Search Results

Search found 40915 results on 1637 pages for 'virtual method'.

Page 309/1637 | < Previous Page | 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313 314 315 316  | Next Page >

  • Spring-MVC Problem using @Controller on controller implementing an interface

    - by layne
    I'm using spring 2.5 and annotations to configure my spring-mvc web context. Unfortunately, I am unable to get the following to work. I'm not sure if this is a bug (seems like it) or if there is a basic misunderstanding on how the annotations and interface implementation subclassing works. For example, @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } works fine. When the context starts up, the urls this handler deals with are discovered, and everything works great. This however does not: @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo implements Bar { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } When I try to pull up the url, I get the following nasty stack trace: javax.servlet.ServletException: No adapter for handler [com.shaneleopard.web.controller.RegistrationController@e973e3]: Does your handler implement a supported interface like Controller? org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.getHandlerAdapter(DispatcherServlet.java:1091) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doDispatch(DispatcherServlet.java:874) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doService(DispatcherServlet.java:809) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.processRequest(FrameworkServlet.java:571) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.doGet(FrameworkServlet.java:501) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:627) However, if I change Bar to be an abstract superclass and have Foo extend it, then it works again. @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo extends Bar { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } This seems like a bug. The @Controller annotation should be sufficient to mark this as a controller, and I should be able to implement one or more interfaces in my controller without having to do anything else. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • WPF and events from dynamically created controls

    - by OKB
    Hi, I need some help to implement a common behavior in some controls. In my WPF application, I have a main form that contains a panel and a button: Ok The button will run a Save method when clicked.The Save method reads some data from the form and saves the data to a database. The panel is populated with dynamically created controls (such as textbox, dropdownlists, etc). The main form instantiates a MainViewModel class. This MainViewModel class instantiates a class called UIFactory. So we have 3 levels here. In the UIFactory class the controls is being created. The Panel from the main form is sent as a parameter to a method in the MainModelView class called GenerateUI. This GenerateUI method in the MainViewModel class calls a GenerateControls method on the UIFactory class that takes the same panel as a parameter. The GenerateControls method in the UIFactory class then adds dynamically created controls on the panel. What I want to achieve is that whenever the user hits ENTER when he is typing in one of those dynamically created controls e.g a textbox, I want that behavior to be the same as clicking on the button in my main form. But how do I do that? I thought of implementing Routed events on my controls, but I can't figure out how to do it. Could you please advise me on how to achieve my goal? Best Regards, OKB

    Read the article

  • Where'd my sounds go?

    - by Dane Man
    In my Row class I have the initWithCoder method and everything restored in that method works fine, but only within the method. After the method is called I loose an array of sounds that is in my Row class. The sounds class also has the initWithCoder method, and the sound plays fine but only in the Row class initWithCoder method. After decoding the Row object, the sound array disappears completely and is unable to be called. Here's my source for the initWithCoder: - (id) initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)coder { ... soundArray = [coder decodeObjectForKey:@"soundArray"]; NSLog(@"%d",[soundArray count]); return self; } the log shows the count as 8 like it should (this is while unarchiving). Then the row object I create gets assigned. And the resulting row object no longer has a soundArray. [NSKeyedArchiver archiveRootObject:row toFile:@"DefaultRow"]; ... row = [NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:@"DefaultRow"]; So now whenever I call the soundArray it crashes. //ERROR IS HERE NSLog(@"%d",[[row soundArray] count]); Help please (soundArray is an NSMutableArray).

    Read the article

  • .NET: How to know when serialization is completed?

    - by Ian Boyd
    When I construct my control (which inherits DataGrid), I add specific rows and columns. This works great at design time. Unfortunately, at runtime I add my rows and columns in the same constructor, but then the DataGrid is serialized (after the constructor runs) adding more rows and columns. After serialization is complete, I need to clear everything and re-initialize the rows and columns. Is there a protected method that I can override to know when the control is done serializing? Of course, I'd prefer to not have to do the work in the constructor, throw it away, and do it again after (potential) serialization. Is there a preferred event that is the equivalent of "set yourself up now", so that it is called once whether I'm serialized or not? The serialization i speak of comes from the InitializeComponent() method in the form's code-behind file. #region Windows Form Designer generated code /// <summary> /// Required method for Designer support - do not modify /// the contents of this method with the code editor. /// </summary> private void InitializeComponent() { ... } It would have been perfect if InitializeComponent was a virtual method defined by Control, then i could just override it and then perform my processing after i call base: protected override void InitializeComponent() { base.InitializeComponent(); InitializeMe(); } But it's not an ancestor method, it's declared only in the code-behind file. i notice that InitializeComponent calls SuspendLayout and ResumeLayout on various Controls. i thought it could override ResumeLayout, and perform my initialization then: public override void ResumeLayout() { base.ResumeLayout(); InitializeMe(); } But ResumeLayout is not virtual, so that's out. Anymore ideas? i can't be the first person to create a custom control.

    Read the article

  • FluentNHibernate, getting 1 column from another table

    - by puffpio
    We're using FluentNHibernate and we have run into a problem where our object model requires data from two tables like so: public class MyModel { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual int FooId { get; set; } public virtual string FooName { get; set; } } Where there is a MyModel table that has Id, Name, and FooId as a foreign key into the Foo table. The Foo tables contains Id and FooName. This problem is very similar to another post here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1896645/nhibernate-join-tables-and-get-single-column-from-other-table but I am trying to figure out how to do it with FluentNHibernate. I can make the Id, Name, and FooId very easily..but mapping FooName I am having trouble with. This is my class map: public class MyModelClassMap : ClassMap<MyModel> { public MyModelClassMap() { this.Id(a => a.Id).Column("AccountId").GeneratedBy.Identity(); this.Map(a => a.Name); this.Map(a => a.FooId); // my attempt to map FooName but it doesn't work this.Join("Foo", join => join.KeyColumn("FooId").Map(a => a.FooName)); } } with that mapping I get this error: The element 'class' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2' has invalid child element 'join' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. List of possible elements expected: 'joined-subclass, loader, sql-insert, sql-update, sql-delete, filter, resultset, query, sql-query' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. any ideas?

    Read the article

  • LNK2001 error when compiling windows forms application with VC++ 2008

    - by Blin
    I've been trying to write a small application which will work with mysql in C++. I am using MySQL server 5.1.41 and MySQL C++ connector 1.0.5. Everything compiles fine when i write console applications, but when i try to compile windows forms application exactly the same way (same libraries, same paths, same project properties) i get this errors: Error 1 error LNK2001: unresolved external symbol "public: virtual int __clrcall sql::mysql::MySQL_Savepoint::getSavepointId(void)" (?getSavepointId@MySQL_Savepoint@mysql@sql@@$$FUAMHXZ) test1.obj test1 Error 2 error LNK2001: unresolved external symbol "public: virtual class std::basic_string<char,struct std::char_traits<char>,class std::allocator<char> > __clrcall sql::mysql::MySQL_Savepoint::getSavepointName(void)" (?getSavepointName@MySQL_Savepoint@mysql@sql@@$$FUAM?AV?$basic_string@DU?$char_traits@D@std@@V?$allocator@D@2@@std@@XZ) test1.obj test1 following instructions from here, i've got this: Undecoration of :- "?getSavepointId@MySQL_Savepoint@mysql@sql@@UEAAHXZ" is :- "public: virtual int __cdecl sql::mysql::MySQL_Savepoint::getSavepointId(void) __ptr64" Undecoration of :- "?getSavepointName@MySQL_Savepoint@mysql@sql@@UEAA?AV?$basic_string@DU?$char_traits@D@std@@V?$allocator@D@2@@std@@XZ" is :- "public: virtual class std::basic_string<char,struct std::char_traits<char>,class std::allocator<char> > __cdecl sql::mysql::MySQL_Savepoint::getSavepointName(void) __ptr64" but what should i do now?

    Read the article

  • Routing in Php and decorator pattern

    - by Joey Salac Hipolito
    I do not know if I am using the term 'routing' correctly, but here is the situation: I created an .htaccess file to 'process' (dunno if my term is right) the url of my application, like this : RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.+)$ index.php?url=$1 [QSA,L] Now I have this : http://appname/controller/method/parameter http://appname/$url[0]/$url[1]/$url[2] What I did is: setup a default controller, in case it is not specified in the url setup a Controller wrapper I did it like this $target = new $url[0]() $controller = new Controller($target) The problem with that one is that I can't use the methods in the object I passed in the constructor of the Controller: I resolved it like this : class Controller { protected $target; protected $view; public function __construct($target, $view) { $this->target = $target; $this->view = $view; } public function __call($method, $arguments) { if (method_exists($this->target, $method)) { return call_user_func_array(array($this->target, $method), $arguments); } } } This is working fine, the problem occurs in the index where I did the routing, here it is if(isset($url[2])){ if(method_exists($controller, $url[1])){ $controller->$url[1]($url[2]) } } else { if(method_exists($controller, $url[1])){ $controller->$url[1]() } } where $controller = new Controller($target) The problem is that the method doesn't exist, although I can use it directly without checking if method exist, how can I resolve this?

    Read the article

  • Execute binary from memory in C# .net with binary protected from a 3rd party software

    - by NoobTom
    i've the following scenario: i've a C# application.exe i pack application.exe inside TheMida, a software anti-piracy/reverse engineering. i encrypt application.exe with aes256. (i wrote my own aes encryption/decryption and it is working) Now, when i want to execute my application i do the following: decrypt application.exe in memory execute the application.exe with the following code: BinaryReader br = new BinaryReader(decOutput); byte[] bin = br.ReadBytes(Convert.ToInt32(decOutput.Length)); decOutput.Close(); br.Close(); // load the bytes into Assembly Assembly a = Assembly.Load(bin); // search for the Entry Point MethodInfo method = a.EntryPoint; if (method != null) { // create an istance of the Startup form Main method object o = a.CreateInstance(method.Name); // invoke the application starting point method.Invoke(o, null); the application does not execute correctly. Now, the problem i think, is that this method is only to execute .NET executable. Since i packed my application.exe inside TheMida this does not work. Is there a workaround to this situation? Any suggestion? Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • Which is the better C# class design for dealing with read+write versus readonly

    - by DanM
    I'm contemplating two different class designs for handling a situation where some repositories are read-only while others are read-write. (I don't foresee any need to a write-only repository.) Class Design 1 -- provide all functionality in a base class, then expose applicable functionality publicly in sub classes public abstract class RepositoryBase { protected virtual void SelectBase() { // implementation... } protected virtual void InsertBase() { // implementation... } protected virtual void UpdateBase() { // implementation... } protected virtual void DeleteBase() { // implementation... } } public class ReadOnlyRepository : RepositoryBase { public void Select() { SelectBase(); } } public class ReadWriteRepository : RepositoryBase { public void Select() { SelectBase(); } public void Insert() { InsertBase(); } public void Update() { UpdateBase(); } public void Delete() { DeleteBase(); } } Class Design 2 - read-write class inherits from read-only class public class ReadOnlyRepository { public void Select() { // implementation... } } public class ReadWriteRepository : ReadOnlyRepository { public void Insert() { // implementation... } public void Update() { // implementation... } public void Delete() { // implementation... } } Is one of these designs clearly stronger than the other? If so, which one and why? P.S. If this sounds like a homework question, it's not, but feel free to use it as one if you want :)

    Read the article

  • how to fix error in bitmap size exceeds VM budget

    - by narasimha
    hi folks i am working one application image uploading to sdcard i am scaling that sdcard saved into database some times one error is occurs bitmap size exceeds vm budget ouput : 01-11 15:39:51.809: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): Uncaught handler: thread main exiting due to uncaught exception 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: bitmap size exceeds VM budget 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.graphics.BitmapFactory.nativeDecodeByteArray(Native Method) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.graphics.BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray(BitmapFactory.java:384) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.graphics.BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray(BitmapFactory.java:397) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at com.fitzgeraldsoftware.shout.presentationLayer.Shout.onActivityResult(Shout.java:1653) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.app.Activity.dispatchActivityResult(Activity.java:3624) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.app.ActivityThread.deliverResults(ActivityThread.java:3220) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.app.ActivityThread.handleSendResult(ActivityThread.java:3266) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.app.ActivityThread.access$2600(ActivityThread.java:116) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.app.ActivityThread$H.handleMessage(ActivityThread.java:1823) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4203) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:791) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:549) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) how can fix the error please forward some solution thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Javascript errors on internet explorer with jQuery but working fine on Firefox

    - by user994319
    A quick question I'm hoping someone can help me out with. On firefox our jQuery slider is working perfectly, however on viewing with internet explorer there are some javascript errors occurring. The website is http://foscam-uk.com/index.php Hoping there is a possible solution to this. Kind Regards and Thank You! Errors: Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; WOW64; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; .NET4.0C; .NET4.0E; InfoPath.3) Timestamp: Wed, 6 Jun 2012 22:36:43 UTC Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 5653 Char: 9 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/js/prototype/prototype.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 5988 Char: 5 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/js/prototype/prototype.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 2 Char: 5 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/skin/frontend/default/theme316/js/scripts.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 5736 Char: 7 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/js/prototype/prototype.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 5988 Char: 5 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/js/prototype/prototype.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 73 Char: 11 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/index.php

    Read the article

  • Nhibernate - getting single column from other table

    - by Muhammad Akhtar
    I have following tables Employee: ID,CompanyID,Name //CompanyID is foriegn key of Company Table Company: CompanyID, Name I want to map this to the following class: public class Employee { public virtual Int ID { get; set; } public virtual Int CompanyID { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string CompanyName { get; set; } protected Employee() { } } here is my xml class <class name="Employee" table="Employee" lazy="true"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="CompanyID" column="CompanyID" type="Int32" not-null="false"/> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" length="100" not-null="false"/> What I need to add in xml class to map CompanyName in my result? here is my code... public ArrayList getTest() { ISession session = NHibernateHelper.GetCurrentSession(); string query = "select Employee.*,(Company.Name)CompanyName from Employee inner join Employee on Employee.CompanyID = Company.CompanyID"; ArrayList document = (ArrayList)session.CreateSQLQuery(query, "Employee", typeof(Document)).List(); return document; } but in the returned result, I am getting CompanyName is null is result set and other columns are fine. Note:In DB, tables don't physical relation Please suggest my solution ------ Thanks

    Read the article

  • Java downcasting and is-A has-A relationship

    - by msharma
    HI, I have a down casting question, I am a bit rusty in this area. I have 2 clasess like this: class A{ int i; String j ; //Getters and setters} class B extends A{ String k; //getter and setter} I have a method like this, in a Utility helper class: public static A converts(C c){} Where C are objects that are retireved from the database and then converted. The problem is I want to call the above method by passing in a 'C' and getting back B. So I tried this: B bClasss = (B) Utility.converts(c); So even though the above method returns A I tried to downcast it to B, but I get a runtime ClassCastException. Is there really no way around this? DO I have to write a separate converts() method which returns a B class type? If I declare my class B like: class B { String k; A a;} // So instead of extending A it has-a A, getter and setters also then I can call my existing method like this: b.setA(Utility.converts(c) ); This way I can reuse the existing method, even though the extends relationship makes more sense. What should I do? Any help much appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • MVC4 - how to vaildate a drop down list?

    - by Grant Roy
    I have a .Net MVC4 model / view with a number of [Required] fields, one of which is selected via a drop down list, "Content_CreatedBy" [the first code block below]. Client side validation fires on all fields except the DDL [although server side validation does not allow no entry in DDL]. I have tried validating on the DDL text as well its numeric value but niether fire on the client side. Can anyone see what I am doing wrong? Thanks Model [Required] [Display(Name = "Author")] [ForeignKey("ContentContrib")] [Range(1, 99, ErrorMessage = "Author field is required.")] public virtual int Content_CreatedBy { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Date")] public virtual DateTime Content_CreatedDate { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] [Display(Name = "Source / Notes ")] [StringLength(10, MinimumLength = 3)] public virtual string Content_Sources { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Keywords")] [StringLength(50, MinimumLength = 3)] public virtual string Content_KeyWords { get; set; } VIEW <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Content_CreatedBy, new { @class="whitelabel"}) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.DropDownList("Content_CreatedBy", String.Empty) @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Content_CreatedBy) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Content_CreatedBy) </div>

    Read the article

  • Macports and virtualenv site-packages Fallback

    - by Streeter
    I've installed django and python as this link suggested with macports. However, I'd like to use virtualenv to install more packages. My understanding is that if I do not pass in the --no-site-packages to virtualenv, I should get the currently installed packages in addition to whatever packages I install into the virtual environment. Is this correct? As an example, I've installed django through macports and then create a virtual environment, but I cannot import django from within that virtual environment: [streeter@mordecai]:~$ mkvirtualenv django-test New python executable in django-test/bin/python Installing setuptools............done. ... (django-test)[streeter@mordecai]:~$ pip install django-debug-toolbar Downloading/unpacking django-debug-toolbar Downloading django-debug-toolbar-0.8.4.tar.gz (80Kb): 80Kb downloaded Running setup.py egg_info for package django-debug-toolbar Installing collected packages: django-debug-toolbar Running setup.py install for django-debug-toolbar Successfully installed django-debug-toolbar Cleaning up... (django-test)[streeter@mordecai]:~$ python Python 2.6.1 (r261:67515, Jun 24 2010, 21:47:49) [GCC 4.2.1 (Apple Inc. build 5646)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import django Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named django >>> So I can install packages into the virtual environment, but it isn't picking up the global site-packages. Or am I not doing something correctly / missing something / misunderstanding how virtualenv works? I've got Mac OS 10.6 (Snow Leopard), have updated my macports packages and am using macports' python26 (via python_select python26).

    Read the article

  • how to elegantly duplicate a graph (neural network)

    - by macias
    I have a graph (network) which consists of layers, which contains nodes (neurons). I would like to write a procedure to duplicate entire graph in most elegant way possible -- i.e. with minimal or no overhead added to the structure of the node or layer. Or yet in other words -- the procedure could be complex, but the complexity should not "leak" to structures. They should be no complex just because they are copyable. I wrote the code in C#, so far it looks like this: neuron has additional field -- copy_of which is pointer the the neuron which base copied from, this is my additional overhead neuron has parameterless method Clone() neuron has method Reconnect() -- which exchanges connection from "source" neuron (parameter) to "target" neuron (parameter) layer has parameterless method Clone() -- it simply call Clone() for all neurons network has parameterless method Clone() -- it calls Clone() for every layer and then it iterates over all neurons and creates mappings neuron=copy_of and then calls Reconnect to exchange all the "wiring" I hope my approach is clear. The question is -- is there more elegant method, I particularly don't like keeping extra pointer in neuron class just in case of being copied! I would like to gather the data in one point (network's Clone) and then dispose it completely (Clone method cannot have an argument though).

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC 3.0 Rest problem

    - by Gidogeek
    Hi Guys, I'm trying out Spring MVC 3.0 for the first time and like to make it RESTfull. This is my controller: @Controller @RequestMapping(value = "/product") @SessionAttributes("product") public class ProductController { @Autowired private ProductService productService; public void setProductValidator(ProductValidator productValidator, ProductService productService) { this.productService = productService; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public Product create() { //model.addAttribute(new Product()); return new Product(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Product product, BindingResult result) { if (result.hasErrors()) { return "product/create"; } productService.add(product); return "redirect:/product/show/" + product.getId(); } @RequestMapping(value = "/show/{id}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public Product show(@PathVariable int id) { Product product = productService.getProductWithID(id); if (product == null) { //throw new ResourceNotFoundException(id); } return product; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public List<Product> list() { return productService.getProducts(); } } I have 2 questions about this. I'm a believer in Convention over Configuration and therefor my views are in jsp/product/ folder and are called create.jsp , list.jsp and show.jsp this works relatively well until I add the @PathVariable attribute. When I hit root/product/show/1 I get the following error: ../jsp/product/show/1.jsp" not found how do I tell this method to use the show.jsp view ? If I don't add the RequestMapping on class level my show method will be mapped to root/show instead of root/owner/show how do I solve this ? I'd like to avoid using the class level RequestMapping.

    Read the article

  • How can I implement an interface member in protected ?

    - by Nicolas Dorier
    Hi, I've been quite surprise when I saw the metadata of ReadOnlyObservableCollection in VS 2008... public class ReadOnlyObservableCollection<T> : ReadOnlyCollection<T>, INotifyCollectionChanged, INotifyPropertyChanged { // Summary: // Initializes a new instance of the System.Collections.ObjectModel.ReadOnlyObservableCollection<T> // class that serves as a wrapper for the specified System.Collections.ObjectModel.ObservableCollection<T>. // // Parameters: // list: // The collection to wrap. public ReadOnlyObservableCollection(ObservableCollection<T> list); // Summary: // Occurs when an item is added or removed. protected virtual event NotifyCollectionChangedEventHandler CollectionChanged; // // Summary: // Occurs when a property value changes. protected virtual event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; // Summary: // Raises the System.Collections.ObjectModel.ReadOnlyObservableCollection<T>.CollectionChanged // event. // // Parameters: // args: // The event data. protected virtual void OnCollectionChanged(NotifyCollectionChangedEventArgs args); // // Summary: // Raises the System.Collections.ObjectModel.ReadOnlyObservableCollection<T>.PropertyChanged // event. // // Parameters: // args: // The event data. protected virtual void OnPropertyChanged(PropertyChangedEventArgs args); } As you can see, CollectionChanged, a member of INotifyCollectionChanged is implemented in protected... and I can't do that in my own class. .NET framework should not compile ! Does someone has an explanation of this mystery ?

    Read the article

  • NHibernate / Fluent - Mapping multiple objects to single lookup table

    - by Al
    Hi all I am struggling a little in getting my mapping right. What I have is a single self joined table of look up values of certain types. Each lookup can have a parent, which can be of a different type. For simplicities sake lets take the Country and State example. So the lookup table would look like this: Lookups Id Key Value LookupType ParentId - self joining to Id base class public class Lookup : BaseEntity { public Lookup() {} public Lookup(string key, string value) { Key = key; Value = value; } public virtual Lookup Parent { get; set; } [DomainSignature] [NotNullNotEmpty] public virtual LookupType LookupType { get; set; } [NotNullNotEmpty] public virtual string Key { get; set; } [NotNullNotEmpty] public virtual string Value { get; set; } } The lookup map public class LookupMap : IAutoMappingOverride<DBLookup> { public void Override(AutoMapping<Lookup> map) { map.Table("Lookups"); map.References(x => x.Parent, "ParentId").ForeignKey("Id"); map.DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn<string>("LookupType").CustomType(typeof(LookupType)); } } BASE SubClass map for subclasses public class BaseLookupMap : SubclassMap where T : DBLookup { protected BaseLookupMap() { } protected BaseLookupMap(LookupType lookupType) { DiscriminatorValue(lookupType); Table("Lookups"); } } Example subclass map public class StateMap : BaseLookupMap<State> { protected StateMap() : base(LookupType.State) { } } Now I've almost got my mappings set, however the mapping is still expecting a table-per-class setup, so is expecting a 'State' table to exist with a reference to the states Id in the Lookup table. I hope this makes sense. This doesn't seem like an uncommon approach when wanting to keep lookup-type values configurable. Thanks in advance. Al

    Read the article

  • Obj-C: Passing pointers to initialized classes in other classes

    - by FnGreg7
    Hey all. I initialized a class in my singleton called DataModel. Now, from my UIViewController, when I click a button, I have a method that is trying to access that class so that I may add an object to one of its dictionaries. My get/set method passes back the pointer to the class from my singleton, but when I am back in my UIViewController, the class passed back doesn't respond to methods. It's like it's just not there. I think it has something to do with the difference in passing pointers around classes or something. I even tried using the copy method to throw a copy back, but no luck. UIViewController: ApplicationSingleton *applicationSingleton = [[ApplicationSingleton alloc] init]; DataModel *dataModel = [applicationSingleton getDataModel]; [dataModel retrieveDataCategory:dataCategory]; Singleton: ApplicationSingleton *m_instance; DataModel *m_dataModel; - (id) init { NSLog(@"ApplicationSingleton.m initialized."); self = [super init]; if(self != nil) { if(m_instance != nil) { return m_instance; } NSLog(@"Initializing the application singleton."); m_instance = self; m_dataModel = [[DataModel alloc] init]; } NSLog(@"ApplicationSingleton init method returning."); return m_instance; } -(DataModel *)getDataModel { DataModel *dataModel_COPY = [m_dataModel copy]; return dataModel_COPY; } For the getDataModel method, I also tried this: -(DataModel *)getDataModel { return m_dataModel; } In my DataModel retrieveDataCategory method, I couldn't get anything to work. I even just tried putting a NSLog in there but it never would come onto the console. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • ASP.net MVC Routing on Postback

    - by Mark Kadlec
    In my ASP.net MVC View I have a dropdown that I want to get details on selection and asynchronously update a div. My aspx is as follows: <% using (Html.BeginForm("Index", "Portal", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "TheForm" })) {%> <h2>Index</h2> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Details", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "mpkResults" })) { %> <%=Html.DropDownList("Docs", (IEnumerable<SelectListItem>)ViewData["Docs"], new { onchange = "document.getElementById('TheForm').submit();" })%> <p><input type="submit" value="Details" /></p> <% } %> <div id="mpkResults" style="margin:10px 0px 0px 0px;"></div> ... The onchange event fires correctly on selection of the dropdown, but instead of the Details method in my code behind firing, it hits my Index method. Why is the details method not getting hit on the onchange event? My Details() method in the controller is: public ActionResult Details() { ... < It never gets here, just goes to the index() method } It's a little frustrating right now since I'm sure it is a simple mistake but not sure what it could be. I looked at the Source of my page and sure enough, the form looks like it should be routing to the Details Action: <form action="/Portal/Details" method="post" ... Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Calling delegate methods and calling selectors

    - by Crystal
    I'm new to the concept of delegates and selectors when used with notifications. So my first question is, 1) Let's say you have a button that has a delegate that implements some doWork method. If you want the same functionality that's in the method, is it 'ok' to just call that method? I didn't know if that was considered good coding practices and/or if you should do that, or do something different in getting that type of functionality. Like if that is ok architecture? 2) Similarly, with NSNotificationCenter, I see some code that posts a notification. Then there's a HandleSegmentedControl:(NSNotification *)notification method. If I want to manually have that functionality, but without pressing the segment control, is it 'ok' to just take that functionality out of that method and put it in a new method so it would look like this: Original: - (void)HandleSegmentedControl:(NSNotification *)notification { NSDictionary *dict = [userInfo notification]; // do stuff with the dictionary } New: - (void)HandleSegmentedControl:(NSNotification *)notification { NSDictionary *dict = [userInfo notification]; [self newMethod:dict]; } - (void)newMethod:(NSDictionary *)dict { // do stuff with the dictionary } - (void)myOtherMethodThatNeedsTheSameFunctionality { NSDictionary *dict = // create some dictionary [self newMethod:dict]; } Sorry if these are basic questions. I'm not sure what the best practices are for things like this and wanted to start the right way. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Is there anything bad in declaring static inner class inside interface in java?

    - by Roman
    I have an interface ProductService with method findByCriteria. This method had a long list of nullable parameters, like productName, maxCost, minCost, producer and so on. I refactored this method by introducing Parameter Object. I created class SearchCriteria and now method signature looks like this: findByCriteria (SearchCriteria criteria) I thought that instances of SearchCriteria are only created by method callers and are only used inside findByCriteria method, i.e.: void processRequest() { SearchCriteria criteria = new SearchCriteria () .withMaxCost (maxCost) ....... .withProducer (producer); List<Product> products = productService.findByCriteria (criteria); .... } and List<Product> findByCriteria(SearchCriteria criteria) { return doSmthAndReturnResult(criteria.getMaxCost(), criteria.getProducer()); } So I did not want to create separate public class for SearchCriteria and put it inside ProductServiceInterface: public interface ProductService { List<Product> findByCriteria (SearchCriteria criteria); static class SearchCriteria { ... } } Is there anything bad in this interface? Where whould you place SearchCriteria class?

    Read the article

  • Recursive powerof-function, see if you can solve it

    - by Jonas B
    First of all, this is not schoolwork - just my curiousity as I for some reason can't get my head around it and solve it. I come up with these stupid things all the time and it annoys the hell out of me when I cant solve them. Code example is in C# but solution doesn't have to be in any particular programming-language. long powerofnum(short num, long powerof) { return powerofnum2(num, powerof, powerof); } long powerofnum2(short num, long powerof, long holder) { if (num == 1) return powerof; else { return powerof = powerofnum2(num - 1, holder * powerof, holder); } } As you can see I have two methods. I call for powerofnum(value, powerofvalue) which then calls the next method with the powerofvalue also in a third parameter as a placeholder so it remembers the original powerof value through the recursion. What I want to accomplish is to do this with only one method. I know I could just declare a variable in the first method with the powerof value to remember it and then iterate from 0 to value of num. But as this is a theoretical question I want it done recursively. I could also in the first method just take a third parameter called whatever to store the value just like I do in the second method that is called by the first, but that looks really stupid. Why should you have to write what seems like the same parameter twice? Rules explained in short: no iteration scope-specific variables only only one method Anyhow, I'd appreciate a clean solution. Good luck :)

    Read the article

  • Touch draw in Quatz 2D/Core Graphics

    - by OgreSwamp
    Hello, I'm trying to implement "hand draw tool". At the moment algorythm looks like that (I don't insert any code because methods are quite big, will try to explain an idea): Drawing In touchesStarted: method I create NSMutableArray *pointsArray and add point into it. Call setNeedsDisplay: method. In touchesMoved: method I calculate points between last added point from the pointsArray and current point. Add all points to the pointsArray. Call setNeedsDisplay: method. In touchesFinished: event I calculate points between last added point from the array and current point. Set flag touchesWereFinished. Call setNeedsDisplay:. Render: drawRect: method checks is pointsArray != nil and is there any data in it. If there is - it starts to traw circles in each point of this array. If flag touchesWereFinished is set - save current context to the UIImage, release pointsArray, set it to nil and reset the flag. There are a lot disadvantages of this method: It is slow It becomes extremely slow when user touches and move finger for long time. Array becomes enormous "Lines" composed by circles are ugly I would like to change my algorithm to make it bit faster and line smoother. In result I would like to have lines like on the picture at following URL (sorry, not enough reputation to insert an image): http://2.bp.blogspot.com/_r5VzEAUYXJ4/SrOYp8tJCPI/AAAAAAAAAMw/ZwDKXiHlhV0/s320/SketchBook+Mobile(4).png Can you advice me, ho I can draw lines this way (smooth and slim on the edges)? I thought to draw circles with alpha gradient on the edges (to make lines smoother), but it will be extremely slowly IMHO. Thanks for help

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313 314 315 316  | Next Page >