Search Results

Search found 9715 results on 389 pages for 'bad passwords'.

Page 310/389 | < Previous Page | 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313 314 315 316 317  | Next Page >

• Which key:value store to use with Python?

  - by Kurt

  So I'm looking at various key:value (where value is either strictly a single value or possibly an object) stores for use with Python, and have found a few promising ones. I have no specific requirement as of yet because I am in the evaluation phase. I'm looking for what's good, what's bad, what are the corner cases these things handle well or don't, etc. I'm sure some of you have already tried them out so I'd love to hear your findings/problems/etc. on the various key:value stores with Python. I'm looking primarily at: memcached - http://www.danga.com/memcached/ python clients: http://pypi.python.org/pypi/python-memcached/1.40 http://www.tummy.com/Community/software/python-memcached/ CouchDB - http://couchdb.apache.org/ python clients: http://code.google.com/p/couchdb-python/ Tokyo Tyrant - http://1978th.net/tokyotyrant/ python clients: http://code.google.com/p/pytyrant/ Lightcloud - http://opensource.plurk.com/LightCloud/ Based on Tokyo Tyrant, written in Python Redis - http://code.google.com/p/redis/ python clients: http://pypi.python.org/pypi/txredis/0.1.1 MemcacheDB - http://memcachedb.org/ So I started benchmarking (simply inserting keys and reading them) using a simple count to generate numeric keys and a value of "A short string of text": memcached: CentOS 5.3/python-2.4.3-24.el5_3.6, libevent 1.4.12-stable, memcached 1.4.2 with default settings, 1 gig memory, 14,000 inserts per second, 16,000 seconds to read. No real optimization, nice. memcachedb claims on the order of 17,000 to 23,000 inserts per second, 44,000 to 64,000 reads per second. I'm also wondering how the others stack up speed wise.

  Read the article

• Java performance problem with LinkedBlockingQueue

  - by lofthouses

  Hello, this is my first post on stackoverflow...i hope someone can help me i have a big performance regression with Java 6 LinkedBlockingQueue. In the first thread i generate some objects which i push in to the queue In the second thread i pull these objects out. The performance regression occurs when the take() method of the LinkedBlockingQueue is called frequently. I monitored the whole program and the take() method claimed the most time overall. And the throughput goes from ~58Mb/s to 0.9Mb/s... the queue pop and take methods ar called with a static method from this class public class C_myMessageQueue { private static final LinkedBlockingQueue<C_myMessageObject> x_queue = new LinkedBlockingQueue<C_myMessageObject>( 50000 ); /** * @param message * @throws InterruptedException * @throws NullPointerException */ public static void addMyMessage( C_myMessageObject message ) throws InterruptedException, NullPointerException { x_queue.put( message ); } /** * @return Die erste message der MesseageQueue * @throws InterruptedException */ public static C_myMessageObject getMyMessage() throws InterruptedException { return x_queue.take(); } } how can i tune the take() method to accomplish at least 25Mb/s, or is there a other class i can use which will block when the "queue" is full or empty. kind regards Bart P.S.: sorry for my bad english, i'm from germany ;)

  Read the article

• Choosing random numbers efficiently

  - by Frederik Wordenskjold

  I have a method, which uses random samples to approximate a calculation. This method is called millions of times, so its very important that the process of choosing the random numbers is efficient. I'm not sure how fast javas Random().nextInt really are, but my program does not seem to benefit as much as I would like it too. When choosing the random numbers, I do the following (in semi pseudo-code): // Repeat this 300000 times Set set = new Set(); while(set.length != 5) set.add(randomNumber(MIN,MAX)); Now, this obviously has a bad worst-case running time, as the random-function in theory can add duplicated numbers for an eternity, thus staying in the while-loop forever. However, the numbers are chosen from {0..45}, so a duplicated value is for the most part unlikely. When I use the above method, its only 40% faster than my other method, which does not approximate, but yields the correct result. This is ran ~ 1 million times, so I was expecting this new method to be at least 50% faster. Do you have any suggestions for a faster method? Or maybe you know of a more efficient way of generation a set of random numbers.

  Read the article

• Trying to parse OpenCV YAML ouput with yaml-cpp

  - by Kenn Sebesta

  I've got a series of OpenCv generated YAML files and would like to parse them with yaml-cpp I'm doing okay on simple stuff, but the matrix representation is proving difficult. # Center of table tableCenter: !!opencv-matrix rows: 1 cols: 2 dt: f data: [ 240, 240] This should map into the vector 240 240 with type float. My code looks like: #include "yaml.h" #include <fstream> #include <string> struct Matrix { int x; }; void operator >> (const YAML::Node& node, Matrix& matrix) { unsigned rows; node["rows"] >> rows; } int main() { std::ifstream fin("monsters.yaml"); YAML::Parser parser(fin); YAML::Node doc; Matrix m; doc["tableCenter"] >> m; return 0; } But I get terminate called after throwing an instance of 'YAML::BadDereference' what(): yaml-cpp: error at line 0, column 0: bad dereference Abort trap I searched around for some documentation for yaml-cpp, but there doesn't seem to be any, aside from a short introductory example on parsing and emitting. Unfortunately, neither of these two help in this particular circumstance. As I understand, the !! indicate that this is a user-defined type, but I don't see with yaml-cpp how to parse that.

  Read the article

• Boto - How to delete a record set from route53 -Tried to delete resource record set but it was not found

  - by Tampa

  I am using the following to delete route53 records. I get no error messages. conn = Route53Connection(aws_access_key_id, aws_secret_access_key) changes = ResourceRecordSets(conn, zone_id) change = changes.add_change("DELETE",sub_domain, "A", 60,weight=weight,identifier=identifier) change.add_value(ip_old) changes.commit() all required fields are present and they match..weight, identifier, ttl=60 etc.\ e.g. test.com. A 111.111.111.111 60 1 id1 test.com. A 111.111.111.222 60 1 id2 I want to delete 111.111.111.222 and the record set. So, what is the proper way to delete a record set? For a record set, I will have multiple values that are distinguished by a unique identifier. When an ip address becomes in active I want to remove from route53. I am using a a poor mans load balancing. Here is the meta of the record want to delete. {'alias_dns_name': None, 'alias_hosted_zone_id': None, 'identifier': u'15754-1', 'name': u'hui.com.', 'resource_records': [u'103.4.xxx.xxx'], 'ttl': u'60', 'type': u'A', 'weight': u'1'} Traceback (most recent call last): File "/home/ubuntu/workspace/rtbopsConfig/classes/redis_ha.py", line 353, in <module> deleteRedisSubDomains(aws_access_key_id, aws_secret_access_key,platform=platform,sub_domain=sub_domain,redis_domain=redis_domain,zone_id=zone_id,ip_address=ip_address,weight=1,identifier=identifier) File "/home/ubuntu/workspace/rtbopsConfig/classes/redis_ha.py", line 341, in deleteRedisSubDomains changes.commit() File "/usr/local/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/boto-2.3.0-py2.7.egg/boto/route53/record.py", line 131, in commit return self.connection.change_rrsets(self.hosted_zone_id, self.to_xml()) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/boto-2.3.0-py2.7.egg/boto/route53/connection.py", line 291, in change_rrsets body) boto.route53.exception.DNSServerError: DNSServerError: 400 Bad Request <?xml version="1.0"?> <ErrorResponse xmlns="https://route53.amazonaws.com/doc/2011-05-05/"><Error><Type>Sender</Type><Code>InvalidChangeBatch</Code><Message>Tried to delete resource record set hui.com., type A, SetIdentifier 15754-1 but it was not found</Message></Error><RequestId>9972af89-cb69-11e1-803b-7bde5b9c457d</RequestId></ErrorResponse> Thanks

  Read the article

• SDL_image/C++ OpenGL Program: IMG_Load() produces fuzzy images

  - by Kami

  I'm trying to load an image file and use it as a texture for a cube. I'm using SDL_image to do that. I used this image because I've found it in various file formats (tga, tif, jpg, png, bmp) The code : SDL_Surface * texture; //load an image to an SDL surface (i.e. a buffer) texture = IMG_Load("/Users/Foo/Code/xcode/test/lena.bmp"); if(texture == NULL){ printf("bad image\n"); exit(1); } //create an OpenGL texture object glGenTextures(1, &textureObjOpenGLlogo); //select the texture object you need glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, textureObjOpenGLlogo); //define the parameters of that texture object //how the texture should wrap in s direction glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_REPEAT); //how the texture should wrap in t direction glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_REPEAT); //how the texture lookup should be interpolated when the face is smaller than the texture glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); //how the texture lookup should be interpolated when the face is bigger than the texture glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); //send the texture image to the graphic card glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, texture->w, texture->h, 0, GL_RGB, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, texture-> pixels); //clean the SDL surface SDL_FreeSurface(texture); The code compiles without errors or warnings ! I've tired all the files formats but this always produces that ugly result : I'm using : SDL_image 1.2.9 & SDL 1.2.14 with XCode 3.2 under 10.6.2 Does anyone knows how to fix this ?

  Read the article

• Chunked responses in libevent2

  - by Sri

  Hi I am trying to do a chunked response (of large files) in libevent this way:: evhttp_send_reply_start(request, HTTP_OK, "OK"); int fd = open("filename", O_RDONLY); size_t fileSize = <get_file_size>; struct evbuffer *databuff = NULL; for (off_t offset = 0;offset < fileSize;) { databuff = evbuffer_new(); size_t bytesLeft = fileSize - offset; size_t bytesToRead = bytesLeft > MAX_READ_SIZE ? MAX_READ_SIZE : bytesLeft; evbuffer_add_file(databuff, fd, offset, bytesToRead); offset += bytesToRead; evhttp_send_reply_chunk(request, databuff); // send it evbuffer_free(databuff); // destroy it } evhttp_send_reply_end(request); fclose(fptr); Problem is with this I have a feeling the add_file is asynchronous so the 3rd or so evhttp_send_reply_chunk gives me an error (or something similar): [warn] evhttp_send_chain Closed(45): Bad file descriptor I set MAX_READ_SIZE to be 8 to actually test out chunked transfer encoding. I noticed there was a evhttp_request_set_chunked_cb (struct evhttp_request *, void(*cb)(struct evhttp_request *, void *)) method I could use but could not find any examples on how to use. For instance, how could I pass an argument to the callback? The argument seems to be the same argument that was passed to the request handler which is not what I want, because I want to create an object that holds the file descriptor and the file offset I am sending out. Appreciate all help. Thanks in advance Sri

  Read the article

• cannot receive UDP broadcast packets

  - by user292792

  Hello I have 2 boxes: - an embedded device (ARM Omap with linux) which I'll call "Omap". - a PC (can either be Windows or linux). Scenario 1 Both boxes are in the same network (example: my office). The Omap gets its address from a DHCP server (ex: 192.168.10.110). The PC has always the same address (ex. 192.168.10.104). I can successfully exchange UDP broadcast packets on any port. Success. Scenario 2 The 2 boxes are in a network withOUT a DHCP server. The PC has a static IP address (example: 10.10.10.20). The Omap boots, looks for a DHCP server, doesn't find it, and is in what I call "bad IP address" state. Now... Broadcasting UDP packets from the Omap works: the PC can see them. The opposite doesn't work: UDP packets broadcasted by the PC are not seen by the Omap. I am using Wireshark on another PC to verify that the packets are being sent. Failure. I tried to change the Omap ip address (with ifconfig)... no luck. What am I missing? To complete the picture, when the Omap is in Scenario 2, if I run udhcpc ... it can communicate with the DHCP server and get an IP address. I also see the packets with Wireshark. So this means that the DHCP client is able to broadcast UDP packets. (Yes, I tried to use DHCP ports 67/68 but it doesn't work). I am using Boost C++ Asio UDP sockets. Specifically, I took the multicast examples and changed them to do broadcasting. Any help is appreciated. Thanks, Benedetto

  Read the article

• PHP doesn't properly URL-decode POST values, or is the bug somewhere else?

  - by Vilx-

  I have a PHP website that integrates with PayPal. As part of it's normal operation it sends a POST request to a user defined URL about every transaction (and some other events). It's called IPN for those who know. All was/is working just fine, until we moved to a new hosting provider last week. This naturally resulted in downtime, changing DNS entries, PHP misconfigurations, etc. In short - PayPal was unable to send the notifications for a few days. Now, this is not that bad, because there is an option just for that - you can log into PayPal, go to the appropriate menu item, and have it resend the failed notifications. Which we did, and it resulted in over 400 error emails. The problem is that normally the email of the receiver ($_POST['business']) is received by PHP as [email protected], but when resending it comes out as my%40business.com. And the request validation goes crazy. Obviously either something somewhere is missing a call to urldecode() or something is doing one too many urlencode(). But who? Is this a bug in PHP? I've never had such a problem before, not with any POST data ever. Perhaps PayPal has a bug? Wouldn't be surprising, but then this should have been caught ages ago. Or perhaps I'm doing something wrong and I should really be calling the urldecode() myself?

  Read the article

• Error: Only LDAP Connection Strings are Supported against Active Directory

  - by Brent Pabst

  I have the following ASP.NET Membership section defined in the Web.config file: <membership defaultProvider="AspNetActiveDirectoryMembershipProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add connectionStringName="ADService" connectionUsername="umanage" connectionPassword="letmein" enablePasswordReset="true" enableSearchMethods="true" applicationName="uManage" clientSearchTimeout="30" serverSearchTimeout="30" name="AspNetActiveDirectoryMembershipProvider" type="System.Web.Security.ActiveDirectoryMembershipProvider, System.Web, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" /> </providers> </membership> The Connection string looks like this: <add name="ADService" connectionString="ldap://familynet.local" /> Whenever I call the following code: Membership.GetAllUsers(); I get the following error: Configuration Error Description: An error occurred during the processing of a configuration file required to service this request. Please review the specific error details below and modify your configuration file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Only LDAP connection strings are supported against Active Directory and ADAM. I don't understand why the system is claiming the LDAP connection string is bad because it is in fact a valid LDAP string as specified by the MSDN documentation. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.web.security.activedirectorymembershipprovider.aspx Any ideas?

  Read the article

• MVC ASP.NET, ObjectContext and Ajax. Weird Behaviour

  - by fabianadipolo

  Hi, i've been creating a web application in mvc asp.net. I have three different project/solutions. One solution contains the model in EF (DAL) and all the methods to add, update, delete and query the objects in the model, the objectcontext is managed here in a per request basis. Other solution contains a content management system in wich authorized users insert, delete, update and access objects through the DAL mentioned before. And the last solution contains the web page that is accessed by all users and where the only operations executed are selects, no update, inserts or deletes here. All the selects are executed against the DAL mentioned before (the first solution). The problem here is that i'm not sure whether an HttpContext lifespan ObjectContext is the best solution. I have a lot of ajax calls in my web app and i'm not sure if an httpcontext could interfere with the performance of the application. I've been noticed that in some cases, specially when someone is working in the content manager inserting, updating or deleting, when you try to click on any link of the user web application (the web app that is accessed by any user - the third one that i mentioned before) the web page freezes and it remains stucked transferring data. In order to stop that behaviour you have to stop and refresh or click several times on the link. Excuse me for my bad english. I hope you could understand and could help me to solve this issue. Thanx in advance.

  Read the article

• Should UTF-16 be considered harmful?

  - by Artyom

  I'm going to ask what is probably quite a controversial question: "Should one of the most popular encodings, UTF-16, be considered harmful?" Why do I ask this question? How many programmers are aware of the fact that UTF-16 is actually a variable length encoding? By this I mean that there are code points that, represented as surrogate pairs, take more then one element. I know; lots of applications, frameworks and APIs use UTF-16, such as Java's String, C#'s String, Win32 APIs, Qt GUI libraries, the ICU Unicode library, etc. However, with all of that, there are lots of basic bugs in the processing of characters out of BMP (characters that should be encoded using two UTF-16 elements). For example, try to edit one of these characters: 𝄞 𝕥 𝟶 𠂊 You may miss some, depending on what fonts you have installed. These characters are all outside of the BMP (Basic Multilingual Plane). If you cannot see these characters, you can also try looking at them in the Unicode Character reference. For example, try to create file names in Windows that include these characters; try to delete these characters with a "backspace" to see how they behave in different applications that use UTF-16. I did some tests and the results are quite bad: Opera has problem with editing them Notepad can't deal with them correctly (delete for example) File names editing in Window dialogs in broken All QT3 applications can't deal with them. StackOverflow seems to remove these characters if edited directly in as Unicode characters, and only seems to allow them as HTML Unicode escapes. So... This was very simple test. Do you think that UTF-16 should be considered harmful?

  Read the article

• jquery click on anchor element forces scroll to top?

  - by Dan.StackOverflow

  http://stackoverflow.com/questions/720970/jquery-hyperlinks-href-value[link text][1] I am running in to a problem using jquery and a click event attached to an anchor element. [1]: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/720970/jquery-hyperlinks-href-value "This" SO question seems to be a duplicate, and the accepted answer doesn't seem to solve the problem. Sorry if this is bad SO etiquette. In my .ready() function I have: jQuery("#id_of_anchor").click(function(event) { //start function when any update link is clicked Function_that_does_ajax(); }); and my anchor looks like this: <a href="#" id="id_of_anchor"> link text </a> but when the link is clicked, the ajax function is performed as desired, but the browser scrolls to the top of the page. not good. I've tried adding: event.preventDefault(); before calling my function that does the ajax, but that doesn't help. What am I missing? Clarification I've used every combination of return false; event.preventDefault(); event.stopPropagation(); before and after my call to my js ajax function. It still scrolls to the top.

  Read the article

• How can I pass FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie from Data Access Layer Class to WebService to Javas

  - by Reaction21

  I am using DotNetOpenAuth in my ASP.Net Website. I have modified it to work with Facebook Connect as well, using the same methods and database structures. Now I have come across a problem. I have added a Facebook Connect button to a login page. From that HTML button, I have to somehow pull information from the Facebook Connect connection and pass it into a method to authenticate the user. The way I am currently doing this is by: Calling a Javascript Function on the onlogin function of the FBML/HTML Facebook Connect button. The javascript function calls a Web service to login, which it does correctly. The web service calls my data access layer to login. And here is the problem: FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie is set at the data access layer. The Cookie is beyond the scope of the user's page and therefore is not set in the browser. This means that the user is authenticated, but the user's browser is never notified. So, I need to figure out if this is a bad way of doing what I need or if there is a better way to accomplish what I need. I am just not sure and have been trying to find answers for hours. Any help you have would be great.

  Read the article

• Missing ideas in programming language design

  - by meyka

  I wanted to try something new and so I designed some programming languages and wrote interpreters for them: A rather low-level, not very expressive language. (I didn't want to parse complex expressions right at the beginning) It featured: Variables (yay) Subroutines, with a call stack Basic arithmetic functions, basic string manipulation, ... Code in the language looks like this: set i 0 inc i print i Very, very basic you see. A more high-level language I decided to make it structured and so it featured things like if-else, while, functions, and so on. The stuff most programming languages have. Ended up like a unworthy Python clone, I hated that. A code-golf language Which ended up similar to J, golfcode, APL, etc. Nothing special As you can see: I don't lack the skills but the ideas. I can't figure out anything new, not even bad, unneccessary things, for my languages. - Do you know of some weird things I could implement in my languages, which don't try to make programming harder (like most esoteric languages) but funnier or more different from other languages? It can't be possible that every weird thing has been tried out so far, or?

  Read the article

• Is ASP.NET MVC destined to replace Webforms?

  - by johnny

  I found these questions, but a couple of them were a little old: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/191556/should-i-pursue-asp-net-webforms-or-asp-net-mvc http://stackoverflow.com/questions/88787/do-you-think-asp-net-mvc-will-compete-with-asp-net-webforms http://stackoverflow.com/questions/722637/asp-net-mvc-asp-net-webforms-why I do not believe these are duplicates and might be old enough that new light can be shed. If not please close this. I know that no one framework or language is necessarily the only tool for every job. But, do you see MVC eclipsing webforms or webforms going lower on the priority list for Microsoft? They will have to keep webforms for a long time because so many have invested in it, but they don't have to keep adding new functionality for it. I don't know if this is a good example, but it reminds me of web parts. I never saw much improvement in it from Microsoft. It works and I thought it was great until I started to really try and get a lot out of it. Then from what I could see it just wasn't being pursued by Microsoft that much, though it stayed in Visual Studio. Maybe that's a bad example; just what I remembered. EDIT: Also, if anyone has any statements from Microsoft on this subject it is appreciated. No offense to anyone. I was only hoping for something official.

  Read the article

• How to set "Run this program as an administrator" programatically.

  - by Patrick

  I'm having a problem with good ol' bdeadmin.exe in Vista. First, let's get the predictable responses out of the way: "You should not require your application to be elevated." This one does. C'est la vie. "You need to embed a manifest file." It is already compiled, it is many years old, the company that created it has no intention of doing it again, and it is installed from a Merge Module (MSM file). "BDE is obsolete, you should be using dbExpress" One and a half million lines of code. 'Nuff said. "Drop a manifest file next to the EXE." Tried that, did nothing. As a test, that same manifest file was able to make several other EXE files require elevation, just not the one I wanted. Something in there is preventing the external manifest from being read. "Create a shortcut and set SLDF_RUNAS_USER." Can't do that, it's a Control Panel applet. The only thing that worked was setting "Run this program as an administrator" under the Compatibility tab of its Properties window. I shouldn't have to tell users to do this. Bad for business. I need to have the installer do this. The MSM file uses a static path. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Proper use of HTTP status codes in a "validation" server

  - by Romulo A. Ceccon

  Among the data my application sends to a third-party SOA server are complex XMLs. The server owner does provide the XML schemas (.xsd) and, since the server rejects invalid XMLs with a meaningless message, I need to validate them locally before sending. I could use a stand-alone XML schema validator but they are slow, mainly because of the time required to parse the schema files. So I wrote my own schema validator (in Java, if that matters) in the form of an HTTP Server which caches the already parsed schemas. The problem is: many things can go wrong in the course of the validation process. Other than unexpected exceptions and successful validation: the server may not find the schema file specified the file specified may not be a valid schema file the XML is invalid against the schema file Since it's an HTTP Server I'd like to provide the client with meaningful status codes. Should the server answer with a 400 error (Bad request) for all the above cases? Or they have nothing to do with HTTP and it should answer 200 with a message in the body? Any other suggestion? Update: the main application is written in Ruby, which doesn't have a good xml schema validation library, so a separate validation server is not over-engineering.

  Read the article

• Authlogic, logout, credential capture and security

  - by Paddy

  Ok this is something weird. I got authlogic-oid installed in my rails app today. Everything works perfectly fine but for one small nuisance. This is what i did: I first register with my google openid. Successful login, redirection and my email, along with my correct openid is stored in my database. I am happy that everything worked fine! Now when i logout, my rails app as usual destroys the session and redirects me back to my root url where i can login again. Now if i try to login it still remembers my last login id. Not a big issue as i can always "Sign in as a different user" but i am wondering if there is anyway to not only logout from my app but also logout from google. I noticed the same with stack overflow's openid authentication system. Why am i so bothered about this, you may ask. But is it not a bad idea if your web apps end user, who happens to be in a cyber cafe, thinks he has logged out from your app and hence from his google account only to realize later that his google account had got hacked by some unworthy loser who just happened to notice that the one before him had not logged out from google and say.. changed his password!! Should i be paranoid? Isn't this a major security lapse while implementing the openid spec? Probably today someone can give me a workaround for this issue and the question is solved for me. But what about the others who have implemented openid in their apps and not implemented a workaround?

  Read the article

• How to determine the correct (case sensitive) URL for a SharePoint site

  - by Goyuix

  SharePoint is generally very tolerant of accepting a URL in a case-insensitive fashion, however there are a few cases where it completely breaks down. For example, when creating a site column it somehow stores and uses the URL when it was created, and when trying to edit the field definition through the Site Column Gallery (fldedit.aspx page in the LAYOUTS) you end up throwing the error below. Value does not fall within the expected range. at Microsoft.SharePoint.SPFieldCollection.GetFieldByInternalName(String strName, Boolean bThrowException) at Microsoft.SharePoint.SPFieldCollection.GetFieldByInternalName(String strName) at Microsoft.SharePoint.ApplicationPages.BasicFieldEditPage.OnLoad(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) How can I reliably get the correct URL for a site/web? The SPSite.Url and SPWeb.Url properties seem to return back whatever case they are instantiated with. In other words, the site collection is provisioned using the following URL: http://server/Path/Site If I create a new Site Column using the SharePoint object model and happen to use http://server/path/site when instantiating the SPSite and SPWeb objects, the site column will be made available but when trying to access it through the gallery the error above is generated. If I correct the URL in the address bar, I can still view/modify the definition for the SPField in question, but the default URL that is generated is bogus. Clear as mud? Example code: (this is a bad example because of the case sensitivity issue) // note: site should be partially caps: http://server/Path/Site using (SPSite site = new SPSite("http://server/path/site")) { using (SPWeb web = site.OpenWeb()) { web.Fields.AddFieldAsXml("..."); // correct XML really here } }

  Read the article

• Displaying ppt, doc, and xls in UIWebView doesn't work but pdf does

  - by slugolicious

  It looks like a few people on stackoverflow get this to work but their code isn't posted. I'm using [web loadData:data MIMEType:MIMEType textEncodingName:@"UTF-8" baseURL:nil]; where MIMEType is: @"application/vnd.ms-powerpoint" @"application/vnd.ms-word" @"application/vnd.ms-excel" (BTW, I've seen DOC files use mimetype @"application/msword" but the "vnd" version seems more appropriate. I tried both just in case.) I verified that my 'data' is correct. PDF and TXT files work. When the UIWebView displays PPT, DOC, or XLS files, it's blank. I put NSLOG statements in my UIWebViewDelegate calls. shouldStartLoadWithRequest:<NSMutableURLRequest about:blank> navType:5 webViewDidStartLoad: didFailLoadWithError:Error Domain=NSURLErrorDomain Code=100 UserInfo=0x122503a0 "Operation could not be completed. (NSURLErrorDomain error 100.)" didFailLoadWithError:Error Domain=WebKitErrorDomain Code=102 UserInfo=0x12253840 "Frame load interrupted" so obviously the load is failing, but why? If I change my mimetype to @"text/plain" for a PPT file, the UIWebView loads fine and displays unprintable characters, as expected. That's telling me the 'data' passed to loadData: is ok. Meaning my mimetypes are bad? And just to make sure my PPT, DOC, and XLS files are indeed ok to display, I created a simple html file with anchor tags to the files. When the html file is displayed in Safari on the iPhone, clicking on the files displays correctly in Safari. I tried to research the error code displayed in didFailLoadWithError (100) but all the documented error codes are negative and greater than 1000 (as seen in NSURLError.h). -(void)webView:(UIWebView *)webView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error { NSLog(@"didFailLoadWithError:%@", error); }

  Read the article

• Localizing DataAnnotations Custom Validation Attribute

  - by Gabe G

  Hello SO, I'm currently working in an MVC 2 app which has to have everything localized in n-languages (currently 2, none of them english btw). I validate my model classes with DataAnnotations but when I wanted to validate a DateTime field found out that the DataTypeAttribute returns always true, no matter it was a valid date or not (that's because when I enter a random string "foo", the IsValid() method checks against "01/01/0001 ", dont know why). Decided to write my own validator extending ValidationAtribute class: public class DateTimeAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime result; if (value.ToString().Equals("01/01/0001 0:00:00")) { return false; } return DateTime.TryParse(value.ToString(), out result); } } Now it checks OK when is valid and when it's not, but my problem starts when I try to localize it: [Required(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_Required")] [CustomValidation.DateTime(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_DataType")] public DateTime INS_DATA { get; set; } If I put nothing in the field I get a localized MSG (MSG being my resource class) for the key=INS_DATA_Required but if I put a bad-formatted date I get the "The value 'foo' is not valid for INS_DATA" default message and not the localized MSG. What am I misssing?

  Read the article

• Authlogic, logout and credential capture

  - by Paddy

  Ok this is something weird. I got authlogic-oid installed in my rails app today. Everything works perfectly fine but for one small nuisance. This is what i did: I first register with my google openid. Successful login, redirection and my email, along with my correct openid is stored in my database. I am happy that everything worked fine! Now when i logout, my rails app as usual destroys the session and redirects me back to my root url where i can login again. Now if i try to login it still remembers my last login id. Not a big issue as i can always "Sign in as a different user" but i am wondering if there is anyway to not only logout from my app but also logout from google. I noticed the same with stack overflow's openid authentication system. Why am i so bothered about this, you may ask. But is it not a bad idea if your web apps end user, who happens to be in a cyber cafe, thinks he has logged out from your app and hence from his google account only to realize later that his google account had got hacked by some unworthy loser who just happened to notice that the one before had not logged out from google and say.. changed his password!! Should i be paranoid?

  Read the article

• google appengine local datastore integration testing with spring

  - by mirror303

  Hi all, I want to write some integration tests to see how my spring-managed DAO's behave when talking to the appengine datastore. Following the spring manual I will be providing my test-classes with the proper annotations: @RunWith(SpringJUnit4ClassRunner.class) @ContextConfiguration(locations = { "classpath:applicationContext.xml" }) After a lot of browsing I found this blog post dating back to august '09 from somebody doing exactly what I want to achieve. It involves writing a TestEnvironment class that implements ApiProxy.Environment plus talking to ApiProxyLocalImpl. However, if I look at the current docs (for version 1.3.1), it seems that this has been replaced by newing an instance of the framework provided LocalDatastoreServiceTestConfig which is passed to a LocalServiceTestHelper. It is too bad that the appengine docs don't show an example how to do this with JPA because then the spring wiring would be trivial. Trying to follow the route outlined in the blog posting has me running into a compiler messages telling me that classes such as ApiProxyLocalImpl are not visible by me. Hence, there must be a new way of doing it, which probably involves the LocalServiceTestHelper. My question: Does anybody know how? I know I will need to configure an EntityManagerFactory and provide it with the Datastore connection somehow... but how? :)

  Read the article

• Problem setText UITextView

  - by Mat

  Hi i have a problem. I have 2 viewcontroller, in the first there is a mapView that implements the function "calloutAccessoryControlTapped" to tap a button on an annotation on the mapView; in the second there is just a UITextView. I want to change the text of the UITextView (and show the SecondViewController) in the second controller once the button on annotation is clicked; here is my code (FirstViewController) Header @interface FirstViewController<MKMapViewDelegate>{ IBOutlet MKMapView *mapView; SecondViewController *secondV;} @end Implementation @implementation FirstViewController - (void)mapView:(MKMapView *)mapView annotationView:(MKAnnotationView *)view calloutAccessoryControlTapped:(UIControl *)control{ secondV = [[SecondViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondViewController" bundle:nil]; NSString *myS = @"some text here"; [secondV.myTextView setText:myS]; //Switch from this to the secondview [self presentModalViewController:secondV animated:YES]; @end (SecondViewController) Header @interface SecondViewController{ IBOutlet UITextView *myTextView; } @property(nonatomic, retain)UITextView *postitTextView; - (IBAction)backToMAp; - (void)setText:(NSString *)string; @end Implementation @implementation SecondViewController - (IBAction)backToMAp{ //Back To First View; [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES];} - (void)setText:(NSString *)string{ myTextView.text = string;} In this code when i tap on the button ([self presentModalViewController:secondV animated:YES];) on annotation the first time the second view show up but the text of UITextView don't change, when i back on the FirstView ([self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES];) and then again tap the button to switch again to secondView the text of UITextView change..... Sorry for long thread and for my bad english!! Thank you stack!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313 314 315 316 317  | Next Page >