getDocuments method returning an IList, that the ObjectDataSource can use as its SelectMethod. I think I could make this work, but I would like to know how to do it in an elegant way. Can you give me general recommendations and/or recommendations for the following: WebProject Folderstructure + naming Naming conventions for the name of the service wrapper class Creating the service reference

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• asp.net multiligual website culture settings

  - by Hemant Kothiyal

  Hi, In asp.net multilingual website in english Uk and swedish, i have three rsources file 1. en-GB.resx 2. sv-SE.resx 3. Culture neutral file. I have create one base class and all pages is inherited from that class. There i write following lines to set UICULTURE and culture 1. Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture.Name; 2. Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture = CultureInfo.CurrentCulture.Name; Question: Suppose my browser language is Swedish(sv-SE) then this code will run because it find CurrentUICulture and CurrentCulture values as sv-SE. Now if suppose browser language is Swedish(sv) only, in that case values will be set as CurrentUICulture = sv; and CurrentCulture = sv-SE Now the problem is that user can able to view all text in Culture neutral resource file that i kept as english while all decimal saperators, currency and other will be appear in swedish. It looks confusing to usr. What would be right approach. I am thinking following solution. Please correct me? 1. i can create extra resource file for sv also. 2. I check value of CurrentUICulture in base class and if it is sv then replace it with sv-SE Please correct me which one is right approach or Is there any other good way of doing?

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• ObjectDataSource DataObjectTypeName Help. Pass object as parameter

  - by Kettenbach

  I have a partial class (the main class is a LinqToSql generated class) <DataObject(True)> _ Partial Public Class MBI_Contract <DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select, True)> _ Public Shared Function GetCancelableContracts(ByVal dealer As Dealer) As List(Of MBI_Contract) Return Utilities.GetCancelableContractsForDealer(dealer) End Function End Class Here is the method it's calling Public Function GetCancelableContractsForDealer(ByVal dealer As Dealer) As List(Of MBI_Contract) Dim db As TestDataContext = TestDataContext.Create() Return (From mbi As MBI_Contract In db.MBI_Contracts _ Where mbi.MBI_DealerNumber = dealer.DealerNumber _ AndAlso mbi.MBI_PaidFor = True _ AndAlso mbi.MBI_Deleted = False).ToList() End Function I want to use the ObjectDataSource to drive a DropDownList. <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="contractOds" runat="server" TypeName="MBI_Contract" SelectMethod="GetCancelableContracts" DataObjectTypeName="Dealer"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> My aspx page has a Dealer property that is set in a BasePage. My question is how can I pass this property(object) to the ObjectDataSource, so it can be evaluated in my select method. Does anyone know how I can do this? Or am I totally doing this the wrong way? Thanks for any Advice, Cheers, ~ck in San Diego

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• Simple ASP.NET MVC views without writing a controller

  - by Jake Stevenson

  We're building a site that will have very minimal code, it's mostly just going to be a bunch of static pages served up. I know over time that will change and we'll want to swap in more dynamic information, so I've decided to go ahead and build a web application using ASP.NET MVC2 and the Spark view engine. There will be a couple of controllers that will have to do actual work (like in the /products area), but most of it will be static. I want my designer to be able to build and modify the site without having to ask me to write a new controller or route every time they decide to add or move a page. So if he wants to add a "http://mysite.com/News" page he can just create a "News" folder under Views and put an index.spark page within it. Then later if he decides he wants a /News/Community page, he can drop a community.spark file within that folder and have it work. I'm able to have a view without a specific action by making my controllers override HandleUnknownAction, but I still have to create a controller for each of these folders. It seems silly to have to add an empty controller and recompile every time they decide to add an area to the site. Is there any way to make this easier, so I only have to write a controller and recompile if there's actual logic to be done? Some sort of "master" controller that will handle any requests where there was no specific controller defined?

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• Need a Security Scenario for asp.net webservice

  - by Karamafrooz

  I have developed a .Net 3.5 windows forms application. I also want to design a website that has a webservice with multiple Webmethods to query the database on the host machine. I want the webservice to be called ONLY through my winapp and my website! And I don't want any other people to be able to call and use my webservice but only some people who have access to the windows application that I have developed. I need a good security scenario for this! I truly appreciate anyone who can help me because this is my first experience of developing a webservice and I really need it to be as secure as I mentioned!

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• ASP.NET MVC PartialView generic ModelView

  - by Greg Ogle

  I have an ASP.NET MVC application which I want to dynamically pick the partial view and what data gets passed to it, while maintaining strong types. So, in the main form, I want a class that has a view model that contains a generically typed property which should contain the data for the partial view's view model. public class MainViewModel<T> { public T PartialViewsViewModel { get; set; } } In the User Control, I would like something like: Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<MainViewModel<ParticularViewModel>>" %> Though in my parent form, I must put Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<MainViewModel<ParticularViewModel>>" %> for it to work. Is there a way to work around this? The use case is to make the user control pluggable. I understand that I could inherit a base class, but that would put me back to having something like a dictionary instead of a typed view model.

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• ASP.NET MVC: Returning a view with querystring in tact

  - by ajbeaven

  I'm creating a messaging web app in ASP.NET and are having some problems when displaying an error message to the user if they go to send a message and there is something wrong. A user can look through profiles of people and then click, 'send a message'. The following action is called (url is /message/create?to=username) and shows them a page where they can enter their message and send it: public ActionResult Create(string to) { ViewData["recipientUsername"] = to; return View(); } On the page that is displayed, the username is entered in to a hidden input field. When the user clicks 'send': [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create(string message, string to) { try { //do message stuff that errors out } catch { ModelState.AddModelErrors(message.GetRuleViolations()); //adding errors to modelstate } return View(); } So now the error message is displayed to the user fine, however the url is changed in that it no longer has the querystring (/message/create). Again, this would be fine except that when the user clicks the refresh button, the page errors out as the Create action no longer has the 'to' parameter. So I'm guessing that I need to maintain my querystring somehow. Is there any way to do this or do I need to use a different method altogether?

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• calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

  - by CraigJSte

  Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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• how to consume .net webservices

  - by Rajesh Rolen- DotNet Developer

  please tell that can we consume .net web services in php or not. if yes then please tell me how can we do it. i am to create a web service which takes values and save it in database also it will take values and reply some data as a standard xml format. i know how to create web service and how to use it in asp.net but don't know how to use/call it from php. thing is that i will not be writing code in php to consume but wants to know that do i need to take care of any special thing or need to do some extra code to make it available and use by php developers. i am to create web service in .net framework 2.0 Thanks

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• asp.net FileUpload control problem: access to directory is denied

  - by citrus

  Hi, Im trying to use the fileupload control. Im using Visual Web Developer Express on my desktop. My web application is working fine except I cant use the fileUpload control. I get the following error: ERROR: Access to the path (My_Directory) is denied I searched and it appears to be a permissions problem. So I attempted to add the user ASPNET and give appropriate permissions to the directory, however, I was unable to add user "ASPNET". User "ASPNET" was not found. So then I followed the following directions to add user ASPNET via Control Panel Administration Computer management. So now I was able to add user ASPNET to the directory and give appropriate permissions but I still got the above error. http://p2p.wrox.com/net-web-services/5918-creating-aspnet-user.html Any ideas on why I cant access the directory?

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