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  • MS Office Excel Ribbon - Cannot change/hide Editing group in Home tab

    - by A9S6
    I have a .net addin for Excel. The addin creates the Ribbon UI for Excel 2007 and re-purposes some existing commands such as Cut, Copy, Paste, Sort etc. For Cut, Copy and Paste I am just overriding their OnAction value to call my own procedure when the buttons are clicked. But for Sort, Sort Asc and Sort Desc commands the case is a little different. When either of the Sort, Sort Asc or Sort Desc buttons are clicked, I want to get notified and then call the default functionality. This was possible in Excel 2003 commandsbars by calling the Execute() method on the CommandBarControl. In Excel 2007, there is a ExecuteMso() method to programmatically click a ribbon element but when the OnAction is overridden, this ExecuteMso() method just executes my own procedure and not the default functionality of that button. So I thought that I will HIDE the Sort buttons in the "Editing" group in Home tab and add my own Sort, Sort Asc and Sort Desc buttons to it. The buttons will call into my procedure first from where I will call the default behavior. Now the problem is that I am unable to change/hide the Editing group (idMso="GroupEditing"). Is this built-in group not editable? I can however HIDE the Clipboard and other groups(but can't add buttons to them). <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <customUI xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/office/2006/01/customui"> <ribbon> <tabs> <tab idMso="TabHome"> <group idMso="GroupEditing" visible="false" /> </tab> </tabs> </ribbon> </customUI>

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  • Nose2 multiprocess error on Windows7

    - by tt293
    I was looking into nose2 as a way to get around the restrictions of having both xunit output and multiprocessing in nose1.3. However, when always-on is set to False in the [multiprocess] section, I can only get a single process running, while when running with always-on set to True, I get the following error: ---------------------------------------------------------------------- Ran 0 tests in 0.043s OK Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\Scripts\nose2-script.py", line 8, in <module> load_entry_point('nose2==0.4.7', 'console_scripts', 'nose2')() File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\main.py", line 284, in discover return main(*args, **kwargs) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\main.py", line 98, in __init__ super(PluggableTestProgram, self).__init__(**kw) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\unittest2-0.5.1- py2.7.egg\unittest2\main.py", line 98, in __init__ self.runTests() File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\main.py", line 260, in runTests self.result = runner.run(self.test) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\runner.py", line 53, in run executor(test, result) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\plugins\mp.py", line 60, in _runmp ready, _, _ = select.select(rdrs, [], [], self.testRunTimeout) select.error: (10038, 'An operation was attempted on something that is not a soc ket') This is running python 2.7.5 (32bit) on Windows 7 in a virtualenv with six-1.1.0, unittest2-0.5.1 and nose2-0.4.7 (I get the same behavior outside of the venv, so I don't think that is the issue here).

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  • FileReference.browse() stops playback on some Flash Players

    - by Christophe Herreman
    We have an issue were the server session associated with a Flex client times out when the browse file dialog is open for a time longer then the configured session timeout. It seems that on some players, the playback is stopped when browse or download on a FileReference is executing. This also causes remote calls to be blocked and hence our manual keep-alive messages are not sent to the server, resulting in a session timeout. I searched for some info on this in the docs and found a notice of it, but it does not explicitly list the players it does (not) work. Would anyone know were I could find a complete list? PS: here are the links that mention this behavior: http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/html/help.html?content=17_Networking_and_communications_7.html While calls to the FileReference.browse(), FileReferenceList.browse(), or FileReference.download() method are executing, most players will continue SWF file playback. http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/langref/flash/net/FileReference.html While calls to the FileReference.browse(), FileReferenceList.browse(), or FileReference.download() methods are executing, SWF file playback pauses in stand-alone and external versions of Flash Player and in AIR for Linux and Mac OS X 10.1 and earlier Anyone knows what is meant with an "external Flash Player"? PPS: we tested this on Linux (10.0.x and 10.1.x) in Firefox where it seems to stop playback and on Windows (10.0.x) in IE where playback seems to continue.

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  • How to prevent ADO.NET from altering double values when it reads from Excel files

    - by Khnle
    I have the following rows in my Excel input file: Column1 Column2 0-5 3.040 6 2.957 7 2.876 and the following code which uses ADO.NET to read it: string fileName = "input.xls"; var connectionString = string.Format("Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; data source={0}; Extended Properties=Excel 8.0;", fileName); var dbConnection = new OleDbConnection(connectionString); dbConnection.Open(); try { var dbCommand = new OleDbCommand("SELECT * FROM [Sheet1$]", dbConnection); var dbReader = dbCommand.ExecuteReader (); while (dbReader.Read()) { string col1 = dbReader.GetValue(0).ToString(); string col2 = dbReader.GetValue(1).ToString(); } } finally { dbConnection.Close(); } The results are very disturbing. Here's why: The values of each column in the first time through the loop: col1 is empty (blank) col2 is 3.04016411633586 Second time: col1 is 6 col2 is 2.95722928448829 Third time: col1 is 7 col2 is 2.8763272933077 The first problem happens with col1 in the first iteration. I expect 0-5. The second problem happens at every iteration with col2 where ADO.NET obviously alters the values as it reads them. How to stop this mal-behavior?

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  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

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  • Rails Model inheritance in forms

    - by Tiago
    I'm doing a reporting system for my app. I created a model ReportKind for example, but as I can report a lot of stuff, I wanted to make different groups of report kinds. Since they share a lot of behavior, I'm trying to use inheritance. So I have the main model: model ReportKind << ActiveRecord::Base end and created for example: model UserReportKind << ReportKind end In my table report_kinds I've the type column, and until here its all working. My problem is in the forms/controllers. When I do a ReportKind.new, my form is build with the '*report_kind*' prefix. If a get a UserReportKind, even through a ReportKind.find, the form will build the 'user_report_kind' prefix. This mess everything in the controllers, since sometimes I'll have params[:report_kind], sometimes params[:user_report_kind], and so on for every other inheritance I made. Is there anyway to force it to aways use the 'report_kind' prefix? Also I had to force the attribute 'type' in the controller, because it didn't get the value direct from the form, is there a pretty way to do this? Routing was another problem, since it was trying to build routes based in the inherited models names. I overcome that by adding the other models in routes pointing to the same controller.

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  • bool as object vs string as object testing equality

    - by Ray Pendergraph
    I am relatively new to C# and I noticed something interesting today that I guess I have never noticed or perhaps I am missing something. Here is an NUnit test to give an example: object boolean1 = false; object booloan2 = false; Assert.That(boolean1 == booloan2); This unit test fails, but this one passes: object string1 = "string"; object string2 = "string"; Assert.That(string1 == string2); I'm not that surprised in and of itself that the first one fails seeing as boolean1 and boolean2 are different references. But it is troubling to me that the first one fails and the second one passes. I read (on MSDN somewhere) that some magic was done to the String class to facilitate this. I think my question really is why wasn't this behavior replicated in bool? As a note... if the boolean1 and 2 are declared as "bool" then there is no problem. Does anyone know the reason for these differences or why it was implemented that way? Can anyone think of a situation where you would want to reference a bool object for anything except its value?

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  • For loop index out of range ArgumentOutOfRangeException when multithreading

    - by Lirik
    I'm getting some strange behavior... when I iterate over the dummyText List in the ThreadTest method I get an index out of range exception (ArgumentOutOfRangeException), but if I remove the threads and I just print out the text, then everything works fine. This is my main method: public static Object sync = new Object(); static void Main(string[] args) { ThreadTest(); Console.WriteLine("Press any key to continue."); Console.ReadKey(); } This method throws the exception: private static void ThreadTest() { Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); List<String> dummyText = new List<string>() { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five", "Six", "Seven", "Eight", "Nine", "Ten"}; for (int i = 0; i < dummyText.Count; i++) { Thread t = new Thread(() => PrintThreadName(dummyText[i])); // <-- Index out of range?!? t.Name = ("Thread " + (i)); t.IsBackground = true; t.Start(); } } private static void PrintThreadName(String text) { Random rand = new Random(DateTime.Now.Millisecond); while (true) { lock (sync) { Console.WriteLine(Thread.CurrentThread.Name + " running " + text); Thread.Sleep(1000+rand.Next(0,2000)); } } } This does not throw the exception: private static void ThreadTest() { Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); List<String> dummyText = new List<string>() { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five", "Six", "Seven", "Eight", "Nine", "Ten"}; for (int i = 0; i < dummyText.Count; i++) { Console.WriteLine(dummyText[i]); // <-- No exception here } } Does anybody know why this is happening?

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  • Project builds skipped with Any CPU build platform

    - by JMarsch
    All: We are using Visual Studio 2010, and we have recently upgraded our workstations to Windows 7/64-bit. I have a question: When I create a new solution, it seems to want to use the x86 platform. If I change the solution to "any cpu" and then I add a new project to the solution, the project will not have an "any cpu" build option, and it will be deselected from building (in configuration manager). Something seems wrong here. Here's what I want to have (assuming that it is supported): I want my solutions' platforms to default to "Any CPU" (I believe that means that at JIT time, the assembly will be either x86 or 64-bit, based on the machine that loaded it). When I add a new project to the solution, I want for it to have an "any cpu" solution, and I want for that projec to build by default. (basically, the same behavior that we had in VS 2008 on 32-bit workstations). How do I do that? Is there some additional thing that I need to know now that I am using a 64-bit workstation?

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  • In Google Chrome, how do I bring an existing popup window to the front using javascript from the par

    - by brahn
    I would like to have a button on a web page with the following behavior: On the first click, open a pop-up. On later clicks, if the pop-up is still open, just bring it to the front. If not, re-open. The below code works in Firefox (Mac & Windows), Safari (Mac & Windows), and IE8. (I have not yet tested IE6 or IE7.) However, in Google Chrome (both Mac & Windows) later clicks fail to bring the existing pop-up to the front as desired. How can I make this work in Chrome? <head> <script type="text/javascript"> var popupWindow = null; var doPopup = function () { if (popupWindow && !popupWindow.closed) { popupWindow.focus(); } else { popupWindow = window.open("http://google.com", "_blank", "width=200,height=200"); } }; </script> </head> <body> <button onclick="doPopup(); return false"> create a pop-up </button> </body> Background: I am re-asking this question specifically for Google Chrome, as I think I my code solves the problem at least for other modern browsers and IE8. If there is a preferred etiquette for doing so, please let me know.

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  • Zend hostname route doesn't match when it has child routes

    - by talisker
    I am implementing an Admin module, which contains the following routes: 'router' => array( 'routes' => array( 'admin' => array( 'type' => 'Zend\Mvc\Router\Http\Hostname', 'options' => array( 'route' => ':subdomain.mydomain.local', 'constraints' => array( 'subdomain' => 'admin', ), 'defaults' => array( 'module' => '__NAMESPACE__', 'controller' => 'Admin\Controller\Index', 'action' => 'index', ), ), 'priority' => 9000, 'may_terminate' => true, 'child_routes' => array( 'users' => array( 'type' => 'Zend\Mvc\Router\Http\Literal', 'options' => array( 'route' => '/users', 'defaults' => array( 'module' => '__NAMESPACE__', 'controller' => 'Admin\Controller\Users', 'action' => 'index', ), ), ), ) ), ), ), And this is the home route configuration: 'home' => array( 'type' => 'Zend\Mvc\Router\Http\Literal', 'options' => array( 'route' => '/', 'defaults' => array( 'controller' => 'Application\Controller\Index', 'action' => 'index', ), ), ), When I try to access to http://admin.mydomain.com, the route match always with the homeroute, but if I remove all the child routes from the admin route, the behavior is correct and a http://admin.mydomain.com matches with the adminroute. Any idea?

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  • WCF Custom SOAP Header Issues

    - by WayneC
    I'm trying to implement an endpoint behavior which injects a custom SOAP header into all messages to and from a service. I've gotten pretty close by implementing the approach from the accepted answer of this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/986455/wcf-wsdl-soap-header-on-all-operations/995951#995951 After implementing that solution, my custom SOAP header does indeed show up in the WSDL; however, when I try to call the methods on my service, I get the following exception/fault: <ExceptionDetail xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.ServiceModel" xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <HelpLink i:nil="true" /> <InnerException i:nil="true" /> <Message>Index was outside the bounds of the array.</Message> <StackTrace> at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage(Message message, MessageDescription messageDescription, Object[] parameters, Boolean isRequest) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.OperationFormatter.SerializeReply(MessageVersion messageVersion, Object[] parameters, Object result) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.SerializeOutputs(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.InvokeBegin(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage5(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage3(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage2(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage1(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet)</StackTrace> <Type>System.IndexOutOfRangeException</Type> </ExceptionDetail> Looking in Reflector at the DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage method thats throwing the exception, leads me to believe that the following snippet is causing the problem...but I'm not sure why. MessageHeaderDescription description = (MessageHeaderDescription) headerPart.Description; object parameterValue = parameters[description.Index]; I think the last line above is throwing the exception. The parameters variable is from IDispatchFormatter.SerializeReply What's going on?!?!! Any help would be greatly appreciated...

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  • Refactor link to show/hide a table row

    - by abatishchev
    I have a table with row which cab be hidden by user. It's implemented this way: Markup: <table> <tr> <td> <table style="margin-left: auto; text-align: right;"> <tr> <td class="stats-hide"> <a href="#" onclick="hideStats();">Hide</a> </td> <td class="stats-show" style="display: none;"> <a href="#" onclick="showStats();">Show</a> </td> </tr> </table> </td> </tr> <tr class="stats-hide"> <td> <!-- data --> </td> </tr> </table> And jQuery code: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function hideStats() { hideControls(true, $('.stats-hide')); hideControls(false, $('.stats-show')); } function showStats() { hideControls(false, $('.stats-hide')); hideControls(true, $('.stats-show')); } function hideControls(value, arr) { $(arr).each(function () { if (value) { $(this).hide(); } else { $(this).show(); } }); } </script> How to implement the same behavior with one, single link and one, probably, CSS class? My idea - store somewhere a boolean variable and toggle controls visibility relatively to this variable. Are there more?

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  • How do I implement configurations and settings?

    - by Malvolio
    I'm writing a system that is deployed in several places and each site needs its own configurations and settings. A "configuration" is a named value that is necessary to a particular site (e.g., the database URL, S3 bucket name); every configuration is necessary, there is not usually a default, and it's typically string-valued. A setting is a named value but it just tweaks the behavior of the system; it's often numeric or Boolean, and there's usually some default. So far, I've been using property files or thing like them, but it's a terrible solution. Several times, a developer has added a requirement for a configuration but not added the value to file for the live configuration, so the new release passed all the tests, then failed when released to live. Better, of course, for every file to be compiled — so if there's a missing configuration, or one of the wrong type, it won't get past the compiler — and inject the site-specific class into the build for each site. As a bones, a Scala file can easy model more complex values, especially lists, but also maps and tuples. The downside is, the files are sometimes maintained by people who aren't developers, so it has to be pretty self-explanatory, which was the advantage of property files. (Someone explain XML configurations to me: all the complexity of a compilable file but the run-time risk of a property file.) What I'm looking for is an easy pattern for defining a group required names and allowable values. Any suggestions?

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  • TextBox change is not saved to DataTable

    - by SeaDrive
    I'm having trouble with a simple table edit in a Winform application. I must have missed a step. I have a DataSet containing a DataTable connected to a database with a SqlDataAdapter. There is a SqlCommandBuilder on the SqlDataAdapter. On the form, there are TextBoxes which are bound to the DataTable. The binding was done in the Designer and it machine-produced statements like this: this.tbLast.DataBindings.Add(new System.Windows.Forms.Binding("Text", this.belkData, "belk_mem.last", true)); When I fill the row in the DataTable, the values from the database appear in the textboxes, but when I change contents of the TextBox, the changes are apparently not being going to the DataTable. When I try to save change both of the following return null: DataTable dtChanges = dtMem.GetChanges(); DataSet dsChanges = belkData.GetChanges(); What did I forget? Edit - response to mrlucmorin: The save is under a button. Code is: BindingContext[belkData, "belk_mem"].EndCurrentEdit(); try { DataSet dsChanges = belkData.GetChanges(); if (dsChanges != null) { int nRows = sdaMem.Update(dsChanges); MessageBox.Show("Row(s) Updated: " + nRows.ToString()); belkData.AcceptChanges(); } else { MessageBox.Show("Nothing to save.", "No changes"); } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show("Error: " + ex.Message); } I've tried putting in these statements without any change in behavior: dtMem.AcceptChanges(); belkData.AcceptChanges();

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  • Javascript onclick() event bubbling - working or not?

    - by user1071914
    I have a table in which the table row tag is decorated with an onclick() handler. If the row is clicked anywhere, it will load another page. In one of the elements on the row, is an anchor tag which also leads to another page. The desired behavior is that if they click on the link, "delete.html" is loaded. If they click anywhere else in the row, "edit.html" is loaded. The problem is that sometimes (according to users) both the link and the onclick() are fired at once, leading to a problem in the back end code. They swear they are not double-clicking. I don't know enough about Javascript event bubbling, handling and whatever to even know where to start with this bizarre problem, so I'm asking for help. Here's a fragment of the rendered page, showing the row with the embedded link and associated script tag. Any suggestions are welcomed: <tr id="tableRow_3339_0" class="odd"> <td class="l"></td> <td>PENDING</td> <td>Yabba Dabba Doo</td> <td>Fred Flintstone</td> <td> <a href="/delete.html?requestId=3339"> <div class="deleteButtonIcon"></div> </a> </td> <td class="r"></td> </tr> <script type="text/javascript">document.getElementById("tableRow_3339_0").onclick = function(event) { window.location = '//edit.html?requestId=3339'; };</script>

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  • CSS Clearing Floats

    - by Frank
    I'm making more of an effort to separate my html structure from presentation, but sometimes when I look at the complexity of the hacks or workarounds to make things work cross-browser, I'm amazed at huge collective waste of productive hours that are put into this. As I understand it, floats were never created for creating layouts, but because many layouts need a footer, that's how they're often being used. To clear the floats, you can add an empty div that clears both sides (div class="clear"). That is simple and works cross browser, but it adds "non-semantic" html rather than solving the presentation problem within the CSS. I realize this, but after looking at all of the solutions with their benefits and drawbacks, it seems to make more sense to go with the empty div (predictable behavior across browsers), rather than create separate stylesheets, including various css hacks and workarounds, etc. which would also need to change as CSS evolves. Is it o.k. to do this as long as you do understand what you're doing and why you're doing it? Or is it better to find the CSS workarounds, hacks and separate structure from presentation at all costs, even when the CSS presentation tools provided are not evolved to the point where they can handle such basic layout issues?

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  • How would you code an efficient Circular Buffer in Java or C#

    - by Cheeso
    I want a simple class that implements a fixed-size circular buffer. It should be efficient, easy on the eyes, generically typed. EDIT: It need not be MT-capable, for now. I can always add a lock later, it won't be high-concurrency in any case. Methods should be: .Add and I guess .List, where I retrieve all the entries. On second thought, Retrieval I think should be done via an indexer. At any moment I will want to be able to retrieve any element in the buffer by index. But keep in mind that from one moment to the next Element[n] may be different, as the Circular buffer fills up and rolls over. This isn't a stack, it's a circular buffer. Regarding "overflow": I would expect internally there would be an array holding the items, and over time the head and tail of the buffer will rotate around that fixed array. But that should be invisible from the user. There should be no externally-detectable "overflow" event or behavior. This is not a school assignment - it is most commonly going to be used for a MRU cache or a fixed-size transaction or event log.

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  • How to check whether user is login in web application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I want to learn the whole details of web application authentication. So, I decided to write a CodeIgniter authentication library from scratch. Now, I have to make design decision about how to determine whether one user is login. Basically, after user input username & password pair. A cookie is set for this session, following navigations in the web application will not require username & password. The server side will check whether the session cookie is valid to determine whether current user is login. The question is: how to determine whether cookie is valid cookie issued from server side? I can image the most simple way is to have the cookie value stored in session status as well. For each HTTP request, compare the value from cookie and the value from server session. (Since CodeIgniter session library store session variables in cookies, it is not applicable without some tweak.) This method requires storage in server side. For huge web application that is deployed in multiple datacenters. It is possible that user input username & password when browsing in one datacenter, while he/she access the web application in another datacenter later. The expected behavior is that user just input username & password once. As a result, all datacenters should be able to access the session status. That is possible not applicable even the session status is stored in external storage such as database. I tried Google. I login Google with Asian proxy which is supposed to direct me to datacenters in Asian. Then I switch to North American proxy which should direct me to datacenters in North America. It recognize my login without asking username and password again. So, is there any way to determine whether user is login without server side session status?

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  • how to set style through javascript in IE immediately

    - by rezna
    Hi, recently I've encountered a problem with IE. I have a function function() { ShowProgress(); DoSomeWork(); HideProgress(); } where ShowProgress and HideProgress just manipulate the 'display' CSS style using jQuery's css() method. In FF everything is OK, and at the same time I change the display property to block, progress-bar appears. But not in IE. In IE the style is applied, once I leave the function. Which means it's never shown, because at the end of the function I simply hide it. (if I remove the HideProgress line, the progress-bar appears right after finishing executing the function (more precisely, immediately when the calling functions ends - and so there's nothing else going on in IE)). Has anybody encountered this behavior? Is there a way to get IE to apply the style immediately? I've prepared a solution but it would take me some time to implement it. My DoSomeWork() method is doing some AJAX calls, and these are right now synchronous. I assume that making them asynchronous will kind of solve the problem, but I have to redesign the code a bit, so finding a solution just for applying the style immediately would much simplier. Thanks rezna

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  • How is timezone handled in the lifecycle of an ADO.NET + SQL Server DateTime column?

    - by stimpy77
    Using SQL Server 2008. This is a really junior question and I could really use some elaborate information, but the information on Google seems to dance around the topic quite a bit and it would be nice if there was some detailed elaboration on how this works... Let's say I have a datetime column and in ADO.NET I set it to DateTime.UtcNow. 1) Does SQL Server store DateTime.UtcNow accordingly, or does it offset it again based on the timezone of where the server is installed, and then return it offset-reversed when queried? I think I know that the answer is "of course it stores it without offsetting it again" but want to be certain. So then I query for it and cast it from, say, an IDataReader column to a DateTime. As far as I know, System.DateTime has metadata that internally tracks whether it is a UTC DateTime or it is an offsetted DateTime, which may or may not cause .ToLocalTime() and .ToUniversalTime() to have different behavior depending on this state. So, 2) Does this casted System.DateTime object already know that it is a UTC DateTime instance, or does it assume that it has been offset? Now let's say I don't use UtcNow, I use DateTime.Now, when performing an ADO.NET INSERT or UPDATE. 3) Does ADO.NET pass the offset to SQL Server and does SQL Server store DateTime.Now with the offset metadata? So then I query for it and cast it from, say, an IDataReader column to a DateTime. 4) Does this casted System.DateTime object already know that it is an offset time, or does it assume that it is UTC?

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  • Why is calling close() after fopen() not closing?

    - by Richard Morgan
    I ran across the following code in one of our in-house dlls and I am trying to understand the behavior it was showing: long GetFD(long* fd, const char* fileName, const char* mode) { string fileMode; if (strlen(mode) == 0 || tolower(mode[0]) == 'w' || tolower(mode[0]) == 'o') fileMode = string("w"); else if (tolower(mode[0]) == 'a') fileMode = string("a"); else if (tolower(mode[0]) == 'r') fileMode = string("r"); else return -1; FILE* ofp; ofp = fopen(fileName, fileMode.c_str()); if (! ofp) return -1; *fd = (long)_fileno(ofp); if (*fd < 0) return -1; return 0; } long CloseFD(long fd) { close((int)fd); return 0; } After repeated calling of GetFD with the appropriate CloseFD, the whole dll would no longer be able to do any file IO. I wrote a tester program and found that I could GetFD 509 times, but the 510th time would error. Using Process Explorer, the number of Handles did not increase. So it seems that the dll is reaching the limit for the number of open files; setting _setmaxstdio(2048) does increase the amount of times we can call GetFD. Obviously, the close() is working quite right. After a bit of searching, I replaced the fopen() call with: long GetFD(long* fd, const char* fileName, const char* mode) { *fd = (long)open(fileName, 2); if (*fd < 0) return -1; return 0; } Now, repeatedly calling GetFD/CloseFD works. What is going on here?

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  • Unity: Replace registered type with another type at runtime

    - by gehho
    We have a scenario where the user can choose between different hardware at runtime. In the background we have several different hardware classes which all implement an IHardware interface. We would like to use Unity to register the currently selected hardware instance for this interface. However, when the user selects another hardware, this would require us to replace this registration at runtime. The following example might make this clearer: public interface IHardware { // some methods... } public class HardwareA : IHardware { // ... } public class HardwareB : IHardware { // ... } container.RegisterInstance<IHardware>(new HardwareA()); // user selects new hardware somewhere in the configuration... // the following is invalid code, but can it be achieved another way? container.ReplaceInstance<IHardware>(new HardwareB()); Can this behavior be achieved somehow? BTW: I am completely aware that instances which have already been resolved from the container will not be replaced with the new instances, of course. We would take care of that ourselves by forcing them to resolve the instance once again.

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  • Setting Nullable Integer to String Containing Nothing yields 0

    - by Brian MacKay
    I've been pulling my hair out over some unexpected behavior from nullable integers. If I set an Integer to Nothing, it becomes Nothing as expected. If I set an Integer? to a String that is Nothing, it becomes 0! Of course I get this whether I explicitly cast the String to Integer? or not. I realize I could work around this pretty easily but I want to know what I'm missing. Dim NullString As String = Nothing Dim NullableInt As Integer? = CType(NullString, Integer?) 'Expected NullableInt to be Nothing, but it's 0! NullableInt = Nothing 'This works -- NullableInt now contains Nothing. How is this EDIT: Previously I had my code up here so without the explicit conversion to 'Integer?' and everyone seemed to be fixated on that. I want to be clear that this is not an issue that would have been caught by Option Strict On -- check out the accepted answer. This is a quirk of the string-to-integer conversion rules which predate nullable types, but still impact them.

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  • How to use named_scope to incrementally construct a complex query?

    - by wbharding
    I want to use Rails named_scope to incrementally build complex queries that are returned from external methods. I believe I can get the behavior I want with anonymous scopes like so: def filter_turkeys Farm.scoped(:conditions => {:animal => 'turkey'}) end def filter_tasty Farm.scoped(:conditions => {:tasty => true}) end turkeys = filter_turkeys is_tasty = filter_tasty tasty_turkeys = filter_turkeys.filter_tasty But say that I already have a named_scope that does what these anonymous scopes do, can I just use that, rather than having to declare anonymous scopes? Obviously one solution would be to pass my growing query to each of the filter methods, a la def filter_turkey(existing_query) existing_query.turkey # turkey is a named_scoped that filters for turkey end But that feels like an un-DRY way to solve the problem. Oh, and if you're wondering why I would want to return named_scope pieces from methods, rather than just build all the named scopes I need and concatenate them together, it's because my queries are too complex to be nicely handled with named_scopes themselves, and the queries get used in multiple places, so I don't want to manually build the same big hairy concatenation multiple times.

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