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  • Jetty servlet respons to Ajax always empty

    - by chris
    Hi I try to run a java server on Jetty which should respond to an ajax call. Unfortunately the response seems to be empty when I call it with ajax. When I call http://localhost:8081/?id=something I get an answer. The Java Server: public class Answer extends AbstractHandler { public void handle(String target, Request baseRequest, HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws IOException, ServletException { String id = request.getParameter("id"); response.setContentType("text/xml"); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); response.setContentLength(19+id.length()); response.setStatus(HttpServletResponse.SC_OK); response.getWriter().write("<message>"+id+"</message>"); //response.setContentType("text/html;charset=utf-8"); response.flushBuffer(); baseRequest.setHandled(true); } public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { Server server = new Server(8081); server.setHandler(new Answer()); server.start(); server.join(); } } The js and html: <html> <head> <script> var req; function validate() { var idField = document.getElementById("userid"); var url = "validate?id=" + encodeURIComponent(idField.value); if (typeof XMLHttpRequest != "undefined") { req = new XMLHttpRequest(); } else if (window.ActiveXObject) { req = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } req.open("GET", "http://localhost:8081?id=fd", true); req.onreadystatechange = callback; req.send(null); } function callback() { if (req.readyState == 4) { if (req.status == 200) { var message = req.responseXML.getElementsByTagName("message")[0]; document.getElementById("userid").innerHTML = "message.childNodes[0].nodeValue"; } } } </script> </head> <body onload="validate('foobar')"> <div id="userid">hannak</div> </body> </html> I'm actually don't know what I'm doing wrong here. Maybe someone has a good idea. greetings chris

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  • Using hidden values with jQuery (and ASP.NET MVC) -- not working?

    - by SlackerCoder
    Im using a couple of JSON calls to render data, etc etc. In order to keep the proper key value, I am storing it in a tag. I have this in several places in my code, none of which cause an issue like this one is. Here is the jQuery: The call that "sets" the value: $("a[id^='planSetupAddNewPlan']").live('click', function() { var x = $(this).attr('id'); x = x.substring(19); $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(x); $.getJSON("/GroupSetup/PlanSetupAddNewList", { GroupKey: x }, function(data) { $("#planSetupAddNew").html('' + data.TableResult + ''); alert('First Inside 2 ' + x); $.blockUI({ message: $("#planSetupAddNew") }); }); }); The call that "gets" the value: $("#ddlPlanSetupAddNewProduct").live('change', function() { var a = $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(); var prod = $(this).val(); alert(a); $.getJSON("/GroupSetup/PlanSetupChangePlanList", { GroupKey: a, Product: prod }, function(data) { if (data.Message == "Success") { $("#planSetupAddNewPlan").html('' + data.TableResult + ''); } else if (data.Message == "Error") { //Do something } }); }); Here is the html in question: <div id="planSetupAddNew" style="display:none; cursor: default;"> <input type="hidden" id="hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey" /> <div id="planSetupAddNewData"> </div> </div> In the first section, the alert ('First Inside 2 ' + x) returns what I expect (where x = the key value), and if I add a line to display the contents of the hidden field, that works as well: ie. var key = $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(); alert(key); In the "alert(a);" call, I am getting "undefined". I have looked at the other code in the same view and it is the same and it works. I must be missing something, or have some sort of mistype that I havent caught. Just an overview of the controller events: The first call (/GroupSetup/PlanSetupAddNewList) will return an html string building a "form" for users to enter information into. The second call (/GroupSetup/PlanSetupChangePlanList) just changes a second dropdown based on the first dropdown selection (overwriting the html in the div). If you need more info, let me know! Any thoughts/tips/pointers/suggestions?!?! Thanks for all your help :)

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  • Why is FF on OS X loosing jQuery-UI in click event handler?

    - by Jean-François Beauchamp
    In a web page using jQUery 1.7.1 and jQUery-UI 1.8.18, if I output $.ui in an alert box when the document is ready, I get [object Object]. However when using Firefox, if I output $.ui in a click event handler, I get 'undefined' as result. With other browsers (latest versions of IE, Chrome and Safari), the result is still [object Object] when clicking on the link. Here is my HTML Page: <!doctype html> <html> <head> <title></title> <script src="Scripts/jquery-1.7.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="Scripts/jquery-ui-1.8.18.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { alert($.ui); // ALERT A $(document).on("click", ".dialogLink", function () { alert($.ui); // ALERT B return false; }); }); </script> </head> <body> <a href="#" class="dialogLink">Click me!</a> </body> </html> In this post, I reduced to its simplest form another problem I was having described here: $(this).dialog is not a function. I created a new post for the sake of clarity, since the real question is different from the original one now that pin-pointed where the problem resided. UPDATE: IF I replace my alerts with simply alert($); I get this result for alert A: function (selector, context) { return new jQuery.fn.init(selector, context, rootjQuery); } and this one for alert B: function (a, b) { return new d.fn.init(a, b, g); } This does not make sense to me, although I may not be understanding well enough what $ is... UPDATE 2: I can only reproduce this problem using Firefox on OS X. On Firefox running on Windows 7, everything is fine.

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  • Retrieving the Selected value dynamically in JQuery

    - by Chakradhar
    i have this html, this is generated dynamically based on question number <fieldset id="selectfield"> <label class="select">What ur is Profession? </label> <br> <div class="ui-select"><a href="#" role="button" id="72+_select-button" aria-haspopup="true" aria-owns="72+_select-menu" data-theme="c" class="ui-btn ui-btn-icon-right ui-btn-corner-all ui-shadow ui-btn-hover-c ui-btn-up-c"><span class="ui-btn-inner ui-btn-corner-all" aria-hidden="true"><span class="ui-btn-text">Business</span><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-arrow-d ui-icon-shadow"></span></span></a> <select name="selectedObjects" id="72+_select" data-native-menu="false" tabindex="-1"> <option value="-1">--Select--</option> <option value="769">Salaried</option> <option selected="selected" value="770">Business</option> <option value="771">Self Emp</option> </select></div> </fieldset> click button is <div data-theme="c" class="ui-btn ui-btn-corner-all ui-shadow ui-btn-hover-c ui-btn-up-c" aria-disabled="false"><span class="ui-btn-inner ui-btn-corner-all" aria-hidden="true"><span class="ui-btn-text">Next</span></span> <input type="submit" id="72+_b" onclick="return SaveDropDown(this);" value="Next" class="ui-btn-hidden" aria-disabled="false"> </div> i have written this JS in SaveDropDown(this) function SaveDropDown(button) { var fieldsetName = getQuestionName(button.id)+'+_select'; var select = $(fieldsetName +"option:selected").val(); return false; } the questionname function is function getQuestionName(buttonid) { var splitstr = buttonid.split('+'); var fieldsetName = '#' + splitstr[0]; return fieldsetName; } but its returning the undefined how do i retrieve the select value dynamically. any help is appreciated.

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  • Marionette js itemview not defined: then on browser refresh it is defined and all works well - race condition?

    - by Robert
    Yeah it's just the initial browser load or two after a cache clear. Subsequent refreshes clear the problem up. I'm thinking the item views just aren't fully constructed in time to be used in the collection views on the first load. But then they are on a refresh? Don't know. There must be something about the code sequence or loading or the load time itself. Not sure. I'm loading via require.js. Have two collections - users and messages. Each renders in its own list view. Each works, just not the first time or two the browser loads. The first time you load after clearing browser cache the console reports, for instance: "Uncaught ReferenceError: MessageItemView is not defined" A simple browser refresh clears it up. Same goes for the user collection. It's collection view says it doesn't know anything about its item view. But a simple browser refresh and all is well. My views (item and collection) are in separate files. Is that the problem? For instance, here is my message collection view in its own file: messagelistview.js var MessageListView = Marionette.CollectionView.extend({ itemView: MessageItemView, el: $("#messages") }); And the message item view is in a separate file: messageview.js var MessageItemView = Marionette.ItemView.extend({ tagName: "div", template: Handlebars.compile( '<div>{{fromUserName}}:</div>' + '<div>{{message}}</div>' + ) }); Then in my main module file, which references each of those files, the collection view is constructed and displayed: main.js //Define a model MessageModel = Backbone.Model.extend(); //Make an instance of MessageItemView - code in separate file, messagelistview.js MessageView = new MessageItemView(); //Define a message collection var MessageCollection = Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: MessageModel }); //Make an instance of MessageCollection var collMessages = new MessageCollection(); //Make an instance of a MessageListView - code in separate file, messagelistview.js var messageListView = new MessageListView({ collection: collMessages }); App.messageListRegion.show(messageListView); Do I just have things sequenced wrong? I'm thinking it's some kind of race condition only because over 3G to an iPad the item views are always undefined. They never seem to get constructed in time. PC on a hard wired connection does see success after a browser refresh or two.

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  • PHP Based session variable not retaining value. Works on localhost, but not on server.

    - by Foo
    I've been trying to debug this problem for many hours, but to no avail. I've been using PHP for many years, and got back into it after long hiatus, so I'm still a bit rusty. Anyways, my $_SESSION vars are not retaining their value for some reason that I can't figure out. The site worked on localhost perfectly, but uploading it to the server seemed to break it. First thing I checked was the PHP.ini server settings. Everything seems fine. In fact, my login system is session based and it works perfectly. So now that I know $_SESSIONS are working properly and retaining their value for my login, I'm presuming the server is setup and the problem is in my script. Here's a stripped version of the code that's causing a problem. $type, $order and $style are not being retained after they are set via a GET variable. The user clicks a link, which sets a variable via GET, and this variable is retained for the remainder of their session. Is there some problem with my logic that I'm not seeing? <?php require_once('includes/top.php'); //first line includes a call to session_start(); require_once('includes/db.php'); $type = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 't', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); $order = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 'o', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); $style = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 's', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); /* According to documentation, filter_input returns a NULL when variables are undefined. So, if t, o, or s are not set via URL, $type, $order and $style will be NULL. */ print_r($_SESSION); /* All other sessions, such as the login session, etc. are displayed here. After the sessions are set below, they are displayed up here to... simply with no value. This leads me to believe the problem is with the code below, perhaps? */ // If $type is not null (meaning it WAS set via the get method above) // or it's false because the validation failed for some reason, // then set the session to the $type. I removed the false check for simplicity. // This code is being successfully executed, and the data is being stored... if(!is_null($type)) { $_SESSION['type'] = $type; } if(!is_null($order)) { $_SESSION['order'] = $order; } if(!is_null($style)) { $_SESSION['style'] = $style; } $smarty->display($template); ?> If anyone can point me in the right direction, I'd greatly appreciate it. Thanks.

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  • Multiple Timers with setTimeInterval

    - by visibleinvisibly
    I am facing a problem with setInterval being used in a loop. I have a function subscribeFeed( ) which takes an array of urls as input. It loops through the url array and subscribes each url to getFeedAutomatically() using a setInterval function. so if three URL's are there in the array, then 3 setInterval's will be called. The problem is 1)how to distinguish which setInterval is called for which URL. 2)it is causing Runtime exception in setInterval( i guess because of closure problem in javascript) //constructor function myfeed(){ this.feedArray = []; } myfeed.prototype.constructor= myfeed; myfeed.prototype.subscribeFeed =function(feedUrl){ var i=0; var url; var count = 0; var _this = this; var feedInfo = { url : [], status : "" }; var urlinfo = []; feedUrl = (feedUrl instanceof Array) ? feedUrl : [feedUrl]; //notifyInterval = (notifyInterval instanceof Array) ? notifyInterval: [notifyInterval]; for (i = 0; i < feedUrl.length; i++) { urlinfo[i] = { url:'', notifyInterval:5000,// Default Notify/Refresh interval for the feed isenable:true, // true allows the feed to be fetched from the URL timerID: null, //default ID is null called : false, position : 0, getFeedAutomatically : function(url){ _this.getFeedUpdate(url); }, }; urlinfo[i].url = feedUrl[i].URL; //overide the default notify interval if(feedUrl[i].NotifyInterval /*&& (feedUrl[i] !=undefined)*/){ urlinfo[i].notifyInterval = feedUrl[i].NotifyInterval; } // Trigger the Feed registered event with the info about URL and status feedInfo.url[i] = feedUrl[i].URL; //Set the interval to get the feed. urlinfo[i].timerID = setInterval(function(){ urlinfo[i].getFeedAutomatically(urlinfo[i].url); }, urlinfo[i].notifyInterval); this.feedArray.push(urlinfo[i]); } } // The getFeedUpate function will make an Ajax request and coninue myfeed.prototype.getFeedUpdate = function( ){ } I am posting the same on jsfiddle http://jsfiddle.net/visibleinvisibly/S37Rj/ Thanking you in advance

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  • Directly Jump to another C++ function

    - by maligree
    I'm porting a small academic OS from TriCore to ARM Cortex (Thumb-2 instruction set). For the scheduler to work, I sometimes need to JUMP directly to another function without modifying the stack nor the link register. On TriCore (or, rather, on tricore-g++), this wrapper template (for any three-argument-function) works: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { typedef void (* __attribute__((interrupt_handler)) Jump3)( A1, A2, A3); ( (Jump3)func )( a1, a2, a3 ); } //example for using the template: JUMP3( superDispatch, this, me, next ); This would generate the assembler instruction J (a.k.a. JUMP) instead of CALL, leaving the stack and CSAs unchanged when jumping to the (otherwise normal) C++ function superDispatch(SchedulerImplementation* obj, Task::Id from, Task::Id to). Now I need an equivalent behaviour on ARM Cortex (or, rather, for arm-none-linux-gnueabi-g++), i.e. generate a B (a.k.a. BRANCH) instruction instead of BLX (a.k.a. BRANCH with link and exchange). But there is no interrupt_handler attribute for arm-g++ and I could not find any equivalent attribute. So I tried to resort to asm volatile and writing the asm code directly: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { asm volatile ( "mov.w r0, %1;" "mov.w r1, %2;" "mov.w r2, %3;" "b %0;" : : "r"(func), "r"(a1), "r"(a2), "r"(a3) : "r0", "r1", "r2" ); } So far, so good, in my theory, at least. Thumb-2 requires function arguments to be passed in the registers, i.e. r0..r2 in this case, so it should work. But then the linker dies with undefined reference to `r6' on the closing bracket of the asm statement ... and I don't know what to make of it. OK, I'm not the expert in C++, and the asm syntax is not very straightforward... so has anybody got a hint for me? A hint to the correct __attribute__ for arm-g++ would be one way, a hint to fix the asm code would be another. Another way maybe would be to tell the compiler that a1..a3 should already be in the registers r0..r2 when the asm statement is entered (I looked into that a bit, but did not find any hint).

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  • Inheritance of jQuery's prototype partially fails

    - by user1065745
    I want to use Coffeescript to create an UIObject class. This class should inherit from jQuery, so that instances of UIObject can be used as if they where created with jQuery. class UIObject isObject: (val) -> typeof val is "object" constructor: (tag, attributes) -> @merge jQuery(tag, attributes), this @UIObjectProperties = {} merge: (source, destination) -> for key of source if destination[key] is undefined destination[key] = source[key] else if @isObject(source[key]) @merge(source[key], destination[key]) return It partially works. Consider the Foobar class below: class Foobar extends UIObject constructor: -> super("<h1/>", html: "Foobar") $("body").append(new Foobar) works fine. BUT: (new Foobar).appendTo("body") places the tag, but also raises RangeError: Maximum call stack size exceeded. Was it just a bad idea to inherit from jQuery? Or is there a solurion? For those who don't know CoffeeScript, the JavaScript source is: var Foobar, UIObject; var __hasProp = Object.prototype.hasOwnProperty, __extends = function(child, parent) { for (var key in parent) { if (__hasProp.call(parent, key)) child[key] = parent[key]; } function ctor() { this.constructor = child; } ctor.prototype = parent.prototype; child.prototype = new ctor; child.__super__ = parent.prototype; return child; }; UIObject = (function () { UIObject.prototype.isObject = function (val) { return typeof val === "object"; }; function UIObject(tag, attributes) { this.merge(jQuery(tag, attributes), this); this.UIObjectProperties = {}; } UIObject.prototype.merge = function (source, destination) { var key; for (key in source) { if (destination[key] === void 0) { destination[key] = source[key]; } else if (this.isObject(source[key])) { this.merge(source[key], destination[key]); } } }; return UIObject; })(); Foobar = (function () { __extends(Foobar, UIObject); function Foobar() { Foobar.__super__.constructor.call(this, "<h1/>", { html: "Foobar" }); } return Foobar; })();

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  • How can I run an android frame animation without it skewing?

    - by GameDev123
    I have a small state machine that runs a series of frame by frame animations in an ImageView, in a nested hierarchy of layouts. There is more than adequate space to display each frame of the animation. Each frame of the animation is cropped to fit the minimum amount of area, in order to save memory. If a frame only contains 50x50 worth of pixels then the png is 50x50. There is no transparent padding to keep them the same size. The ImageView is directly within a RelativeLayout, and is anchored to the bottom left with some padding. The general idea being that the character in the animation performs some action, which results in individual frames of the animation growing or shrinking. The issue is that individual frames of animation are skewed, and there does not appear to be any way of preventing this. If I set the source of the imageview directly to one of the frames of animation, it displays fine in the layout manager. I have tried this with Adjust View Bounds set to true, false, and undefined. I have tried using the background and the src attribute of imageview to set the animation drawable, I have tried every configuration of layout manager and setting minimum/maximum size that I can think of, and it still stretches the character on various frames depending on the size of the source png. In essence, all I want to do is say "I want this ImageView to anchor in the bottom left and then display any frame that happens to be in it without stretching or skewing it in any way aside from that which occurred when the frame png's were loaded." Seems simple, but I have yet to come across any way of doing it. Here is the layout of the imageview as of my last test, I had to remove bits of the XML to get it to display but nothing pertinent: RelativeLayout android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_above="@+id/MenuOptions" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:id="@+id/AnimationLayout" android:clipChildren="false" android:minHeight="180dp" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_below="@+id/GameBarLayout" ImageView android:id="@+id/animatedImg" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:visibility="visible" android:baselineAlignBottom="true" android:minHeight="180dp" android:minWidth="200dp" android:adjustViewBounds="true" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" android:paddingLeft="30dp" android:paddingBottom="10dp" android:src="@drawable/idle01"/ImageView /RelativeLayout Here is how an animation is set up: animationDrawable = new AnimationDrawable(); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle01), 16); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle02), 16); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle03), 16);

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  • C++ abstract class template + type-specific subclass = trouble with linker

    - by user333279
    Hi there, The project in question is about different endpoints communicating with each other. An endpoint sends events (beyond the scope of the current problem) and can process incoming events. Each event is represented in a generic object as follows: #pragma interface ... // some includes template<typename T> class Event { public: Event(int senderId, Type type, T payload); // Type is an enum Event(int senderId, Type type, int priority, T payload); virtual ~Event(); virtual int getSenderId(); virtual int getPriority(); virtual T getPayload(); void setPriority(const int priority); protected: const int senderId; const Type type; const T payload; int priority; }; It has its implementing class with #pragma implementation tag. An endpoint is defined as follows: #pragma interface #include "Event.h" template<typename T> class AbstractEndPoint { public: AbstractEndPoint(int id); virtual ~AbstractEndPoint(); virtual int getId(); virtual void processEvent(Event<T> event) = 0; protected: const int id; }; It has its implementing class too, but only the constructor, destructor and getId() are defined. The idea is to create concrete endpoints for each different payload type. Therefore I have different payload objects and specific event classes for each type, e.g. Event<TelegramFormatA>, Event<TelegramFormatB> and ConcreteEndPoint for TelegramFormatA, ConcreteEndPoint for TelegramFormatB respectively. The latter classes are defined as class ConcreteEndPoint : AbstractEndPoint<TelegramFormatA> { ... } I'm using g++ 4.4.3 and ld 2.19. Everything compiles nicely, but the linker complaints about undefined references to type-specific event classes, like Event<TelegramFormatA>::Event(....) . I tried explicit instantiation using template class AbstractEndPoint<TelegramFormatA>; but couldn't get past the aforementioned linker errors. Any ideas would be appreciated.

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  • PHP Session / Array Problem accesing

    - by Chris
    Hello, I have a form that certain data, which then gets calculated and gets displayed in a table. All the data gets saved in a 2 dimensional array. Every time i go back to the form the new data gets saved in the array. That data will be displayed in the next table row and so on. I have used print_r($_Session) and everything gets properly saved in the array. Although i have no idea how to acces the session variables area, floor, phone, network etc wich are now in the array. Without arrays i stored them in a variable for example $phone , and did calculations with it. But now when i use the arrays, i keep on getting undefined index phone etc... How can i acces these variables, been looking at this for hours without getting any closer to a solution. Any help much appreciated. Regards. First page: if (empty ($ _POST)) ( Mode = $ name $ _POST ['state name']; $ Area = $ _POST ['size']; $ Floor = isset ($ _POST ['floor'])? $ _POST ['Floor'] 0, / / if checkbox checked value 1 else 0 $ Phone = isset ($ _POST ['phone'])? $ _POST ['Phone']: 0; $ Network = isset ($ _POST ['network'])? $ _POST ['Network']: 0; / / Control surface if (is_numeric ($ area)) / / OK ( if (isset ($ _SESSION ['table'])) ( / / Create a new row to the existing session table $ Table = $ _SESSION ['table']; $ Number = count ($ table); $ Table [$ count] [0] = $ file name; $ Table [$ count] [1] = $ size; $ Table [$ count] [2] = $ floor; $ Table [$ count] [3] = $ phone; $ Table [$ count] [4] = $ network; $ _SESSION ['Table'] = $ table; ) else ( / / Create the session table $ Table [0] [0] = $ file name; $ Table [0] [1] = $ size; $ Table [0] [2] = $ floor; $ Table [0] [3] = $ phone; $ Table [0], [4] $ = network; $ _SESSION ['Table'] = $ table; ) header ("Location: ExpoOverzicht.php"); ) else ( echo "<h1> surface Wrong - New try </ h1>"; ) ) When i made the php code withotu the arrays i declared like this, and it worked fine. But now there in the array, and i have no idea how to "acces them" $standnaam = $_SESSION["standnaam"]; $oppervlakte = $_SESSION["oppervlakte"]; $verdieping = $_SESSION["verdieping"]; $telefoon = $_SESSION["telefoon"]; $netwerk = $_SESSION["netwerk"];

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  • c++ template function compiles in header but not implementation

    - by flies
    I'm trying to learn templates and I've run into this confounding error. I'm declaring some functions in a header file and I want to make a separate implementation file where the functions will be defined. Here's the code that calls the header (dum.cpp): #include <iostream> #include <vector> #include <string> #include "dumper2.h" int main() { std::vector<int> v; for (int i=0; i<10; i++) { v.push_back(i); } test(); std::string s = ", "; dumpVector(v,s); } now, here's a working header file (dumper2.h): #include <iostream> #include <string> #include <vector> void test(); template <class T> void dumpVector( std::vector<T> v,std::string sep); template <class T> void dumpVector(std::vector<T> v, std::string sep) { typename std::vector<T>::iterator vi; vi = v.begin(); std::cout << *vi; vi++; for (;vi<v.end();vi++) { std::cout << sep << *vi ; } std::cout << "\n"; return; } with implentation (dumper2.cpp): #include <iostream> #include "dumper2.h" void test() { std::cout << "!olleh dlrow\n"; } the weird thing is that if I move the code that defines dumpVector from the .h to the .cpp file, I get the following error: g++ -c dumper2.cpp -Wall -Wno-deprecated g++ dum.cpp -o dum dumper2.o -Wall -Wno-deprecated /tmp/ccKD2e3G.o: In function `main': dum.cpp:(.text+0xce): undefined reference to `void dumpVector<int>(std::vector<int, std::allocator<int> >, std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >)' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make: *** [dum] Error 1 So why does it work one way and not the other? Clearly the compiler can find test(), so why can't it find dumpVector?

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  • How to pass a variable inside a jquery fonction $.each($("abc")...?

    - by Rock
    I'm trying to iterate a bunch of SELECT OPTION html drop-down fields and from the ones that are NOT empty, take the values and add a hidden field for a PAYPAL shopping cart. My problem is that for some reason, the variable "curitem" is not passed inside the each function and I can't add the hidden field like they should. All I get is "NaN" or "undefined". What PAYPAL expect is : item_name_1, item_name_2, etc. All numbers must iterate by +1. How can I do this? Thanks a bunch in advance var curitem; $.each($("select"), function(index, item) { var attname = $(this).attr("name"); var nom = $(this).attr("data-nom"); var prix = $(this).attr("data-val"); var partname = attname.substring(0, 1); var qte = $(this).val(); // i want all my <select option> items that the NAME start with "q" AND have a value selected if (partname == "q" && isNaN(qte) == false && qte > 0) { // item name var inp2 = document.createElement("input"); inp2.setAttribute("type", "hidden"); inp2.setAttribute("id", "item_name_"+curitem); inp2.setAttribute("name", "item_name_"+curitem); inp2.setAttribute("value", nom); // amount var inp3 = document.createElement("input"); inp3.setAttribute("type", "hidden"); inp3.setAttribute("id", "amount_"+curitem); inp3.setAttribute("name", "amount_"+curitem); inp3.setAttribute("value", prix); // qty var inp4 = document.createElement("input"); inp4.setAttribute("type", "hidden"); inp4.setAttribute("id", "quantity_"+curitem); inp4.setAttribute("name", "quantity_"+curitem); inp4.setAttribute("value", qte); // add hidden fields to form document.getElementById('payPalForm').appendChild(inp2); document.getElementById('payPalForm').appendChild(inp3); document.getElementById('payPalForm').appendChild(inp4); // item number curitem = curitem + 1; } });

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  • Trying to pass variable from 1 Function to Another to Put in Array within same Model

    - by Jason Shultz
    Ok, that sounds really confusing. What I’m trying to do is this. I’ve got a function that uploads/resizes photos to the server. It stores the paths in the DB. I need to attach the id of the business to the row of photos. Here’s what I have so far: function get_bus_id() { $userid = $this->tank_auth->get_user_id(); $this->db->select('b.id'); $this->db->from ('business AS b'); $this->db->where ('b.userid', $userid); $query = $this->db->get(); if ($query->num_rows() > 0) { return $query->result_array(); } That get’s the id of the business. Then, I have my upload function which is below: /* Uploads images to the site and adds to the database. */ function do_upload() { $config = array( 'allowed_types' => 'jpg|jpeg|gif|png', 'upload_path' => $this->gallery_path, 'max_size' => 2000 ); $this->load->library('upload', $config); $this->upload->do_upload(); $image_data = $this->upload->data(); $config = array( 'source_image' => $image_data['full_path'], 'new_image' => $this->gallery_path . '/thumbs', 'maintain_ratio' => true, 'width' => 150, 'height' => 100 ); $this->load->library('image_lib', $config); $this->image_lib->resize(); $upload = $this->upload->data(); $bus_id = $this->get_bus_id(); $data = array( 'userid' => $this->tank_auth->get_user_id(), 'thumb' => $this->gallery_path . '/thumbs/' . $upload['file_name'], 'fullsize' => $upload['full_path'], 'busid'=> $bus_id['query'], ); echo var_dump($bus_id); $this->db->insert('photos', $data); } The problem I’m getting is the following: A PHP Error was encountered Severity: Notice Message: Undefined index: id Filename: models/gallery_model.php Line Number: 48 I’ve tried all sorts of ways to get the value over, but my limited knowledge keeps getting in the way. Any help would be really appreciated.

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  • What is the best approach in SQL to store multi-level descriptions?

    - by gime
    I need a new perspective on how to design a reliable and efficient SQL database to store multi-level arrays of data. This problem applies to many situations but I came up with this example: There are hundreds of products. Each product has an undefined number of parts. Each part is built from several elements. All products are described in the same way. All parts would require the same fields to describe them (let's say: price, weight, part name), all elements of all parts also have uniform design (for example: element code, manufacturer). Plain and simple. One element may be related to only part, and each part is related to one product only. I came up with idea of three tables: Products: -------------------------------------------- prod_id prod_name prod_price prod_desc 1 hoover 120 unused next Parts: ---------------------------------------------------- part_id part_name part_price part_weight prod_id 3 engine 10 20 1 and finally Elements: --------------------------------------- el_id el_code el_manufacturer part_id 1 BFG12 GE 3 Now, select a desired product, select all from PARTS where prod_id is the same, and then select all from ELEMENTS where part_id matches - after multiple queries you've got all data. I'm just not sure if this is the right approach. I've got also another idea, without ELEMENTS table. That would decrease queries but I'm a bit afraid it might be lame and bad practice. Instead of ELEMENTS table there are two more fields in the PARTS table, so it looks like this: part_id, part_name, part_price, part_weight, prod_id, part_el_code, part_el_manufacturer they would be text type, and for each part, information about elements would be stored as strings, this way: part_el_code | code_of_element1; code_of_element2; code_of_element3 part_el_manufacturer | manuf_of_element1; manuf_of_element2; manuf_of_element3 Then all we need is to explode() data from those fields, and we get arrays, easy to display. Of course this is not perfect and has some limitations, but is this idea ok? Or should I just go with the first idea? Or maybe there is a better approach to this problem? It's really hard to describe it in few words, and that means it's hard to search for answer. Also, understanding the principles of designing databases is not that easy as it seems.

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  • C++ class is not recognizing string data type

    - by reallythecrash
    I'm working on a program from my C++ textbook, and this this the first time I've really run into trouble. I just can't seem to see what is wrong here. Visual Studio is telling me Error: identifier "string" is undefined. I separated the program into three files. A header file for the class specification, a .cpp file for the class implementation and the main program file. These are the instructions from my book: Write a class named Car that has the following member variables: year. An int that holds the car's model year. make. A string that holds the make of the car. speed. An int that holds the car's current speed. In addition, the class should have the following member functions. Constructor. The constructor should accept the car's year and make as arguments and assign these values to the object's year and make member variables. The constructor should initialize the speed member variable to 0. Accessors. Appropriate accessor functions should be created to allow values to be retrieved from an object's year, make and speed member variables. There are more instructions, but they are not necessary to get this part to work. Here is my source code: // File Car.h -- Car class specification file #ifndef CAR_H #define CAR_H class Car { private: int year; string make; int speed; public: Car(int, string); int getYear(); string getMake(); int getSpeed(); }; #endif // File Car.cpp -- Car class function implementation file #include "Car.h" // Default Constructor Car::Car(int inputYear, string inputMake) { year = inputYear; make = inputMake; speed = 0; } // Accessors int Car::getYear() { return year; } string Car::getMake() { return make; } int Car::getSpeed() { return speed; } // Main program #include <iostream> #include <string> #include "Car.h" using namespace std; int main() { } I haven't written anything in the main program yet, because I can't get the class to compile. I've only linked the header file to the main program. Thanks in advance to all who take the time to investigate this problem for me.

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  • JS Split ( ) to check if substring exists in Array

    - by Javacadabra
    I have an array of products that are stored as Strings in this format productname:quantity. The issue I am running into is that if a user adds one product with a quantity of x it is inserted into the array as it should. However, if they then decide to add more of a particular product a new entry is made into the array instead of checking if the product already exists and adjusting the quantity to the new value. oldQty + newQty. For example this is my array: ["CBL202659/A:1","OUTER9:1","PALLET CARDS:1"] If I add another PALLET CARDS product it creates a new entry rather than updating the quantity of the existing item to 2. New array ["CBL202659/A:1","OUTER9:1","PALLET CARDS:1","PALLET CARDS:1"] I would like the array to end up like this: - updating the quantity ["CBL202659/A:1","OUTER9:1","PALLET CARDS:2"] Currently this is my code: I use the split() method to seperate the String where a colon occurs and store the product name and quantity in two seperate variables. $(".orderBtn").click(function(event){ //Show the order Box $(".order-alert").show(); event.preventDefault(); //Create the Array var productArray = []; //Get reference to the product clicked var stockCode = $(this).closest('li').find('.stock_code').html(); //Get reference to the quantity selected var quantity = $(this).closest('li').find('.order_amount').val(); var item = stockCode + ":" + quantity; var itemCheck = stockCode + ":"; if(quantity == 0){ console.log("Quantity must be greater than 0") }else{ //If no Cookie exists, create one and add the Array if ($.cookie('order_cookie') === undefined) { console.log("CREATE NEW COOKIE"); //Add items to Array productArray.push(item); //Add Array to Cookie $.cookie('order_cookie', JSON.stringify(productArray), { expires: 1, path: '/' }); //If the Cookie already exists do this } else { productArray = JSON.parse($.cookie('order_cookie'));//get ref to array if(productArray.indexOf(itemCheck)!= -1){//It exists so update qty console.log("EXISTS... updating item: " + itemCheck); //var index = productArray.indexOf(item); //var update = productArray[index].split(":"); //var name = update[0]; //var oldQty = update[1]; //console.log(name + ":" + oldQty); //productArray[index] = item; }else{//It does not exist, so add to array console.log("Does not exist... adding new item: " + item); //Append items onto the Array productArray.push(item); } //Update the Cookie $.cookie('order_cookie', JSON.stringify(productArray), { expires: 1, path: '/' }); console.log($.cookie('order_cookie')); } //Display the number of items in the Array in the Order Box $('#order_counter').html(productArray.length); } }); I suppose the real question I am asking here, is if it is possible to search the array for a subString - containing productname: ??

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  • IE is doing strange things with JQuery

    - by Syncopated
    So ... The thing is, the code works in FireFox, no problems. But when I open the same page, it gives me the following error: "Undefined is null or not an object." But when I copy the code to a localhost page, it works fine. Also when I clear my cache in IE it works, but only once, if I refresh after that one load, it gives me the same error. Here is the code: <script type="text/javascript" src="datepicker/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var count3 = 0; var count5 = 0; var count2 = 0; var count4 = 0; $(document).ready(function(){ $('#switch3').click(function(){ $('#switchDiv3').slideToggle(350); if(count3 == 0){ count3 = 1; document.getElementById('switchImage3').src = "images/ArrowDown.png"; return; } else { count3 = 0; document.getElementById('switchImage3').src = "images/ArrowRight.png"; return; } }); ... (this is the code for each item that is generated) </script> And the code that determines the div that should hide: <table width="100%" border="0" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0" align="center"> <tr> <td width="20" align="center" valign="top" style="padding-right: 3px"> <a style="cursor: pointer;" id="switch3"><img width="20" height="20" src="images/ArrowRight.png" id="switchImage3" style="border-style: solid; border-width: 1px; border-color: black;"/></a> </td> <td> <div id="switchDiv3"> <div align="left"> (Contents of the div here) </div> </div> </td> </tr> </table> Any help is appreciated! Thanks in advance

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  • (Strange) C++ linker error in constructor

    - by Microkernel
    I am trying to write a template class in C++ and getting this strange linker error and can't figureout the cause, please let me know whats wrong with this! Here is the error message I am getting in Visula C++ 2010. 1>------ Rebuild All started: Project: FlashEmulatorTemplates, Configuration: Debug Win32 ------ 1> main.cpp 1> emulator.cpp 1> Generating Code... 1>main.obj : error LNK2019: unresolved external symbol "public: __thiscall flash_emulator<char>::flash_emulator<char>(char const *,struct FLASH_PROPERTIES *)" (??0?$flash_emulator@D@@QAE@PBDPAUFLASH_PROPERTIES@@@Z) referenced in function _main 1>C:\Projects\FlashEmulator_templates\VS\FlashEmulatorTemplates\Debug\FlashEmulatorTemplates.exe : fatal error LNK1120: 1 unresolved externals ========== Rebuild All: 0 succeeded, 1 failed, 0 skipped ========== Error message in g++ main.cpp: In function âint main()â: main.cpp:8: warning: deprecated conversion from string constant to âchar*â /tmp/ccOJ8koe.o: In function `main': main.cpp:(.text+0x21): undefined reference to `flash_emulator<char>::flash_emulator(char*, FLASH_PROPERTIES*)' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status There are 2 .cpp files and 1 header file, and I have given them below. emulator.h #ifndef __EMULATOR_H__ #define __EMULATOR_H__ typedef struct { int property; }FLASH_PROPERTIES ; /* Flash emulation class */ template<class T> class flash_emulator { private: /* Private data */ int key; public: /* Constructor - Opens an existing flash by name flashName or creates one with given FLASH_PROPERTIES if it doesn't exist */ flash_emulator( const char *flashName, FLASH_PROPERTIES *properties ); /* Constructor - Opens an existing flash by name flashName or creates one with given properties given in configFIleName */ flash_emulator<T>( char *flashName, char *configFileName ); /* Destructor for the emulator */ ~flash_emulator(){ } }; #endif /* End of __EMULATOR_H__ */ emulator.cpp #include <Windows.h> #include "emulator.h" using namespace std; template<class T>flash_emulator<T>::flash_emulator( const char *flashName, FLASH_PROPERTIES *properties ) { return; } template<class T>flash_emulator<T>::flash_emulator(char *flashName, char *configFileName) { return; } main.cpp #include <Windows.h> #include "emulator.h" int main() { FLASH_PROPERTIES properties = {0}; flash_emulator<char> myEmulator("C:\newEMu.flash", &properties); return 0; }

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  • safe dereferencing and deletion

    - by serejko
    Hi, I'm relatively new to C++ and OOP in general and currently trying to make such a class that allows to dereference and delete a dead or invalid pointer without any care of having undefined behavior or program fault in result, and I want to ask you is it a good idea and is there something similar which is already implemented by someone else? or maybe I'm doing something completely wrong? I've just started making it and here is the code I currently have: template<class T> class SafeDeref { public: T& operator *() { hash_set<T*>::iterator it = theStore.find(reinterpret_cast<T*>(ptr)); if (it != theStore.end()) return *this; return theDefaultObject; } T* operator ->() { hash_set<T*>::iterator it = theStore.find(reinterpret_cast<T*>(ptr)); if (it != theStore.end()) return this; return &theDefaultObject; } void* operator new(size_t size) { void* ptr = malloc(size * sizeof(T)); if (ptr != 0) theStore.insert(reinterpret_cast<T*>(ptr)); return ptr; } void operator delete(void* ptr) { hash_set<T*>::iterator it = theStore.find(reinterpret_cast<T*>(ptr)); if (it != theStore.end()) { theStore.erase(it); free(ptr); } } protected: static bool isInStore(T* ptr) { return theStore.find(ptr) != theStore.end(); } private: static T theDefaultObject; static hash_set<T*> theStore; }; The idea is that each class with the safe dereference should be inherited from it like this: class Foo : public SafeDeref<Foo> { void doSomething(); }; So... Any advices? Thanks in advance. P.S. If you're wondering why I need this... well, I'm creating a set of native functions for some scripting environment, and all of them use pointers to internally allocated objects as handles to them and they're able to delete them as well (input data can be wrong), so this is kinda protection from damaging host application's memory And I really sorry for my bad English

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  • Ajax posting to PHP

    - by JQonfused
    Hi guys, I'm testing a jQuery ajax post method on a local Apache 2.2 server with PHP 5.3 (totally new at this). Here are the files, all in the same folder. html body (jQuery library included in head): <form id="postForm" method="post"> <label for="name">Input Name</label> <input type="text" name="name" id="name" /><br /> <label for="age">Input Age</label> <input type="text" name="age" id="age" /><br /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" id="submitBtn" /> </form> <div id="resultDisplay"></div> <script src="queryRequest.js"></script> queryRequest.js $(document).ready(function(){ $('#s').focus(); $('#postForm').submit(function(){ var name = $('#name').val(); var age = $('#age').val(); var URL = "post.php"; $.ajax({ type:'POST', url: URL, datatype:'json', data:{'name': name ,'age': age}, success: function(data){ $('#resultDisplay').append("Value returned.<br />name: "+data.name+" age: "+data.age); }, error: function() { $('resultDisplay').append("ERROR!") } }); }); }); post.php <?php $name = $_POST['name']; $age = $_POST['age']; $return = array('name' => $name, 'age' => $age); echo json_encode($return); ?> After inputting the two fields and pressing 'Submit', the success method is called, text appended, but the values returned from ajax post are undefined. And then after less than a second, the text fields are emptied, and the text appended to the div is gone. Doesn't seem like it's a page refresh, though, since there's no empty page flash. What's going on here? I'm sure it's a silly mistake but Firebug isn't telling me anything.

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  • IIS6 Log time recording problems

    - by Hafthor
    On three separate occasions on two separate servers at nearly the same times, 6.9 hours seemingly went by without any data being written to the IIS logs, but, on closer inspection, it appears that it was all recorded all at once. Here's the facts as I know them: Windows Server 2003 R2 w/ IIS6 Logging using GMT, server local time GMT-7. Application was still operating and I have SQL data to prove that Time gaps appear in log file, not across two # headers appear at gap Load balancer pings every 30 seconds No caching Here's info on a particular case: an entry appears for 2009-09-21 18:09:27 then #headers the next entry is for 2009-09-22 01:21:54, and so are the next 1600 entries in this log file and 370 in the next log file. about half of the ~2000 entries on 2009-09-22 01:21:54 are load balancer pings (est. at 2/min for 6.9hrs = 828 pings) then entries are recorded as normal. I believe that these events may coincide with me deploying an ASP.NET application update into those machines. Here's some relevant content from the logs in question: ex090921.log line 3684 2009-09-21 17:54:40 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 0 2009-09-21 17:55:11 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 0 2009-09-21 17:55:42 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 0 2009-09-21 17:56:13 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 0 2009-09-21 17:56:45 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 0 #Software: Microsoft Internet Information Services 6.0 #Version: 1.0 #Date: 2009-09-21 18:04:37 #Fields: date time cs-method cs-uri-stem cs-uri-query s-port sc-status sc-substatus sc-win32-status sc-bytes cs-bytes time-taken 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 3078 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 109 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 278 122 3828 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 278 122 0 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 278 122 0 ... continues until line 5449 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 277 122 0 <eof> ex090922.log #Software: Microsoft Internet Information Services 6.0 #Version: 1.0 #Date: 2009-09-22 00:00:16 #Fields: date time cs-method cs-uri-stem cs-uri-query s-port sc-status sc-substatus sc-win32-status sc-bytes cs-bytes time-taken 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 277 122 0 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 277 122 0 ... continues until line 367 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 277 122 0 2009-09-22 01:04:30 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 277 122 0 ... back to normal behavior Note the seemingly correct date/time written to the #header of the new log file. Also note that /ping.aspx returned 404 then switched to 200 just as the problem started. I rename the "I'm alive page" so the load balancer stops sending requests to the server while I'm working on it. What you see here is me renaming it back so the load balancer will use the server. So, this problem definitely coincides with me re-enabling the server. Any ideas?

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  • PXE-E32 TFTP Open Timeout While Attempting to PXE Boot from Windows Deployment Services

    - by bschafer
    I'm running Windows Deployment Services on Windows Server 2008 R2 on top of an ESX 4.0 box. This is the only function of this VM instance, although it had previously functioned as an AD Domain Controller. My DHCP server is running on our primary Domain Controller, which is also Server 2008 R2, but running on metal. Everything was working perfectly until we recently had our backup generator fail during a power outage, causing all of our servers and networking equipment to lose power for a period of time. When we brought all of our equipment back up, everything was working as expected except for WDS. Our network is split up into several different vlans. Now, depending on which vlan the client computer is on, it's behaving differently when attempting to PXE boot into WDS. Our servers are located on the 10.55.x.x vlan, which, due to the nature of it, has no DHCP server active in it. The first computer we plugged in happened to be in the 10.99.x.x vlan, which is supposed to be reserved for network management devices (i.e. switches), but we've been using it occasionally otherwise. That computer gave us PXE-E11 ARP Timeout errors. When we moved to a different computer on the 10.19.x.x vlan (for general purpose use), it finally gets an IP from DHCP, but it presents us with a very stumping PXE-E32 TFTP Open Timeout error. Before the power outage, it didn't matter which vlan a device was on; it would PXE boot and image just fine. I've made no changes to anything server-side. Everything is configured exactly the same way it was on my WDS and DHCP servers as before the power outage. I've tried several different computers, including different models. All of this, combined with the quirky behavior depending on the vlan, makes me think something went wrong in one or more of our switches, probably because of the power outage. Unfortunately, I'm no network guy, and I know very little about how to configure our switches properly. Is this an issue with switches, etc? If so, how can I fix it? Is there some magical option I'm not aware of? Does anybody out there have any hunches? I've pretty much exhausted my ideas. Our main switch is an HP Procurve 5406. We also have 3x HP Procurve 4208 switches. The ESX Server is an HP ProLiant DL380 G6. The WDS VM is currently using the VMXNET3 network adaptor, but we've also tried the E1000 adaptor.

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  • Prevent Windows 7 User Accounts from accessing files in other User Accounts

    - by Mantis
    I'm trying to set up another User Account on my Windows 7 Professional laptop for use by another person. I do not want that person to have access to any of the files in my User Account on the same machine. This machine has a single hard disk formatted with NTFS. User accounts data is stored in the default location, C:\Users. I use the computer with a Standard Account (not an Administrator). Let's call my user account "User A." I have given the new user a Standard Account. Let's call the new user's account "User B." To be clear, I want User B to have the ability to log in to her account, to use the computer, but to be unable to access any of the files in the User A account on the same machine. Currently, User B cannot use Windows Explorer to navigate to the location C:\Users\User A. However, by simply using Windows Search, User B can easily find and open documents saved in C:\Users\User A\Documents. After opening a document, that document's full path appears in "Recent Places" in Windows Explorer, and the document appears as a file that can be opened using the "Recent" feature in Word 2010. This is not the desired behavior. User B should not have the ability to see any documents using Windows Search or anything else. I have attempted to set permissions using the following procedure. Using an Administrator account, navigate to C:\Users and right-click on the "User A" folder. Select "Properties." In the "User A Properties" window that appears, click the "Security" tab. Click the "Edit..." button to change permissions. IN the "Permissions for User B" window that appears, under "Group or User Names," select User B. Under "Permissions for User B", check the box under the "Deny" column for the "Full Control" row. Ensure that the "Deny" box is automatically checked for all the other rows, and then click "OK." The system should then begin working. The process could take several minutes. When I followed this procedure, I received several "Access Denied" errors, suggesting that the system was unable to set the permissions as I had directed. I think this might be one of the reasons why User B is still able to access files in User A's account folders. Is there any other way I could accomplish my goal here? Thank you.

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