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  • Regex to ensure group match doesn't end with a specific character

    - by AJ
    I'm having trouble coming up with a regular expression to match a particular case. I have a list of tv shows in about 4 formats: Name.Of.Show.S01E01 Name.Of.Show.0101 Name.Of.Show.01x01 Name.Of.Show.101 What I want to match is the show name. My main problem is that my regex matches the name of the show with a preceding '.'. My regex is the following: "^([0-9a-zA-Z\.]+)(S[0-9]{2}E[0-9]{2}|[0-9]{4}|[0-9]{2}x[0-9]{2}|[0-9]{3})" Some Examples: >>> import re >>> SHOW_INFO = re.compile("^([0-9a-zA-Z\.]+)(S[0-9]{2}E[0-9]{2}|[0-9]{4}|[0-9]{2}x[0-9]{2}|[0-9]{3})") >>> match = SHOW_INFO.match("Name.Of.Show.S01E01") >>> match.groups() ('Name.Of.Show.', 'S01E01') >>> match = SHOW_INFO.match("Name.Of.Show.0101") >>> match.groups() ('Name.Of.Show.0', '101') >>> match = SHOW_INFO.match("Name.Of.Show.01x01") >>> match.groups() ('Name.Of.Show.', '01x01') >>> match = SHOW_INFO.match("Name.Of.Show.101") >>> match.groups() ('Name.Of.Show.', '101') So the question is how do I avoid the first group ending with a period? I realize I could simply do: var.strip(".") However, that doesn't handle the case of "Name.Of.Show.0101". Is there a way I could improve the regex to handle that case better? Thanks in advance.

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  • Set up Gitosis, but can't clone

    - by Tim Rupe
    I've set up Gitosis on a remote Ubuntu box which I will refer to as linuxserver as my host in the following commands. I'm also connecting from a Windows box using Cygwin. I followed the instructions according to: http://scie.nti.st/2007/11/14/hosting-git-repositories-the-easy-and-secure-way I had no problems up until I needed to clone the gitosis-admin repository to my local machine git clone git@linuxserver:gitosis-admin.git When I do this, the command executes, but hangs there displaying nothing until I ctrl-c to get back to a command prompt. No messages are displayed at all. I'm pretty sure I have my ssh keys set up properly, because logging in using "ssh linuxserver" into my regular account works perfectly without asking for a password. Edit: Over the weekend I set up a near identical Ubuntu box at home, and had no problem setting up Gitosis. The only difference was that I was connecting from OSX instead of Cygwin. Edit: I've also discovered that when using the Bash Shell provided with "Git Extensions", I have no problems, so the issue definitely seems to be some kind of Cygwin conflict. Edit: Just an update, but about a month after posting this question, I switched to Mercurial, and found that I prefer it much more than git. Thanks for the suggestions, but I don't plan on going back to git to try any of them out.

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  • How does this code break the Law of Demeter?

    - by Dave Jarvis
    The following code breaks the Law of Demeter: public class Student extends Person { private Grades grades; public Student() { } /** Must never return null; throw an appropriately named exception, instead. */ private synchronized Grades getGrades() throws GradesException { if( this.grades == null ) { this.grades = createGrades(); } return this.grades; } /** Create a new instance of grades for this student. */ protected Grades createGrades() throws GradesException { // Reads the grades from the database, if needed. // return new Grades(); } /** Answers if this student was graded by a teacher with the given name. */ public boolean isTeacher( int year, String name ) throws GradesException, TeacherException { // The method only knows about Teacher instances. // return getTeacher( year ).nameEquals( name ); } private Grades getGradesForYear( int year ) throws GradesException { // The method only knows about Grades instances. // return getGrades().getForYear( year ); } private Teacher getTeacher( int year ) throws GradesException, TeacherException { // This method knows about Grades and Teacher instances. A mistake? // return getGradesForYear( year ).getTeacher(); } } public class Teacher extends Person { public Teacher() { } /** * This method will take into consideration first name, * last name, middle initial, case sensitivity, and * eventually it could answer true to wild cards and * regular expressions. */ public boolean nameEquals( String name ) { return getName().equalsIgnoreCase( name ); } /** Never returns null. */ private synchronized String getName() { if( this.name == null ) { this.name == ""; } return this.name; } } Questions How is the LoD broken? Where is the code breaking the LoD? How should the code be written to uphold the LoD?

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  • How do you localize/internationalize an MVC Controller when using a SQL based localization provider?

    - by EBarr
    Hopefully this isn't too silly of a question. In MVC there appears to be plenty of localization support in the views. Once I get to the controller, however, it becomes murky. Using meta:resourcekey="blah" is out, same with <%$ Resources:PageTitle.Text%. ASP.NET MVC - Localization Helpers -- suggested extensions for the Html helper classes like Resource(this Controller controller, string expression, params object[] args). Similarly, Localize your MVC with ease suggested a slightly different extension like Localize(this System.Web.UI.UserControl control, string resourceKey, params object[] args) None of these approaches works while in a controller. I put together the below function and I'm using the controllers full class name as my VirtualPath. But I'm new to MVC and assume there's a better way. public static string Localize (System.Type theType, string resourceKey, params object[] args) { string resource = (HttpContext.GetLocalResourceObject(theType.FullName, resourceKey) ?? string.Empty).ToString(); return mergeTokens(resource, args); } Thoughts? Comments?

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  • How to render a DateTime in a specific format in ASP.NET MVC 3?

    - by Slauma
    If I have in my model class a property of type DateTime how can I render it in a specific format - for example in the format which ToLongDateString() returns? I have tried this... @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.MyDateTime.ToLongDateString()) ...which throws an exception because the expression must point to a property or field. And this... @{var val = item.MyDateTime.ToLongDateString(); Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => val); } ...which doesn't throw an exception, but the rendered output is empty (although val contains the expected value, as I could see in the debugger). Thanks for tips in advance! Edit ToLongDateString is only an example. What I actually want to use instead of ToLongDateString is a custom extension method of DateTime and DateTime?: public static string FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(this DateTime dateTime) { if (dateTime.TimeOfDay == TimeSpan.Zero) return dateTime.ToString("d"); else return dateTime.ToString("g"); } public static string FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(this DateTime? dateTime) { if (dateTime.HasValue) return dateTime.Value.FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(); else return ""; } So, I think I cannot use the DisplayFormat attribute and DataFormatString parameter on the ViewModel properties.

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  • How do you clear a CustomValidator Error on a Button click event?

    - by George
    I have a composite User control for entering dates: The CustomValidator will include server sided validation code. I would like the error message to be cleared via client sided script if the user alters teh date value in any way. To do this, I included the following code to hook up the two drop downs and the year text box to the validation control: <script type="text/javascript"> ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlMonth.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlDate.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= txtYear.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); </script> However, I would also like the Validation error to be cleared when the user clicks the clear button. When the user clicks the Clear button, the other 3 controls are reset. To avoid a Post back, the Clear button is a regular HTML button with an OnClick event that resets the 3 controls. Unfortunately, the ValidatorHookupControlID method does not seem to work on HTML controls, so I thought to change the HTML Button to an ASP button and to Hookup to that control instead. However, I cannot seem to eliminate the Postback functionality associated by default with the ASP button control. I tried to set the UseSubmitBehavior to False, but it still submits. I tried to return false in my btnClear_OnClick client code, but the code sent to the browser included a DoPostback call after my call. btnClear.Attributes.Add("onClick", "btnClear_OnClick();") Instead of adding OnClick code, I tried overwriting it, but the DoPostBack code was still included in the final code that was sent to the browser. What do I have to do to get the Clear button to clear the CustomValidator error when clicked and avoid a postback? btnClear.Attributes.Item("onClick") = "btnClear_OnClick();"

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  • Binding to XMLDataProvider in Code Behind

    - by Robert Vernunft
    Hello, i have a problem moving a XMLDataprovider Binding with XPath from Xaml to code behind. Labels.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Labels> <btnOne Label="Button1"/> <btnTwo Label="Button2"/> </Labels> MainWindow.xaml <Window xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" x:Class="bindings.MainWindow" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <Window.Resources> <XmlDataProvider x:Key="XMLLabels" Source="Labels.xml" XPath="Labels"/> </Window.Resources> <Grid> <Button Content="{Binding Source={StaticResource XMLLabels}, XPath=btnOne/@Label}" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="12,12,0,276" Name="btnOne" Width="75" /> <Button Content="Button" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="93,12,0,276" Name="btnTwo" Width="75" Loaded="btnTwo_Loaded" /> </Grid> </Window> MainWindow.xaml.cs ... private void btnTwo_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { String Type = sender.GetType().Name; if (Type == "Button") { Button btn = sender as Button; Binding label = new Binding("XMLBind"); XmlDataProvider xmlLabels = (XmlDataProvider)this.FindResource("XMLLabels"); label.Source = xmlLabels; label.XPath = "btnTwo/@Header"; btn.SetBinding(Button.ContentProperty, label); } } ... The binding to content of btnOne works as aspected "Button1". But btnTwo is set to an empty string. The Output shows no errors. Thanks for any advice.

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  • Receiving an object in a unmanaged callback function

    - by Daniel Baulig
    Eg. I have following delegate method I want to use as a callback function with unmanaged code: public delegate void Callback(IntPtr myObject); Callback callback; I register it in the following way: [DllImport("a.dll")] public static void registerCallback(IntPtr callbackFunction, IntPtr anObject); // ... this.myObject = new MyClass(); this.objectPin = GCHandle.Alloc(this.myObject, GCHandleType.Pinned); registerCallback(Marshal.GetFunctionPointerForDelegate(callback), objectPin.AddrOfPinnedObject()); Now whenever the callback function is called it will have a Pointer/Handle of an object of the MyClass class. I could use Marshal.PtrToStructure to convert this to an object of MyClass. However, what I would like to have is that the delegate definition already contains the class MyClass. eg.: public delegate void Callback(MyClass myObject); I tried this, but it will not work. I also tried the following, which did not work: public delegate void Callback([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.IUnknown)]MyClass myObject); I suppose I would need something like "UnmarshalAs" at this point, but sadly this is not available. Any suggestions how I could get lost of that IntPtr in my callback function and get a it packed up as a regular, managed MyClass object?

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  • BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly alternative to avoid ambiguous properties of derived classes

    - by JoeBilly
    I'am looking for a solution to access 'flatten' (lowest) properties values of a class and its derived via reflection by property names. ie access either Property1 or Property2 from the ClassB or ClassC type : public class ClassA { public virtual object Property1 { get; set; } public object Property2 { get; set; } } public class ClassB : ClassA { public override object Property1 { get; set; } } public class ClassC : ClassB { } Using simple reflection works until you have virtual properties that are overrired (ie Property1 from ClassB). Then you get a AmbiguousMatchException because the searcher don't know if you want the property of the main class or the derived. Using BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly avoid the AmbiguousMatchException but unoverrided virtual properties or derived classes properties are ommited (ie Property2 from ClassB). Is there an alternative to this poor workaround : // Get the main class property with the specified propertyName PropertyInfo propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName, BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Static); // If not found, get the property wherever it is if (propertyInfo == null) propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName); Furthermore, this workaround not resolve the reflection of 2nd level properties : getting Property1 from ClassC and AmbiguousMatchException is back. My thoughts : I have no choice except loop... Erk... ?? I'am open to Emit, Lambda (is the Expression.Call can handle this?) even DLR solution. Thanks !

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  • SQL Server: Output an XML field as tabular data using a stored procedure

    - by Pawan
    I am using a table with an XML data field to store the audit trails of all other tables in the database. That means the same XML field has various XML information. For example my table has two records with XML data like this: 1st record: <client> <name>xyz</name> <ssn>432-54-4231</ssn> </client> 2nd record: <emp> <name>abc</name> <sal>5000</sal> </emp> These are the two sample formats and just two records. The table actually has many more XML formats in the same field and many records in each format. Now my problem is that upon query I need these XML formats to be converted into tabular result sets. What are the options for me? It would be a regular task to query this table and generate reports from it. I want to create a stored procedure to which I can pass that I need to query "<emp>" or "<client>", then my stored procedure should return tabular data.

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  • How to resize font on the GUI buttons in MFC

    - by ame
    I have a GUI written in MFC for a Windows CE device. However I need to resize some of the buttons and their corresponding text. I can't figure out how to change font size. The following code fragments did not help: Trial 1: *CFont fnt2; fnt2.CreateFont(10, 0, 0, 0, FW_NORMAL, FALSE, FALSE, FALSE, ANSI_CHARSET, OUT_DEFAULT_PRECIS, CLIP_DEFAULT_PRECIS, DEFAULT_QUALITY, DEFAULT_PITCH, L"MS Shell Dlg"); m_btnForceAnalog.SetFont(&fnt2); fnt2.Detach(); Trial 2: LOGFONT lf; memset(&lf,0,sizeof(LOGFONT)); lf.lfHeight = 5; // Request a 100-pixel-height font // DP and LP are always the same on CE - The conversion below is used by CFont::CreateFontIndirect HDC hDC=::GetDC(NULL); lf.lfHeight = ::GetDeviceCaps(hDC,LOGPIXELSY) * lf.lfHeight; ::ReleaseDC(NULL,hDC); //ReleaseDC(/NULL,/hDC); lf.lfHeight /= 720; // 72 points/inch, 10 decipoints/point if(lf.lfHeight 0) lf.lfHeight *= -1; OutputDebugString(L"\nAbout to call the setfont\n"); lstrcpy(lf.lfFaceName, _T("Arial")); HFONT font =::CreateFontIndirectW(&lf); CWnd* myButton = GetDlgItem(IDC_FORCE_ANALOG_BTN); //The Button with regular font myButton-SendMessageW(WM_SETFONT, (WPARAM)font, TRUE); Thankyou!

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  • TCP: Address already in use exception - possible causes for client port? NO PORT EXHAUSTION

    - by TomTom
    Hello, stupid problem. I get those from a client connecting to a server. Sadly, the setup is complicated making debugging complex - and we run out of options. The environment: *Client/Server system, both running on the same machine. The client is actually a service doing some database manipulation at specific times. * The cnonection comes from C# going through OleDb to an EasySoft JDBC driver to a custom written JDBC server that then hosts logic in C++. Yeah, compelx - but the third party supplier decided to expose the extension mechanisms for their server through a JDBC interface. Not a lot can be done here ;) The Symptom: At (ir)regular intervals we get a "Address already in use: connect" told from the JDBC driver. They seem to come from one particular service we run. Now, I did read all the stuff about port exhaustion. This is why we have a little tool running now that counts ports and their states every minute. Last time this happened, we had an astonishing 370 ports in use, with the count rising to about 900 AFTER the error. We aleady patched the registry (it is a windows machine) to allow more than the 5000 client ports standard, but even then, we are far far from that limit to start with. Which is why I am asking here. Ayneone an ide what ELSE could cause this? It is a Windows 2003 Server machine, 64 bit. The only other thing I can see that may cause it (but this functionality is supposedly disabled) is Symantec Endpoint Protection that is installed on the server - and being capable of actinc as a firewall, it could possibly intercept network traffic. I dont want to open a can of worms by pointing to Symantec prematurely (if pointing to Symantec can ever be seen as such). So, anyone an idea what else may be the cause? Thanks

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  • adding multiple <asp:Hyperlink>s into a repeater

    - by Colin Pickard
    I have a repeater control, and I want to put an unknown number of <asp:Hyperlink>s into the template, for example if you start with this: <asp:Repeater runat="server" ID="PetsRepeater"> <ItemTemplate> <%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "Owner")%> <%#this.ListPets(Container.DataItem)%> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> and in code behind: public partial class test1 : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { PetOwner p = new PetOwner() { Owner = "Jimmy", PetNames = new List<String>() { "Nemo", "Dory" } }; List<PetOwner> PetOwners = new List<PetOwner>() { p }; PetsRepeater.DataSource = PetOwners; PetsRepeater.DataBind(); } } protected String ListPets(Object PetOwner) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); foreach (String Name in ((PetOwner)PetOwner).PetNames) { if (sb.Length > 0) sb.Append(", "); sb.Append(Name); } return sb.ToString(); } } class PetOwner { public String Owner; public List<String> PetNames; } Now suppose instead of having the string "Nemo, Dory" in my repeater, I want something like this: <asp:HyperLink runat=server Text="Nemo" NavigateUrl="Pet.aspx?Name=Nemo" />, <asp:HyperLink runat=server Text="Dory" NavigateUrl="Pet.aspx?Name=Dory" /> How can I do that? I tried putting a foreach inline in the aspx page, but I get the error Invalid expression term 'foreach'.

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  • Bash and regex problem : check for tokens entered into a Coke vending machine

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: Here is a "challenge question" I've got from Linux system programming lecture. Any of the following strings will give you a Coke if you kick: L = { aaaa, aab, aba, baa, bb, aaaa"a", aaaa"b", aab"a", … ab"b"a, ba"b"a, ab"bbbbbb"a, ... } The letters shown in wrapped double quotes indicate coins that would have fallen through (but those strings are still part of the language in this example). Exercise (a bit hard) show this is the language of a regular expression And this is what I've got so far : #!/usr/bin/bash echo "A bottle of Coke costs you 40 cents" echo -e "Please enter tokens (a = 10 cents, b = 20 cents) in a sequence like 'abba' :\c" read tokens #if [ $tokens = aaaa ]||[ $tokens = aab ]||[ $tokens = bb ] #then # echo "Good! now a coke is yours!" #else echo "Thanks for your money, byebye!" if [[ $token =~ 'aaaa|aab|bb' ]] then echo "Good! now a coke is yours!" else echo "Thanks for your money, byebye!" fi Sadly it doesn't work... always outputs "Thanks for your money, byebye!" I believe something is wrong with syntax... We didn't provided with any good reference book and the only instruction from the professor was to consult "anything you find useful online" and "research the problem yourself" :( I know how could I do it in any programming language such as Java, but get it done with bash script + regex seems not "a bit hard" but in fact "too hard" for anyone with little knowledge on something advanced as "lookahead"(is this the terminology ?) I don't know if there is a way to express the following concept in the language of regex: Valid entry would consist of exactly one of the three components : aaaa, aab and bb, regardless of order, followed by an arbitrary sequence of a or b's So this is what is should be like : (a{4}Ua{2}bUb{2})(aUb)* where the content in first braces is order irrelevant. Thanks a lot in advance for any hints and/or tips :)

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  • Accuracy of OpenGL ES Instrument

    - by Rob Jones
    I'm developing a game for the iPhone. I've decided that 30FPS is plenty so I've written some code that only allows the App to present the render buffer every 1/30 of a second. When I tried to verify this with Instruments I got varying information. On an iPod Touch (2009 edition, 32G) it reports 30 FPS for Core Animation Frames Per Second. On an iPhone 3G I get wildly varying results. And not just less than 30 FPS. I see 30 FPS on a regular basis. It actually seems to hang closer to 36-39. To investigate this anomaly I added my own FPS to the app and update it once per second. I stays right at 29 FPS on both devices. So, does anyone have any suggestions as to what might be going on? I expect Instruments to be accurate so it really concerns me that it appears inaccurate. It makes me think I have a bug somewhere, but I sure can't find it.

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  • Problem executing script using Python and subprocces.call yet works in Bash

    - by Antoine Benkemoun
    Hello, For the first time, I am asking a little bit of help over here as I am more of a ServerFault person. I am doing some scripting in Python and I've been loving the language so far yet I have this little problem which is keeping my script from working. Here is the code line in question : subprocess.call('xen-create-image --hostname '+nom+' --memory '+memory+' --partitions=/root/scripts/part.tmp --ip '+ip+' --netmask '+netmask+' --gateway '+gateway+' --passwd',shell=True) I have tried the same thing with os.popen. All the variables are correctly set. When I execute the command in question in my regular Linux shell, it works perfectly fine but when I execute it using my Python scripts, I get bizarre errors. I even replaced subprocess.call() by the print function to make sure I am using the exact output of the command. I went looking into environment variables of my shell but they are pretty much the same... I'll post the error I am getting but I'm not sure it's relevant to my problem. Use of uninitialized value $lines[0] in substitution (s///) at /usr/share/perl5/Config/IniFiles.pm line 614. Use of uninitialized value $_ in pattern match (m//) at /usr/share/perl5/Config/IniFiles.pm line 628. I am not a Python expert so I'm most likely missing something here. Thank you in advance for your help, Antoine

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  • Munging non-printable characters to dots using string.translate()

    - by Jim Dennis
    So I've done this before and it's a surprising ugly bit of code for such a seemingly simple task. The goal is to translate any non-printable character into a . (dot). For my purposes "printable" does exclude the last few characters from string.printable (new-lines, tabs, and so on). This is for printing things like the old MS-DOS debug "hex dump" format ... or anything similar to that (where additional whitespace will mangle the intended dump layout). I know I can use string.translate() and, to use that, I need a translation table. So I use string.maketrans() for that. Here's the best I could come up with: filter = string.maketrans( string.translate(string.maketrans('',''), string.maketrans('',''),string.printable[:-5]), '.'*len(string.translate(string.maketrans('',''), string.maketrans('',''),string.printable[:-5]))) ... which is an unreadable mess (though it does work). From there you can call use something like: for each_line in sometext: print string.translate(each_line, filter) ... and be happy. (So long as you don't look under the hood). Now it is more readable if I break that horrid expression into separate statements: ascii = string.maketrans('','') # The whole ASCII character set nonprintable = string.translate(ascii, ascii, string.printable[:-5]) # Optional delchars argument filter = string.maketrans(nonprintable, '.' * len(nonprintable)) And it's tempting to do that just for legibility. However, I keep thinking there has to be a more elegant way to express this!

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  • invalid argument IE7 javascript line number changes

    - by Lauren
    This is the test page: http://www.onebagoneearth.com/ OBOEKindBag (spaces between the pagename and domain because I don't want the URL indexed as such) If you click on one of the thumbnails, or on the main image, you see a popup window, and if you enter a quantity and then click "add to cart" here, in IE7 (and IE6, but I'm not focusing on that as much), you see an invalid argument error with Code:0. The line # changes depending on which item you add to cart! The URL also changes because it depends on this line of javascript: var cartUrl = "/app/site/backend/additemtocart.nl?c=659197&n=2&buyid=" + zbuyid + "&qty=" + zqty + "&" + strOptionId + "=" + zitmId . The strOptionId variable, which contains the bag color type (ie. this changes for the different types of bags, like Kind bags, regular OBOE bags), and the zitmID variable which contains the particular bag color that you've selected (ie. Black), are what change, and also what seem to affect the line number that the invalid argument occurs on. The error definitely doesn't occur in Chrome 4, IE 8, or FF 3.5. Ideas?

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  • Nginx rewrite for link shortener and Wordpress

    - by detusueno
    I'm a complete newbie to Nginx, so much so that I followed a online guide to do most of my server setup. I'm trying to learn but I'm still a ways away from understanding it all. So what I'm trying to create is a link shortener that redirects (example.com/x) to (example.com/short.php?id=x). Keep in mind that I'm also running a Wordpress blog on the same domain and plan on using the redirects/shortening for external links. The guide has so far had me add the following rewrites to enable Wordpress pretty URLs: # WordPress pretty URLs: (as per dominiek.com) if (-f $request_filename) { break; } if (-d $request_filename) { break; } rewrite ^(.+)$ /index.php?q=$1 last; # Enable nice permalinks for WordPress: (as per Yawn.it) error_page 404 = //index.php?q=$uri; And if it matters any, it was saved at (/usr/local/nginx/conf/wordpress_params.regular). Additionally, my Wordpress link structure adds "news" to all internal links (example.com/news/post-blah, example.com/news/category, ect.). What's the best way to tackle this setup?

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  • Best Practice - Removing item from generic collection in C#

    - by Matt Davis
    I'm using C# in Visual Studio 2008 with .NET 3.5. I have a generic dictionary that maps types of events to a generic list of subscribers. A subscriber can be subscribed to more than one event. private static Dictionary<EventType, List<ISubscriber>> _subscriptions; To remove a subscriber from the subscription list, I can use either of these two options. Option 1: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { if (_subscriptions[event].Contains(subscriber)) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } } Option 2: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } I have two questions. First, notice that Option 1 checks for existence before removing the item, while Option 2 uses a brute force removal since Remove() does not throw an exception. Of these two, which is the preferred, "best-practice" way to do this? Second, is there another, "cleaner," more elegant way to do this, perhaps with a lambda expression or using a LINQ extension? I'm still getting acclimated to these two features. Thanks. EDIT Just to clarify, I realize that the choice between Options 1 and 2 is a choice of speed (Option 2) versus maintainability (Option 1). In this particular case, I'm not necessarily trying to optimize the code, although that is certainly a worthy consideration. What I'm trying to understand is if there is a generally well-established practice for doing this. If not, which option would you use in your own code?

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  • System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization Namespace Fine in One Class but Not in Another

    - by jxpx777
    Hi. I'm getting this error The type or namespace name 'DataVisualization' does not exist in the namespace 'System.Windows.Forms' (are you missing an assembly reference?) Here is my using section of the class: using System; using System.Collections; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Borders3D; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.ChartTypes; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Data; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Formulas; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Utilities; namespace myNamespace { public class myClass { // Usual class stuff } } The thing is that I am using the same DataVisualization includes in another class. The only thing that I can think that is different is that the classes that are giving this missing namespace error are Solution Items rather than specific to a project. The projects reference them by link. Anyone have thoughts on what the problem is? I've installed the chart component, .Net 3.5 SP1, and the Chart Add-in for Visual Studio 2008. UPDATE: I moved the items from Solution Items to be regular members of my project and I'm still seeing the same behavior. UPDATE 2: Removing the items from the Solution Items and placing them under my project worked. Another project was still referencing the files which is why I didn't think it worked previously. I'm still curious, though, why I couldn't use the namespace when the classes were Solution Items but moving them underneath a project (with no modifications, mind you) instantly made them recognizable. :\

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  • how to update the table in sql database from a Paradox DB table using delphi

    - by Sreenath Krishnakumar
    I am doing a project in Delphi6 which enables the user to update the table in SQL server database ; if there is any changes in the table of Paradox DB. An update button has been created and whenever the user clicks it, all the changes made in the paradox db table have to be updated in the SQL server table. Only if there is any changes the table need to be updated else ; it should close automatically. For that I have created a table, "Schedule" ,both in Paradox DB and SQL server. But I am stuck with this Paradox DB thing. Which component can I drop in the form for connecting the table in Paradox DB ? For SQL server I used ado table component. For this Paradox also can I use that ? I am not a regular programmer so I am not well versed this Delphi6 also. So I am seeking a help for this. Can anybody give me an example coding also ?

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  • Python template engine

    - by jturo
    Hello there, Could it be possible if somebody could help me get started in writing a python template engine? I'm new to python and as I learn the language I've managed to write a little MVC framework running in its own light-weight-WSGI-like server. I've managed to write a script that finds and replaces keys for values: (Obviously this is not how my script is structured or implemented. this is just an example) from string import Template html = '<html>\n' html += ' <head>\n' html += ' <title>This is so Cool : In Controller HTML</title>\n' html += ' </head>\n' html += ' <body>\n' html += ' Home | <a href="/hi">Hi ${name}</a>\n' html += ' </body>\n' html += '<html>' Template(html).safe_substitute(dict(name = 'Arturo')) My next goal is to implement custom statements, modifiers, functions, etc (like 'for' loop) but i don't really know if i should use another module that i don't know about. I thought of regular expressions but i kind feel like that wouldn't be an efficient way of doing it Any help is appreciated, and i'm sure this will be of use to other people too. Thank you

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  • Javascript: Multiple mouseout events triggered

    - by Channel72
    I'm aware of the different event models in Javascript (the WC3 model versus the Microsoft model), as well as the difference between bubbling and capturing. However, after a few hours reading various articles about this issue, I'm still unsure how to properly code the following seemingly simple behavior: If I have an outer div and an inner div element, I want a single mouse-out event to be triggered when the mouse leaves the outer-div. When the mouse crosses from the inner-div to the outer-div, nothing should happen, and when the mouse crosses from the outer-div to the inner-div nothing should happen. The event should only fire if the mouse moves from the outer-div to the surrounding page. <div id="outer" style = "width:20em; height:20em; border:1px solid #F00" align = "center" onmouseout="alert('mouseout event!')" > <div id="inner" style = "width:18em; height:18em; border:1px solid #000"></div> </div> Now, if I place the "mouseout" event on the outer-div, two mouse-out events are fired when the mouse moves from the inner-div to the surrounding page, because the event fires once when the mouse moves from inner to outer, and then again when it moves from outer to the surrounding page. I know I can cancel the event using ev.stopPropagation(), so I tried registering an event handler with the inner-div to cancel the event propagation. However, this won't prevent the event from firing when the mouse moves from the outer-div to the inner-div. So, unless I'm overlooking something, it seems to me this behavior can't be accomplished without complex mouse-tracking functions. In the future, I plan to reimplement a lot of this code using a more advanced framework, like JQuery, but for now, I'm wondering if there is a simple way to implement the above behavior in regular Javascript.

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  • Use auto_ptr in VC6 dll cause crash

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    // dll #include <memory> __declspec(dllexport) std::auto_ptr<int> get(); __declspec(dllexport) std::auto_ptr<int> get() { return std::auto_ptr<int>(new int()); } // exe #include <iostream> #include <memory> __declspec(dllimport) std::auto_ptr<int> get(); int main() { { std::auto_ptr<int> x = get(); } std::cout << "done\n"; getchar(); } The following code run perfectly OK under VC9. However, under VC6, I will experience an immediate crash with the following message. Debug Assertion Failed! Program: C:\Projects\use_dynamic_link\Debug\use_dynamic_link.exe File: dbgheap.c Line: 1044 Expression: _CrtIsValidHeapPointer(pUserData) Is it exporting auto_ptr under VC6 is not allowed? It is a known problem that exporting STL collection classes through DLL. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2451714/access-violation-when-accessing-an-stl-object-through-a-pointer-or-reference-in-a However, I Google around and do not see anything mention for std::auto_ptr. Any workaround?

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