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  • Databind Parent/Child relation with Mysql

    - by e2k
    What is the best way to databind parent/child relations? Lets say I have two simple objects: Parent with the following properties, ParentId, Name and Childs and Child with the following properties, ChildId, Name and Parent. I want to write a repository using MySql for this but is failing when I bind both Childs and Parent properties, I have only been able to bind either the Childs property of parent or the Parent property och Child or else I would get a infinite loop. Thinking of it the preferable solution would be to only bind this properties when requested. If I use Linq to sql i would be able to write Parent.Childs[0].Parent.Name but how should I accomplish this with my own repository and with MySql, could anyone point me in the right direction? Looking at the Linq 2 sql generated classes they use EntitySet<Child and EntityRef<Parent could this be used with Mysql? I had a thought of using my IChildRepository in the Parent object and let the Public IEnumerable Childs databind the childs but it seems not right? Best regards E2k

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  • How do you clear a CustomValidator Error on a Button click event?

    - by George
    I have a composite User control for entering dates: The CustomValidator will include server sided validation code. I would like the error message to be cleared via client sided script if the user alters teh date value in any way. To do this, I included the following code to hook up the two drop downs and the year text box to the validation control: <script type="text/javascript"> ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlMonth.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlDate.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= txtYear.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); </script> However, I would also like the Validation error to be cleared when the user clicks the clear button. When the user clicks the Clear button, the other 3 controls are reset. To avoid a Post back, the Clear button is a regular HTML button with an OnClick event that resets the 3 controls. Unfortunately, the ValidatorHookupControlID method does not seem to work on HTML controls, so I thought to change the HTML Button to an ASP button and to Hookup to that control instead. However, I cannot seem to eliminate the Postback functionality associated by default with the ASP button control. I tried to set the UseSubmitBehavior to False, but it still submits. I tried to return false in my btnClear_OnClick client code, but the code sent to the browser included a DoPostback call after my call. btnClear.Attributes.Add("onClick", "btnClear_OnClick();") Instead of adding OnClick code, I tried overwriting it, but the DoPostBack code was still included in the final code that was sent to the browser. What do I have to do to get the Clear button to clear the CustomValidator error when clicked and avoid a postback? btnClear.Attributes.Item("onClick") = "btnClear_OnClick();"

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  • how to clone the drag-event using jquery and jquery-ui.

    - by zjm1126
    i want to create a new '.b' div appendTo document.body, and it can dragable like its father, but i can not clone the drag event, how to do this, thanks this is my code : <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width, user-scalable=no"> </head> <body> <style type="text/css" media="screen"> </style> <div id="map_canvas" style="width: 500px; height: 300px;background:blue;"></div> <div class=b style="width: 20px; height: 20px;background:red;position:absolute;left:700px;top:200px;"></div> <script src="jquery-1.4.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="jquery-ui-1.8rc3.custom.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> $(".b").draggable({ start: function(event,ui) { //console.log(ui) //$(ui.helper).clone(true).appendTo($(document.body)) $(this).clone(true).appendTo($(document.body))//draggable is not be cloned, } }); $("#map_canvas").droppable({ drop: function(event,ui) { //console.log(ui.offset.left+' '+ui.offset.top) ui.draggable.remove(); } }); </script> </body> </html>

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  • How to get ID of EditorFor with nested viewmodels in asp.net mvc 2

    - by Luke
    So I have two nested view models, CreditCard - BillAddress. I have a view, "EditBilling", that has EditorFor(CreditCard). The CreditCard EditorTemplate has EditorFor(BillAddress), and the BillAddress EditorTemplate has EditorFor(BillState). The end result is a select list with id "CreditCard_BillAddress_BillState". I need to reference this in javascript, thus need to know the ID. In other situations, with non-nested ViewModels, I have used the following code: $('#<%= ViewData.ModelMetadata.PropertyName %>_BillState') The problem here is that the ModelMetadata.PropertyName property is only aware of the current property, not the parent(s). So I end up with the following: $('#BillAddress_BillState') How does one go about getting the client ID of nested strongly typed helpers? Thanks in advance.

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  • Confused about Ajax, Basic XMLHTTPRequest

    - by George
    I'm confused about the basics of Ajax. Right now I'm just trying to build a basic Ajax request using plain JavaScript to better understand how things work (as opposed to using Jquery or another library). First off, do you always need to pass a parameter or can you just retrieve data? In its most basic form, could I have an html document (located on the same server) that just has plain text, and another html document retrieve that text and load it on to the page? So I have fox.html with just text that says "The quick brown fox jumped over the lazy dog." and I want to pull in that text into ajax.html on load. I have the following on ajax.html <script type="text/javascript"> function createAJAX() { var ajax = new XMLHttpRequest(); ajax.open('get','fox.html',true); ajax.send(null); ajax = ajax.responseText; return(ajax); } document.write(createAJAX()); </script> This currently writes nothing when I load the page.

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  • Problem using FluentNHibernate, SQLite and Enums

    - by weenet
    I have a Sharp Architecture based app using Fluent NHibernate with Automapping. I have the following Enum: public enum Topics { AdditionSubtraction = 1, MultiplicationDivision = 2, DecimalsFractions = 3 } and the following Class: public class Strategy : BaseEntity { public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual Topics Topic { get; set; } public virtual IList Items { get; set; } } If I create an instance of the class thusly: Strategy s = new Strategy { Name = "Test", Topic = Topics.AdditionSubtraction }; it Saves correctly (thanks to this mapping convention: public class EnumConvention : IPropertyConvention, IPropertyConventionAcceptance { public void Apply(FluentNHibernate.Conventions.Instances.IPropertyInstance instance) { instance.CustomType(instance.Property.PropertyType); } public void Accept(FluentNHibernate.Conventions.AcceptanceCriteria.IAcceptanceCriteria criteria) { criteria.Expect(x = x.Property.PropertyType.IsEnum); } } However, upon retrieval, I get an error regarding an attempt to convert Int64 to Topics. This works fine in SQL Server. Any ideas for a workaround? Thanks.

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  • Binding CoreData Managed Object to NSTextFieldCell subclass

    - by ndg
    I have an NSTableView which has its first column set to contain a custom NSTextFieldCell. My custom NSTextFieldCell needs to allow the user to edit a "desc" property within my Managed Object but to also display an "info" string that it contains (which is not editable). To achieve this, I followed this tutorial. In a nutshell, the tutorial suggests editing your Managed Objects generated subclass to create and pass a dictionary of its contents to your NSTableColumn via bindings. This works well for read-only NSCell implementations, but I'm looking to subclass NSTextFieldCell to allow the user to edit the "desc" property of my Managed Object. To do this, I followed one of the articles comments, which suggests subclassing NSFormatter to explicitly state which Managed Object property you would like the NSTextFieldCell to edit. Here's the suggested implementation: @implementation TRTableDescFormatter - (BOOL)getObjectValue:(id *)anObject forString:(NSString *)string errorDescription:(NSString **)error { if (anObject != nil){ *anObject = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:string forKey:@"desc"]; return YES; } return NO; } - (NSString *)stringForObjectValue:(id)anObject { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; return [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]; } - (NSAttributedString*)attributedStringForObjectValue:(id)anObject withDefaultAttributes:(NSDictionary *)attrs { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; NSAttributedString *anAttributedString = [[NSAttributedString alloc] initWithString: [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]]; return anAttributedString; } @end I assign the NSFormatter subclass to my cell in my NSTextFieldCell subclass, like so: - (void)awakeFromNib { TRTableDescFormatter *formatter = [[[TRTableDescFormatter alloc] init] autorelease]; [self setFormatter:formatter]; } This seems to work, but falls down when editing multiple rows. The behaviour I'm seeing is that editing a row will work as expected until you try to edit another row. Upon editing another row, all previously edited rows will have their "desc" value set to the value of the currently selected row. I've been doing a lot of reading on this subject and would really like to get to the bottom of this. What's more frustrating is that my NSTextFieldCell is rendering exactly how I would like it to. This editing issue is my last obstacle! If anyone can help, that would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Using Javascript to flip flop a textbox's readonly flag

    - by Velika
    I have a frame with several radio buttons where the user is supposed to select the "Category" that his Occupation falls into and then unconditionally also specify his occupation. If the user selects "Retired", the requirement is to prefill "Retired" in the "Specify Occupation" text box and to disable it to prevent it from being changed. The Specify Occupation text box should also no longer be a tab stop. If the user selects a radio button other than Retired the Specify Occupation text box should be enabled and once again in the normal tab sequence. Originally, I was setting and clearing the disabled property on the Specify occupation textbox, then I found out that, upon submitting the form, disabled fields are excluded from the submit and the REQUIRED validator on the Specify Occupation textbox was being raised because the textbox was being blanked out. What is the best way to solve this? My approach below was to mimic a disabled text box by setting/resetting the readonly attribute on the text box and changing the background color to make it appear disabled. (I suppose I should be changing the forecolor instead of teh background color). Nevertheless, my code to make the textbox readonly and to reset it doesn't appear to be working. function OccupationOnClick(sender) { debugger; var optOccupationRetired = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationRetired.ClientId %>"); var txtSpecifyOccupation = document.getElementById("<%= txtSpecifyOccupation.ClientId %>"); var optOccupationOther = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationOther.ClientId %>"); if (sender == optOccupationRetired) { txtSpecifyOccupation.value = "Retired" txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = "readonly"; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#E0E0E0"; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = -1; } else { if (txtSpecifyOccupation.value == "Retired") txtSpecifyOccupation.value = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#FFFFFF"; txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = 0; } } Can someone provide a suggest for the best way to handle this scenario and porovide a tweek to the code above to fix the setting/resetting on the readonly property?

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  • ObjectDataSource DataObjectTypeName Help. Pass object as parameter

    - by Kettenbach
    I have a partial class (the main class is a LinqToSql generated class) <DataObject(True)> _ Partial Public Class MBI_Contract <DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select, True)> _ Public Shared Function GetCancelableContracts(ByVal dealer As Dealer) As List(Of MBI_Contract) Return Utilities.GetCancelableContractsForDealer(dealer) End Function End Class Here is the method it's calling Public Function GetCancelableContractsForDealer(ByVal dealer As Dealer) As List(Of MBI_Contract) Dim db As TestDataContext = TestDataContext.Create() Return (From mbi As MBI_Contract In db.MBI_Contracts _ Where mbi.MBI_DealerNumber = dealer.DealerNumber _ AndAlso mbi.MBI_PaidFor = True _ AndAlso mbi.MBI_Deleted = False).ToList() End Function I want to use the ObjectDataSource to drive a DropDownList. <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="contractOds" runat="server" TypeName="MBI_Contract" SelectMethod="GetCancelableContracts" DataObjectTypeName="Dealer"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> My aspx page has a Dealer property that is set in a BasePage. My question is how can I pass this property(object) to the ObjectDataSource, so it can be evaluated in my select method. Does anyone know how I can do this? Or am I totally doing this the wrong way? Thanks for any Advice, Cheers, ~ck in San Diego

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  • Where to put default-servlet-handler in Spring MVC configuration

    - by gigadot
    In my web.xml, the default servlet mapping, i.e. /, is mapped to Spring dispatcher. In my Spring dispatcher configuration, I have DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping, ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping and AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter which allows me to map url to controllers either by its class name or its @Requestmapping annotation. However, there are some static resources under the web root which I also want spring dispatcher to serve using default servlet. According to Spring documentation, this can be done using <mvc:default-servlet-handler/> tag. In the configuration below, there are 4 candidate locations that I marked which are possible to insert this tag. Inserting the tag in different location causes the dispatcher to behave differently as following : Case 1 : If I insert it at location 1, the dispatcher will no longer be able to handle mapping by the @RequestMapping and controller class name but it will be serving the static content normally. Cas 2, 3 : It will be able to handle mapping by the @RequestMapping and controller class name as well as serving the static content if other mapping cannot be done successfully. Case 4 : It will not be able to serve the static contents. Therefore, Case 2 and 3 are desirable .According to Spring documentation, this tag configures a handler which precedence order is given to lowest so why the position matters? and Which is the best position to put this tag? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd"> <context:annotation-config/> <context:component-scan base-package="webapp.controller"/> <!-- Location 1 --> <!-- Enable annotation-based controllers using @Controller annotations --> <bean id="annotationUrlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping"/> <!-- Location 2 --> <bean id="controllerClassNameHandlerMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.support.ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping"/> <!-- Location 3 --> <bean id="annotationMethodHandlerAdapter" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter"/> <!-- Location 4 --> <mvc:default-servlet-handler/> <!-- All views are JSPs loaded from /WEB-INF/jsp --> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"/> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/jsp/"/> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"/> </bean> </beans>

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  • ArgumentNullException when accessing a FormView instance

    - by David
    Background: I have an ASP.NET page which has a numebr of user controls within it. There are 2 user controls which are of interest. I need to display either one of them or neither of them, depending on the record selected previously. In the user controls I need to set properties of some controls which are in a FormView. So in my user control code-behind I have a number of properties which look something like this: Private ReadOnly Property phSectionReports() As PlaceHolder Get Return fvConfirmationReport.FindControl("phSectionReports") End Get End Property The problem: I am having problems with this Property. Sometimes it is returning Nothing/Null and sometimes it is throwing a NullArgumentException with the message "Value cannot be null. Parameter name: container". The exception is coming from trying to reference the fvConfirmationReport variable. fvConfirmationReport is the ID of my FormView in the page itself. So I am really after things to look for and if any ideas what sort of conditions (e.g stage in page cycle, etc.) might lead to this? An example stack trace is included below. ASP.NET 3.5 SP1, VB.NET Thanks, StackTrace: at System.Web.UI.DataBinder.GetPropertyValue(Object container, String propName) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.CreateChildControls(IEnumerable dataSource, Boolean dataBinding) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.CompositeDataBoundControl.PerformDataBinding(IEnumerable data) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.PerformDataBinding(IEnumerable data) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataBoundControl.OnDataSourceViewSelectCallback(IEnumerable data) at System.Web.UI.DataSourceView.Select(DataSourceSelectArguments arguments, DataSourceViewSelectCallback callback) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataBoundControl.PerformSelect() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataBoundControl.DataBind() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.DataBind() at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBindChildren() at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBind(Boolean raiseOnDataBinding) ...snip... at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBind() at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBindChildren() at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBind(Boolean raiseOnDataBinding) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.FormView.CreateChildControls(IEnumerable dataSource, Boolean dataBinding) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.CompositeDataBoundControl.PerformDataBinding(IEnumerable data) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.FormView.PerformDataBinding(IEnumerable data) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataBoundControl.OnDataSourceViewSelectCallback(IEnumerable data) at System.Web.UI.DataSourceView.Select(DataSourceSelectArguments arguments, DataSourceViewSelectCallback callback) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataBoundControl.PerformSelect() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataBoundControl.DataBind() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.FormView.DataBind() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataBoundControl.EnsureDataBound() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.FormView.EnsureDataBound() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.CompositeDataBoundControl.CreateChildControls() at System.Web.UI.Control.EnsureChildControls() at System.Web.UI.Control.FindControl(String id, Int32 pathOffset) at System.Web.UI.Control.FindControl(String id) at App_UserControls_xxx_ucConfirmationForm.get_phSectionReports() in ucConfirmationForm.ascx.vb:line 343 at App_UserControls_xxx_ucConfirmationForm.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in ucConfirmationForm.ascx.vb:line 412 at System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() ...snip... at System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint)

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  • Cascading updates with business key equality: Hibernate best practices?

    - by Traphicone
    I'm new to Hibernate, and while there are literally tons of examples to look at, there seems to be so much flexibility here that it's sometimes very hard to narrow all the options down the best way of doing things. I've been working on a project for a little while now, and despite reading through a lot of books, articles, and forums, I'm still left with a bit of a head scratcher. Any veteran advice would be very appreciated. So, I have a model involving two classes with a one-to-many relationship from parent to child. Each class has a surrogate primary key and a uniquely constrained composite business key. <class name="Container"> <id name="id" type="java.lang.Long"> <generator class="identity"/> </id> <properties name="containerBusinessKey" unique="true" update="false"> <property name="name" not-null="true"/> <property name="owner" not-null="true"/> </properties> <set name="items" inverse="true" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="container" not-null="true"/> <one-to-many class="Item"/> </set> </class> <class name="Item"> <id name="id" type="java.lang.Long"> <generator class="identity"/> </id> <properties name="itemBusinessKey" unique="true" update="false"> <property name="type" not-null="true"/> <property name="color" not-null="true"/> </properties> <many-to-one name="container" not-null="true" update="false" class="Container"/> </class> The beans behind these mappings are as boring as you can possibly imagine--nothing fancy going on. With that in mind, consider the following code: Container c = new Container("Things", "Me"); c.addItem(new Item("String", "Blue")); c.addItem(new Item("Wax", "Red")); Transaction t = session.beginTransaction(); session.saveOrUpdate(c); t.commit(); Everything works fine the first time, and both the Container and its Items are persisted. If the above code block is executed again, however, Hibernate throws a ConstraintViolationException--duplicate values for the "name" and "owner" columns. Because the new Container instance has a null identifier, Hibernate assumes it is an unsaved transient instance. This is expected but not desired. Since the persistent and transient Container objects have the same business key values, what we really want is to issue an update. It is easy enough to convince Hibernate that our new Container instance is the same as our old one. With a quick query we can get the identifier of the Container we'd like to update, and set our transient object's identifier to match. Container c = new Container("Things", "Me"); c.addItem(new Item("String", "Blue")); c.addItem(new Item("Wax", "Red")); Query query = session.createSQLQuery("SELECT id FROM Container" + "WHERE name = ? AND owner = ?"); query.setString(0, c.getName()); query.setString(1, c.getOwner()); BigInteger id = (BigInteger)query.uniqueResult(); if (id != null) { c.setId(id.longValue()); } Transaction t = session.beginTransaction(); session.saveOrUpdate(c); t.commit(); This almost satisfies Hibernate, but because the one-to-many relationship from Container to Item cascades, the same ConstraintViolationException is also thrown for the child Item objects. My question is: what is the best practice in this situation? It is highly recommended to use surrogate primary keys, and it is also recommended to use business key equality. When you put these two recommendations in to practice together, however, two of the greatest conveniences of Hibernate--saveOrUpdate and cascading operations--seem to be rendered almost completely useless. As I see it, I have only two options: Manually fetch and set the identifier for each object in the mapping. This clearly works, but for even a moderately sized schema this is a lot of extra work which it seems Hibernate could easily be doing. Write a custom interceptor to fetch and set object identifiers on each operation. This looks cleaner than the first option but is rather heavy-handed, and it seems wrong to me that you should be expected to write a plug-in which overrides Hibernate's default behavior for a mapping which follows the recommended design. Is there a better way? Am I making completely the wrong assumptions? I'm hoping that I'm just missing something. Thanks.

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  • NHibernate Mapping problem

    - by Bernard Larouche
    My database is being driven by my NHibernate mapping files. I have a Category class that looks like the following : public class Category { public Category() : this("") { } public Category(string name) { Name = name; SubCategories = new List<Category>(); Products = new HashSet<Product>(); } public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } public virtual Category Parent { get; set; } public virtual bool IsDefault { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Category> SubCategories { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Product> Products { get; set; } and here is my Mapping file : <property name="Name" column="Name" type="string" not-null="true"/> <property name="IsDefault" column="IsDefault" type="boolean" not-null="true" /> <property name="Description" column="Description" type="string" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Parent" column="ParentID"></many-to-one> <bag name="SubCategories" inverse="true"> <key column="ParentID"></key> <one-to-many class="Category"/> </bag> <set name="Products" table="Categories_Products"> <key column="CategoryId"></key> <many-to-many column="ProductId" class="Product"></many-to-many> </set> when I try to create the database I get the following error : failed: The INSERT statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY SAME TABLE constraint "FK9AD976763BF05E2A". The conflict occurred in database "CoderForTraders", table "dbo.Categories", column 'CategoryId'. The statement has been terminated. I looked on the net for some answers but found none. Thanks for your help

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  • Dynamically Resizing an Iframe

    - by regex
    Hello All, I can see that this question has been asked several times, but none of the proposed solutions seem to work for the site I am building, so I am reopening the thread. I am attempting to size an iframe based on the height of it's content. Both the page that contains the iframe and it's source page exist on the same domain. I have tried the proposed solutions in each of the following threads: Resize iframe height according to content height in it Resizing an iframe based on content I believe that the solutions above are not working because of when the reference to body.clientHeight is made, the browser has not actually determined the height of the document. Here is the code I am using: var ifmBlue = document.getElementById("ifmBlue"); ifmBlue.onload = resizeIframe; function resizeIframe() { var ifmBlue = document.getElementById("ifmBluePill"); var ifmDiv = ifmBlue.contentDocument.getElementById("main"); var height = ifmDiv.clientHeight; ifmBlue.style.height = (ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.scrollHeight || ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.offsetHeight || ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.parentNode.clientHeight || height || 500) + 5 + 'px'; } If I debug the script using fire debug, the client height of the iframe.contentDocument's main div is 0. Additionally, body.offsetHieght, & body.scrollHeight are 0. However, after the script is finished running, if I inspect the DOM of the HTML iframe element (using fire debug) I can see that the body's clientHeight is 456 and the inner div's clientHeight is 742. This leads me to believe that these values are not yet set when iframe.onload is fired. So, per one of the threads above, I moved the code into the body.onload event handler of the iframe's source page. This solution also did not work. Any help you can provide is much appreciated. Thanks, CJ

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  • JSF Render response programatically

    - by Shamik
    I have one parent page with a parentManagedBean (attached to Session Scope). On click of a button on this parent page, one popup comes which has a childManagedBean (attached to Request scope). Now ChildManagedBedan holds a reference to parentManaged bean thru JSFs managed Property feature. On this popup window, user selects some option which populates a large value object class. I use the managed property of childMnaagedBean to set the values from this large object to that of parentmanagedbean. Problem is - The parent page shows a link, on click of which a popup comes, on selection of the popup, the popup disappears and set the values to the parentManaged bean.So far so good, but the newly set values need to appear on the parent page. This is where I am stuck. How to programatically render the master page/render page when I am at the child managed bean... is there a way I can get handle of the parent page and refresh it ?

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  • How to move list items from two lists (from different areas) to one specific list by clicking the li

    - by pschorr
    I've been having some issues setting up a list of items and moving them between each other. Is it possible to have multiple lists, with a link inside each item to move it to a specified list? i.e. List of actions with a plus next to the action, click the plus and move to a specified box? Furthermore, would it be possible to then load a lightbox (code would have to be inline I'd guess) from that page and move those names to the specific list as well? Example Images Thanks much! More broad view of my efforts so far... The initial issue being that I could not use listboxes due to their being rendered natively inside each individual browser. Through listboxes I was able to set this up, but with a trigger via the code below (found on stackoverflow). While it gave me partial functionality it did not get the target I was looking for. document.getElementById('moveTrigger').onclick = function() { var listTwo = document.getElementById('secondList'); var options = document.getElementById('firstList').getElementsByTagName('option'); while(options.length != 0) { listTwo.appendChild(options[0]); } } I then moved onto jqueryui's sortable and it's ability to connect multiple, and most important, style-able lists and to be dragged between each other. This works for the side by side tables, but it does not offer the usability I was looking for overall. So, I've come to where I'm unsure as to where to move forward. While I can get around PHP, I wouldn't know where to start with this one personally. I'm open to any and all options! Thanks much!

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  • Facebook XFBML Like Button incompatible with FeatureLoader script?

    - by retailevolved
    Facebook gurus, I have been implementing the Facebook Like button for a number of clients lately. To enable the Like Button, the following script has to be run: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({appId: '<?php echo Mage::helper("evlike")->getLikeConfig("ev_facebook_app_id") ?>', xfbml: true}); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }()); </script> It seems that this is incompatible with the following include: <script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php/en_US" type="text/javascript"></script> It would make sense as I believe that the FeatureLoader performs an initialization. Is this official now? I would ask in official Facebook forums but I get an error every time I attempt to do so...

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  • Is it possible to set properties on a Mock Object in Simpletest

    - by JW
    I normally use getter and setter methods on my objects and I am fine with testing them as mock objects in SimpleTest by manipulating them with code like: Mock::generate('MyObj'); $MockMyObj->setReturnValue('getPropName', 'value') However, I have recently started to use magic interceptors (__set() __get()) and access properties like so: $MyObj->propName = 'blah'; But I am having difficulty making a mock object have a particular property accessed by using that technique. So is there some special way of setting properties on MockObjects. I have tried doing: $MockMyObj->propName = 'test Value'; but this does not seem to work. Not sure if it is my test Subject, Mock, magic Interceptors, or SimpleTest that is causing the property to be unaccessable. Any advice welcome.

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  • Button click event

    - by Malcolm
    I am binding an object of other class to a silverlight list box itemsource.I want to fire the click event of a button,but I don't want to define command under this class. I have defined other class and have defined command inside it. Now the question is how to bind the command of this class to the command property of that button. There are two classes A and B I am binding the item source of a listbox to A and i have defined a command in B and i need this command to bind with the button present inside the listbox.(ie..listbox-listboxitem-button) Is there any way to bind to a property outside of the current data context?

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  • Javascript not showing up on Facebook Application's Profile Tab

    - by prateekdayal
    Hi, This may sound very noobish but I have tried to read the forum posts and docs on javascript behavior on Facebook's profile tabs. I understand that profile tabs don't support referencing external javascript but even my inline tags are not showing up on profile pages. In fact I am trying the fbjs-swf bridge and the code needed to instantiate the swf does not show up on the page <fb:fbjs_bridge/> <div id="swfContainer"></div> <script> var swf = document.createElement('fb:swf'); swf.setId('my_swf_id'); swf.setWidth('630'); swf.setHeight('520'); swf.setSWFSrc('http://www.muziboo.com/swf/player4-2.swf'); document.getElementById('swfContainer').appendChild(swf); document.getElementById('my_swf_id').callSWF('asMethod', 'one', 'two'); </script> I see a swf embedded (the one for the fbjs bridge) but I don't see any script tag containing the above javascript code. What am I missing? I can see the javascript code on canvas page though Thanks

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  • How do I set the Execute Permissions for an IIS6 website with Powershell using WMI?

    - by DarkwingDuck
    In inetmgr you can set the property I desire by going to Home Directory - Application Settings - Execute Permissions - and setting the drop down to 'Scripts Only'. I'm trying to replicate this behavior in Powershell. The Target OS is Windows Server 2003 running IIS6. Currently I have this simple code to get the site: $Site = get-wmiobject -Namespace root\MicrosoftIISv2 -query ('select * from IISWebServerSetting where ServerComment="mySite"') There are lots of properties it might be but nothing really leaps out. I've tried changing the setting in inetmgr and dumping the properties out before and after, but I see no differences (it could be a child property though). Any ideas? Thanks in advance.

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  • DataAnnotations in ASP.NET MVC 2 - Stop MVC from applying RequiredAttribute to Non-nullable DateTime

    - by jwwishart
    Im trying to create a custom version of the RequiredAttribute to replace the built in one and I've got it working for properties that have strings values, but with properties that are DateTime or integer for example, the default RequiredAttribute seems to be applied automatically (IF the property is not nullable!) My problem is that i want to be able to specify a DateTime property as required using my custom required validator which gets the error message from a resources file (I don't want to have to tell the RequiredAttribute the type of the resource file and the key every time i apply it. That is why I'm making a custom one.) How can i prevent the framework from applying the required attribute to properties of type DateTime and int etc without changing them to nullable. Thanks

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  • iPhone status bar orientation with opengl

    - by sfider
    I have opengl only view that displays in portrait and landscape mode using projection matrix (view's transformation is identity all the time). I need to show status bar with proper orientation. I do this by setting status bar orientation property in UIApplication and changing frame of opengl view so the view won't go under status bar. When I change from landscape to portrait (landscape is the initial state) view's frame is set to (0, 20, 320, 460) and stays like this. However view appears to be translated by (-10, -10). It seems that I did change the size of view but couldn't move it. Weird things are: initialy view is full screen, I change it to (0, 0, 300, 480) (landscape with status bar) and it works then, it doesn't work when I try to chenge it for the second time (portrait with status bar) frame property of the view shows that view is placed correctly Any thoughts on what can by the problem?

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