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• Is it possible to use CSS to align these divs/spans in a table-like manner?

  - by Justin L.

  I have <div class='line'> <div class='chord_line'> <span class='chord_block'></span> <span class='chord_block'>E</span> <span class='chord_block'>B</span> <span class='chord_block'>C#m</span> <span class='chord_block'>A</span> </div> <div class='lyric_line'> <span class='lyric_block'></span> <span class='lyric_block'>Just a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>small-town girl</span> <span class='lyric_block'>living in a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>lonely world</span> </div> </div> (Excuse me for not being too familiar with proper css conventions for when to use div/spans) I want to be able to display them so that each chord_block span and lyric_block span is aligned vertically, as if they were left-aligned and on the same row of a table. For example: E B C#m A Just a small-town girl living in a lonely world (There will often be cases where an empty chord block is matched up to non-empty lyric block, and vice-versa.) I'm completely new to using CSS to align things, and have had no real understanding/experience of CSS aside from changing background colors and link styles. Is this possible in CSS? If not, how could the div/class nesting structure be revised to make this possible? I could change the spans to divs if necessary. Some things I cannot use: I can't change the structure to group things by a chord_and_lyric_block div (and have their width stretch to the length of the lyric, and stack them horizontally), because I couldn't really copy/select the lyrical lines continuously in their entirety, which is extremely critical. I'm trying to avoid a table-like solution, because this data is not tabular at all. The chord line and the lyric line are meant to be read as one continuous line, not a set of cells. Also, apart from the design philosophy reasons, I think it might have the same problems as the previous thing bullet point. If this is possible, what div/span attributes should I be using? Can you provide sample css? If this is not possible, can it be done with javascript?

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• How to refresh a fragment in a viewpager?

  - by aut_silvia

  I know there are already some questions to this problem. But I am really new in Android and ecspecially to Fragments and Viewpager. Pls have passion with me. I didn't found a answer which fits to my code. I dont know how to refresh a fragment or reload it when it's "active" again. TabsPagerAdapter.java: public class TabsPagerAdapter extends FragmentPagerAdapter{ public TabsPagerAdapter(FragmentManager fm){ super(fm); } @Override public Fragment getItem(int index) { switch (index) { case 0: return new KFZFragment(); case 1: return new LogFragment(); case 2: return new TrackFragment(); } return null; } @Override public int getCount() { // get item count - equal to number of tabs return 3; } } I have this 3 Fragments (KFZFragment,LogFragment,TrackFragment) and on the TrackFragment I calculate some data and this data should be display in a ListView in LogFragment. But when I change to LogFragment it's not the latest data. So it doesnt refresh. Now how should I modify my code to refresh the fragments when it's "active"? MainActivityFragment.java: public class MainActivityFragment extends FragmentActivity implements ActionBar.TabListener{ private ViewPager viewPager; private TabsPagerAdapter mAdapter; private ActionBar actionBar; List<Fragment> fragments; private String[] tabs = { "KFZ", "Fahrten Log", "Kosten Track" }; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.activity_main_fragment); // Initilization viewPager = (ViewPager) findViewById(R.id.pager); actionBar = getActionBar(); mAdapter = new TabsPagerAdapter(getSupportFragmentManager()); fragments = new Vector<Fragment>(); fragments.add(Fragment.instantiate(this, KFZFragment.class.getName(),savedInstanceState)); fragments.add(Fragment.instantiate(this, LogFragment.class.getName(),savedInstanceState)); viewPager.setAdapter(mAdapter); actionBar.setHomeButtonEnabled(false); actionBar.setNavigationMode(ActionBar.NAVIGATION_MODE_TABS); // Adding Tabs for (String tab_name : tabs) { actionBar.addTab(actionBar.newTab().setText(tab_name) .setTabListener(this)); } viewPager.setOnPageChangeListener(new ViewPager.OnPageChangeListener() { @Override public void onPageSelected(int position) { // on changing the page // make respected tab selected actionBar.setSelectedNavigationItem(position); } @Override public void onPageScrolled(int arg0, float arg1, int arg2) { } @Override public void onPageScrollStateChanged(int arg0) { } }); } @Override public void onTabReselected(Tab tab, FragmentTransaction ft) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onTabSelected(Tab tab, FragmentTransaction ft) { viewPager.setCurrentItem(tab.getPosition()); } @Override public void onTabUnselected(Tab tab, FragmentTransaction ft) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_BACK) { } return super.onKeyDown(keyCode, event); } } Pls help me out.

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• How to handle very frequent updates to a Lucene index

  - by fsm

  I am trying to prototype an indexing/search application which uses very volatile indexing data sources (forums, social networks etc), here are some of the performance requirements, Very fast turn-around time (by this I mean that any new data (such as a new message on a forum) should be available in the search results very soon (less than a minute)) I need to discard old documents on a fairly regular basis to ensure that the search results are not dated. Last but not least, the search application needs to be responsive. (latency on the order of 100 milliseconds, and should support at least 10 qps) All of the requirements I have currently can be met w/o using Lucene (and that would let me satisfy all 1,2 and 3), but I am anticipating other requirements in the future (like search relevance etc) which Lucene makes easier to implement. However, since Lucene is designed for use cases far more complex than the one I'm currently working on, I'm having a hard time satisfying my performance requirements. Here are some questions, a. I read that the optimize() method in the IndexWriter class is expensive, and should not be used by applications that do frequent updates, what are the alternatives? b. In order to do incremental updates, I need to keep committing new data, and also keep refreshing the index reader to make sure it has the new data available. These are going to affect 1 and 3 above. Should I try duplicate indices? What are some common approaches to solving this problem? c. I know that Lucene provides a delete method, which lets you delete all documents that match a certain query, in my case, I need to delete all documents which are older than a certain age, now one option is to add a date field to every document and use that to delete documents later. Is it possible to do range queries on document ids (I can create my own id field since I think that the one created by lucene keeps changing) to delete documents? Is it any faster than comparing dates represented as strings? I know these are very open questions, so I am not looking for a detailed answer, I will try to treat all of your answers as suggestions and use them to inform my design. Thanks! Please let me know if you need any other information.

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• What does Apache need to support both mysqli and PDO?

  - by Nathan Long

  I'm considering changing some PHP code to use PDO for database access instead of mysqli (because the PDO syntax makes more sense to me and is database-agnostic). To do that, I'd need both methods to work while I'm making the changeover. My problem is this: so far, either one or the other method will crash Apache. Right now I'm using XAMPP in Windows XP, and PHP Version 5.2.8. Mysqli works fine, and so does this: $dbc = new PDO("mysql:host=$hostname;dbname=$dbname", $username, $password); echo 'Connected to database'; $sql = "SELECT * FROM `employee`"; But this line makes Apache crash: $dbc->query($sql); I don't want to redo my entire Apache or XAMPP installation, but I'd like for PDO to work. So I tried updating libmysql.dll from here, as oddvibes recommended here. That made my simple PDO query work, but then mysqli queries crashed Apache. (I also tried the suggestion after that one, to update php_pdo_mysql.dll and php_pdo.dll, to no effect.) Test Case I created this test script to compare PDO vs mysqli. With the old copy of libmysql.dll, it crashes if $use_pdo is true and doesn't if it's false. With the new copy of libmysql.dll, it's the opposite. if ($use_pdo){ $dbc = new PDO("mysql:host=$hostname;dbname=$dbname", $username, $password); echo 'Connected to database<br />'; $sql = "SELECT * FROM `employee`"; $dbc->query($sql); foreach ($dbc->query($sql) as $row){ echo $row['firstname'] . ' ' . $row['lastname'] . "<br>\n"; } } else { $dbc = @mysqli_connect($hostname, $username, $password, $dbname) OR die('Could not connect to MySQL: ' . mysqli_connect_error()); $sql = "SELECT * FROM `employee`"; $result = @mysqli_query($dbc, $sql) or die(mysqli_error($dbc)); while ($row = mysqli_fetch_array($result,MYSQLI_ASSOC)) { echo $row['firstname'] . ' ' . $row['lastname'] . "<br>\n"; } } What does Apache need in order to support both methods of database query?

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• Rendering problem with UITableview

  - by Spider-Paddy

  I have a very strange problem with a UITableview within a navigation controller on the iPhone simulator. Of the cells displayed, only some are correctly rendered. They are all supposed to look the same but the majority are missing the accessory I've set, scrolling the view changes which cell has the accessory so I suspect it's some sort of cell caching happening, although the contents are correct for each cell. I also set an image as the background and that was also only displaying sporadically but I fixed that by changing cell.backgroundView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"yellow-bar_short.png"]]; (which also only rendered a random cell with the background) to cell.backgroundColor = [[UIColor alloc] initWithPatternImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"yellow-bar_short.png"]]; I now need to fix the problem with the accessory only showing on a random cell. I tried moving the code from cellForRowAtIndex to willDisplayCell but it made no difference. I put in a log command to confirm that it is running through each frame. Basically it's a table view (UITableViewCellStyleSubtitle) that gets its info from a server & is then updated by a delegate method calling reload. Code is: -(void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView willDisplayCell:(UITableViewCell *)cell forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSLog(@"%@", [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Setting colours for cell %i", indexPath.row]); // Set cell background // cell.backgroundView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"yellow-bar_short.png"]]; cell.backgroundColor = [[UIColor alloc] initWithPatternImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"yellow-bar_short.png"]]; cell.textLabel.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; cell.detailTextLabel.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; // detailTableViewAccessory is a view containing an imageview in this view's nib // i.e. nib <- view <- imageview <- image cell.accessoryView = detailTableViewAccessory; } // Called by data fetching object when done -(void)listDataTransferComplete:(ArticleListParser *)articleListParserObject { NSLog(@"Data parsed, reloading detail table"); self.currentTotalResultPages = (((articleListParserObject.currentArticleCount - 1) / 10) + 1); self.detailTableDataSource = [articleListParserObject.returnedArray copy]; // make a local copy of the returned array // Render table again with returned array data (neither of these 2 fixed it) [self.detailTableView performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(reloadData) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; // [self.detailTableView reloadData]; // Re-enable necessary buttons (including table cells) letUserSelectRow = TRUE; [btnByName setEnabled:TRUE]; [btnByPrice setEnabled:TRUE]; // Remove please wait message NSLog(@"Removing please wait view"); [pleaseWaitViewControllerObject.view removeFromSuperview]; } I only included code that I thought was relevant, can supply more if needed. I can't test it on an iPhone yet so I don't know if it's maybe just a simulator anomaly or a bug in my code. I've always gotten good feedback from questions, any ideas?

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• Regular expression from font to span (size and colour) and back (VB.NET)

  - by chapmanio

  Hi, I am looking for a regular expression that can convert my font tags (only with size and colour attributes) into span tags with the relevant inline css. This will be done in VB.NET if that helps at all. I also need a regular expression to go the other way as well. To elaborate below is an example of the conversion I am looking for: <font size="10">some text</font> To then become: <span style="font-size:10px;">some text</span> So converting the tag and putting a "px" at the end of whatever the font size is (I don't need to change/convert the font size, just stick px at the end). The regular expression needs to cope with a font tag that only has a size attribute, only a color attribute, or both: <font size="10">some text</font> <font color="#000000">some text</font> <font size="10" color="#000000">some text</font> <font color="#000000" size="10">some text</font> I also need another regular expression to do the opposite conversion. So for example: <span style="font-size:10px;">some text</span> Will become: <font size="10">some text</font> As before converting the tag but this time removing the "px", I don't need to worry about changing the font size. Again this will also need to cope with the size styling, font styling, and a combination of both: <span style="font-size:10px;">some text</span> <span style="color:#000000;">some text</span> <span style="font-size:10px; color:#000000;">some text</span> <span style="color:#000000; font-size:10px;">some text</span> I apprecitate this is a lot to ask, I am hopeless with regular expressions and need to find a way of making these conversions in my code. Thanks so much to anyone that can/is willing to help me!

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• Maximum nametable char count exceeded

  - by doc

  I'm having issues with the maximum nametable char count quota, I followed a couple of answers here and it solved the problem for a while, but now I'm having the same issue. My Server side config is as follows: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="GenericBinding" maxBufferPoolSize="2147483647" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="2147483647" maxStringContentLength="2147483647" maxArrayLength="2147483647" maxBytesPerRead="2147483647" maxNameTableCharCount="2147483647" /> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="false" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="1000000" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <services> <service name="REMWCF.RemWCFSvc"> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" contract="REMWCF.IRemWCFSvc" bindingConfiguration="GenericBinding" /> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexTcpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> I also have the same tcp binding on the devenv configuration. Have I reached the limit of contracts supported? Is there a way to turn off that quota? EDIT Error Message: Error: Cannot obtain Metadata from net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex If this is a Windows (R) Communication Foundation service to which you have access, please check that you have enabled metadata publishing at the specified address. For help enabling metadata publishing, please refer to the MSDN documentation at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=65455.WS-Metadata Exchange Error URI: net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: 'net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex'. There is an error in the XML document. The maximum nametable character count quota (16384) has been exceeded while reading XML data. The nametable is a data structure used to store strings encountered during XML processing - long XML documents with non-repeating element names, attribute names and attribute values may trigger this quota. This quota may be increased by changing the MaxNameTableCharCount property on the XmlDictionaryReaderQuotas object used when creating the XML reader. I'm getting that error when trying to run the WCF (which is hosted in a windows service app).

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• Another Spring + Hibernate + JPA question

  - by Albinoswordfish

  I'm still struggling with changing my Spring Application to use Hibernate with JPA to do database activities. Well apparently from a previous post I need an persistence.xml file. However do I need to make changes to my current DAO class? public class JdbcProductDao extends Dao implements ProductDao { /** Logger for this class and subclasses */ protected final Log logger = LogFactory.getLog(getClass()); public List<Product> getProductList() { logger.info("Getting products!"); List<Product> products = getSimpleJdbcTemplate().query( "select id, description, price from products", new ProductMapper()); return products; } public void saveProduct(Product prod) { logger.info("Saving product: " + prod.getDescription()); int count = getSimpleJdbcTemplate().update( "update products set description = :description, price = :price where id = :id", new MapSqlParameterSource().addValue("description", prod.getDescription()) .addValue("price", prod.getPrice()) .addValue("id", prod.getId())); logger.info("Rows affected: " + count); } private static class ProductMapper implements ParameterizedRowMapper<Product> { public Product mapRow(ResultSet rs, int rowNum) throws SQLException { Product prod = new Product(); prod.setId(rs.getInt("id")); prod.setDescription(rs.getString("description")); prod.setPrice(new Double(rs.getDouble("price"))); return prod; } } } Also my Product.Java is below public class Product implements Serializable { private int id; private String description; private Double price; public void setId(int i) { id = i; } public int getId() { return id; } public String getDescription() { return description; } public void setDescription(String description) { this.description = description; } public Double getPrice() { return price; } public void setPrice(Double price) { this.price = price; } public String toString() { StringBuffer buffer = new StringBuffer(); buffer.append("Description: " + description + ";"); buffer.append("Price: " + price); return buffer.toString(); } } I guess my question would be, How would my current classes change after using Hibernate + JPA with an Entity Manager

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• Passing custom info to mongrel_rails start

  - by whaka

  One thing I really don't understand is how I can pass custom start-up options to a mongrel instance. I see that a common approach is the use environment variables, but in my environment this is not going to work because my rails application serves many different clients. Much code is shared between clients, but there are also many differences which I implement by subclassing controllers and views to overload or extend existing features or introduce new ones. To make this all work, I simply add the paths to client specific modules the module load path ($:). In order to start the application for a particular client, I could now use an environment variable like say, TARGET=AMAZONE. Unfortunately, on some systems I'm running multiple mongrel clusters, each cluster serving a different client. Some of these systems run under Windows and to start mongrel I installed mongrel_services. Clearly, this makes my environment variable unsuitable. Passing this extra bit of data to the application is proving to be a real challenge. For a start, mongrel_rails service_install will reject any [custom] command line parameters that aren't documented. I'm not too concerned as installing the services using the install program is trivial. However, even if I manage to install mongrel_services such that when run it passes the custom command line option --target to mongrel_rails start, I get an error because mongrel_rails doesn't recognize the switch. So here were the things I looked at: Pass an extra parameter: mongrel_rails start --target XYZ ... use a config file and add target:XYZ, then do: mongrel_rails start -C x:\myapp\myconfig.yml modify the file: Ruby\lib\ruby\gems\1.8\gems\mongrel-1.1.5-x86-mswin32-60\lib\mongrel\command.rb Perhaps I can use the --script option, but all docs that I found on it were for Unix 1 and 2 simply don't work. I played with 4 but never managed it to do anything. So I had no choice but to go with 3. While it is relatively simple, I hate changing ruby library code. Particularly disappointing is that 2 doesn't work. I mean what is so unreasonable about adding other [custom] options in the config file? Actually I think this is a fundamental piece that is missing in rails. Somehow, the application should be able to register and access command line arguments it expects. If anybody has a good idea how to do this more elegantly using the current infrastructure, I have a chocolate fish to give away!!!

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• highlight search keywords on hover

  - by fusion

  i've a basic php search form which highlights the keywords using css. i was wondering if i could make the keywords in the results highlight only when the user hovers over the record. is this possible? this is the highlight code: function highlightWords($text, $words) { preg_match_all('~\w+~', $words, $m); if(!$m) return $text; $re = '~\\b(' . implode('|', $m[0]) . ')~i'; $string = preg_replace($re, '<span class="highlight">$0</span>', $text); return $string; } . . . <table class="result"> <?php while ($row= mysql_fetch_array($result, MYSQL_ASSOC)) { $cQuote = highlightWords(htmlspecialchars($row['cQuotes']), $search_result); ?> <tr> <td style="text-align:right; font-size:15px;"><?php h($row['cArabic']); ?></td> <td style="font-size:16px;"><?php echo $cQuote; ?></td> <td style="font-size:12px;"><?php h($row['vAuthor']); ?></td> <td style="font-size:12px; font-style:italic; text-align:right;"><?php h($row['vReference']); ?></td> </tr> <?php } ?> </table> css: table.result tr:hover { background:#F7F7F7; } .highlight { font-weight:bold; color: #DE2842; padding:5px; padding-right:2px; background: #FFFCDB; } i tried changing the color through highlight:hover, but this changed the color of the search keyword only when i hovered over the keyword itself, which is understandable since that's the way it is supposed to work, but i'd like the search keywords to be highlighted when i hover over the result as a whole.

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• Hibernate Persistence problems with Bean Mapping (Dozer)

  - by BuffaloBuffalo

  I am using Hibernate 3, and having a particular issue when persisting a new Entity which has an association with an existing detached entity. Easiest way to explain this is via code samples. I have two entities, FooEntity and BarEntity, of which a BarEntity can be associated with many FooEntity: @Entity public class FooEntity implements Foo{ @Id private Long id; @ManyToOne(targetEntity = BarEntity.class) @JoinColumn(name = "bar_id", referencedColumnName = "id") @Cascade(value={CascadeType.ALL}) private Bar bar; } @Entity public class BarEntity implements Bar{ @Id private Long id; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "bar", targetEntity = FooEntity.class) private Set<Foo> foos; } Foo and Bar are interfaces that loosely define getters for the various fields. There are corresponding FooImpl and BarImpl classes that are essentially just the entity objects without the annotations. What I am trying to do is construct a new instance of FooImpl, and persist it after setting a number of fields. The new Foo instance will have its 'bar' member set to an existing Bar (runtime being a BarEntity) from the database (retrieved via session.get(..)). After the FooImpl has all of its properties set, Apache Dozer is used to map between the 'domain' object FooImpl and the Entity FooEntity. What Dozer is doing in the background is instantiating a new FooEntity and setting all of the matching fields. BarEntity is cloned as well via instantiation and set the FooEntity's 'bar' member. After this occurs, passing the new FooEntity object to persist. This throws the exception: org.hibernate.PersistentObjectException: detached entity passed to persist: com.company.entity.BarEntity Below is in code the steps that are occurring FooImpl foo = new FooImpl(); //returns at runtime a persistent BarEntity through session.get() Bar bar = BarService.getBar(1L); foo.setBar(bar); ... //This constructs a new instance of FooEntity, with a member 'bar' which itself is a new instance that is detached) FooEntity entityToPersist = dozerMapper.map(foo, FooEntity.class); ... session.persist(entityToPersist); I have been able to resolve this issue by either removing or changing the @Cascade annotation, but that limits future use for say adding a new Foo with a new Bar attached to it already. Is there some solution here I am missing? I would be surprised if this issue hasn't been solved somewhere before, either by altering how Dozer Maps the children of Foo or how Hibernate reacts to a detached Child Entity.

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• Need simple Twitter API v1.1 example to show timeline using jQuery or C# ASP.NET

  - by Ken Palmer

  With Twitter turning off the API 1.0 faucet on 6/11/2013, we have several sites that now fail to display timelines. I've been looking for an "If you did that, now do this" example. Here was Twitter's announcement. https://dev.twitter.com/blog/api-v1-is-retired Here is what we were originally doing to show the Twitter timeline via API 1.0. <div id="twitter"> <ul id="twitter_update_list"></ul> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://twitter.com/javascripts/blogger.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://api.twitter.com/1/statuses/user_timeline/companytwitterhandle.json?callback=twitterCallback2&amp;count=1"></script> <div style="float:left;"><a href="https://twitter.com/companytwitterhandle" target="_blank">@companytwitterhandle</a> | </div> <div class="twitterimg">&nbsp;</div> </div> Initially I tried changing the version in the JavaScript reference URL like so, which did not work. <script type="text/javascript" src="http://api.twitter.com/1.1/statuses/user_timeline/companytwitterhandle.json?callback=twitterCallback2&amp;count=1"></script> Then I looked at the Twitter API documentation (https://dev.twitter.com/docs/api/1.1/overview) which lacks a clear transition example. I don't have 4 or 5 hours to delve into that, or into this disheveled FAQ (https://dev.twitter.com/docs/faq#17750). Then I found this API documentation regarding the user timeline. So I changed the URL again as shown below. https://dev.twitter.com/docs/api/1.1/get/statuses/user_timeline <script type="text/javascript" src="https://api.twitter.com/1.1/statuses/user_timeline.json?screen_name=companytwitterhandle&amp;count=1"></script> That did not work. Using jQuery or C# ASP.NET MVC, how can I transition that interface from Twitter API 1.0 to Twitter API 1.1? My first preference would be for a browser client side implementation if that is possible. Please include a code example. Thanks.

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• JPA - Can I create an Entity class, using an @DiscriminatorValue, that doesn't have its own table?

  - by DaveyDaveDave

  Hi - this is potentially a bit complex, so I'll do my best to describe my situation - it's also my first post here, so please forgive formatting mistakes, etc! I'm using JPA with joined inheritance and a database structure that looks like: ACTION --------- ACTION_ID ACTION_MAPPING_ID ACTION_TYPE DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID CHANNEL_ID OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID (various fields specific to this action type) So, in plain English, I have multiple different types of action, all share an ACTION_MAPPING, which is referenced from the 'parent' ACTION table. DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION and OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION both have extra, supplementary data of their own, and are mapped to ACTION with a FK. Real-world, I also have a 'suppress' action, but this doesn't have any supplementary data of its own, so it doesn't have a corresponding table - all it needs is an ACTION_MAPPING, which is stored in the ACTION table. Hopefully you're with me so far... I'm creating a new project from scratch, so am pretty flexible in what I can do, but obviously would like to get it right from the outset! My current implementation, which works, has three entities loosely defined as follows: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class Action @Entity @Table(name="DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("DELIVERY_CHANNEL") public class DeliveryChannelAction extends Action @Entity @Table(name="OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("OVERRIDE_ADDRESS") public class OverrideAddressAction extends Action That is - I have a concrete base class, Action, with a Joined inheritance strategy. DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction both extend Action. What feels wrong here though, is that my Action class is the base class for these two actions, but also forms the concrete implementation for the suppress action. For the time being this works, but at some point more actions are likely to be added, and there's every chance that some of them will, like SUPPRESS, have no supplementary data, which will start to get difficult! So... what I would like to do, in the object model world, is to have Action be abstract, and create a SuppressAction class, which is empty apart from having a @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS"). I've tried doing exactly what is described above, so, changing Action to: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) public abstract class Action and creating: @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class SuppressAction extends Action but no luck - it seems to work fine for DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction, but when I try to create a SuppressAction and persist it, I get: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Object: com.mypackage.SuppressAction[actionId=null] is not a known entity type. at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.sessions.UnitOfWorkImpl.registerNewObjectForPersist(UnitOfWorkImpl.java:4147) at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.persist(EntityManagerImpl.java:368) at com.mypackage.test.util.EntityTestUtil.createSuppressAction(EntityTestUtil.java:672) at com.mypackage.entities.ActionTest.testCRUDAction(ActionTest.java:27) which I assume is down to the fact that SuppressAction isn't registered as an entity, but I don't know how I can do that, given that it doesn't have an associated table. Any pointers, either complete answers or hints for things to Google (I'm out of ideas!), most welcome :) EDIT: to correct my stacktrace.

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• Javascript problem when setting src for img element in FireFox - string parsing error?

  - by Kevin

  I'm having problems with image's on the page. I'm using Javascript to create the elements, and in FireFox it seems the string that I'm using to set the innerHTML is not being parsed correctly. I'll see this when the server page is requested with invalid GET variables. They look like this (from the PHP script's error handler): GET[] = Array ( [shrink] => true [file_id] => \' file_id \' [refresh] => \' now.getTime() \' ) This only happens for about 5% of requests, which is making it difficult to solve. I have been able to reproduce this myself in FireFox, and Firebug will show that the URL it is trying to fetch is: https://www.domain.com/secure/%27%20+%20image_src%20+%20%27 I read somewhere that it might be related to FireFox prefetching content (can't find it googling now), since it seems to only happen on FireFox. Disabling prefetching in about:config does prevent the problem from occurring, but I'm looking for another solution or workaround that doesn't involve end users changing their configurations. Here's the specifics and code: I have an empty table cell on an HTML page. In JQuery's $(document).ready() function for the page, I used JQuery's $.ajax() method to get some data from the server about what should be in that cell. It returns the file_id variable, which for simplicity I just set below. It then sets the empty table cell to have an image with src that points to a page that will serve the image file depending on what file_id is passed. This part of the code was JQuery originally, so I changed it to straight Javascript but that didn't help anything. //get data about image from server //this is actually done through JQuery's $.ajax() but you get the idea var file_id = 12; //create the src for the img //the refresh is to prevent the image from being cached ever, since the page's //javascript will be it changes //during the course of the page's life var now = new Date(); var image_src = 'serve_image.php?shrink=true&file_id=' + file_id + '&refresh=' + now.getTime(); //create document.getElementById('image_cell').innerHTML = '<A target="_blank" href="serve_image.php?file_id=' + file_id + '">' + '<IMG id=image_element src="' + image_src + '" alt="Loading...">' + '</A>';` Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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• HTML Language question

  - by Mike

  Note my code below. I am trying to figure out why my data is not changing to Spanish. I understand it to be one line of code and that is all within the HTML attribute lang=”es”. Any help would be greatly appreciated. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xlmns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" lang=”es” xml:lang="en"> <head> <title>JavaJam Coffee House</title> <link href="javajam.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> </head> <body bgcolor="brown"> <h1>JavaJam Coffee House</h1> <ul> <li>Specialty Coffee and Tea</li> <li>Bagels, Muffins, and Organic Snacks</li> <li>Music and Poetry Readings</li> <li>Usability Studies</li> <li>Open Mic Night</li> </ul> <br></br> <p>12312 Main Street<br> Mountain Home, CA 93923<br> 1-888-555-5555</br> </p> <p> <em> <small>Copyright &copy; 2008 JavaJam Coffee House</em></p> E-Mail <a href="mailto;[email protected]"> Michael J. Crawley</a> </body> </html>

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• PHP Shared Sessions across Domain

  - by bigstylee

  Hi, I have seen a few answers to this on SOO but most of these are concerned with the use of subdomains, of which none have worked for me. The common one being that the use of session.cookie_domain, which from my understanding will only work with subdomains. I am interested in a solution that deals with deals with entirely different domains (and includes the possibility of subdomains). Unfortunately project deadlines being what they are, time is not on my side, so I turn to SOO's expertise and experience. The current project brief is to be able to log into one site which currently only stores the user_id in the session and then be able to retrieve this value while on a different domain within the same server enviroment. Session data is being stored/retrieved from a database where the session id is the primary key. I am hoping to find a "light wieght" and "easy" to implement solution. The system is utlising an in-house Model View Controller design pattern, so all requests (including different domains) are run through a single bootstrap script. Using the domain name as a variable, this determines what context to display to the user. One option that did look like to have potential is the use of a hidden image and using the alt tag to set the user id. My first impressions suggest this immediately seems "too easy" (if possible) and riddled with security flaws. Disscuss? Another option which I considered is using the IP and User Agent for authentication but again I feel this not going to be a reliable option due to shared networks and changing IP addresses. My third option (and preferred) which I considered and as yet not seen discussed is using htaccess to fool the user into thinking that they are on a different domain when infact apache is redirecting; something like www.foo.com/index.php?domain=bar.com&controller=news/categoires/1 but displays to the user as www.bar.com/news/categories/1 foo.com represents the "main site domain" which all requests are run through and bar.com is what the user thinks they are accessing. The controller request dictates the page and view being requested. Is this possible? Are there other options? Pros/Cons? Thanks in advanced!!!

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• SQL Cartesian product joining table to itself and inserting into existing table

  - by Emma

  I am working in phpMyadmin using SQL. I want to take the primary key (EntryID) from TableA and create a cartesian product (if I am using the term correctly) in TableB (empty table already created) for all entries which share the same value for FieldB in TableA, except where TableA.EntryID equals TableA.EntryID So, for example, if the values in TableA were: TableA.EntryID TableA.FieldB 1 23 2 23 3 23 4 25 5 25 6 25 The result in TableB would be: Primary key EntryID1 EntryID2 FieldD (Default or manually entered) 1 1 2 Default value 2 1 3 Default value 3 2 1 Default value 4 2 3 Default value 5 3 1 Default value 6 3 2 Default value 7 4 5 Default value 8 4 6 Default value 9 5 4 Default value 10 5 6 Default value 11 6 4 Default value 12 6 5 Default value I am used to working in Access and this is the first query I have attempted in SQL. I started trying to work out the query and got this far. I know it's not right yet, as I’m still trying to get used to the syntax and pieced this together from various articles I found online. In particular, I wasn’t sure where the INSERT INTO text went (to create what would be an Append Query in Access). SELECT EntryID FROM TableA.EntryID TableA.EntryID WHERE TableA.FieldB=TableA.FieldB TableA.EntryID<>TableA.EntryID INSERT INTO TableB.EntryID1 TableB.EntryID2 After I've got that query right, I need to do a TRIGGER query (I think), so if an entry changes it's value in TableA.FieldB (changing it’s membership of that grouping to another grouping), the cartesian product will be re-run on THAT entry, unless TableB.FieldD = valueA or valueB (manually entered values). I have been using the Designer Tab. Does there have to be a relationship link between TableA and TableB. If so, would it be two links from the EntryID Primary Key in TableA, one to each EntryID in TableB? I assume this would not work because they are numbered EntryID1 and EntryID2 and the name needs to be the same to set up a relationship? If you can offer any suggestions, I would be very grateful. Research: http://www.fluffycat.com/SQL/Cartesian-Joins/ Cartesian Join example two Q: You said you can have a Cartesian join by joining a table to itself. Show that! Select * From Film_Table T1, Film_Table T2;

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• Learning C, would appreciate input on why this solution works.

  - by Keifer

  This is literally the first thing I've ever written in C, so please feel free to point out all it's flaws. :) My issue, however is this: if I write the program the way I feel is cleanest, I get a broken program: #include <sys/queue.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> /* Removed prototypes and non related code for brevity */ int main() { char *cmd = NULL; unsigned int acct = 0; int amount = 0; int done = 0; while (done==0) { scanf ("%s %u %i", cmd, &acct, &amount); if (strcmp (cmd, "exit") == 0) done = 1; else if ((strcmp (cmd, "dep") == 0) || (strcmp (cmd, "deb") == 0)) debit (acct, amount); else if ((strcmp (cmd, "wd") == 0) || (strcmp (cmd, "cred") == 0)) credit (acct, amount); else if (strcmp (cmd, "fee") == 0) service_fee(acct, amount); else printf("Invalid input!\n"); } return(0); } void credit(unsigned int acct, int amount) { } void debit(unsigned int acct, int amount) { } void service_fee(unsigned int acct, int amount) { } As it stands, the above generates no errors at compile, but gives me a segfault when ran. I can fix this by changing the program to pass cmd by reference when calling scanf and strcmp. The segfault goes away and is replaced by warnings for each use of strcmp at compile time. Despite the warnings, the affected code works. warning: passing arg 1 of 'strcmp' from incompatible pointer type As an added bonus, modifying the scanf and strcmp calls allows the program to progress far enough to execute return(0), at which point the thing crashes with an Abort trap. If I swap out return(0) for exit(0) then everything works as expected. This leaves me with two questions: why was the original program wrong? How can I fix it better than I have? The bit about needing to use exit instead of return has me especially baffled.

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• ob_start() -> ob_flush() doesn't work

  - by MB34

  I am using ob_start()/ob_flush() to, hopefully, give me some progress during a long import operation. Here is a simple outline of what I'm doing: <?php ob_start (); echo "Connecting to download Inventory file.<br>"; $conn = ftp_connect($ftp_site) or die("Could not connect"); echo "Logging into site download Inventory file.<br>"; ftp_login($conn,$ftp_username,$ftp_password) or die("Bad login credentials for ". $ftp_site); echo "Changing directory on download Inventory file.<br>"; ftp_chdir($conn,"INV") or die("could not change directory to INV"); // connection, local, remote, type, resume $localname = "INV"."_".date("m")."_".date('d').".csv"; echo "Downloading Inventory file to:".$localname."<br>"; ob_flush(); flush(); sleep(5); if (ftp_get($conn,$localname,"INV.csv",FTP_ASCII)) { echo "New Inventory File Downloaded<br>"; $datapath = $localname; ftp_close($conn); } else { ftp_close($conn); die("There was a problem downloading the Inventory file."); } ob_flush(); flush(); sleep(5); $csvfile = fopen($datapath, "r"); // open csv file $x = 1; // skip the header line $line = fgetcsv($csvfile); $y = (feof($csvfile) ? 2 : 5); while ((!$debug) ? (!feof($csvfile)) : $x <= $y) { $x++; $line = fgetcsv($csvfile); // do a lot of import stuff here with $line ob_flush(); flush(); sleep(1); } fclose($csvfile); // important: close the file ob_end_clean(); However, nothing is being output to the screen at all. I know the data file is getting downloaded because I watch the directory where it is being placed. I also know that the import is happening, meaning that it is in the while loop, because I can monitor the DB and records are being inserted. Any ideas as to why I am not getting output to the screen?

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• Why is Dictionary.First() so slow?

  - by Rotsor

  Not a real question because I already found out the answer, but still interesting thing. I always thought that hash table is the fastest associative container if you hash properly. However, the following code is terribly slow. It executes only about 1 million iterations and takes more than 2 minutes of time on a Core 2 CPU. The code does the following: it maintains the collection todo of items it needs to process. At each iteration it takes an item from this collection (doesn't matter which item), deletes it, processes it if it wasn't processed (possibly adding more items to process), and repeats this until there are no items to process. The culprit seems to be the Dictionary.Keys.First() operation. The question is why is it slow? Stopwatch watch = new Stopwatch(); watch.Start(); HashSet<int> processed = new HashSet<int>(); Dictionary<int, int> todo = new Dictionary<int, int>(); todo.Add(1, 1); int iterations = 0; int limit = 500000; while (todo.Count > 0) { iterations++; var key = todo.Keys.First(); var value = todo[key]; todo.Remove(key); if (!processed.Contains(key)) { processed.Add(key); // process item here if (key < limit) { todo[key + 13] = value + 1; todo[key + 7] = value + 1; } // doesn't matter much how } } Console.WriteLine("Iterations: {0}; Time: {1}.", iterations, watch.Elapsed); This results in: Iterations: 923007; Time: 00:02:09.8414388. Simply changing Dictionary to SortedDictionary yields: Iterations: 499976; Time: 00:00:00.4451514. 300 times faster while having only 2 times less iterations. The same happens in java. Used HashMap instead of Dictionary and keySet().iterator().next() instead of Keys.First().

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• Criticise/Recommendations for my code

  - by aLk

  Before i go any further it would be nice to know if there is any major design flaws in my program so far. Is there anything worth changing before i continue? Model package model; import java.sql.*; import java.util.*; public class MovieDatabase { @SuppressWarnings({ "rawtypes", "unchecked" }) public List queryMovies() throws SQLException { Connection connection = null; java.sql.Statement statement = null; ResultSet rs = null; List results = new ArrayList(); try { DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.mysql.jdbc.Driver()); connection = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/test", "root", "password"); statement = connection.createStatement(); String query = "SELECT * FROM movie"; rs = statement.executeQuery(query); while(rs.next()) { MovieBean bean = new MovieBean(); bean.setMovieId(rs.getInt(1)); bean.setTitle(rs.getString(2)); bean.setYear(rs.getInt(3)); bean.setRating(rs.getInt(4)); results.add(bean); } } catch(SQLException e) { } return results; } } Servlet public class Service extends HttpServlet { @SuppressWarnings("rawtypes") protected void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { response.setContentType("text/html"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.println("Movies!"); MovieDatabase movies = new MovieDatabase(); try { List results = movies.queryMovies(); Iterator it = results.iterator(); while(it.hasNext()) { MovieBean movie = new MovieBean(); movie = (MovieBean)it.next(); out.println(movie.getYear()); } } catch(SQLException e) { } } } Bean package model; @SuppressWarnings("serial") public class MovieBean implements java.io.Serializable { protected int movieid; protected int rating; protected int year; protected String title; public MovieBean() { } public void setMovieId(int movieidVal) { movieid = movieidVal; } public void setRating(int ratingVal) { rating = ratingVal; } public void setYear(int yearVal) { year = yearVal; } public void setTitle(String titleVal) { title = titleVal; } public int getMovieId() { return movieid; } public int getRating() { return rating; } public int getYear() { return year; } public String getTitle() { return title; } }

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• mySQL Trigger works after console insert, but not after script insert.

  - by Marcos

  Hello, I have a strange wird problem with a trigger: I set up a trigger for update other tables after an insert in a table. If i make an insert from mysql console, all works fine, but if i do inserts from external python script, trigger does nothing, as you can see bellow. When i insert from console, works fine, but insert THE SAME DATA from python script, doesn't works, i try changing the Definer to 'user'@'%' and 'root'@'%' but stills doing nothing. Any idea of what van be wrong? Regards mysql> select vid_visit,vid_money from videos where video_id=487; +-----------+-----------+ | vid_visit | vid_money | +-----------+-----------+ | 21 | 0.297 | +-----------+-----------+ 1 row in set (0,01 sec) mysql> INSERT INTO `prusland`.`validEvents` ( `id` , `campaigns_id` , `video_id` , `date` , `producer_id` , `distributor_id` , `money_producer` , `money_distributor` , `type` ) VALUES ( NULL , '30', '487', '2010-05-20 01:20:00', '1', '0', '0.009', '0.000', 'PRE' ); Query OK, 1 row affected (0,00 sec) mysql> select vid_visit,vid_money from videos where video_id=487; +-----------+-----------+ | vid_visit | vid_money | +-----------+-----------+ | 22 | 0.306 | +-----------+-----------+ DROP TRIGGER IF EXISTS `updateVisitAndMoney`// CREATE TRIGGER `updateVisitAndMoney` BEFORE INSERT ON `validEvents` FOR EACH ROW BEGIN if (NEW.type = 'PRE') THEN SET @eventcash=NEW.money_producer + NEW.money_distributor; UPDATE campaigns SET cmp_visit_distributed = cmp_visit_distributed + 1 , cmp_money_distributed = cmp_money_distributed + NEW.money_producer + NEW.money_distributor WHERE idcampaigns = NEW.campaigns_id; UPDATE offer_producer SET ofp_visit_procesed = ofp_visit_procesed + 1 , ofp_money_procesed = ofp_money_procesed + NEW. money_producer WHERE ofp_video_id = NEW.video_id AND ofp_money_procesed = NEW. campaigns_id; UPDATE videos SET vid_visit = vid_visit + 1 , vid_money = vid_money + @eventcash WHERE video_id = NEW.video_id; if (NEW.distributor_id != '') then UPDATE agreements SET visit_procesed = visit_procesed + 1, money_producer = money_producer + NEW.money_producer, money_distributor = money_distributor + NEW.money_distributor WHERE id_campaigns = NEW. campaigns_id AND id_video = NEW.video_id AND ag_distributor_id = NEW.distributor_id; UPDATE eventForDay SET visit = visit + 1, money = money + NEW. money_distributor WHERE date = SYSDATE() AND campaign_id = NEW. campaigns_id AND user_id = NEW.distributor_id; UPDATE eventForDay SET visit = visit + 1, money = money + NEW.money_producer WHERE date = SYSDATE() AND campaign_id = NEW. campaigns_id AND user_id= NEW.producer_id; ELSE UPDATE eventForDay SET visit = visit + 1, money = money + NEW. money_producer WHERE date = SYSDATE() AND campaign_id = NEW. campaigns_id AND user_id = NEW.producer_id; END IF; END IF; END //

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• Difference in displaying inner div between IE and Chrome

  - by Gaara

  I have this code that has one "outerDIV" that contains an "innerDIV". On chrome the "innerDIV" size is 491px, whereas on IE it is 425px (same as outerDIV). Hence, on Chrome I can see the first two children of "innerdiv": "My test string #1" and "test2". But for IE I can only see the first child. I am not quite sure what the "right" behavior should be, as firefox does the same as IE. However I would like to have IE do the same as Chrome. I have been experimenting with some css styles (mainly overflow and display), but still can't make it right: IE will expand its height instead of its width to make the elements fit. Can you guys help me figure out a way to change the css so that IE will wraps the div elements inline? As a restriction though, I cannot change the width on the HTML. As a benefit, I am using a css that only loads for IE to patch these kind of IE inconsistencies. The same css will NOT load for chrome, so I don't need to worry about messing with chrome when changing the IE CSS. Thanks in advance! <html> <head> <style type="text/css"> <!-- body { font-family: helvetica; } .myContainer { overflow: hidden; border: 1px solid rgba(0, 0, 0, .5); font-size: 14pt; height: 49px; line-height: 49px; overflow: hidden; display: block; } .myContainer > DIV { float: left; white-space: nowrap; display: block; } .myContainer .item:first-child { padding-left: 10px; } .myContainer .item { float: left; padding-right: 32px; } --> </style> </head> <body> <div id="outerDIV" class="myContainer" style="display: block; width: 425px;"> <div id="innerDIV"> <div class="item"> --------My test string #1-------- </div> <div class="item"> ------test2------- </div> <div class="item"> test </div> </div> </div> </body> </html>

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• Solution Output Directory

  - by L.E.O

  The project that I'm currently working on is being developed by multiple teams where each team is responsible for different part of the project. They all have set up their own C# projects and solutions with configuration settings specific to their own needs. However, now we need to create another, global solution, which will combine and build all projects into the same output directory. The problem that I have encountered though, is that I have found only one way to make all projects build into the same output directory - I need to modify configurations for all of them. That is what we would like to avoid. We would prefer that all these projects had no knowledge about this "global" solution. Each team must retain possibility to work just with their own sub-solution. One possible workaround is to create a special configuration for all projects just for this "global" solution, but that could create extra problems since now you have to constantly sync this configuration settings with the regular one, used by that specific team. Last thing we want to do is to spend hours trying to figure out why something doesn't work when building under global solution just because of some check box that developers have checked in their configuration, but forgot to do so in the global configuration. So, to simplify, we need some sort of output directory setting or post build event that would only be present when building from that global, all-inclusive solution. Is there any way to achieve this without changing something in projects configurations? Update 1: Some extra details I guess I need to mention: We need this global solution to be as close as possible to what the end user gets when he installs our application, since we intend to use it for debugging of the entire application when we need to figure out which part of the application isn't working before sending this bug to the team working on that part. This means that when building under global solution the output directory hierarchy should be the same as it would be in Program Files after installation, so that if, for example, we have Program Files/MyApplication/Addins folder which contains all the addins developed by different teams, we need the global solution to copy the binaries from addins projects and place them in the output directory accordingly. The thing is, the team developing an addin doest necessary know that it is an addin and that it should be placed in that folder, so they cannot change their relative output directory to be build/bin/Debug/Addins.

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• how to bind parameters correctly in example below in mysqli?

  - by user1421767

  In old mysql code, I had a query below which worked perfectly which is below: $questioncontent = (isset($_GET['questioncontent'])) ? $_GET['questioncontent'] : ''; $searchquestion = $questioncontent; $terms = explode(" ", $searchquestion); $questionquery = " SELECT q.QuestionId, q.QuestionContent, o.OptionType, an.Answer, r.ReplyType, FROM Answer an INNER JOIN Question q ON q.AnswerId = an.AnswerId JOIN Reply r ON q.ReplyId = r.ReplyId JOIN Option_Table o ON q.OptionId = o.OptionId WHERE "; foreach ($terms as $each) { $i++; if ($i == 1){ $questionquery .= "q.QuestionContent LIKE `%$each%` "; } else { $questionquery .= "OR q.QuestionContent LIKE `%$each%` "; } } $questionquery .= "GROUP BY q.QuestionId, q.SessionId ORDER BY "; $i = 0; foreach ($terms as $each) { $i++; if ($i != 1) $questionquery .= "+"; $questionquery .= "IF(q.QuestionContent LIKE `%$each%` ,1,0)"; } $questionquery .= " DESC "; But since that old mysql is fading away that people are saying to use PDO or mysqli (Can't use PDO because of version of php I have currently got), I tried changing my code to mysqli, but this is giving me problems. In the code below I have left out the bind_params command, my question is that how do I bind the parameters in the query below? It needs to be able to bind multiple $each because the user is able to type in multiple terms, and each $each is classed as a term. Below is current mysqli code on the same query: $questioncontent = (isset($_GET['questioncontent'])) ? $_GET['questioncontent'] : ''; $searchquestion = $questioncontent; $terms = explode(" ", $searchquestion); $questionquery = " SELECT q.QuestionId, q.QuestionContent, o.OptionType, an.Answer, r.ReplyType, FROM Answer an INNER JOIN Question q ON q.AnswerId = an.AnswerId JOIN Reply r ON q.ReplyId = r.ReplyId JOIN Option_Table o ON q.OptionId = o.OptionId WHERE "; foreach ($terms as $each) { $i++; if ($i == 1){ $questionquery .= "q.QuestionContent LIKE ? "; } else { $questionquery .= "OR q.QuestionContent LIKE ? "; } } $questionquery .= "GROUP BY q.QuestionId, q.SessionId ORDER BY "; $i = 0; foreach ($terms as $each) { $i++; if ($i != 1) $questionquery .= "+"; $questionquery .= "IF(q.QuestionContent LIKE ? ,1,0)"; } $questionquery .= " DESC "; $stmt=$mysqli->prepare($questionquery); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($dbQuestionId,$dbQuestionContent,$dbOptionType,$dbAnswer,$dbReplyType); $questionnum = $stmt->num_rows();

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