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  • SQLAlchemy autocommiting?

    - by muckabout
    I have an issue with SQLAlchemy apparently committing. A rough sketch of my code: trans = self.conn.begin() try: assert not self.conn.execute(my_obj.__table__.select(my_obj.id == id)).first() self.conn.execute(my_obj.__table__.insert().values(id=id)) assert not self.conn.execute(my_obj.__table__.select(my_obj.id == id)).first() except: trans.rollback() raise I don't commit, and the second assert always fails! In other words, it seems the data is getting inserted into the database even though the code is within a transaction! Is this assessment accurate?

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  • Copying contents from one NSMutableArray to another

    - by Sheehan Alam
    I have two NSMutableArrays: NSMutableArray* currentMessages NSMutableArray* items I am trying to copy the contents of items into currentMessages as such: [self.currentMessages addObjectsFromArray:self.items]; When I am debugging self.items contains 30 objects. After this operation self.currentMessages contains 0 objects. Why is the copy not working?

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  • UIVIewController not released when view is dismissed

    - by Nelson Ko
    I have a main view, mainWindow, which presents a couple of buttons. Both buttons create a new UIViewController (mapViewController), but one will start a game and the other will resume it. Both buttons are linked via StoryBoard to the same View. They are segued to modal views as I'm not using the NavigationController. So in a typical game, if a person starts a game, but then goes back to the main menu, he triggers: [self dismissViewControllerAnimated:YES completion:nil ]; to return to the main menu. I would assume the view controller is released at this point. The user resumes the game with the second button by opening another instance of mapViewController. What is happening, tho, is some touch events will trigger methods on the original instance (and write status updates to them - therefore invisible to the current view). When I put a breakpoint in the mapViewController code, I can see the instance will be one or the other (one of which should be released). I have tried putting a delegate to the mainWindow clearing the view: [self.delegate clearMapView]; where in the mainWindow - (void) clearMapView{ gameWindow = nil; } I have also tried self.view=nil; in the mapViewController. The mapViewController code contains MVC code, where the model is static. I wonder if this may prevent ARC from releasing the view. The model.m contains: static CanShieldModel *sharedInstance; + (CanShieldModel *) sharedModel { @synchronized(self) { if (!sharedInstance) sharedInstance = [[CanShieldModel alloc] init]; return sharedInstance; } return sharedInstance; } Another post which may have a lead, but so far not successful, is UIViewController not being released when popped I have in ViewDidLoad: // checks to see if app goes inactive - saves. [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(resignActive) name:UIApplicationWillResignActiveNotification object:nil]; with the corresponding in ViewDidUnload: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] removeObserver:self name:UIApplicationWillResignActiveNotification object:nil]; Does anyone have any suggestions? EDIT: - (void) prepareForSegue:(UIStoryboardSegue *)segue sender:(id)sender{ NSString *identifier = segue.identifier; if ([identifier isEqualToString: @"Start Game"]){ gameWindow = (ViewController *)[segue destinationViewController]; gameWindow.newgame=-1; gameWindow.delegate = self; } else if ([identifier isEqualToString: @"Resume Game"]){ gameWindow = (ViewController *)[segue destinationViewController]; gameWindow.newgame=0; gameWindow.delegate = self;

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  • How to reference object values from subview?

    - by Frank Martin
    I have a ViewController and add programmatically a subview. During the initialization of the subview (initWithFrame) i want to set some attributes to values according to attributes that belong to another ViewControllers Child-Object (not a view). -(id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if (self = [super initWithFrame:frame]) { // The following is kind of what i want self.myAttribute = [self.viewController.otherObject otherValue]; } return self; } Thanks in advance for any answers and comments how to improve the question. Frank

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  • Error No 150 mySQL

    - by buddhamagnet
    Hi all. This is making me sweat - I am getting error 150 when I try and create a table in mySQL. I've scoured the forums to no avail. The statement uses foreign key constraints - both tables are InnoDB, all relevant columns have the same data type and both tables have the same charset and collation. Here's the CREATE TABLE and the original CREATE TABLE statement for the table that's being referenced. Any ideas? New table: CREATE TABLE `approval` ( `rev_id` int(10) UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `rev_page` int(10) UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `user_id` int(10) UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `date` timestamp NOT NULL DEFAULT CURRENT_TIMESTAMP, PRIMARY KEY (`rev_id`,`rev_page`,`user_id`), KEY `FK_approval_user` (`user_id`), CONSTRAINT `FK_approval_revision` FOREIGN KEY (`rev_id`, `rev_page`) REFERENCES `revision` (`rev_id`, `rev_page`), CONSTRAINT `FK_approval_user` FOREIGN KEY (`user_id`) REFERENCES `user` (`user_id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; Referenced table: CREATE TABLE `revision` ( `rev_id` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL auto_increment, `rev_page` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL, `rev_text_id` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL, `rev_comment` tinyblob NOT NULL, `rev_user` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL default '0', `rev_user_text` varbinary(255) NOT NULL default '', `rev_timestamp` binary(14) NOT NULL default '\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0', `rev_minor_edit` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL default '0', `rev_deleted` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL default '0', `rev_len` int(10) unsigned default NULL, `rev_parent_id` int(10) unsigned default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`rev_id`), UNIQUE KEY `rev_page_id` (`rev_page`,`rev_id`), KEY `rev_timestamp` (`rev_timestamp`), KEY `page_timestamp` (`rev_page`,`rev_timestamp`), KEY `user_timestamp` (`rev_user`,`rev_timestamp`), KEY `usertext_timestamp` (`rev_user_text`,`rev_timestamp`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=4904 DEFAULT CHARSET=binary MAX_ROWS=10000000 AVG_ROW_LENGTH=1024;

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  • How do I use curl to display a table on a page?

    - by user272899
    I want to use curl to retrieve a table from an external page. So far my code retrieves all data from the page. I have read that using preg_match or preg_replace is the way to go about it. This is my code so far: <?php $ch = curl_init() or die(curl_error()); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL,"http://www.megaupload.com/?d=XE30L1GA&w=631&h=392"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $data1=curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); echo "<font color=black face=verdana size=3>".$data1."</font>"; echo curl_error($ch); curl_close($ch); ?> This is the data I want to retrieve from the page: <FORM method="POST" id="captchaform"> <INPUT type="hidden" name="captchacode" value="1a589e0a53c54f937eb8"> <INPUT type="hidden" name="megavar" value="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"> <TR> <TD>Enter this </TD> <TD width="100" align="center" height="40"><img src="http://wwwq32.megaupload.com/gencap.php?23243f17c2404dd4.gif" border="0" alt=""></TD> <TD> here:</TD> <TD><input type="text" name="captcha" id="captchafield" maxlength="4" style="border:solid 1px; border-color:#C4C4C4; background-color:#F9F9F9; width:50px; height:25px;"></TD> </TR> </FORM>

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  • how to update a table in c# using oledb parameters?

    - by sameer
    I am having a table which has three fields, namely LM_code,M_Name,Desc. LC_code is a autogenerated string Id, keeping this i am updating M_Name and Desc. I used normal update command, the value is passing in runtime but the fields are not getting updated. I hope using oledb parameters the fileds can be updated. Any help will be appreciated... Here is my code. public void Modify() { String query = "Update Master_Accounts set (M_Name='" + M_Name + "',Desc='" + Desc + "') where LM_code='" + LM_code + "'"; DataManager.RunExecuteNonQuery(ConnectionString.Constr, query); } In DataManager Class i am executing the query string. public static void RunExecuteNonQuery(string Constr, string query) { OleDbConnection myConnection = new OleDbConnection(Constr); try { myConnection.Open(); OleDbCommand myCommand = new OleDbCommand(query, myConnection); myCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception ex) { string Message = ex.Message; throw ex; } finally { if (myConnection.State == ConnectionState.Open) myConnection.Close(); } } private void toolstModify_Click_1(object sender, EventArgs e) { txtamcode.Enabled = true; jewellery.LM_code = txtamcode.Text; jewellery.M_Name = txtaccname.Text; jewellery.Desc = txtdesc.Text; jewellery.Modify(); MessageBox.Show("Data Updated Succesfully"); }

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  • C#: Using one Data Table in order to fill 2 different comboboxes?

    - by odiseh
    Hi all. I have 2 comboboxes on a form (form1) called combobox1 and combobox2. Each comboboxes should be filled with data stored in 2 different tables in Sql server 2005: table1 and table2 I mean: combobox1 -- table1 combobox2 -- table2 I fill data table with proper data and then bind the comboboxes to it separately. My problem is: after filling 2 combos, both of them have equal data got from table2. This is my code: DataTable tb1 = new DataTable(); //Filling tb1 with data got from table1 combobox1.Items.Clear(); combobox1.DataSource = tb1; combobox1.DisplayMember = "Name"; combobox1.ValueMember = "ID"; combobox1.SelectedIndex = -1; //filling tb1 with data got from table2 combobox2.Items.Clear(); combobox2.DataSource = tb1; combobox2.DisplayMember = "Name"; combobox2.ValueMember = "ID"; combobox2.SelectedIndex = -1; What's wrong? It seems that if I get 2 different data tables (tb1 and tb2) , every thing will be all right. Any suggestions please. Thank you

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  • difference among NSthread and NStimer and NSNotifcation?

    - by senthilmuthu
    What is the difference among following codes 1) [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(myFunction) toTarget:self withObject:thename]; 2) [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(myFunction:) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; 3) [self performSelector:@selector(myFunction) withObject:nil afterDelay:myDelay]; 4) [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(myFunction:) name:thename object:nil];

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  • Create Session Variable from different datasources?

    - by Szafranamn
    Currently I am developing a dynamic website using Dreamweaver cs5 with ColdFusion 9 and using Access to create my databases along with QuickBooks and QODBC to create database. I have established a login session variable stemming from the login page. This session variable is being drawn from one Datasource "Access" Table "Logininfo" Field "FullName" but I wanted to create another session variable either at this point or further into the member's page to use in a query sequence. This session variable would stem from another Datasoucre "QBs" Table "Invoice" Field "CustomerRefFullName" which is generated through Quickbooks and QODBC. I am not sure if this is possible but if it is how do I do it. I want to do this so I can query the Invoice database to upload the customer's Invoices unique to them onto their page. So it would have to be related to their login credentials. If there is another better route to take I would greatly appreciate the advice. Below is the login code if there is additional information needed let me know. This is my current thinking/plan to do what I wish to intend hence the need to create the session variable: I have another Datasource "QBs" with a Table "Invoice" when I create another webpage for the customer to see their invoice I need to create a recordset that accesses that Table. In order to do so I think the best way would some home convert the session.FullName (which came from Access Datasource, Logininfor Table) into a session.CustomerRefFullName (which would have to come from (Datasource: QBs Table: Invoice Field: CustomerRefFullName) that way I could set the query WHERE CustomerRefFullName and have each logged in user see their specific Invoices. So is there a way to turn the session variable off one datasource/table into a different sessionvariable off a new datasource/table even if it is unique just to that page??? <cfif IsDefined("FORM.username")> SELECT FullName, Username,Password,AccessLevels FROM Logininfo WHERE Username= AND Password=

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  • How to replace an object in an NSMutableArray at a given index with a new object

    - by shakeelw
    Hi guys. I have an NSMutableArray object(retained, synthesized as all) that is initiated just fine and I can easily add objects to it using the 'addObject:' method. But if I want to replace an object at a certain index with a new one in that NSMutableArray, it doesn't work. For example: ClassA.h @interface ClassA : NSObject { NSMutableArray *list; } @property (nonatomic, copy, readwrite) NSMutableArray *list; end ClassA.m import "ClassA.h" @implementation ClassA @synthesize list; (id)init { [super init]; NSMutableArray *localList = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; self.list = localList; [localList release]; //Add initial data [list addObject:@"Hello "]; [list addObject:@"World"]; } // Custom set accessor to ensure the new list is mutable (void)setList:(NSMutableArray *)newList { if (list != newList) { [list release]; list = [newList mutableCopy]; } } -(void)updateTitle:(NSString *)newTitle:(NSString *)theIndex { int i = [theIndex intValue]-1; [self.list replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:newTitle]; NSLog((NSString *)[self.list objectAtIndex:i]); // gives the correct output } However, the change remains true only inside the method. from any other method, the NSLog((NSString *)[self.list objectAtIndex:i]); gives the same old value. How can I actually get the old object replaced with the new one at a specific index so that the change can be noticed from within any other method as well. I even modified the method like this, but the result is the same: -(void)updateTitle:(NSString *)newTitle:(NSString *)theIndex { int i = [theIndex intValue]-1; NSMutableArray *localList = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; localList = [localList mutableCopy]; for(int j = 0; j < [list count]; j++) { if(j == i) { [localList addObject:newTitle]; NSLog(@"j == 1"); NSLog([NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", j]); } else { [localList addObject:(NSString *)[self.list objectAtIndex:j]]; } } [self.list release]; //self.list = [localList mutableCopy]; [self setList:localList]; [localList release]; } Please help out guys :)

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  • A question related to back button

    - by user217572
    I'm doing code for state maintainance So what happens that ,my currnet view will be appear after pressing homme now in this view i want to add backbutton in normal condition i'm adding button like this, [self navigationItem].title = NSLocalizedString(@"login_title",@""); UIBarButtonItem *backItem = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:NSLocalizedString(@"back_button",@" ") style:UIBarButtonItemStylePlain target:self action:@selector(done)]; [self.navigationItem setHidesBackButton:YES animated:YES]; self.navigationItem.leftBarButtonItem = backItem; [backItem release];

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  • Autorelease vs. Release

    - by Sheehan Alam
    Given the two scenarios, which code is best practice and why? Autorelease loginButton = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Login" style:UIBarButtonItemStylePlain target:self action:@selector(loginButtonClicked:)] autorelease]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = loginButton; or Release loginButton = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Login" style:UIBarButtonItemStylePlain target:self action:@selector(loginButtonClicked:)]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = loginButton; [loginButton release];

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  • Multi-client C# ODBC (Sybase/Oracle/MSSQL) table access question.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    I am working on a feature that would allow clients pick a unique identifier (ci_name). The code below is a generic version that gets expanded to the right sql depending on the vendor. Hopefully it makes sense. #include "sql.h" create table client_identification ( ci_id TYPE_ID IDENTITY, ci_name varchar(64) not null, constraint ci_pk primary key (ci_name) ); go CREATE_SEQUENCE(ci_id) There will be simple stored procedures for adding, retrieving, and deleting these user records. This will be used by several admins. This will not happen very frequently, but there is still a possibility that something will be added or deleted since the list was initially retrieved. I have not yet decided if I need to detect the case of a double delete, but the user name cannot be created twice - primary key constraint will object. I want to be able to detect this particular case and display something like: "you snooze - you loose." :) I would like to leverage the pk constraint instead of doing some extra sql gymnastics. So, how can I detect this case cleanly, so that it works in MS SQL 2008, Sybase, and Oracle? I hope to do better than catch a general ODBC exception and parse out the text and look for what Sybase, Oracle, and MSSQL would give me back. Oracle is a little different. We actually prepend these variables to the Oracle version of stored procedures because they are not available otherwise: Vret_val out number, Vtran_count in out number, Vmessage_count in out number, Thanks. General helpful tips and comments are welcome, except for naming convention ones ( I do not have a choice here, plus I mangled the actual names a bit).

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  • How can I use rows in a lookup table as columns in a MySQL query?

    - by TomH
    I'm trying to build a MySQL query that uses the rows in a lookup table as the columns in my result set. LookupTable id | AnalysisString 1 | color 2 | size 3 | weight 4 | speed ScoreTable id | lookupID | score | customerID 1 | 1 | A | 1 2 | 2 | C | 1 3 | 4 | B | 1 4 | 2 | A | 2 5 | 3 | A | 2 6 | 1 | A | 3 7 | 2 | F | 3 I'd like a query that would use the relevant lookupTable rows as columns in a query so that I can get a result like this: customerID | color | size | weight | speed 1 A C D 2 A A 3 A F The kicker of the problem is that there may be additional rows added to the LookupTable and the query should be dynamic and not have the Lookup IDs hardcoded. That is, this will work: SELECT st.customerID, (SELECT st1.score FROM ScoreTable st1 WHERE lookupID=1 AND st.customerID = st1.customerID) AS color, (SELECT st1.score FROM ScoreTable st1 WHERE lookupID=2 AND st.customerID = st1.customerID) AS size, (SELECT st1.score FROM ScoreTable st1 WHERE lookupID=3 AND st.customerID = st1.customerID) AS weight, (SELECT st1.score FROM ScoreTable st1 WHERE lookupID=4 AND st.customerID = st1.customerID) AS speed FROM ScoreTable st GROUP BY st.customerID Until there is a fifth row added to the LookupTable . . . Perhaps I'm breaking the whole relational model and will have to resolve this in the backend PHP code? Thanks for pointers/guidance. tom

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  • how to diffrentiate between same field names of two tables in a select query??

    - by developer
    i have more than two tables in my database and all of them contains same field names like table A table B table C field1 field1 field1 field2 field2 field2 field3 field3 field3 . . . . . . . . . . . . I have to write a SELECT query which gets almost all same fields from these 3 tables.Iam using something like this :- select a.field1,a.field2,a.field3,b.field1,b.field2,b.field3,c.field1,c.field2,c.field3 from table A as a, table B as b,table C as c where so and so. but when i print field1's value it gives me the last table values. How can i get all the values of three tables with the same field names??? do i have to write individual query for every table OR there is any ways of fetching them all in a single query????

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  • Fluent NHibernate: Example of a one-to-many relationship on an abstract class of a table-per-subclas

    - by BigTommy79
    Hi All, I've been trying for ages to find an example (because I can't get it to work myself) of the correct mapping for a one-to-many relationship on an abstract class of a table-per-subclass implementation, in fluent nHibernate. An example below: I'm looking to map the list of Fines on the Debt abstract base class to the Fine class. if anyone knows of any tutorial or example they've come across before please let me know. Thanks, Tim public abstract class Entity { public int Id { get; set; } } public abstract class Debt : Entity { public decimal Balance { get; set; } public IList<Fine> Fines { get; set; } public Debt() { Fines = new List<Fine>(); } } public class CarLoan : Debt { } public class CreditCard : Debt { } public class LoanApplication : Entity { public IList<Debt> ExistingDebts { get; set; } public LoanApplication() { ExistingDebts = new List<Debt>(); } } public class Fine { public Int64 Cash { get; set; } }

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  • How to alter Postgres table data based on its contents?

    - by williamjones
    This is probably a super simple question, but I'm struggling to come up with the right keywords to find it on Google. I have a Postgres table that has among its contents a column of type text named content_type. That stores what type of entry is stored in that row. There are only about 5 different types, and I decided I want to change one of them to display as something else in my application (I had been directly displaying these). It struck me that it's funny that my view is being dictated by my database model, and I decided I would convert the types being stored in my database as strings into integers, and enumerate the possible types in my application with constants that convert them into their display names. That way, if I ever got the urge to change any category names again, I could just change it with one alteration of a constant. I also have the hunch that storing integers might be somewhat more efficient than storing text in the database. First, a quick threshold question of, is this a good idea? Any feedback or anything I missed? Second, and my main question, what's the Postgres command I could enter to make an alteration like this? I'm thinking I could start by renaming the old content_type column to old_content_type and then creating a new integer column content_type. However, what command would look at a row's old_content_type and fill in the new content_type column based off of that?

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  • Modeling many-to-one with constraints?

    - by Greg Beech
    I'm attempting to create a database model for movie classifications, where each movie could have a single classification from each of one of multiple rating systems (e.g. BBFC, MPAA). This is the current design, with all implied PKs and FKs: TABLE Movie ( MovieId INT ) TABLE ClassificationSystem ( ClassificationSystemId TINYINT ) TABLE Classification ( ClassificationId INT, ClassificationSystemId TINYINT ) TABLE MovieClassification ( MovieId INT, ClassificationId INT, Advice NVARCHAR(250) -- description of why the classification was given ) The problem is with the MovieClassification table whose constraints would allow multiple classifications from the same system, whereas it should ideally only permit either zero or one classifications from a given system. Is there any reasonable way to restructure this so that a movie having exactly zero or one classifications from any given system is enforced by database constraints, given the following requirements? Do not duplicate information that could be looked up (i.e. duplicating ClassificationSystemId in the MovieClassification table is not a good solution because this could get out of sync with the value in the Classification table) Remain extensible to multiple classification systems (i.e. a new classification system does not require any changes to the table structure)? Note also the Advice column - each mapping of a movie to a classification needs to have a textual description of why that classification was given to that movie. Any design would need to support this.

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  • Why would using a Temp table be faster than a nested query?

    - by Mongus Pong
    We are trying to optimise some of our queries. One query is doing the following: SELECT t.TaskID, t.Name as Task, '' as Tracker, t.ClientID, (<complex subquery>) Date, INTO [#Gadget] FROM task t SELECT TOP 500 TaskID, Task, Tracker, ClientID, dbo.GetClientDisplayName(ClientID) as Client FROM [#Gadget] order by CASE WHEN Date IS NULL THEN 1 ELSE 0 END , Date ASC DROP TABLE [#Gadget] (I have removed the complex subquery, cos I dont think its relevant other than to explain why this query has been done as a two stage process.) Now I would have thought it would be far more efficient to merge this down into a single query using subqueries as : SELECT TOP 500 TaskID, Task, Tracker, ClientID, dbo.GetClientDisplayName(ClientID) FROM ( SELECT t.TaskID, t.Name as Task, '' as Tracker, t.ClientID, (<complex subquery>) Date, FROM task t ) as sub order by CASE WHEN Date IS NULL THEN 1 ELSE 0 END , Date ASC This would give the optimiser better information to work out what was going on and avoid any temporary tables. It should be faster. But it turns out it is a lot slower. 8 seconds vs under 5 seconds. I cant work out why this would be the case as all my knowledge of databases imply that subqueries would always be faster than using temporary tables. Can anyone explain what could be going on!?!?

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  • Rendering partial for table row with form_tag is getting crazy!

    - by xopht
    I have 23(column)x6(row) table and change the row with link_to_remote function. each tr tag has its own id attribute. change link call change action and change action changes the row using render function wit partial. _change.html.erb <td id="row_1">1</td> . . omitted . . <td id="row_23">23</td> link_to_remote function <%= link_to_remote 'Change', :update => 'row_1', :url => change_path %> change action def change logger.debug render :partial => 'change' end If I coded like above, everything work okay. This means all changed-columns are in one row. But, if I wrap partial code with *form_for* function like below... <% form_for 'change' do %> <td id="row_1">1</td> . . omitted . . <td id="row_23">23</td> <% end %> Then, one column located in one row and that column is the first column. I've looked up the log file, but it was normal html tags. What's wrong?

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  • Could I use urlize filter in this way ?

    - by xRobot
    Could I use urlize filter in this way? : from django.utils.html import urlize def save(self, force_insert=False, force_update=False): self.body = urlize(self.body) super(Post, self).save(force_insert, force_update) body is a TextField.

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  • Overriding initial value in ModelForm

    - by schneck
    Hi, in my Django (1.2) project, I want to prepopulate a field in a modelform, but my new value is ignored. This is the snippet: class ArtefactForm(ModelForm): material = CharField(widget=AutoCompleteWidget('material', force_selection=False)) def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): super(ArtefactForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) self.fields['material'].initial = 'Test' I also tried with self.base_fields, but no effect: there is always the database-value displaying in the form. Any ideas?

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  • Default subclass objects in Sqlalchemy?

    - by Timmy
    im using the example from the pylons book orm.mapper(Comment, comment_table) orm.mapper(Tag, tag_table) orm.mapper(Nav, nav_table, polymorphic_on=nav_table.c.type, polymorphic_identity='nav') orm.mapper(Section, section_table, inherits=Nav, polymorphic_identity='section') orm.mapper(Page, page_table, inherits=Nav, polymorphic_identity='page', properties={ 'comments':orm.relation(Comment, backref='page', cascade='all'), 'tags':orm.relation(Tag, secondary=pagetag_table) }) i am mostly copying from this, but is there a simple way have a default Page that gets referenced, but if users requests a change, create a new Page object? thanks i want something similar to this class DefaultPage(Page): __init__(self): self.a = a self.b = b self.c = c orm.mapper(DefaultPage, None, inherits=Nav, yada yada )

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