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  • Calling an Overridden Method from a Parent-Class Constructor

    - by Vaibhav Bajpai
    I tried calling an overridden method from a constructor of a parent class and noticed different behavior across languages. C++ - echoes A.foo() class A{ public: A(){foo();} virtual void foo(){cout<<"A.foo()";} }; class B : public A{ public: B(){} void foo(){cout<<"B.foo()";} }; int main(){ B *b = new B(); } Java - echoes B.foo() class A{ public A(){foo();} public void foo(){System.out.println("A.foo()");} } class B extends A{ public void foo(){System.out.println("B.foo()");} } class Demo{ public static void main(String args[]){ B b = new B(); } } C# - echoes B.foo() class A{ public A(){foo();} public virtual void foo(){Console.WriteLine("A.foo()");} } class B : A{ public override void foo(){Console.WriteLine("B.foo()");} } class MainClass { public static void Main (string[] args) { B b = new B(); } } I realize that in C++ objects are created from top-most parent going down the hierarchy, so when the constructor calls the overridden method, B does not even exist, so it calls the A' version of the method. However, I am not sure why I am getting different behavior in Java and C#.

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  • EF code first error "The specified index already exists. [ IX_Id ]" for object tree

    - by PascalN
    Using EF code first 4.3 I'm trying to model an object tree with a required-required relationships and a required-optional relationships. Here is a simple representation of those classes public class Top { public int Id { get; set; } public virtual Middle Middle { get; set; } } public class Middle { public int Id { get; set; } public virtual Child Child { get; set; } } public class Child { public int Id { get; set; } } Here is the OnModelCreating code modelBuilder.Entity<Top>().HasRequired(t => t.Middle).WithRequiredPrincipal().WillCascadeOnDelete(); modelBuilder.Entity<Middle>().HasRequired(t => t.Child).WithOptional().WillCascadeOnDelete(); This produces the error "The specified index already exists. [ IX_Id ]" on SQLCE After checking the db schema, both model binder fluent API configuration lines create an index IX_Id on the table Middles. Does anyone know how to work around that problem? Is there a way to set the index name? Thank you! Pascal

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  • How to catch this low level MySQL (?) error in PHP/Magento

    - by andnil
    When I'm executing the following statement in Magento with a really large $sku, the execution terminates without any errors thrown what so ever. There are no errors in either Magento's, Apache's or PHP's error logs. Mage::getModel('catalog/product')-loadByAttribute('sku', $sku); Question: How do I catch the error? I've tried to set custom error handlers, and for testing purposes I've also managed to trigger error situations where each of the error handler functions are invoked. But when running the previously mentioned Magento code with a large $sku, none of the error handling functions are executed. error_reporting( -1 ); set_error_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureNormal' ) ); set_exception_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureException' ) ); register_shutdown_function( array( 'Error', 'captureShutdown' ) ); For completeness, this is the $sku I'm passing to loadByAttribute(). (The sku is invalid, but that is not the issue) 1- 9685 0102046|1- 9685 1212100|1- 9685 1212092|1- 9685 1212096|1- 9685 1102100|1- 9685 1102108|1- 9685 1102112|1- 9685 1102092|1- 9685 0102048|1- 9685 0102054|1- 9685 0102056|1- 9685 0102058|1- 9685 1212104|1- 9685 1212108|1- 9685 0212058|1- 9685 0104050|1- 9685 0212050|1- 9685 0212056|1- 9685 0212044|1- 9685 0212048|1- 9685 0212052|1- 9685 0212054|1- 9685 1102104|1- 9685 1102124 Any insight into this matter is much appreciated! Update: Upon further investigation, this is the exact point in the code where execution terminates. when the foreach is executed I guess Magento goes into MySQL world and starts loading up data from the database. \Mage\Catalog\Model\Abstract.php public function loadByAttribute($attribute, $value, $additionalAttributes = '*') { $collection = $this->getResourceCollection() ->addAttributeToSelect($additionalAttributes) ->addAttributeToFilter($attribute, $value) ->setPage(1,1); foreach ($collection as $object) { // <--------------- HERE return $object; } return false; } Note, I'm ONLY interested in finding out how to properly CATCH these kinds of errors, not "fix" the logic. This is so that I can present a proper error message to the user. The example above with the malformed sku is contrived and I have no desire to make my Magento app work with those erroneous skus.

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  • Force calling the derived class implementation within a generic function in C#?

    - by Adam Hardy
    Ok so I'm currently working with a set of classes that I don't have control over in some pretty generic functions using these objects. Instead of writing literally tens of functions that essentially do the same thing for each class I decided to use a generic function instead. Now the classes I'm dealing with are a little weird in that the derived classes share many of the same properties but the base class that they are derived from doesn't. One such property example is .Parent which exists on a huge number of derived classes but not on the base class and it is this property that I need to use. For ease of understanding I've created a small example as follows: class StandardBaseClass {} // These are simulating the SMO objects class StandardDerivedClass : StandardBaseClass { public object Parent { get; set; } } static class Extensions { public static object GetParent(this StandardDerivedClass sdc) { return sdc.Parent; } public static object GetParent(this StandardBaseClass sbc) { throw new NotImplementedException("StandardBaseClass does not contain a property Parent"); } // This is the Generic function I'm trying to write and need the Parent property. public static void DoSomething<T>(T foo) where T : StandardBaseClass { object Parent = ((T)foo).GetParent(); } } In the above example calling DoSomething() will throw the NotImplemented Exception in the base class's implementation of GetParent(), even though I'm forcing the cast to T which is a StandardDerivedClass. This is contrary to other casting behaviour where by downcasting will force the use of the base class's implementation. I see this behaviour as a bug. Has anyone else out there encountered this?

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  • Ordering z-indexes in an array

    - by Tom Gullen
    I have an array which looks something along the lines of resourceData[0][0] = "pic1.jpg"; resourceData[0][1] = 5; resourceData[1][0] = "pic2.jpg"; resourceData[1][1] = 2; resourceData[2][0] = "pic3.jpg"; resourceData[2][1] = 900; resourceData[3][0] = "pic4.jpg"; resourceData[3][1] = 1; The numeric represents the z-index of the image. Minimum z-index value is 1. Maximum (not really important) is 2000. I have all the rendering and setting z-indexes done fine. My question is, I want to have four functions: // Brings image to z front function bringToFront(resourceIndex) { // Set z-index to max + 1 resourceData[resourceIndex][1] = getBiggestZindex() + 1; // Change CSS property of image to bring to front $('#imgD' + resourceIndex).css("z-index", resourceData[resourceIndex][1]); } function bringUpOne(resourceIndex) { } function bringDownOne(resourceIndex) { } // Send to back z function sendToBack(resourceIndex) { } So given then index [3] (900 z): If we send it to the back, it will take the value 1, and [3] will have to go to 2, but that conflicts with [1] who has a 2 z-index so they need to go to three etc. Is there an easy programatical way of doing this because as soon as I start doing this it's going to get messy. It's important that the indexes of the array don't change. We can't sort the array unfortunately due to design. Update Thanks for answers, I'll post the functions here once they are written incase anyone comes across this in the future (note this code has zindex listed in [6]) // Send to back z function sendToBack(resourceIndex) { resourceData[resourceIndex][6] = 1; $('#imgD' + resourceIndex).css("z-index", 1); for (i = 0; i < resourceData.length; i++) { if (i != resourceIndex) { resourceData[i][6]++; $('#imgD' + i).css("z-index", resourceData[i][6]); } } }

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  • LNK4221 and LNK4006 Warnings!

    - by user295030
    Hi, I basically making a static library of my own. I have taken my code which works and now put it into a static library for another program to use. In my library I am using another static library which I don't want the people who will be using my API to know. Since, I want to hide that information from them I can't tell them to install the other static library. Anyway, I used the command line Lib.exe to extract and create a smaller lib file of just the obj's I used. However, I get a bunch of "LNK4006 :second definition ignored" linker warnings for each obj I use followed by "LNK4221 no public symbols found;archive member will be inaccessible". I am doing this work in vs2008 and I am not sure what I am doing wrong. I am using the #pragma comment line in my .cpp file I have also modified the librarian to add my smaller .lib along with its location. my code simply makes calls to a couple functions which it should be able to get from those Obj file in the smaller lib. All my functions are implemented in .cpp file and my header just have the includes of the third party header files and come standard c++ header files. nothing fancy. I have actually no function definitions in there atm. I was going to put the API definition in there and implement that in the .cpp for this static lib that i was going to make. However, I just wanted to build my code before I added more to it. s Any help would be appreciated. is this a vs2008 configuration issue? or a program issue I am not sure. thanks for the help!

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  • MySQL Join/Comparison on a DATETIME column (<5.6.4 and > 5.6.4)

    - by Simon
    Suppose i have two tables like so: Events ID (PK int autoInc), Time (datetime), Caption (varchar) Position ID (PK int autoinc), Time (datetime), Easting (float), Northing (float) Is it safe to, for example, list all the events and their position if I am using the Time field as my joining criteria? I.e.: SELECT E.*,P.* FROM Events E JOIN Position P ON E.Time = P.Time OR, even just simply comparing a datetime value (taking into consideration that the parameterized value may contain the fractional seconds part - which MySQL has always accepted) e.g. SELECT E.* FROM Events E WHERE E.Time = @Time I understand MySQL (before version 5.6.4) only stores datetime fields WITHOUT milliseconds. So I would assume this query would function OK. However as of version 5.6.4, I have read MySQL can now store milliseconds with the datetime field. Assuming datetime values are inserted using functions such as NOW(), the milliseconds are truncated (<5.6.4) which I would assume allow the above query to work. However, with version 5.6.4 and later, this could potentially NOT work. I am, and only ever will be interested in second accuracy. If anyone could answer the following questions would be greatly appreciated: In General, how does MySQL compare datetime fields against one another (consider the above query). Is the above query fine, and does it make use of indexes on the time fields? (MySQL < 5.6.4) Is there any way to exclude milliseconds? I.e. when inserting and in conditional joins/selects etc? (MySQL 5.6.4) Will the join query above work? (MySQL 5.6.4) EDIT I know i can cast the datetimes, thanks for those that answered, but i'm trying to tackle the root of the problem here (the fact that the storage type/definition has been changed) and i DO NOT want to use functions in my queries. This negates all my work of optimizing queries applying indexes etc, not to mention having to rewrite all my queries. EDIT2 Can anyone out there suggest a reason NOT to join on a DATETIME field using second accuracy?

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  • What is a good RPC model for building a AJAX web app using PHP & JS?

    - by user366152
    I'm new to writing AJAX applications. I plan on using jQuery on the client side while PHP on the server side. I want to use something like XML-RPC to simplify my effort in calling server-side code. Ideally, I wouldn't care whether the transport layer uses XML or JSON or a format more optimized for the wire. If I was writing a console app I'd use some tool to generate function stubs which I would then implement on the RPC server while the client would natively call into those stubs. This provides a clean separation. Is there something similar available in the AJAX world? While on this topic, how would I proceed with session management? I would want it to be as transparent as possible. For example, if I try to hit an RPC end-point which needs a valid session, it should reject the request if the client doesn't pass a valid session cookie. This would really ease my application development. I'd then have to simply handle the frontend using native JS functions. While on the backend, I can simply implement the RPC functions. BTW I dont wish to use Google Web Toolkit. My app wont be extremely heavy on AJAX.

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  • C# MVVM Calculating Total

    - by LnDCobra
    I need to calculate a trade value based on the selected price and quantity. How can The following is my ViewModel: class ViewModel : ViewModelBase { public Trade Trade { get { return _trade; } set { SetField(ref _trade, value, () => Trade); } } private Trade _trade; public decimal TradeValue { get { return Trade.Amount * Trade.Price; } } } ViewModelBase inherits INotifyPropertyChanged and contains SetField() The Following is the Trade class: public class Trade : INotifyPropertyChaged { public virtual Decimal Amount { get { return _amount; } set { SetField(ref _amount, value, () => Amount); } } private Decimal _amount; public virtual Decimal Price { get { return _price; } set { SetField(ref _price, value, () => Price); } } private Decimal _price; ...... } I know due to the design my TradeValue only gets calculated once (when its first requested) and UI doesn't get updated when amount/price changes. What is the best way of achieving this? Any help greatly appreciated.

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  • Best way to import a pack or "system" of new classes??

    - by Joe Blow
    Here's an Advanced question for Advanced developers. So I've written a largish "subsystem". It is essentially a UIViewController called CleverViewController which is a UIViewController. Now, there are a large number of supporting classes (about ten) that do the hard work: perform math functions, image processing, purely logical functions, build images or what have you with thousands of lines of code. (To do this, I simply started a new XCode project / app "Scratchpad" which does little other than load and launch the CleverViewController. So currently it works as an app, which launches CleverViewController. The ten or so classes I mention that are part of the "subsystem" simply sit there in that project/app.) So now, we will use CleverViewController, the new technology generally, in various apps. (Or perhaps friends would want to use it, etc.) What's the best way to "do" this? Have I screwed everything up, and really it should just be ONE (pretty big) class rather than a dozen classes? (I could understand that then as I would simply add that new (big) class where needed, like adding any other class.) Do I have to make a "framework" like the Apple frameworks? (If so, what the hell are they, how do you do it, etc?!?) In fact, do you just have to lamely include all of the dozen classes and that's that (obviously perhaps putting them in a grouped subfolder). What about all the headers and so on? (Currently I just have the dozen includes in the pch file of the scratchpad project.) Shouldn't it be easy to "maintain" this "subsystem" separately and so on? I'm afraid I know nothing about this: if the answer is obvious, hit me over the head and let me know. Thank you for any info on this !

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  • NHibernate Entity code conversion from #C to VB.Net

    - by CoderRoller
    Hello and thanks for your help in advance. I am starting on the NHibernate world and i am experimenting with the NHibernate CookBook recipes, i am trying to set a base entity class for my entities and this is the C# code for this. I would like to know whats the VB.NET version so i can implement it in my sample project. This is the C# code: public abstract class Entity<TId> { public virtual TId Id { get; protected set; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { return Equals(obj as Entity<TId>); } private static bool IsTransient(Entity<TId> obj) { return obj != null && Equals(obj.Id, default(TId)); } private Type GetUnproxiedType() { return GetType(); } public virtual bool Equals(Entity<TId> other) { if (other == null) return false; if (ReferenceEquals(this, other)) return true; if (!IsTransient(this) && !IsTransient(other) && Equals(Id, other.Id)) { var otherType = other.GetUnproxiedType(); var thisType = GetUnproxiedType(); return thisType.IsAssignableFrom(otherType) || otherType.IsAssignableFrom(thisType); } return false; } public override int GetHashCode() { if (Equals(Id, default(TId))) return base.GetHashCode(); return Id.GetHashCode(); } } I tried using an online converter but puts a Nothing reference in place of default(TId) that doesn't seem right to me that's why I request for help: Private Shared Function IsTransient(obj As Entity(Of TId)) As Boolean Return obj IsNot Nothing AndAlso Equals(obj.Id, Nothing) End Function I Would appreciate the insight you may give me on the subject.

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  • Work with function references

    - by Ockonal
    Hello, I have another one question about functions reference. For example, I have such definition: typedef boost::function<bool (Entity &handle)> behaviorRef; std::map< std::string, ptr_vector<behaviorRef> > eventAssociation; The first question is: how to insert values into such map object? I tried: eventAssociation.insert(std::pair< std::string, ptr_vector<behaviorRef> >(eventType, ptr_vector<behaviorRef>(callback))); But the error: no matching function for call to ‘boost::ptr_vector<boost::function<bool(Entity&)> >::push_back(Entity::behaviorRef&)’ And I undersatnd it, but can't make workable code. The second question is how to call such functions? For example, I have one object of behaviorRef, how to call it with boost::bind with passing my own values?

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  • What kind of online hosting do I need for a WCF-based service?

    - by mafutrct
    First of all, I'm not sure if SO is the right place to ask. Please migrate me if needed. I would like to host a WCF-based service so it is available for everyone. While hosting it on my personal, local servers succeeded, I would prefer to move it to an external service provider for various reasons. I'll be blunt: I have no clue about hosting providers. I know there are webhosters, virtual and root servers and several other services. What I would like to know is what kind of hosting I need in my case. I understand that a root server would easily fulfill my requirements, but that is not exactly cheap. The program I'd like to run on the server requires .NET 4, preferably on a windows machine. Access to a folder in the file system is much appreciated (1 GB storage is enough by far). Communication with clients (in form of an applications written in .NET) via opening a port on the server. Traffic is low (<<1 GB/month?) There is no website. Having the provider perform updates would be nice. My understanding is that a virtual server would be a possible solution. Prices seem start at around 5€/month, which is ok for me. However, I read that for these cheap solutions RAM is severely limited (~400 MB), and I'm not confident that is enough to run windows and a .NET application.

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  • Make a PHP GET request from a PHP script and exit

    - by Abs
    Hello all, Is there something simpler than the following. I am trying to make a GET request to a PHP script and then exit the current script. I think this is a job for CURL but is there something simpler as I don't want to really worry about enabling the CURL php extension? In addition, will the below start the PHP script and then just come back and not wait for it to finish? //set GET variables $url = 'http://domain.com/get-post.php'; $fields = array( 'lname'=>urlencode($last_name), 'fname'=>urlencode($first_name) ); //url-ify the data for the GET foreach($fields as $key=>$value) { $fields_string .= $key.'='.$value.'&'; } rtrim($fields_string,'&'); //open connection $ch = curl_init(); //set the url, number of POST vars, POST data curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_URL,$url); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_GET,count($fields)); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_GETFIELDS,$fields_string); //execute GET $result = curl_exec($ch); //close connection curl_close($ch); I want to run the other script which contains functions when a condition is met so a simple include won't work as the if condition wraps around the functions, right? Please note, I am on windows machine and the code I am writing will only be used on a Windows OS. Thanks all for any help and advice

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  • C++ Function pointers vs Switch

    - by Perfix
    What is faster: Function pointers or switch? The switch statement would have around 30 cases, consisting of enumarated unsigned ints from 0 to 30. I could do the following: class myType { FunctionEnum func; string argv[123]; int someOtherValue; }; // In another file: myType current; // Iterate through a vector containing lots of myTypes // ... for ( i=0; i < myVecSize; i ++ ) switch ( current.func ) { case 1: //... break; // ........ case 30: // blah break; } And go trough the switch with func every time. The good thing about switch would also be that my code is more organized than with 30 functions. Or I could do that (not so sure with that): class myType { myReturnType (*func); string argv[123]; int someOtherValue; }; I'd have 30 different functions then, at the beginning a pointer to one of them is assigned to myType. What is probably faster: Switch statement or function pointer? Calls per second: Around 10 million. I can't just test it out - that would require me to rewrite the whole thing. Currently using switch. I'm building an interpreter which I want to be faster than Python & Ruby - every clock cycle matters!

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  • Should I re-use UI elements across view controllers?

    - by Endemic
    In the iPhone app I'm currently working on, I'd like two navigation controllers (I'll call them A and B) to have toolbars that are identical in appearance and function. The toolbar in question will look like this: [(button) (flexible-space) (label)] For posterity's sake, the label is actually a UIBarButtonItem with a custom view. My design requires that A always appear directly before B on the navigation stack, so B will never be loaded without A having been loaded. Given this layout, I started wondering, "Is it worth it to re-use A's toolbar items in B's toolbar?" As I see it, my options are: 1. Don't worry about re-use, create the toolbar items twice 2. Create the toolbar items in A and pass them to B in a custom initializer 3. Use some more obscure method that I haven't thought of to hold the toolbar constant when pushing a view controller As far as I can see, option 1 may violate DRY, but guarantees that there won't be any confusion on the off chance that (for example) the button may be required to perform two different (no matter how similar) functions for either view controller in future versions of the app. Were that to happen, options 2 or 3 would require the target-action of the button to change when B is loaded and unloaded. Even if the button were never required to perform different functions, I'm not sure what its proper target would be under option 2. All in all, it's not a huge problem, even if I have to go with option 1. I'm probably overthinking this anyway, trying to apply the dependency injection pattern where it's not appropriate. I just want to know the best practice should this situation arise in a more extreme form, like if a long chain of view controllers need to use identical (in appearance and function) UI elements.

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  • Delphi static method of a class returning property value

    - by mitko.berbatov
    I'm making a Delphi VCL application. There is a class TStudent where I have two static functions: one which returns last name from an array of TStudent and another one which returns the first name of the student. Their code is something like: class function TStudent.FirstNameOf(aLastName: string): string; var i : integer; begin for i := 0 to Length(studentsArray) - 1 do begin if studentsArray[i].LastName = aLastName then begin result := studentsArray[i].FirstName; Exit; end; end; result := 'no match was found'; end; class function TStudent.LastNameOf(aFirstName: string): string; var i : integer; begin for i := 0 to Length(studentsArray) - 1 do begin if studentsArray[i].FirstName = aFirstName then begin result := studentsArray[i].LastName; Exit; end; end; result := 'no match was found'; end; My question is how can I avoid writing almost same code twice. Is there any way to pass the property as parameter of the functions.

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  • How to get VC# to rebuild auto-generated .cs files?

    - by Jive Dadson
    I imagine this question has been asked and answered, but I cannot find it. I wanted to make a simple GUI to interface to a windows 7 command. I usually use Wx, but since this was to be a windows-only thing, I decided to see if I could whip it out real fast using Visual C# 2010 Express, which I had never used before. Things started off just great. I created a form, put a few buttons and text boxes and such on it, and hit Debug. It came up and ran just like that. No muss, no fuss. So I then designed the form just the way I wanted it, renamed the controls from "Button1" and so forth to meaningful names. But now it's a mess. By clicking around, I discovered that VC# had auto-generated two files called Form1.cs and Form1.Designer.cs. The later contains the bindings between functions and the events generated from user-clicks etc., and the former contains no-op code for those functions, for me to complete. Problem is, the names are all still the original "Button1" and so forth, not the new ones, and the new controls I added after running the first time do not appear at all. I want it to regenerate all that stuff afresh from the finished form. How to?

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  • loading remote page into DOM with javascript

    - by scoobydoo
    I am trying to write a web widget which will allow users to display customized information (from my website) in their own web page. The mechanism I want to use (for creating the web widget) is javascript. So basically, I want to be able to write some javascript code like this (this is what the end user copies into their HTML page, to get my widget displayed in their page) <script type="text/javascript"> /* javascript here to fetch page from remote url and insert into DOM */ </script> I have two questions: how do I write a javascript code to fetch the page from the remote url? Ideally this will be PLAIN javascript (i.e. not using jQuery etc - since I dont want to force the user to get third party scripts jQuery which may conflict with other scripts on their page etc) The page I am fetching contains inline javascript, which gets executed in an body.onLoad event, as well as other functions which are used in response to user actions - my questions are: i). will the body.onLoad event be triggered for the retrieved document?. ii). If the retrieved page is dumped directly into the DOM, then the document will contain two <body> sections, which is no longer valid (X)HTML - however, I need the body.onLoad event to be triggered for the page to be setup correctly, and I also need the other functions in the retrieved page, for the retrieved page to be able to respond to the user interaction. Any suggestions/tips on how I can solve these problems?

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  • how can I make a "downstream only" copy of a file in TFS

    - by jcollum
    I've got this SQL script that needs to exist in two places in source control. I want to have only one real copy of this file and keep a virtual copy of the file in the other solution. One is needed for a unit test and the other for a development tool. The files, should, by definition, always be the same. If they have differences then there's a problem with our process. In Sourcegear I could make a virtual copy of a specific version of a file and keep it somewhere else in the source tree. That doesn't seem to be possible in TFS. Is it possible in SVN? So what are my options here? Branching/merging -- which is what the TFS team says I should be doing here -- means just another step that I have to remember to do. Plus it isn't automatic and I would prefer that this be automated. Is there some way to run an exe on checkin of a specific file? I'm thinking if I could do that then I could do a checkout-edit-checkin of the downstream copy of the file.

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  • PHP dynamic Page-level DocBlocks

    - by Obmerk Kronen
    I was wondering if there is a way to interact with the Page-level DocBlocks. My question is more specifically about wordpress plugin development, but this question has arised also in a non-wordpress environments. The reason is mainly the possibility to easily change VERSIONS and names throughout a large project with maybe a constant definition - but that will reflect also in the docblock.. The following example Docblock is from a wordpress plugin I write - /* Plugin Name: o99 Auxilary Functions v0.4.7 Plugin URI: http://www.myurl.com Description: some simple description that nobody reads. Version: 0.4.7 Author: my cool name Author URI: http://www.ok-alsouri.com */ Is there a way to transform it into : $ver = '0.4.7'; $uri = 'http://www.myurl.com'; $desc = 'some simple description that nobody reads.'; $mcn = 'my cool name'; etc.. etc.. /* Plugin Name: o99 Auxilary Functions ($ver) Plugin URI: ($uri) Description: ($desc) Version: ($ver) Author: ($mcn) Author URI: ($$uri) */ obviously for echo to work I would need to break the docblock itself, and I can not WRITE the docblock directly into it´s own file . In shorts : can I "generate" a docblock with php itself somehow (I would think that the answer is - "no" for the page itself.. But maybe I am wrong and someone has some neat hack :-) ) Is that even possible ?

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  • pathogen#infect not updating the runtimepath

    - by Taylor Price
    I have started working with pathogen.vim with gvim on Windows, following Tim Pope's setup guide at his github repository here. However, I'm running into the problem that pathogen#infect() does not seem to be modifying the runtimepath (as seen by running :echo &runtimepath in gvim). The simple test case _vimrc that I came up with is as follows. Please note that pathogen gets loaded just fine. "Set a base directory. let $BASE_DIR='H:\development\github\vimrc' "Source pathogen since it's not in the normal autoload directory. source $BASE_DIR\autoload\pathogen.vim "Start up pathogen call pathogen#infect() "call pathogen#infect('$BASE_DIR\functions') Neither running pathogen#infect() without an argument (which should add the bundles directory under the vimfiles directory) nor specifying a directory to contain files works. Substituting the pathogen#infect() call with pathogen#runtime_prepend_subdirectories('$BASE_DIR\functions'), which is what pathogen#infect() does fails to change the runtimepath as well. Any ideas that I've missed? Any more information that would be helpful? My repository with the non-trivial example is here.

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  • Tools for Automated Source Code Editing

    - by Steve
    I'm working on a research project to automatically modify code to include advanced mathematical concepts (like adding random effects into a loop or encapsulating an existing function with a new function that adds in a more advanced physical model). My question to the community is: are there are any good tools for manipulating source code directly? I want to do things like Swap out functions Add variable declarations wherever they are required Determine if a function is multiplied by anything Determine what functions are called on a line of code See what parameters are passed to a function and replace them with alternatives Introduce new function calls on certain lines of code Wherever possible just leaving the rest of the code untouched and write out the results I never want to actually compile the code I only want to understand what symbols are used, replace and add in a syntactically correct way, and be able to declare variables at the right position. I've been using a minimal flex/bison approach with some success but I do not feel the it is robust. I hate to take on writing a full language parser just to add some new info to the end of a line or the top of a function. It seems like this is almost what is going to be required but it also seems like there should be some tools out there to do these types of manipulations already. The code to be changed is in a variety of languages, but I'm particularly interested in FORTRAN. Any thoughts?

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  • Strange lazy load problem

    - by JooLio
    public class QuickQuoteTemplate { ... public virtual IList<QuickQuoteTemplateItem> InnerItems { get; set; } ... } public class QuickQuoteTemplateItem { ... public virtual IList<QuickQuoteTemplateItem> InnerItems { get; set; } ... } <class name="QuickQuoteTemplate" table="SA_QUICK_QUOTE_TEMPLATE"> ... <bag name="InnerItems" lazy="false" inverse="true" cascade="delete" > <key column="PARENT_QQ_TEMPLATE_ID" ></key> <one-to-many class="QuickQuoteTemplateItem" /> </bag> ... </class> <class name="QuickQuoteTemplateItem" table="SA_QUICK_QUOTE_TEMPLATE_ITEMS"> ... <bag name="InnerItems" lazy="false" inverse="false" cascade="delete"> <key column="PARENT_ITEM_ID" /> <one-to-many class="QuickQuoteTemplateItem" /> </bag> ... </class> InnerItems collections is set as no lazy, but after disposing the ISession instance, quickQuote.InnerItems is crying "failed to lazily initialize a collection, no session or session was closed". I've even tried to call InnerItems before the session is closed by myself. It successfully retrieves, but after disposing of the session it becomes not initialized.

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  • (iphone) How to access CGRect member variable inside c++ class?

    - by Eugene
    i have a c++ class with CGrect variable and i'm getting segfault when trying to access it. class Parent { //with some virtual functions/dtors }; class Child { public: void SetRect(CGRect rect) { mRect = rect; } CGRect GetRect() { return mRect; } int GetIndex() { return mIndex; } private: CGRect mRect; int mIndex; }; i'm doing CGRect rect = childPtr->GetRect(); from object c code and it segfaults. I printed *childPtr just before the call and rect looks fine with intended data value. int index = childPtr->GetIndex(); from same object c code(*.mm), works fine though. Any idea why I'm getting segfaults? Thank you edit - It's got something to do with virtual functions. (gdb) p singlePuzzlePiece-GetRect() Program received signal EXC_BAD_ACCESS, Could not access memory. Reason: KERN_PROTECTION_FAILURE at address: 0x00000001 0x00000001 in ?? () Cannot access memory at address 0x1 The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB remains in the frame where the signal was received. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal on" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (at 0x1) will be abandoned. (gdb) Somehow, the function is not properly compiled?

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