Search Results

Search found 39207 results on 1569 pages for 'foreign function interfac'.

Page 3/1569 | < Previous Page | 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12  | Next Page >

  • SQL SERVER – Question to You – When to use Function and When to use Stored Procedure

    - by pinaldave
    This week has been very interesting week. I have asked few questions to users and have received remarkable participation on the subject. Q1) SQL SERVER – Puzzle – SELECT * vs SELECT COUNT(*) Q2) SQL SERVER – Puzzle – Statistics are not Updated but are Created Once Keeping the same spirit up, I am asking the third question over here. Q3) When to use User Defined Function and when to use Stored Procedure in your development? Personally, I believe that they are both different things - they cannot be compared. I can say, it will be like comparing apples and oranges. Each has its own unique use. However, they can be used interchangeably at many times and in real life (i.e., production environment). I have personally seen both of these being used interchangeably many times. This is the precise reason for asking this question. When do you use Function and when do you use Stored Procedure? What are Pros and Cons of each of them when used instead of each other? If you are going to answer that ‘To avoid repeating code, you use Function’ - please think harder! Stored procedure can do the same. In SQL Server Denali, even the stored procedure can return the result just like Function in SELECT statement; so if you are going to answer with ‘Function can be used in SELECT, whereas Stored Procedure cannot be used’ - again think harder! (link). Now, what do you say? I will post the answers of all the three questions with due credit next week. Reference: Pinal Dave (http://blog.SQLAuthority.com) Filed under: Pinal Dave, PostADay, Readers Question, SQL, SQL Authority, SQL Function, SQL Puzzle, SQL Query, SQL Server, SQL Stored Procedure, SQL Tips and Tricks, SQLServer, T SQL, Technology

    Read the article

  • JPA : many-to-many - only one foreign key in the association table

    - by Julien
    Hi, I mapped two classes in a ManyToMany association with these annotations : @Entity @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.TABLE_PER_CLASS) public abstract class TechnicalItem extends GenericBusinessObject implements Resumable{ @SequenceGenerator(name="TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID_GEN", sequenceName="TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID_SEQ") @Id @Column(name = "\"ID\"", nullable = false) @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.SEQUENCE, generator = "TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID_GEN") private int id; @ManyToMany(mappedBy = "referencePerformanceItems", fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List testingRates; } @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("T") public class TestingRate extends Rate { @ManyToMany(fetch=FetchType.LAZY) @JoinTable(name="ecc.\"TESTING_RATE_TECHNICAL_ITEM\"", joinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "\"TESTING_RATE_ID\"")}, inverseJoinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "\"TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID\"")}) //@ManyToMany(mappedBy = "testingRates", fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List referencePerformanceItems; } The sql generated for the association table creation is : create table ecc."TESTING_RATE_TECHNICAL_ITEM" ( "TESTING_RATE_ID" int4 not null, "TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID" int4 not null ); alter table ecc."TESTING_RATE_TECHNICAL_ITEM" add constraint FKC5D64DF6A2FE2698 foreign key ("TESTING_RATE_ID") references ecc."RATE"; There is no mention of the second foreign key "TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID" (the second part of the composite foreign key which should be in the association table). Is it a normal behaviour ? What should I do in the mapping if I want my 2 columns are 2 foreign keys referencing the primary keys of my 2 concerned tables. I use a PostGreSQL database and Hibernate as JPA provider. Thanks, Julien

    Read the article

  • PostgreSQL, Foreign Keys, Insert speed & Django

    - by Miles
    A few days ago, I ran into an unexpected performance problem with a pretty standard Django setup. For an upcoming feature, we have to regenerate a table hourly, containing about 100k rows of data, 9M on the disk, 10M indexes according to pgAdmin. The problem is that inserting them by whatever method literally takes ages, up to 3 minutes of 100% disk busy time. That's not something you want on a production site. It doesn't matter if the inserts were in a transaction, issued via plain insert, multi-row insert, COPY FROM or even INSERT INTO t1 SELECT * FROM t2. After noticing this isn't Django's fault, I followed a trial and error route, and hey, the problem disappeared after dropping all foreign keys! Instead of 3 minutes, the INSERT INTO SELECT FROM took less than a second to execute, which isn't too surprising for a table <= 20M on the disk. What is weird is that PostgreSQL manages to slow down inserts by 180x just by using 3 foreign keys. Oh, disk activity was pure writing, as everything is cached in RAM; only writes go to the disks. It looks like PostgreSQL is working very hard to touch every row in the referred tables, as 3MB/sec * 180s is way more data than the 20MB this new table takes on disk. No WAL for the 180s case, I was testing in psql directly, in Django, add ~50% overhead for WAL logging. Tried @commit_on_success, same slowness, I had even implemented multi row insert and COPY FROM with psycopg2. That's another weird thing, how can 10M worth of inserts generate 10x 16M log segments? Table layout: id serial primary, a bunch of int32, 3 foreign keys to small table, 198 rows, 16k on disk large table, 1.2M rows, 59 data + 89 index MB on disk large table, 2.2M rows, 198 + 210MB So, am I doomed to either drop the foreign keys manually or use the table in a very un-Django way by defining saving bla_id x3 and skip using models.ForeignKey? I'd love to hear about some magical antidote / pg setting to fix this.

    Read the article

  • Joining Tables Based on Foreign Keys

    - by maestrojed
    I have a table that has a lot of fields that are foreign keys referencing a related table. I am writing a script in PHP that will do the db queries. When I query this table for its data I need to know the values associated with these keys not the key. How do most people go about this? A 101 way to do this would be to query this table for its data including the foreign keys and then query the related tables to get each key's value. This could be a lot of queries (~10). Question 1: I think I could write 1 query with a bunch of joins. Would that be better? This approach also requires the querying script to know which table fields are foreign keys. Since I have many tables like this but all with different fields, this means writing nice generic functions is hard. MySQL InnoDB tables allow for foreign constraints. I know the database has these set up correctly. Question 2: What about the idea of querying the table and identifying what the constraints are and then matching them up using whatever process I decide on from Question 1. I like this idea but never see it being used in code. Makes me think its not a good idea for some reason. I would use something like SHOW CREATE TABLE tbl_name; to find what constraints/relationships exist for that table. Thank you for any suggestions or advice.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate not saving foreign key, but with junit it's ok

    - by Leonardo
    Hi All, I have this strange problem. In a J2ee webapp with spring, smartgwt and hibernate, it happens that I have a class A wich has a set of class B, both of them mapped to table A and table B. I wrote a simple test case for testing the service manager which is supposed to do insert, update, delete and everything work as expected especially during insert. In the end I have one record in A and records in B with foreign key to A. But when I try to call the service from the web app, the entity in B are saved without a foreign key reference. I am sure that the service is the same. One thing I noticed is that enabling hibernate logging, seems that when the service is called from the application, one more update is made: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) update A <--- ??? update B <--- ??? Instead, when junit test case is run, the update is as follows: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) I suppose the latest update is what is causing the erroe, maybe it is overwriting values. Considering that the app is using spring, with the well known mechanism of DAO + Manager, where can I investigate to solve this issue ? Someone told me that the session is not closed, so hibernate would do one more update before release the objects by itself. I am pretty sure that all the configuration hbm, xml, and the rest are fine...but I maybe wrong. thanks

    Read the article

  • SQL SERVER – Solution to Puzzle – Simulate LEAD() and LAG() without Using SQL Server 2012 Analytic Function

    - by pinaldave
    Earlier I wrote a series on SQL Server Analytic Functions of SQL Server 2012. During the series to keep the learning maximum and having fun, we had few puzzles. One of the puzzle was simulating LEAD() and LAG() without using SQL Server 2012 Analytic Function. Please read the puzzle here first before reading the solution : Write T-SQL Self Join Without Using LEAD and LAG. When I was originally wrote the puzzle I had done small blunder and the question was a bit confusing which I corrected later on but wrote a follow up blog post on over here where I describe the give-away. Quick Recap: Generate following results without using SQL Server 2012 analytic functions. I had received so many valid answers. Some answers were similar to other and some were very innovative. Some answers were very adaptive and some did not work when I changed where condition. After selecting all the valid answer, I put them in table and ran RANDOM function on the same and selected winners. Here are the valid answers. No Joins and No Analytic Functions Excellent Solution by Geri Reshef – Winner of SQL Server Interview Questions and Answers (India | USA) WITH T1 AS (SELECT Row_Number() OVER(ORDER BY SalesOrderDetailID) N, s.SalesOrderID, s.SalesOrderDetailID, s.OrderQty FROM Sales.SalesOrderDetail s WHERE SalesOrderID IN (43670, 43669, 43667, 43663)) SELECT SalesOrderID,SalesOrderDetailID,OrderQty, CASE WHEN N%2=1 THEN MAX(CASE WHEN N%2=0 THEN SalesOrderDetailID END) OVER (Partition BY (N+1)/2) ELSE MAX(CASE WHEN N%2=1 THEN SalesOrderDetailID END) OVER (Partition BY N/2) END LeadVal, CASE WHEN N%2=1 THEN MAX(CASE WHEN N%2=0 THEN SalesOrderDetailID END) OVER (Partition BY N/2) ELSE MAX(CASE WHEN N%2=1 THEN SalesOrderDetailID END) OVER (Partition BY (N+1)/2) END LagVal FROM T1 ORDER BY SalesOrderID, SalesOrderDetailID, OrderQty; GO No Analytic Function and Early Bird Excellent Solution by DHall – Winner of Pluralsight 30 days Subscription -- a query to emulate LEAD() and LAG() ;WITH s AS ( SELECT 1 AS ldOffset, -- equiv to 2nd param of LEAD 1 AS lgOffset, -- equiv to 2nd param of LAG NULL AS ldDefVal, -- equiv to 3rd param of LEAD NULL AS lgDefVal, -- equiv to 3rd param of LAG ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY SalesOrderDetailID) AS row, SalesOrderID, SalesOrderDetailID, OrderQty FROM Sales.SalesOrderDetail WHERE SalesOrderID IN (43670, 43669, 43667, 43663) ) SELECT s.SalesOrderID, s.SalesOrderDetailID, s.OrderQty, ISNULL( sLd.SalesOrderDetailID, s.ldDefVal) AS LeadValue, ISNULL( sLg.SalesOrderDetailID, s.lgDefVal) AS LagValue FROM s LEFT OUTER JOIN s AS sLd ON s.row = sLd.row - s.ldOffset LEFT OUTER JOIN s AS sLg ON s.row = sLg.row + s.lgOffset ORDER BY s.SalesOrderID, s.SalesOrderDetailID, s.OrderQty No Analytic Function and Partition By Excellent Solution by DHall – Winner of Pluralsight 30 days Subscription /* a query to emulate LEAD() and LAG() */ ;WITH s AS ( SELECT 1 AS LeadOffset, /* equiv to 2nd param of LEAD */ 1 AS LagOffset, /* equiv to 2nd param of LAG */ NULL AS LeadDefVal, /* equiv to 3rd param of LEAD */ NULL AS LagDefVal, /* equiv to 3rd param of LAG */ /* Try changing the values of the 4 integer values above to see their effect on the results */ /* The values given above of 0, 0, null and null behave the same as the default 2nd and 3rd parameters to LEAD() and LAG() */ ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY SalesOrderDetailID) AS row, SalesOrderID, SalesOrderDetailID, OrderQty FROM Sales.SalesOrderDetail WHERE SalesOrderID IN (43670, 43669, 43667, 43663) ) SELECT s.SalesOrderID, s.SalesOrderDetailID, s.OrderQty, ISNULL( sLead.SalesOrderDetailID, s.LeadDefVal) AS LeadValue, ISNULL( sLag.SalesOrderDetailID, s.LagDefVal) AS LagValue FROM s LEFT OUTER JOIN s AS sLead ON s.row = sLead.row - s.LeadOffset /* Try commenting out this next line when LeadOffset != 0 */ AND s.SalesOrderID = sLead.SalesOrderID /* The additional join criteria on SalesOrderID above is equivalent to PARTITION BY SalesOrderID in the OVER clause of the LEAD() function */ LEFT OUTER JOIN s AS sLag ON s.row = sLag.row + s.LagOffset /* Try commenting out this next line when LagOffset != 0 */ AND s.SalesOrderID = sLag.SalesOrderID /* The additional join criteria on SalesOrderID above is equivalent to PARTITION BY SalesOrderID in the OVER clause of the LAG() function */ ORDER BY s.SalesOrderID, s.SalesOrderDetailID, s.OrderQty No Analytic Function and CTE Usage Excellent Solution by Pravin Patel - Winner of SQL Server Interview Questions and Answers (India | USA) --CTE based solution ; WITH cteMain AS ( SELECT SalesOrderID, SalesOrderDetailID, OrderQty, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY SalesOrderDetailID) AS sn FROM Sales.SalesOrderDetail WHERE SalesOrderID IN (43670, 43669, 43667, 43663) ) SELECT m.SalesOrderID, m.SalesOrderDetailID, m.OrderQty, sLead.SalesOrderDetailID AS leadvalue, sLeg.SalesOrderDetailID AS leagvalue FROM cteMain AS m LEFT OUTER JOIN cteMain AS sLead ON sLead.sn = m.sn+1 LEFT OUTER JOIN cteMain AS sLeg ON sLeg.sn = m.sn-1 ORDER BY m.SalesOrderID, m.SalesOrderDetailID, m.OrderQty No Analytic Function and Co-Related Subquery Usage Excellent Solution by Pravin Patel – Winner of SQL Server Interview Questions and Answers (India | USA) -- Co-Related subquery SELECT m.SalesOrderID, m.SalesOrderDetailID, m.OrderQty, ( SELECT MIN(SalesOrderDetailID) FROM Sales.SalesOrderDetail AS l WHERE l.SalesOrderID IN (43670, 43669, 43667, 43663) AND l.SalesOrderID >= m.SalesOrderID AND l.SalesOrderDetailID > m.SalesOrderDetailID ) AS lead, ( SELECT MAX(SalesOrderDetailID) FROM Sales.SalesOrderDetail AS l WHERE l.SalesOrderID IN (43670, 43669, 43667, 43663) AND l.SalesOrderID <= m.SalesOrderID AND l.SalesOrderDetailID < m.SalesOrderDetailID ) AS leag FROM Sales.SalesOrderDetail AS m WHERE m.SalesOrderID IN (43670, 43669, 43667, 43663) ORDER BY m.SalesOrderID, m.SalesOrderDetailID, m.OrderQty This was one of the most interesting Puzzle on this blog. Giveaway Winners will get following giveaways. Geri Reshef and Pravin Patel SQL Server Interview Questions and Answers (India | USA) DHall Pluralsight 30 days Subscription Reference: Pinal Dave (http://blog.SQLAuthority.com) Filed under: Pinal Dave, PostADay, Readers Contribution, Readers Question, SQL, SQL Authority, SQL Function, SQL Puzzle, SQL Query, SQL Scripts, SQL Server, SQL Tips and Tricks, T SQL, Technology

    Read the article

  • Get Function Pointer to function in a shared library I didn't directly load

    - by bdk
    My Linux application (A) links against a Third Party shared Library (B) which I don't have source code to. This library makes use of another third party shared library that I don't have source code to (C). I believe that (B) uses dlopen to access (C) instead of directly linking. My reasoning for this is that 'ldd' on (B) does not show (C) and objdump -X (B) shows references to dlopen/dlclose/dlsym. My requirement is that I need to in my code for (A) get a function pointer to a function foo() located in (C). Normally I'd use dlsym for this, but I need to pass it the handle returned from dlopen which I don't have since (B) does not expose this. - For the larger context: I need to modify the function in (C) such that everytime it calls its helper function bar() (also located in (C)), it also calls a function with the same signature located in (A) with the same parameters (Basically inject my code into the codepath of (C) foo()-bar(). I believe I've found a way to accomplish this using gdb, but in order to port my gdb command list, but I'm stuck on the step of getting the function pointer. I'm also open to alternatives to accomplish the same task rather than the exact problem as stated above Edit: After writing this I realized I can probably just do another dlopen on the file in my code and the symbols returned via dlsym on that handle should be the same as received via the original dlopen, If I'm reading the dlopen man page correctly. However I'm still interested in advice or assistance with the my larger context, If theres a better way to go about this

    Read the article

  • SubSonic isn't generating MySql foreign key tables

    - by keith
    I two tables within a MySql 5.1.34 database. When using SubSonic to generate the DAL, the foreign-key relationship doesn't get scripted, ie; I have no Parent.ChildCollection object. Looking inside the generated DAL Parent class shows the following; //no foreign key tables defined (0) I have tried SubSonic 2.1 and 2.2, and various MySql 5 versions. I must be doing something wrong procedurally - any help would be greatly appreciated. This has always just worked 'out-the-box' when using MS-SQL. TABLE `parent` ( `ParentId` INT(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `SomeData` VARCHAR(25) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`ParentId`) ) ENGINE=INNODB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; TABLE `child` ( `ChildId` INT(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `ParentId` INT(11) NOT NULL, `SomeData` VARCHAR(25) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`ChildId`), KEY `FK_child` (`ParentId`), CONSTRAINT `FK_child` FOREIGN KEY (`ParentId`) REFERENCES `parent` (`ParentId`) ) ENGINE=INNODB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1;

    Read the article

  • Multiple column foreign key contraints

    - by eugene4968
    I want to setup table constraints for the following scenario and I’m not sure how to do it or if it’s even possible in SQL Server 2005. I have three tables A,B,C. C is a child of B. B will have a optional foreign key(may be null) referencing A. For performance reasons I also want table C to have the same foreign key reference to table A. The constraint on table C should be that C must reference its parent (B) and also have the same foreign key reference to A as its parent. Anyone have any thoughts on how to do this?

    Read the article

  • SQL SERVER – Function to Round Up Time to Nearest Minutes Interval

    - by pinaldave
    Though I have written more than 2300 blog posts, I always find things which I have not covered earlier in this blog post. Recently I was asked if I have written a function which rounds up or down the time based on the minute interval passed to it. Well, not earlier but it is here today. Here is a very simple example of how one can do the same. ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[RoundTime] (@Time DATETIME, @RoundToMin INT) RETURNS DATETIME AS BEGIN RETURN ROUND(CAST(CAST(CONVERT(VARCHAR,@Time,121) AS DATETIME) AS FLOAT) * (1440/@RoundToMin),0)/(1440/@RoundToMin) END GO Above function needs two values. 1) The time which needs to be rounded up or down. 2) Time in minutes (the value passed here should be between 0 and 60 – if the value is incorrect the results will be incorrect.) Above function can be enhanced by adding functionalities like a) Validation of the parameters passed b) Accepting values like Quarter Hour, Half Hour etc. Here are few sample examples. SELECT dbo.roundtime1('17:29',30) SELECT dbo.roundtime1(GETDATE(),5) SELECT dbo.roundtime1('2012-11-02 07:27:07.000',15) When you run above code, it will return following results. Well, do you have any other way to achieve the same result? If yes, do share it here and I will be glad to share it on blog with due credit. Reference: Pinal Dave (http://blog.sqlauthority.com) Filed under: PostADay, SQL, SQL Authority, SQL DateTime, SQL Function, SQL Query, SQL Server, SQL Tips and Tricks, T SQL, Technology

    Read the article

  • Postgres: Using function variable names in pgsql function

    - by Peter
    Hi I have written a pgsql function along the lines of what's shown below. How can I get rid of the $1, $2, etc. and replace them with the real argument names to make the function code more readable? Regards Peter CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION InsertUser ( UserID UUID, FirstName CHAR(10), Surname VARCHAR(75), Email VARCHAR(75) ) RETURNS void AS $$ INSERT INTO "User" (userid,firstname,surname,email) VALUES ($1,$2,$3,$4) $$ LANGUAGE SQL;

    Read the article

  • jquery ready function: script not detecting a function

    - by deostroll
    There is a web page with place holder (a normal div). Via ajax calls I am loading a <form> and a <script> into the place holder. The script contains necessary javascript to initialize the form (i.e. for e.g. disable the controls so as to make form read-only, etc). Here is a piece of code I have; it works, but the commented part doesn't work. Because the script engine cannot find the object tristate_DisableControl which is a function in one of those scripts I call via ajax. $(document).ready(function() { // $('#site_preferences_content div').each(function() { // if (typeof (window.tristate_DisableControl) == 'undefined') { // if (typeof (window.console) != 'undefnied') // console.log((new Date()).toTimeString() + ' not logable'); // pausecomp(1000); // } // else // tristate_DisableControl(this); // }); //end $('#site_prefrences_content div').each() setTimeout(function() { $('#site_preferences_content div').each(function() { tristate_DisableControl(this); }) }, 1000); }); I thought by the time $(document).ready() executes the DOM will be properly loaded...

    Read the article

  • Javascript function variables being validated before function called by Internet Explorer

    - by CodingIsAwesome
    When my page loads it calls the function like below: <body onLoad='changeTDNodes()'> And the code it calls is below: function applyThresholds(myvalue, mycell) { var threshold = 10; if (myvalue.innerHTML >= threshold) { //mycell.style.setAttribute('cssText','font-size:x-large;'); mycell.setAttribute('bgColor','red'); } else { mycell.setAttribute('bgColor','green'); } } function changeTDNodes() { // there can be many 'td' elements; just return the nth element var RepairVideo_cell_value = document.getElementsByTagName('B')[21]; var RepairVideo_cell = document.getElementsByTagName('td')[16]; var PPV_cell_value = document.getElementsByTagName('B')[6]; var PPV_cell = document.getElementsByTagName('td')[1]; var LeadRepair_cell_value = document.getElementsByTagName('B')[11]; var LeadRepair_cell = document.getElementsByTagName('td')[6]; var LeadTier_cell_value = document.getElementsByTagName('B')[16]; var LeadTier_cell = document.getElementsByTagName('td')[11]; var CHSI_cell_value = document.getElementsByTagName('B')[26]; var CHSI_cell = document.getElementsByTagName('td')[21]; var HN_cell_value = document.getElementsByTagName('B')[31]; var HN_cell = document.getElementsByTagName('td')[26]; var CDV_cell_value = document.getElementsByTagName('B')[36]; var CDV_cell = document.getElementsByTagName('td')[31]; var CommOps_cell_value = document.getElementsByTagName('B')[42]; var CommOps_cell = document.getElementsByTagName('td')[36]; applyThresholds(PPV_cell_value, PPV_cell); applyThresholds(LeadRepair_cell_value, LeadRepair_cell); applyThresholds(LeadTier_cell_value, LeadTier_cell); applyThresholds(RepairVideo_cell_value, RepairVideo_cell); applyThresholds(CHSI_cell_value, CHSI_cell); applyThresholds(HN_cell_value, HN_cell); applyThresholds(CDV_cell_value, CDV_cell); applyThresholds(CommOps_cell_value, CommOps_cell); } Although the code executes succssfully, in the bottom corner of internet explorer the error shows as: Line: 12 Char: 1 Error: 'innerHTML' is null or not an object Code: 0 Yet if I move the applyThresholds function below the changeTDNodes function, the changeTDNodes functions complains that there is no such thing as the applyThresholds function. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks for all your help!

    Read the article

  • I need to call a vbscript function from within an external javascript file :: function

    - by RadAdam
    heres what i got so far : This function is not directly in the html page , its in an external js file , 'main.js'. function createVBScript(){ var script=document.createElement('script'); script.type='text/vbscript'; script.src='vb/fldt.vbs'; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(script); } the vbs file contains : <!-- // Visual basic helper required to detect Flash Player ActiveX control version information Function VBGetSwfVer() MsgBox "Hello there" End Function // --> thats all i want to do for the time being. how do i call VBGetSwfVer() from main.js ?

    Read the article

  • function binding and the clone() function - Jquery

    - by Sam Vloeberghs
    Hi I have problems with my keyup binding when cloning an element. Here's the scenario: I have an html markup like this: <tr class="rijbasis"> <td> <input type="text" class="count" /> </td> <td> <span class="cost">10</span> </td> <td> <span class="total">10</span> </td> </tr> I'm binding an keyup function to the input element of my table row like this: $('.rijbasis input').keyup(function(){ var parent = $(this).parent().parent(); $('.total',parent).text(parseInt($('.cost',parent).text()) * parseInt($('.count',parent).val())); } I designed the function like this so I could clone the table row on a onclick event and append it to the tbody: $('.lineadd').click(function(){ $('.contract tbody').append($('.contract tbody tr:last').clone()); $('.contract tbody tr:last input').val("0"); }); This al works , but the keyup function doesnt work on the input elements of the cloned row.. Can anybody help or advice? I hope I was clear enough and I'll be surely adding details if needed to solve this problem. Greetings

    Read the article

  • using FUNCTION instead of CREATE FUNCTION oracle pl/sql

    - by sqlgrasshopper5
    I see people writing a function with FUNCTION instead "CREATE FUNCTION". When I saw this usage in the web I thought it was a typo or something. But in Oreilly's "Oracle 11g PL/SQL Programming" by Steven Feurenstein, the author had used the same thing. But I get errors when I execute that. Could somebody explain is it legal usage or not?. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Setting Up a Wordpress Function in theme's function.php File

    - by user1609391
    I am trying to create the below function in my theme's function.php file and call it from my taxonomy.php file via query_brands_geo('dealers', 'publish', '1', $taxtype, $geo, $brands); all variables are set in taxonomy.php. The below query works perfect if I put it directly in my taxonomy.php file. What am I missing to make this work as a function? As a function I get this error statement for argument repeated for 2-6: Warning: Missing argument 2 for query_brands_geo() function query_brands_geo($posttype, $poststatus, $paidvalue, $taxtype, $geo, $brands) { /* Custom Query for a brand/geo combination to display dealers with a certain brand and geography */ //Query only for brands/geography combo and paid dealers $wp_query = new WP_Query(); $args = array( 'post_type' => '$posttype', 'post_status' => array($poststatus), 'orderby' => 'rand', 'posts_per_page' => 30, 'meta_query' => array( array( 'key' => 'wpcf-paid', 'value' => array($paidvalue), 'compare' => 'IN', ) ), 'tax_query' => array( 'relation' => 'AND', array( 'taxonomy' => $taxtype, 'field' => 'slug', 'terms' => $geo ), array( 'taxonomy' => 'brands', 'field' => 'slug', 'terms' => $brands ) ) ); $wp_query->query($args); } add_action( 'after_setup_theme', 'query_brands_geo' );

    Read the article

  • Which MySQL Frontend shows foreign rows?

    - by Jeremy Rudd
    I once came across a MySQL Frontend app that displayed foreign linked rows within the parent row, if for instance the Events table has a foreign key to the Students table: Student ID Name DOB -- ---- --------- [+] 22 Bob 25-1-1984 [-] 21 Jane 25-1-1982 Event ID Student-ID Name Time -- ---------- ---- --------- 1 21 Event A 05:50 1 21 Event B 17:20 [+] 20 Jack 25-1-1980

    Read the article

  • Partitioning mySQL tables that has foreign keys?

    - by Industrial
    Hi! What would be an appropriate way to do this, since mySQL obviously doesnt enjoy this. To leave either partitioning or the foreign keys out from the database design would not seem like a good idea to me. I'll guess that there is a workaround for this? Update 03/24: http://opendba.blogspot.com/2008/10/mysql-partitioned-tables-with-trigger.html http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1537219/how-to-handle-foreign-key-while-partitioning Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Postgresql: Implicit lock acquisition from foreign-key constraint evaluation

    - by fennec
    So, I'm being confused about foreign key constraint handling in Postgresql. (version 8.4.4, for what it's worth). We've got a couple of tables, mildly anonymized below: device: (id, blah, blah, blah, blah, blah x 50)… primary key on id whooooole bunch of other junk device_foo: (id, device_id, left, right) Foreign key (device_id) references device(id) on delete cascade; primary key on id btree index on 'left' and 'right' So I set out with two database windows to run some queries. db1> begin; lock table device in exclusive mode; db2> begin; update device_foo set left = left + 1; The db2 connection blocks. It seems odd to me that an update of the 'left' column on device_stuff should be affected by activity on the device table. But it is. In fact, if I go back to db1: db1> select * from device_stuff for update; *** deadlock occurs *** The pgsql log has the following: blah blah blah deadlock blah. CONTEXT: SQL statement "SELECT 1 FROM ONLY "public"."device" x WHERE "id" OPERATOR(pg_catalog.=) $1 FOR SHARE OF X: update device_foo set left = left + 1; I suppose I've got two issues: the first is that I don't understand the precise mechanism by which this sort of locking occurs. I have got a couple of useful queries to query pg_locks to see what sort of locks a statement invokes, but I haven't been able to observe this particular sort of locking when I run the update device_foo command in isolation. (Perhaps I'm doing something wrong, though.) I also can't find any documentation on the lock acquisition behavior of foreign-key constraint checks. All I have is a log message. Am I to infer from this that any change to a row will acquire an update lock on all the tables which it's foreign-keyed against? The second issue is that I'd like to find some way to make it not happen like that. I'm ending up with occasional deadlocks in the actual application. I'd like to be able to run big update statements that impact all rows on device_foo without acquiring a big lock on the device table. (There's a lot of access going on in the device table, and it's kind of an expensive lock to get.)

    Read the article

  • MySQL foreign key creation with alter table command

    - by user313338
    I created some tables using MySQL Workbench, and then did forward ‘forward engineer’ to create scripts to create these tables. BUT, the scripts lead me to a number of problems. One of which involves the foreign keys. So I tried creating separate foreign key additions using alter table and I am still getting problems. The code is below (the set statements, drop/create statements I left in … though I don’t think they should matter for this): SET @OLD_UNIQUE_CHECKS=@@UNIQUE_CHECKS, UNIQUE_CHECKS=0; SET @OLD_FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS=@@FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS, FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS=0; SET @OLD_SQL_MODE=@@SQL_MODE, SQL_MODE='TRADITIONAL'; DROP SCHEMA IF EXISTS `mydb` ; CREATE SCHEMA IF NOT EXISTS `mydb` DEFAULT CHARACTER SET latin1 COLLATE latin1_swedish_ci ; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`User` -- ----------------------------------------------------- DROP TABLE IF EXISTS `mydb`.`User` ; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`User` ( `UserName` VARCHAR(35) NOT NULL , `Num_Accts` INT NOT NULL , `Password` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `Email` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `User_ID` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , PRIMARY KEY (`User_ID`) ) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`User_Space` -- ----------------------------------------------------- DROP TABLE IF EXISTS `mydb`.`User_Space` ; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`User_Space` ( `User_UserName` VARCHAR(35) NOT NULL , `User_Space_ID` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , PRIMARY KEY (`User_Space_ID`), FOREIGN KEY (`User_UserName`) REFERENCES `mydb`.`User` (`UserName`) ON UPDATE CASCADE ON DELETE CASCADE) ENGINE = InnoDB; SET SQL_MODE=@OLD_SQL_MODE; SET FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS=@OLD_FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS; SET UNIQUE_CHECKS=@OLD_UNIQUE_CHECKS; The error this produces is: Error Code: 1005 Can't create table 'mydb.user_space' (errno: 150) Anybody know what the heck I’m doing wrong?? And anybody else have problems with the script generation done by mysql workbench? It’s a nice tool, but annoying that it pumps out scripts that don’t work for me. [As an fyi here’s the script it auto-generates: SET @OLD_UNIQUE_CHECKS=@@UNIQUE_CHECKS, UNIQUE_CHECKS=0; SET @OLD_FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS=@@FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS, FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS=0; SET @OLD_SQL_MODE=@@SQL_MODE, SQL_MODE='TRADITIONAL'; DROP SCHEMA IF EXISTS `mydb` ; CREATE SCHEMA IF NOT EXISTS `mydb` DEFAULT CHARACTER SET latin1 COLLATE latin1_swedish_ci ; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`User` -- ----------------------------------------------------- DROP TABLE IF EXISTS `mydb`.`User` ; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`User` ( `UserName` VARCHAR(35) NOT NULL , `Num_Accts` INT NOT NULL , `Password` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `Email` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `User_ID` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , PRIMARY KEY (`User_ID`) ) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`User_Space` -- ----------------------------------------------------- DROP TABLE IF EXISTS `mydb`.`User_Space` ; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`User_Space` ( `User_Space_ID` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , PRIMARY KEY (`User_Space_ID`) , INDEX `User_ID` () , CONSTRAINT `User_ID` FOREIGN KEY () REFERENCES `mydb`.`User` () ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB; SET SQL_MODE=@OLD_SQL_MODE; SET FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS=@OLD_FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS; SET UNIQUE_CHECKS=@OLD_UNIQUE_CHECKS; ** Thanks!]

    Read the article

  • how to save related models with non-null foreign key

    - by Fortress
    I have a model called user which has_one email. I put the foreign key (NOT NULL) inside users table. Now I'm trying to save it in the following way: @email = Email.new(params[:email]) @email.user = User.new(params[:user]) @email.save This raises a db exception, because the foreign key constraint is not met (NULL is inserted into email_id). How can I elegantly solve this or is my data modeling wrong?

    Read the article

  • Phpmyadmin mysql foreign key help

    - by Alan
    Hey guys i'm using phpmyadmin (php & mysql) and i'm having alot of trouble linking the tables using foreign keys. I'm getting negative values for the field countyId (which is the foriegn key). However it is linking to my other table fine and it's cascading fine. So when I go to add data there will be a drop box for the CountyId and the vlaues will look something like this, " -1 1- " Here is my alter statement, ALTER TABLE Baronies ADD FOREIGN KEY (CountyId) REFERENCES Counties (CountyId) ON DELETE CASCADE

    Read the article

  • Foreign keys - temporarily bypass?

    - by Industrial
    Hi, I have just started to learn about the pros of foreign keys in database design (mySQL / innoDB) and I wonder if there's any way to temporarily bypass the foreign key when doing a specific delete query, to just delete in the parent table, and not from the linked child tables. Thanks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12  | Next Page >