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  • How to call Ajax to run a PHP file while maintaining PHP & Javascript variables.

    - by Umar
    Hi Stackoverflowers. I'm using the Facebook php-sdk to get the users name and friends, right now the loading friends part takes about +3 seconds so I wanted to do it via Ajax, e.g. so the document can load and jQuery then calls an external PHP script which loads the friends (their names and their profile pictures). So to do this I did: $(document).ready(function() { var loadUrl = "http://localhost/fb/getFriends.php" ; $("#friends") .html("Hold on, your friends are loading!") .load(loadUrl); }); But I get a PHP error: Fatal error: Call to a member function api() on a non-object If I do this in the same PHP file (so I don't use Ajax at all to call it) it works fine. Now I think I understand the reason this is happening, but I don't know how to fix it. In my main index.php file I have a bunch of init and session code e.g. FB.init({ appId : '<?php echo $facebook->getAppId(); ?>', session : <?php echo json_encode($session); ?>, // don't refetch the session when PHP already has it status : true, // check login status cookie : true, // enable cookies to allow the server to access the session xfbml : true // parse XFBML }); So I'm just wondering what is the best way to treat my new separate PHP file getFriends.php in a way where it has access to all PHP/JavaScript session data/variables? If you haven't used the Facebook php-sdk I'll quickly explain what I mean: Lets say I have index.php and getUsername.php, from index.php I want to retrieve the getUsername.php file via Ajax using .load. Now the problem is getUsername.php needs to access PHP session data/Javascript Init functions which were created in index.php, so I'm thinking of ways to solve this (I'm new to PHP so sorry if this sounds silly) but I'm thinking maybe I could do a POST in jQuery Ajax and post the session data? Or maybe I could create a PHP class, so something like: class getUsername extends index{} /*Yes I'm a newbie*/ If you have a look at the php-sdk example.php link posted at the top maybe you'd better understand what variables exactly need to be accessed from a new file. Also on a different note, I'm using PHP to work out page rendering times and it seems that fetching the users name alone : // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } Can take a good 4 seconds, is this normal? Once I get the users details is it good to cache it or something? -Speed isn't as important right now, for now I'm just trying to figure out this Ajax-separating php files thing. Woah this is a long post. Thanks very much for your time.

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  • Menu Control in Master Page fails to use CSS styles

    - by Shaun
    I'm working on a web application that uses ASP.NET 3.5 and C#. Structurally, I have a master page with a menu control on it. The control serves as my navigation, and it gets its items from a SiteMapDataSource control and a corresponding Web.sitemap file. The problem is that some styles do not render properly when you specify the CssClass property. More specifically, the selected and hover styles don't respond to css styles. Consider the code below: <%@ Master Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Site.master.cs" Inherits="Site" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.or/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>A webpage</title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div id="page"> <asp:Menu ID="navMenu" Orientation="Horizontal" StaticMenuStyle-CssClass="staticMenu" StaticMenuItemStyle-CssClass="staticMenuItem" StaticSelectedStyle-CssClass="staticSelectedItem" StaticHoverStyle-CssClass="staticHoverItem" runat="server"> </asp:Menu> <asp:SiteMapDataSource ID="srcSiteMap" runat="server" ShowStartingNode="false" /> <br /> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder id="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> </form> </body> </html> Suppose I had a corresponding .css file with the following: .staticMenuItem { background-color:Red; } .staticSelectedItem { background-color:Green; } .staticHoverItem { background-color:Blue; } What will happen is that my item backgrounds will properly be red, but my selected item will not be green and the item I'm hovering my mouse over will not be blue. This seems true regardless of whether or not I include the style in the head of the master page or in an external file in default theme as specified in the web.config file. If I specify the styles in the asp.net xml like so: <asp:Menu ID="navMenu" Orientation="Horizontal" runat="server"> <StaticSelectedStyle BackColor="Green" Font-Underline="True" Font-Bold="True" /> <StaticHoverStyle BackColor="Gray" /> </asp:Menu> It appears to work properly in Firefox, but the style is never embedded in the html in Internet Explorer. Odd. Does anybody have any insight into what is causing this problem and how to neatly work around it? I'm aware I might be able to programmically determine the current page and select the corresponding menu item manually so it receives the proper style class, but before I resort to hacking C# and Javascript together to fix this functionality, I'm open to ideas.

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  • Share a "deep link" from a Windows 8/WinRT application

    - by Dave Parker
    I have searched using many different terms and phrases, and waded through many pages of results, but I have (remarkably) not seen anyone else addressing, even asking, about, this issue. So here goes... Ultimate Goal: Allow a user viewing a content-based page (may contain both text and images) within a Windows Store app to share that content with someone else. Description I am working on taking a fair amount of content and making it available for browsing/navigating as a Windows 8/WinRT/Windows Store (we need a consistent name here) application. One of the desired features is to take advantage of the Share Charm, such that someone viewing a page could share that page with someone else. The ideal behavior is for the application to implement the Share Source contract which would share an email message that contained some explanatory text, a link to get the app from the Windows Store, and a "deep link" into the shared page in the application. Solutions Considered We had originally looked at just generating a PDF representation of the page, but there are very few external libraries that would work under WinRT, and having to include externally licensed code would be problematic as well. Writing our own PDF generation code would out of scope. We have also considered generating a Word document or PowerPoint slide using OpenXML, but again, we run up against the limitaions of WinRT. In this case, it is highly unlikely the OpenXML SDK is useable in a WinRT application. Another thought was to pre-generate all of the pages as .pdf files, store them as resources, and when the Share Charm is invoked, share the .pdf file associated with the current page. The problem here is the application will have at least 150 content pages, and depending on how we break the content down, up to over 600. This would likely cause serious bloat. Where We Are At Thus we have come to sharing URIs. From what I can tell, though, the "deep linking" feature is only intended for use on Secondary Tiles tied to your application. Another avenue I considered was registering a protocol like, "my-special-app:" with the OS and having it fire up the application but that would require HKCR registry access, which is outside the WinRT sandbox. If it matters, we are leaning towards an HTML/JS application, rather than XAML/C#, because the converted content will all be in HTML and the WebView control in WinRT is fairly limited. This decision is not yet final, though. Conclusion So, is this possible, and if so, how would it be done or where can I find documentation on it? Thanks, Dave Parker

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  • Choosing a distributed shared memory solution

    - by mindas
    I have a task to build a prototype for a massively scalable distributed shared memory (DSM) app. The prototype would only serve as a proof-of-concept, but I want to spend my time most effectively by picking the components which would be used in the real solution later on. The aim of this solution is to take data input from an external source, churn it and make the result available for a number of frontends. Those "frontends" would just take the data from the cache and serve it without extra processing. The amount of frontend hits on this data can literally be millions per second. The data itself is very volatile; it can (and does) change quite rapidly. However the frontends should see "old" data until the newest has been processed and cached. The processing and writing is done by a single (redundant) node while other nodes only read the data. In other words: no read-through behaviour. I was looking into solutions like memcached however this particular one doesn't fulfil all our requirements which are listed below: The solution must at least have Java client API which is reasonably well maintained as the rest of app is written in Java and we are seasoned Java developers; The solution must be totally elastic: it should be possible to add new nodes without restarting other nodes in the cluster; The solution must be able to handle failover. Yes, I realize this means some overhead, but the overall served data size isn't big (1G max) so this shouldn't be a problem. By "failover" I mean seamless execution without hardcoding/changing server IP address(es) like in memcached clients when a node goes down; Ideally it should be possible to specify the degree of data overlapping (e.g. how many copies of the same data should be stored in the DSM cluster); There is no need to permanently store all the data but there might be a need of post-processing of some of the data (e.g. serialization to the DB). Price. Obviously we prefer free/open source but we're happy to pay a reasonable amount if a solution is worth it. In any way, paid 24hr/day support contract is a must. The whole thing has to be hosted in our data centers so SaaS offerings like Amazon SimpleDB are out of scope. We would only consider this if no other options would be available. Ideally the solution would be strictly consistent (as in CAP); however, eventual consistence can be considered as an option. Thanks in advance for any ideas.

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  • Included php file calling Javascript function

    - by Illes Peter
    Hi there! Here's the deal. I've got index.php which links to an internal JS file in it's header. index.php then includes another .php file, which outputs this: + add file. addFile() is a Javascript function defined in the external JS file. By doing this nothing happens, the included php does not "see" the JS function. Encapsulating the JS in the included PHP makes it all work. But I don't want to do it that way. Any ideas? EDIT: here's the source <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml11/DTD/xhtml11.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Archie</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"/> <link rel="stylesheet" href="/screen.css" type="text/css" media="screen"/> <script src="/lib/js/archie.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> ... ... //included php starts here <form action="/lib/course.php" method="post"> <fieldset> <div id="addFileLocation"></div> <a href="#" onClick="addFile()">+ add file</a> <input type="hidden" id="addFileCount" value="0"/> </fieldset> </form> //ends here ... ... </body> </html> and the js: <script type="text/javascript"> //Dynamically add form fields //add file browser function addFile() { var location = document.getElementById('addFileLocation'); var num = document.getElementById('addFileCount'); var newnum = (document.getElementById('addFileCount').value -1)+ 2; num.value = newnum; var newname = 'addFile_'+newnum; var newelement = document.createElement('input'); newelement.setAttribute('name',newname); newelement.setAttribute('type','file'); location.appendChild(newelement); } </script>

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  • How to pass parameters to Apache Pivot's wtkx:include tag?

    - by Andrew Swan
    I need to create a reusable UI component that accepts a number of parameters (e.g. an image URL and some label text), similar to how JSP tags can accept parameters. The Pivot docs for the "wtkx:include" tag say: The tag allows a WTKX file to embed content defined in an external WTKX file as if it was defined in the source file itself. This is useful for ... defining reusable content templates I was hoping that I could define my component in a WTKX file using standard Pivot components (e.g. a TextInput) and pass it one or more parameters; for example my reusable template called "row.wtkx" might contain a row with an image and a text field, like this (where the ${xxx} bits are the parameters): <TablePane.Row xmlns="org.apache.pivot.wtk"> <ImageView image="@images/${image_url}" /> <TextInput text="${title}" /> </TablePane.Row> I could then reuse this component within a TablePane as follows: <rows> <TablePane.Row> <Label text="Painting"/> <Label text="Title"/> </TablePane.Row> <wtkx:include src="row.wtkx" image_url="mona_lisa.jpg" title="Mona Lisa"/> <wtkx:include src="row.wtkx" image_url="pearl_earring.jpg" title="Girl with a Pearl Earring"/> <wtkx:include src="row.wtkx" image_url="melting_clocks.jpg" title="Melting Clocks"/> </rows> I've made up the ${...} syntax myself just to show what I'm trying to do. Also, there could be other ways to pass the parameter values other than using attributes of the "wtkx:include" tag itself, e.g. pass a JSON-style map called say "args". The ability to pass parameters like this would make the include tag much more powerful, e.g. in my case allow me to eliminate a lot of duplication between the table row declarations. Or is "wtkx:include" not the right way to be doing this?

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  • Strange behaviour when posting CGEvent to PSN

    - by Ben Packard
    If I set up a loop that posts some keyboard events to a PSN, I find that it works fine except for when first launched. The event only seems to post when i do something with the mouse manually - even just moving it slightly. Here's the details, if they help. An external application has a list box of text lines, which I am reading by posting copy commands (and checking the pasteboard). Unfortunately this is my only way to get this text. Sometimes, the application pulls focus away from the list, which I can detect. When this happens, the most reliable way to return focus is by sending a mouse event to click on a text field directly above the list, then send a 'tab' keyboard event to shift the focus onto the list. So at launch, the loop runs fine, scrolling down the list and copying the text. When focus is shifted away, its is detected fine, and the events are sent to move focus back to the list. But nothing seems to happen. The loop continues detecting that focus has changed, but the events only work once I move the mouse. Or even just use the scroll wheel. Strange. Once this has happened the first time, it works fine - each time focus moves, the PSN events switch it back without me having to do anything at all. Here's the code that runs in the loop - verified as working: //copy to pasteboard - CMD-V e3 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)8, true); CGEventSetFlags(e3, kCGEventFlagMaskCommand); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e3); CFRelease(e3); e4 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)8, false); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e4); CFRelease(e4); //move cursor down e1 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)125, true); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e1); CFRelease(e1); e2 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)125, false); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e2); CFRelease(e2); And here's where I switch focus, also working (except when first required): //click in text input box - point is derived earlier e6 = CGEventCreateMouseEvent(NULL, kCGEventLeftMouseDown, point, 0); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e6); CFRelease(e6); e7 = CGEventCreateMouseEvent(NULL, kCGEventLeftMouseUp, point, 0); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e7); CFRelease(e7); //press tab key to move to chat log table CGEventRef e = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)48, true); //CGEventPost(kCGSessionEventTap, e); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e); CFRelease(e); CGEventRef e11 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)48, false); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e11); CFRelease(e11);

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  • Openlayers - LayerRedraw() / Feature rotation

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR: I have an Openlayers map with a layer called 'track' I want to remove track and add track back in. I have an image 'imageFeature' on a layer that rotates on load to the direction being set. I want it to update this rotation that is set in 'styleMap' on a layer called 'tracking'. I set the var 'stylemap' to apply the external image & rotation. The 'imageFeature' is added to the layer at the coords specified. 'imageFeature' is removed. 'imageFeature' is added again in its new location. Rotation is not applied.. As the 'styleMap' applies to the layer I think that I have to remove the layer and add it again rather than just the 'imageFeature' Layer: var tracking = new OpenLayers.Layer.GML("Tracking", "coordinates.json", { format: OpenLayers.Format.GeoJSON, styleMap: styleMap }); styleMap: var styleMap = new OpenLayers.StyleMap({ fillOpacity: 1, pointRadius: 10, rotation: heading, }); Now wrapped in a timed function the imageFeature: map.layers[3].addFeatures(new OpenLayers.Feature.Vector( new OpenLayers.Geometry.Point(longitude, latitude), {rotation: heading, type: parseInt(Math.random() * 3)} )); Type refers to a lookup of 1 of 3 images.: styleMap.addUniqueValueRules("default", "type", lookup); var lookup = { 0: {externalGraphic: "Image1.png", rotation: heading}, 1: {externalGraphic: "Image2.png", rotation: heading}, 2: {externalGraphic: "Image3.png", rotation: heading} } I have tried the 'redraw()' function: but it returns "tracking is undefined" or "map.layers[2]" is undefined. tracking.redraw(true); map.layers[2].redraw(true); Heading is a variable: from a JSON feed. var heading = 13.542; But so far can't get anything to work it will only rotate the image onload. The image will move in coordinates as it should though. So what am I doing wrong with the redraw function or how can I get this image to rotate live? Thanks in advance -Ozaki Add: I managed to get map.layers[2].redraw(true); to sucessfully redraw layer 2. But it still does not update the rotation. I am thinking because the stylemap is updating. But it runs through the style map every n sec, but no updates to rotation and the variable for heading is updating correctly if i put a watch on it in firebug.

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  • Actionscript base class in Flex AIR app

    - by Alan
    I'm trying to build a Flex AIR app using Flex Builder 3, which I'm just getting started with. In Flash CS4, there's a text field in the authoring environment where you can specify a class that will become the "base" class - your class inherits from Sprite and then "becomes" the Stage at runtime. Is there a a way to do the same thing with Flex/AIR? Failing that, can anyone explain how to create and use an external class? Originally I had this in TestApp.mxml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:WindowedApplication xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute"> <mx:Script source="TestApp.as"/> </mx:WindowedApplication> And this in TestApp.as: package { public class TestApp { public function TestApp() { trace('Hello World'); } } } That gives the error "packages cannot be nested", so I tried taking out the package statement: public class TestApp { public function TestApp() { trace('Hello World'); } } That gives an error "classes cannot be nested", so I finally gave up and tried to take out the class altogether, figuring I'd try to start with a bunch of functions instead: function init() { trace('Hello World'); } But that gives the error "A file found in a source-path must have an externally visible definition. If a definition in the file is meant to be externally visible, please put the definition in a package". I can't win! When I put my class in a package, it says I can't do that because it would be nested. When I don't, it says it needs to be in a package so it can be seen. Does anyone know how to fix this? If I can't do the custom-class-as-base-class thing, is there a way I could just have it like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:WindowedApplication xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute"> <mx:Script source="TestApp.as"/> <mx:Script> var app = new TestApp(); </mx:Script> </mx:WindowedApplication> At the moment I can't import the class definition at all, so even that won't work. Thanks in advance!

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  • Android: Creating custom class of resources

    - by Sebastian
    Hi, R class on android has it's limitations. You can't use the resources dynamically for loading audio, pictures or whatever. If you wan't for example, load a set of audio files for a choosen object you can't do something like: R.raw."string-upon-choosen-object" I'm new to android and at least I didn't find how you could do that, depending on what objects are choosen or something more dynamic than that. So, I thought about making it dynamic with a little of memory overhead. But, I'm in doubt if it's worth it or just working different with external resources. The idea is this: Modify the ant build xml to execute my own task. This task, is a java program that parses the R.java file building a set of HashMaps with it's pair (key, value). I have done this manually and It's working good. So I need some experts voice about it. This is how I will manage the whole thing: Generate a base Application class, e.g. MainApplicationResources that builds up all the require methods and attributes. Then, you can access those methods invoking getApplication() and then the desired method. Something like this: package [packageName] import android.app.Application; import java.util.HashMap; public class MainActivityResources extends Application { private HashMap<String,Integer> [resNameObj1]; private HashMap<String,Integer> [resNameObj2]; ... private HashMap<String,Integer> [resNameObjN]; public MainActivityResources() { super(); [resNameObj1] = new HashMap<String,Integer>(); [resNameObj1].put("[resNameObj1_Key1]", new Integer([resNameObj1_Value1])); [resNameObj1].put("[resNameObj1_Key2]", new Integer([resNameObj1_Value2])); [resNameObj2] = new HashMap<String,Integer>(); [resNameObj2].put("[resNameObj2_Key1]", new Integer([resNameObj2_Value1])); [resNameObj2].put("[resNameObj2_Key2]", new Integer([resNameObj2_Value2])); ... [resNameObjN] = new HashMap<String,Integer>(); [resNameObjN].put("[resNameObjN_Key1]", new Integer([resNameObjN_Value1])); [resNameObjN].put("[resNameObjN_Key2]", new Integer([resNameObjN_Value2])); } public int get[ResNameObj1](String resourceName) { return [resNameObj1].get(resourceName).intValue(); } public int get[ResNameObj2](String resourceName) { return [resNameObj2].get(resourceName).intValue(); } ... public int get[ResNameObjN](String resourceName) { return [resNameObjN].get(resourceName).intValue(); } } The question is: Will I add too much memory use of the device? Is it worth it? Regards,

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  • c++ class member functions selected by traits

    - by Jive Dadson
    I am reluctant to say I can't figure this out, but I can't figure this out. I've googled and searched stackoverflow, and come up empty. The abstract, and possibly overly vague form of the question is, how can I use the traits-pattern to instantiate non-virtual member functions? The question came up while modernizing a set of multivariate function optimizers that I wrote more than 10 years ago. The optimizers all operate by selecting a straight-line path through the parameter space away from the current best point (the "update"), then finding a better point on that line (the "line search"), then testing for the "done" condition, and if not done, iterating. There are different methods for doing the update, the line-search, and conceivably for the done test, and other things. Mix and match. Different update formulae require different state-variable data. For example, the LMQN update requires a vector, and the BFGS update requires a matrix. If evaluating gradients is cheap, the line-search should do so. If not, it should use function evaluations only. Some methods require more accurate line-searches than others. Those are just some examples. The original version instatiates several of the combinations by means of virtual functions. Some traits are selected by setting mode bits. Yuck. It would be trivial to define the traits with #define's and the member functions with #ifdef's and macros. But that's so twenty years ago. It bugs me that I cannot figure out a whiz-bang modern way. If there were only one trait that varied, I could use the curiously recurring template pattern. But I see no way to extend that to arbitrary combinations of traits. I tried doing it using boost::enable_if, etc.. The specialized state info was easy. I managed to get the functions done, but only by resorting to non-friend external functions that have the this-pointer as a parameter. I never even figured out how to make the functions friends, much less member functions. Perhaps tag-dispatch is the key. I haven't gotten very deeply into that. Surely it's possible, right? If so, what is best practice?

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  • LoaderContext and ApplicationDomain changes with Adobe AIR ?

    - by Tyn
    Hello, I'm currently experimenting with loading external SWF files from both an standard AS3 application, and an AIR application. It seems that the AIR application doesn't act the same way a standard SWF run by the Flash Player does. According to the documentation, the applicationDomain property of LoaderContext is usable in an AIR application too, but it just seems to be not working. I have the following code : package { import flash.display.Loader; import flash.display.LoaderInfo; import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.events.Event; import flash.net.URLRequest; import flash.system.ApplicationDomain; import flash.system.LoaderContext; public class Invoker extends Sprite { private var _ldr : Loader; public function Invoker() { _ldr = new Loader(); _ldr.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onChildOneComplete); var ldrC : LoaderContext = new LoaderContext(false, new ApplicationDomain(ApplicationDomain.currentDomain) ); _ldr.load(new URLRequest("otherSwf.swf"), ldrC); } private function onChildOneComplete(e : Event) : void { var c1ad : ApplicationDomain = (e.target as LoaderInfo).applicationDomain; var inad : ApplicationDomain = ApplicationDomain.currentDomain; trace("Child One parentDomain : " + c1ad.parentDomain); trace("Invoker parentDomain : " + inad.parentDomain); trace("Child One has Invoker : " + c1ad.hasDefinition("Invoker")); trace("Invoker has Invoker : " + inad.hasDefinition("Invoker")); } } } Compiling this code as an SWF file and launching it with the Flash Player does this output, which seems right : Child One parentDomain : [object ApplicationDomain] Invoker parentDomain : null Child One has Invoker : true Invoker has Invoker : true But the same code as an AIR application does a different output : Child One parentDomain : null Invoker parentDomain : null Child One has Invoker : false Invoker has Invoker : true According to the documentation, the first output (using a SWF with Flash Player, and not an AIR application) is the right one. Also, playing around with this snippet and changing the application domain to others possible configurations (like new ApplicationDomain(null), or ApplicationDomain.currentDomain) does exaclty what the documentation says with the SWF, but does not change the output of the AIR application. Any clue why AIR is simply ignoring the application domain passed to the loader context ? Any documentation about this particular issue ? Thank you very much.

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  • Using Singleton synchronized array with NSThread

    - by hmthur
    I have a books app with a UISearchBar, where the user types any book name and gets search results (from ext API call) below as he types. I am using a singleton variable in my app called retrievedArray which stores all the books. @interface Shared : NSObject { NSMutableArray *books; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *books; + (id)sharedManager; @end This is accessed in multiple .m files using NSMutableArray *retrievedArray; ...in the header file retrievedArray = [[Shared sharedManager] books]; My question is how do I ensure that the values inside retrievedArray remain synchronized across all the classes. Actually the values inside retrievedArray gets added through an NSXMLParser (i.e. through external web service API). There is a separate XMLParser.m file, where I do all the parsing and fill the array. The parsing is done on a separate thread. - (void) run: (id) param { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSXMLParser *parser = [[NSXMLParser alloc] initWithContentsOfURL: [self URL]]; [parser setDelegate: self]; [parser parse]; [parser release]; NSString *tmpURLStr = [[self URL]absoluteString]; NSRange range_srch_book = [tmpURLStr rangeOfString:@"v1/books"]; if (range_srch_book.location != NSNotFound) [delegate performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(parseDidComplete_srch_book) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:YES]; [pool release]; } - (void) parseXMLFile: (NSURL *) url { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; [self setURL: url]; NSThread* myThread = [[NSThread alloc] initWithTarget:self selector:@selector(run:) object: nil]; [retrievedArray removeAllObjects]; [myThread start]; [pool release]; } There seems to be some synchronization issues if the user types very quickly (It seems to be working fine if the user types slowly)....So there are 2 views in which the content of an object in this shared array item is displayed; List and Detail. If user types fast and clicks on A in List view, he is shown B in detail view...That is the main issue. I have tried literally all the solutions I could think of, but am still unable to fix the issue. Please suggest some suitable fixes.

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  • Slow MySQL query....only sometimes

    - by Shane N
    I have a query that's used in a reporting system of ours that sometimes runs quicker than a second, and other times takes 1 to 10 minutes to run. Here's the entry from the slow query log: # Query_time: 543 Lock_time: 0 Rows_sent: 0 Rows_examined: 124948974 use statsdb; SELECT count(distinct Visits.visitorid) as 'uniques' FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime>=1275721200 and visittime<=1275807599 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9 AND Visits.visitorid NOT IN (SELECT Visits.visitorid FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime<1275721200 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9); It's basically counting unique visitors, and it's doing that by counting the visitors for today and then substracting those that have been here before. If you know of a better way to do this, let me know. I just don't understand why sometimes it can be so quick, and other times takes so long - even with the same exact query under the same server load. Here's the EXPLAIN on this query. As you can see it's using the indexes I've set up: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY Visits range visittime_visitorid,visitorid visittime_visitorid 4 NULL 82500 Using where; Using index 1 PRIMARY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visits ref visittime_visitorid,visitorid visitorid 8 func 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where I tried to optimize the query a few weeks ago and came up with a variation that consistently took about 2 seconds, but in practice it ended up taking more time since 90% of the time the old query returned much quicker. Two seconds per query is too long because we are calling the query up to 50 times per page load, with different time periods. Could the quick behavior be due to the query being saved in the query cache? I tried running 'RESET QUERY CACHE' and 'FLUSH TABLES' between my benchmark tests and I was still getting quick results most of the time. Note: last night while running the query I got an error: Unable to save result set. My initial research shows that may be due to a corrupt table that needs repair. Could this be the reason for the behavior I'm seeing? In case you want server info: Accessing via PHP 4.4.4 MySQL 4.1.22 All tables are InnoDB We run optimize table on all tables weekly The sum of both the tables used in the query is 500 MB MySQL config: key_buffer = 350M max_allowed_packet = 16M thread_stack = 128K sort_buffer = 14M read_buffer = 1M bulk_insert_buffer_size = 400M set-variable = max_connections=150 query_cache_limit = 1048576 query_cache_size = 50777216 query_cache_type = 1 tmp_table_size = 203554432 table_cache = 120 thread_cache_size = 4 wait_timeout = 28800 skip-external-locking innodb_file_per_table innodb_buffer_pool_size = 3512M innodb_log_file_size=100M innodb_log_buffer_size=4M

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  • Monitoring UDP socket in glib(mm) eats up CPU time

    - by Gyorgy Szekely
    Hi, I have a GTKmm Windows application (built with MinGW) that receives UDP packets (no sending). The socket is native winsock and I use glibmm IOChannel to connect it to the application main loop. The socket is read with recvfrom. My problem is: this setup eats 25% percent CPU time on a 3GHz workstation. Can somebody tell me why? The application is idle in this case, and if I remove the UDP code, CPU usage drops down to almost zero. As the application has to perform some CPU intensive tasks, I could image better ways to spend that 25% Here are some code excerpts: (sorry for the printf's ;) ) /* bind */ void UDPInterface::bindToPort(unsigned short port) { struct sockaddr_in target; WSADATA wsaData; target.sin_family = AF_INET; target.sin_port = htons(port); target.sin_addr.s_addr = 0; if ( WSAStartup ( 0x0202, &wsaData ) ) { printf("WSAStartup failed!\n"); exit(0); // :) WSACleanup(); } sock = socket( AF_INET, SOCK_DGRAM, 0 ); if (sock == INVALID_SOCKET) { printf("invalid socket!\n"); exit(0); } if (bind(sock,(struct sockaddr*) &target, sizeof(struct sockaddr_in) ) == SOCKET_ERROR) { printf("failed to bind to port!\n"); exit(0); } printf("[UDPInterface::bindToPort] listening on port %i\n", port); } /* read */ bool UDPInterface::UDPEvent(Glib::IOCondition io_condition) { recvfrom(sock, (char*)buf, BUF_SIZE*4, 0, NULL, NULL); /* process packet... */ } /* glibmm connect */ Glib::RefPtr channel = Glib::IOChannel::create_from_win32_socket(udp.sock); Glib::signal_io().connect( sigc::mem_fun(udp, &UDPInterface::UDPEvent), channel, Glib::IO_IN ); I've read here in some other question, and also in glib docs (g_io_channel_win32_new_socket()) that the socket is put into nonblocking mode, and it's "a side-effect of the implementation and unavoidable". Does this explain the CPU effect, it's not clear to me? Whether or not I use glib to access the socket or call recvfrom() directly doesn't seem to make much difference, since CPU is used up before any packet arrives and the read handler gets invoked. Also glibmm docs state that it's ok to call recvfrom() even if the socket is polled (Glib::IOChannel::create_from_win32_socket()) I've tried compiling the program with -pg and created a per function cpu usage report with gprof. This wasn't usefull because the time is not spent in my program, but in some external glib/glibmm dll.

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  • segmented reduction with scattered segments

    - by Christian Rau
    I got to solve a pretty standard problem on the GPU, but I'm quite new to practical GPGPU, so I'm looking for ideas to approach this problem. I have many points in 3-space which are assigned to a very small number of groups (each point belongs to one group), specifically 15 in this case (doesn't ever change). Now I want to compute the mean and covariance matrix of all the groups. So on the CPU it's roughly the same as: for each point p { mean[p.group] += p.pos; covariance[p.group] += p.pos * p.pos; ++count[p.group]; } for each group g { mean[g] /= count[g]; covariance[g] = covariance[g]/count[g] - mean[g]*mean[g]; } Since the number of groups is extremely small, the last step can be done on the CPU (I need those values on the CPU, anyway). The first step is actually just a segmented reduction, but with the segments scattered around. So the first idea I came up with, was to first sort the points by their groups. I thought about a simple bucket sort using atomic_inc to compute bucket sizes and per-point relocation indices (got a better idea for sorting?, atomics may not be the best idea). After that they're sorted by groups and I could possibly come up with an adaption of the segmented scan algorithms presented here. But in this special case, I got a very large amount of data per point (9-10 floats, maybe even doubles if the need arises), so the standard algorithms using a shared memory element per thread and a thread per point might make problems regarding per-multiprocessor resources as shared memory or registers (Ok, much more on compute capability 1.x than 2.x, but still). Due to the very small and constant number of groups I thought there might be better approaches. Maybe there are already existing ideas suited for these specific properties of such a standard problem. Or maybe my general approach isn't that bad and you got ideas for improving the individual steps, like a good sorting algorithm suited for a very small number of keys or some segmented reduction algorithm minimizing shared memory/register usage. I'm looking for general approaches and don't want to use external libraries. FWIW I'm using OpenCL, but it shouldn't really matter as the general concepts of GPU computing don't really differ over the major frameworks.

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  • apply style to range of text with javascript in uiwebview

    - by drawnonward
    I am displaying some simple styled text as html in a UIWebView on iPhone. It is basically a series of paragraphs with the occasional strong or emphasized phrase. At runtime I need to apply styles to ranges of text. There are a few similar scenarios, one of which is highlighting search results. If the user has searched for "something" I would like to change the background color behind occurrences of the word, then later restore the original background. Is it possible to apply styles to ranges of text using javascript? A key part of this is also being able to unset the styles. There seem to be two likely paths to follow. One would be modifying some html in Objective-C and passing it through javascript as the new innerHTML of some container. The other would be to use javascript to directly manipulate DOM nodes. I could manipulate html, but that sounds tedious in Objective-C so I would rather manipulate the DOM if that is a reasonable approach. I am not that familiar with javascript and DOM so I do not know if it is a reasonable approach. I wrote some routines to translate between text ranges and node ranges with offsets. So if I start with text range 100-200 and that starts in one paragraph and ends in a third, I can get the text nodes and the offsets within the nodes that represent the given text range. I just need a way to split a text node at an offset in the text. Currently I just apply styles to the paragraphs containing the text range. A few notes: straight javascript please, no external frameworks like jquery. the changes never need to be written to disk. the changes should be undoable or at least removable. the styles to apply already exist in a css file. it needs to work in iPhone 3.0 and forward. all the source files are shipped with the app. please be verbose. Thanks for any suggestions.

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  • Why does firefox round-trip to the server to determine whether my files are modifed?

    - by erikkallen
    I have some static content on my web site that I have set up caching for (using Asp.NET MVC). According to Firebug, the first time I open the page, Firefox sends this request: GET /CoreContent/Core.css?asm=0.7.3614.34951 Host: 127.0.0.1:3916 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.5) Gecko/20091102 Firefox/3.5.5 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept: text/css,*/*;q=0.1 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://127.0.0.1:3916/Edit/1/101 Cookie: .ASPXAUTH=52312E5A802C1A079E2BA29AA2BFBC5A38058977B84452D62ED52855D4164659B4307661EC73A307BFFB2ED3871C67CB3A9AAFDB3A75A99AC0A21C63A6AADE9A11A7138C672E75125D9FF3EFFBD9BF62 Pragma: no-cache Cache-Control: no-cache Which my server replies to with this: Server: ASP.NET Development Server/9.0.0.0 Date: Mon, 23 Nov 2009 18:44:41 GMT X-AspNet-Version: 2.0.50727 X-AspNetMvc-Version: 1.0 Cache-Control: public, max-age=31535671 Expires: Tue, 23 Nov 2010 18:39:12 GMT Last-Modified: Mon, 23 Nov 2009 18:39:12 GMT Vary: * Content-Type: text/css Content-Length: 15006 Connection: Close So far, so good. However, if I refresh Firefox (not a cache-clearing refresh, just a normal one), during that refresh cycle Firefox will once again go to the server with this request: GET /CoreContent/Core.css?asm=0.7.3614.34951 Host: 127.0.0.1:3916 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.5) Gecko/20091102 Firefox/3.5.5 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept: text/css,*/*;q=0.1 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://127.0.0.1:3916/Edit/1/101 Cookie: .ASPXAUTH=52312E5A802C1A079E2BA29AA2BFBC5A38058977B84452D62ED52855D4164659B4307661EC73A307BFFB2ED3871C67CB3A9AAFDB3A75A99AC0A21C63A6AADE9A11A7138C672E75125D9FF3EFFBD9BF62 If-Modified-Since: Mon, 23 Nov 2009 18:39:20 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=0 to which my server responds 304 Not Modified. Why does Firefox issue this second request? In the first response, I said that the cache does not expire for a year (I intend to use query parameters whenever things change). Do I have to add another response header to prevent this extra roundtrip? Edit: It does not matter whether I press refresh, or whether I go to the page again (or a different URL, which references the same external files). Firefox does the same again. Also, I don't claim this to be a bug in FF, I just wonder if there is another header I can set which means "This document will never change, don't bother me again".

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  • How to use Facebook graph API to retrieve fan photos uploaded to wall of fan page?

    - by Joe
    I am creating an external photo gallery using PHP and the Facebook graph API. It pulls thumbnails as well as the large image from albums on our Facebook Fan Page. Everything works perfect, except I'm only able to retrieve photos that an ADMIN posts to our page. (graph.facebook.com/myalbumid/photos) Is there a way to use graph api to load publicy uploaded photos from fans? I want to retrieve the pictures from the "Photos from" album, but trying to get the ID for the graph query is not like other albums... it looks like this: http://www.facebook.com/media/set/?set=o.116860675007039 Another note: The only way i've come close to retreiving this data is by using the "feed" option.. ie: graph.facebook.com/pageid/feed EDIT: This is about as far as I could get- it works, but has certain issues stated below. Maybe someone could expand on this, or provide a better solution. (Using FB PHP SDK) <?php require_once ('config.php'); // get all photos for album $photos = $facebook->api("/YourID/tagged"); $maxitem =10; $count = 0; foreach($photos['data'] as $photo) { if ($photo['type'] == "photo"): echo "<img src='{$photo['picture']}' />", "<br />"; endif; $count+= 1; if ($count >= "$maxitem") break; } ?> Issues with this: 1) The fact that I don't know a method for graph querying specific "types" of Tags, I had to run a conditional statement to display photos. 2) You cannot effectively use the "?limit=#" with this, because as I said the "tagged" query contains all types (photo, video, and status). So if you are going for a photo gallery and wish to avoid running an entire query by using ?limit, you will lose images. 3) The only content that shows up in the "tagged" query is from people that are not Admins of the page. This isn't the end of the world, but I don't understand why Facebook wouldn't allow yourself to be shown in this data as long as you posted it "as yourself" and not as the page.

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  • Mercurial local repository backup

    - by Ricket
    I'm a big fan of backing things up. I keep my important school essays and such in a folder of my Dropbox. I make sure that all of my photos are duplicated to an external drive. I have a home server where I keep important files mirrored across two drives inside the server (like a software RAID 1). So for my code, I have always used Subversion to back it up. I keep the trunk folder with a stable copy of my application, but then I create a branch named with my username, and inside there is my working copy. I make very few changes between commits to that branch, with the understanding that the code in there is my backup. Now I'm looking into Mercurial, and I must admit I haven't truly used it yet so I may have this all wrong. But it seems to me that you have a server-side repository, and then you clone it to a working directory in the form of a local repository. Then as you work on something, you make commits to that local repository, and when things are in a state to be shared with others, you hg push to the parent repository on the server. Between pushes of stable, tested, bug-free code, where is the backup? After doing some thinking, I've come to the conclusion that it is not meant for backup purposes and it assumes you've handled that on your own. I guess I need to keep my Mercurial local repositories in my dropbox or some other backed-up location, since my in-progress code is not pushed to the server. Is this pretty much it, or have I missed something? If you use Mercurial, how do you backup your local repositories? If you had turned on your computer this morning and your hard drive went up in flames (or, more likely, the read head went bad, or the OS corrupted itself, ...), what would be lost? If you spent the past week developing a module, writing test cases for it, documenting and commenting it, and then a virus wipes your local repository away, isn't that the only copy? So then on the flip side, do you create a remote repository for every local repository and push to it all the time? How do you find a balance? How do you ensure your code is backed up? Where is the line between using Mercurial as backup, and using a local filesystem backup utility to keep your local repositories safe?

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  • Converting C source to C++

    - by Barry Kelly
    How would you go about converting a reasonably large (300K), fairly mature C codebase to C++? The kind of C I have in mind is split into files roughly corresponding to modules (i.e. less granular than a typical OO class-based decomposition), using internal linkage in lieu private functions and data, and external linkage for public functions and data. Global variables are used extensively for communication between the modules. There is a very extensive integration test suite available, but no unit (i.e. module) level tests. I have in mind a general strategy: Compile everything in C++'s C subset and get that working. Convert modules into huge classes, so that all the cross-references are scoped by a class name, but leaving all functions and data as static members, and get that working. Convert huge classes into instances with appropriate constructors and initialized cross-references; replace static member accesses with indirect accesses as appropriate; and get that working. Now, approach the project as an ill-factored OO application, and write unit tests where dependencies are tractable, and decompose into separate classes where they are not; the goal here would be to move from one working program to another at each transformation. Obviously, this would be quite a bit of work. Are there any case studies / war stories out there on this kind of translation? Alternative strategies? Other useful advice? Note 1: the program is a compiler, and probably millions of other programs rely on its behaviour not changing, so wholesale rewriting is pretty much not an option. Note 2: the source is nearly 20 years old, and has perhaps 30% code churn (lines modified + added / previous total lines) per year. It is heavily maintained and extended, in other words. Thus, one of the goals would be to increase mantainability. [For the sake of the question, assume that translation into C++ is mandatory, and that leaving it in C is not an option. The point of adding this condition is to weed out the "leave it in C" answers.]

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  • c++ class member functions instatiated by traits

    - by Jive Dadson
    I am reluctant to say I can't figure this out, but I can't figure this out. I've googled and searched stackoverflow, and come up empty. The abstract, and possibly overly vague form of the question is, how can I use the traits-pattern to instantiate non-virtual member functions? The question came up while modernizing a set of multivariate function optimizers that I wrote more than 10 years ago. The optimizers all operate by selecting a straight-line path through the parameter space away from the current best point (the "update"), then finding a better point on that line (the "line search"), then testing for the "done" condition, and if not done, iterating. There are different methods for doing the update, the line-search, and conceivably for the done test, and other things. Mix and match. Different update formulae require different state-variable data. For example, the LMQN update requires a vector, and the BFGS update requires a matrix. If evaluating gradients is cheap, the line-search should do so. If not, it should use function evaluations only. Some methods require more accurate line-searches than others. Those are just some examples. The original version instantiates several of the combinations by means of virtual functions. Some traits are selected by setting mode bits that are tested at runtime. Yuck. It would be trivial to define the traits with #define's and the member functions with #ifdef's and macros. But that's so twenty years ago. It bugs me that I cannot figure out a whiz-bang modern way. If there were only one trait that varied, I could use the curiously recurring template pattern. But I see no way to extend that to arbitrary combinations of traits. I tried doing it using boost::enable_if, etc.. The specialized state info was easy. I managed to get the functions done, but only by resorting to non-friend external functions that have the this-pointer as a parameter. I never even figured out how to make the functions friends, much less member functions. The compiler (vc++ 2008) always complained that things didn't match. I would yell, "SFINAE, you moron!" but the moron is probably me. Perhaps tag-dispatch is the key. I haven't gotten very deeply into that. Surely it's possible, right? If so, what is best practice?

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  • Execute a jar file using Ant

    - by geetha
    I am trying to create a runnable jar file from java classes using ant. The java classes use external jars. When I execute the build.xml its showing class not found exception while running the java program. Its compiling fine. Part of My source code: <path id="project-libpath"> <fileset dir="${lib.dir}"> <include name="*.jar"/> </fileset> </path> <path id="project-classpath"> <fileset dir="C:/xmldecode/lib"> <include name="*.jar"/> </fileset> </path> <target name="compile" depends="prepare"> <javac srcdir="${src.dir}" destdir="${classes.dir}"> <classpath refid="project-classpath"/> </javac> </target> <target name="jar" depends="compile"> <copy todir="${classes.dir}"> <fileset dir="C:/xmldecode/lib"/> </copy> <pathconvert property="mf.classpath" pathsep=";"> <path refid="project-classpath" /> <flattenmapper /> </pathconvert> <jar destfile="${jar.dir}/${ant.project.name}.jar" basedir="${classes.dir}"> <manifest> <attribute name="Main-Class" value="${main-class}"/> <attribute name="Class-Path" value="${mf.classpath}"/> </manifest> </jar> </target> <target name="run" depends="jar"> <java jar="${jar.dir}/${ant.project.name}.jar" fork="true"> </java>

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  • [CakePHP] I am so confused. What should I write in the default.ctp

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I am learning cakePHP, everything seems alright except that I am very confused of how to make use of the default.ctp and what should be put inside the Elements folder. Here is the default.ctp file that I have been using since my very first lesson on learning cakePHP: (I copied from this URL http://book.cakephp.org/view/96/Layouts) <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title><?php echo $title_for_layout?></title> <link rel="shortcut icon" href="favicon.ico" type="image/x-icon"> <!-- Include external files and scripts here (See HTML helper for more info.) --> <?php echo $scripts_for_layout ?> </head> <body> <!-- If you'd like some sort of menu to show up on all of your views, include it here --> <div id="header"> <div id="menu">...</div> </div> <!-- Here's where I want my views to be displayed --> <?php echo $content_for_layout ?> <!-- Add a footer to each displayed page --> <div id="footer">...</div> </body> </html> But the problem is that the layout will take effect to all web pages that I have created. Let's see the case that I have recently encountered. In one of the .ctp files, I need to use JQuery function and I need to ass some and tags in the .ctp file. Here are the and tags I used: <Script language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { // some functions here }); </Script> <style type="text/css"> { #toppage{ width:800px; } But when I followed the default.ctp file, I noticed that these tags (i.e. and ) happened to appear below the tag. As far as I know, the and self-defined Javascript functions should be put inside the tag of the HTML instead. I have considered to add the and in the default.ctp file, but then these codes would appear in every web pages instead of just a particular web page. Please help.

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  • JavaScript code inside UpdatePanel

    - by Ed Woodcock
    Ok: I've got an UpdatePanel on an aspx page that contains a single Placeholder. Inside this placeholder I'm appending one of a selection of usercontrols depending on certain external conditions (this is a configuration page). In each of these usercontrols there is a bindUcEvents() javascript function that binds the various jQuery and javascript events to buttons and validators inside the usercontrol. The issue I'm having is that the usercontrol's javascript is not being recognised. Normally, javascript inside an updatepanel is executed when the updatepanel posts back, however none of this code can be found by the page (I've tried running the function manually via firebug's console, but it tells me it cannot find the function). Does anyone have any suggestions? Cheers, Ed. EDIT: cut down (but functional) example: Markup: <script src="/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ScriptManager ID="Script" runat="server" /> <asp:Button ID="Postback" runat="server" Text="Populate" OnClick="PopulatePlaceholder" /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdateMe" runat="server"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Postback" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Literal ID="Code" runat="server" /> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceMe" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </div> </form> C#: protected void PopulatePlaceholder(object sender, EventArgs e) { Button button = new Button(); button.ID = "Push"; button.Text = "push"; button.OnClientClick = "javascript:return false;"; Code.Text = "<script type=\"text/javascript\"> function bindEvents() { $('#" + button.ClientID + "').click(function() { alert('hello'); }); } bindEvents(); </script>"; PlaceMe.Controls.Add(button); } You'll see that the button does not poput the alert message, even though the code is present on the page.

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