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  • HTTP 400 Bad Request error attempting to add web reference to WCF Service

    - by c152driver
    I have been trying to port a legacy WSE 3 web service to WCF. Since maintaining backwards compatibility with WSE 3 clients is the goal, I've followed the guidance in this article. After much trial and error, I can call the WCF service from my WSE 3 client. However, I am unable to add or update a web reference to this service from Visual Studio 2005 (with WSE 3 installed). The response is "The request failed with HTTP status 400: Bad Request". I get the same error trying to generate the proxy using the wsewsdl3 utility. I can add a Service Reference using VS 2008. Any solutions or troubleshooting suggestions? Here are the relevant sections from the config file for my WCF service. <system.serviceModel> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="MyBehavior" name="MyService"> <endpoint address="" binding="customBinding" bindingConfiguration="wseBinding" contract="IMyService" /> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpsBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service> </services> <bindings> <customBinding> <binding name="wseBinding"> <security authenticationMode="UserNameOverTransport" /> <mtomMessageEncoding messageVersion="Soap11WSAddressingAugust2004" /> <httpsTransport/> </binding> </customBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="MyBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> <serviceCredentials> <userNameAuthentication userNamePasswordValidationMode="Custom" customUserNamePasswordValidatorType="MyCustomValidator" /> </serviceCredentials> <serviceAuthorization principalPermissionMode="UseAspNetRoles" roleProviderName="MyRoleProvider" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> </system.serviceModel>

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  • Using Include() with inherited entities problem

    - by Peter Stegnar
    In EF eager loading related entities is easy. But I'm having difficulties including inherited entities when loading data using table-per-type model. This is my model: Entities: ArticleBase (base article entity) ArticleSpecial (inherited from ArticleBase) UserBase (base user entity) UserSpecial (inherited from UserBase) Image Relations are as shown on the image (omitting many columns): In reality my users are always of type UserSpecial, since UserBase is used in another application, thus we can share credentials. That's the only reason I have two separate tables. UserBase table can't be changed in any way shape or form, because the other app would break. Question How am I suppose to load ArticleSpecial with both CreatedBy and EditedBy set, so that both are of type UserSpecial (that defines Image relation)? I've tried (unsuccessfully though) these options: 1. Using lambda expressions: context.ArticleBases .OfType<ArticleSpecial>() .Include("UserCreated.Image") .Include("UserEdited.Image"); In this case the problem is that both CreatedBy and EditedBy are related to UserBase, that doesn't define Image navigation. So I should somehow cast these two to UserSpecial type like: context.ArticleBases .OfType<ArticleSpecial>() .Include("UserCreated<UserSpecial>.Image") .Include("UserEdited<UserSpecial>.Image"); But of course using generics in Include("UserCreated<UserSpecial>.Image") don't work. 2. I have tried using LINQ query var results = from articleSpecial in ctx.ArticleBase.OfType<ArticleSpecial>() join created in ctx.UserBase.OfType<UserSpecial>().Include("Image") on articleSpecial.UserCreated.Id equals created.Id join edited in ctx.UserBase.OfType<UserSpecial>().Include("Image") on articleSpecial.UserEdited.Id equals edited.Id select articleSpecial; In this case I'm only getting ArticleSpecial object instances without related properties being set. I know I should select those somehow, but I don't know how? Select part in my LINQ could be changed to something like select new { articleSpecial, articleSpecial.UserCreated, articleSpecial.UserEdited }; but images are still not loaded into my context. My joins in this case are barely used to filter out articleSpecial results, but they don't load entities into context (I suppose). Can anybody provide any help regarding this problem? I think it's not so uncommon.

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  • WPF MVVM: Convention over Configuration for ResourceDictionary ?

    - by Jeffrey Knight
    Update In the wiki spirit of StackOverflow, here's an update: I spiked Joe White's IValueConverter suggestion below. It works like a charm. I've written a "quickstart" example of this that automates the mapping of ViewModels-Views using some cheap string replacement. If no View is found to represent the ViewModel, it defaults to an "Under Construction" page. I'm dubbing this approach "WPF MVVM White" since it was Joe White's idea. Here are a couple screenshots. The first image is a case of "[SomeControlName]ViewModel" has a corresponding "[SomeControlName]View", based on pure naming convention. The second is a case where the ModelView doesn't have any views to represent it. No more ResourceDictionaries with long ViewModel to View mappings. It's pure naming convention now. I'm hosting a download of the project here: http://rootsilver.com/files/Mvvm.White.Quickstart.zip I'll follow up with a longer blog post walk through. Original Post I read Josh Smith's fantastic MSDN article on WPF MVVM over the weekend. It's destined to be a cult classic. It took me a while to wrap my head around the magic of asking WPF to render the ViewModel. It's like saying "Here's a class, WPF. Go figure out which UI to use to present it." For those who missed this magic, WPF can do this by looking up the View for ModelView in the ResourceDictionary mapping and pulling out the corresponding View. (Scroll down to Figure 10 Supplying a View ). The first thing that jumps out at me immediately is that there's already a strong naming convention of: classNameView ("View" suffix) classNameViewModel ("ViewModel" suffix) My question is: Since the ResourceDictionary can be manipulated programatically, I"m wondering if anyone has managed to Regex.Replace the whole thing away, so the lookup is automatic, and any new View/ViewModels get resolved by virtue of their naming convention? [Edit] What I'm imagining is a hook/interception into ResourceDictionary. ... Also considering a method at startup that uses interop to pull out *View$ and *ViewModel$ class names to build the DataTemplate dictionary in code: //build list foreach .... String.Format("<DataTemplate DataType=\"{x:Type vm:{0} }\"><v:{1} /></DataTemplate>", ...)

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  • Tunnel over HTTPS

    - by ephemient
    At my workplace, the traffic blocker/firewall has been getting progressively worse. I can't connect to my home machine on port 22, and lack of ssh access makes me sad. I was previously able to use SSH by moving it to port 5050, but I think some recent filters now treat this traffic as IM and redirect it through another proxy, maybe. That's my best guess; in any case, my ssh connections now terminate before I get to log in. These days I've been using Ajaxterm over HTTPS, as port 443 is still unmolested, but this is far from ideal. (Sucky terminal emulation, lack of port forwarding, my browser leaks memory at an amazing rate...) I tried setting up mod_proxy_connect on top of mod_ssl, with the idea that I could send a CONNECT localhost:22 HTTP/1.1 request through HTTPS, and then I'd be all set. Sadly, this seems to not work; the HTTPS connection works, up until I finish sending my request; then SSL craps out. It appears as though mod_proxy_connect takes over the whole connection instead of continuing to pipe through mod_ssl, confusing the heck out of the HTTPS client. Is there a way to get this to work? I don't want to do this over plain HTTP, for several reasons: Leaving a big fat open proxy like that just stinks A big fat open proxy is not good over HTTPS either, but with authentication required it feels fine to me HTTP goes through a proxy -- I'm not too concerned about my traffic being sniffed, as it's ssh that'll be going "plaintext" through the tunnel -- but it's a lot more likely to be mangled than HTTPS, which fundamentally cannot be proxied Requirements: Must work over port 443, without disturbing other HTTPS traffic (i.e. I can't just put the ssh server on port 443, because I would no longer be able to serve pages over HTTPS) I have or can write a simple port forwarder client that runs under Windows (or Cygwin) Edit DAG: Tunnelling SSH over HTTP(S) has been pointed out to me, but it doesn't help: at the end of the article, they mention Bug 29744 - CONNECT does not work over existing SSL connection preventing tunnelling over HTTPS, exactly the problem I was running into. At this point, I am probably looking at some CGI script, but I don't want to list that as a requirement if there's better solutions available.

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  • How to make Flash 'play well with others'?

    - by Sensei James
    What up fam. So this isn't a question asking about memory management schemes; for those of you who may not know, the Flash Virtual Machine relies on garbage collection by using reference counting and mark and sweep (for good coverage of these topics, check out Grant Skinner's article and presentation). And yes, Flash also provides the "delete" operator, which can (unfortunately only) be used to remove the properties of dynamic objects. What I want to know is how to make it so that Flash programs don't continue to consume CPU and memory while running in the background (save loading content or communicating remotely, for example). The motivation for this question comes in part from Apple's ban on cross compiled applications (in its SDK 4) on the grounds that they do not behave as predicted with the multitasking feature central to iPhone OS 4. My intention is not only to make Flash programs that will 'pass muster' as far as multitasking in iPhone OS 4, but also to simply make better (behaving) Flash programs. Put another way, how might a Flash application mimic the multitasking feature of iPhone OS 4? Does the Flash API provide the means for a developer to put their applications to 'sleep' while other programs run, and then to 'awaken' them just as quickly? In our own program, we might do something as crude as detecting when the user has been idle (no mouse motion or key press) for (say) four seconds: var idle_id:uint = setInterval(4000, pause_program); var current_movie_clip:MovieClip; var current_frame:uint; ... // on Mouse move or key press... clearInterval(idle_id); idle_id = setInterval(4000, pause_program); ... function pause_program():void { current_movie_clip = event.target as MovieClip; current_frame = current_movie_clip.currentFrame; MovieClip(root).gotoAndStop("program_pause_screen"); } (on the program pause screen) resume_button.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, resume_program); function resume_program(event:MouseEvent) { current_movie_clip.gotoAndPlay(current_frame); } If that's the right idea, what's the best way to detect that an application should be shelved? And, more importantly, is it possible for Flash Player to detect that some of its running programs are idle, and to similarly shelve them until the user performs an action to resume them? (Please feel free to answer as much or as little of the many questions I've posed.)

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  • How to actually use Swing Application Framework?

    - by Joonas Pulakka
    Hello, I'd like to learn how to effectively use Swing Application Framework. Most of the the examples I've found are blog entries that just explain how to great it is to extend SingleFrameApplication and override its startup method, but that's about it. Sun's article is almost two years old, as is the project's own introduction, and there has apparently been some evolution since then. Are there any recent and thorough tutorials/HOWTOs available anywhere? There is JavaDoc of course, but it's hard to get the big picture from there. Any pointers are appreciated. Update: I realized that there's a mailing list archive at the project's site. While somewhat clumsy (compared to StackOverflow ;) it seems to be quite active. Still it's a pity that there are no real tutorials anywhere. The information is scattered here and there. Update 2: Let me clarify - I'm not having trouble using Swing (the widget toolkit) itself, I'm talking about its Application Framework, which is supposed to ease things like application lifecycle (startup, exit and whatever happens between them), action management etc. - that is, things that most Swing applications will need. It's cool to get such framework to be standard part of Java. The only problem is to learn how it's intended to be used. Update 3: For the interested, there was just some discussion at the project's forum regarding the current state and future of JSR 296. Shortly: the current version 1.03 is considered to be quite usable, but the API is not stable and it will change to the final version in Java 7. The package name will also change so Java 7 will not break current applications made on SAF. Update 4: Karsten Lentzsch stated at the above mentioned forum: "I doubt that it can be included in Java 7; and I'll vote against it.". I would rather not question the sincerity of this great guru, and it's certainly wise not to let anything flawed to slip into the core JDK, but frankly it's a strange situation - he is the author of JGoodies Swing Suite which is partly a commercial competitor of JSR 296, and he is sitting in the committee that will decide whether this JSR will be included to standard Java. It was the same thing with JSR 295 Beans Binding which I wrote about earlier. Given the current state of SAF, I think the best solution is to wrap the current implementation into a "homebrew" framework, which can then accommodate possible changes to the existing API.

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  • [Struts2+tiles] How can I make title dynamically?

    - by Lee Domin
    I'm developing BBS in struts2 and tiles(2) framework. I want to push a value in ActionSupport class and pop the value in layout.jsp of tiles. but i just keep failing to access to the value. I will explain my works step by step. 1) Users click a link to view an article at list page. And BoardView class will be called as defined in struts.xml --list.jsp-- <a href="view_board?num=${num}"> ${ subject } </a> --struts.xml-- <action name="View_board" class="board.BoardView"> <result type="tiles">board.view</result> </action> 2)Action class will put title into the value stack... right? --BoardView class-- public class BoardView extends ActionSupport private String title; public void Execute() throws Exception { ... setTitle(board.getSubject()); return SUCCESS; } ... (setter and getter of title) 3) As ActionClass returns SUCCESS, it will go to tiles definition named board.view --struts.xml-- <action name="View_board" class="board.BoardView"> <result type="tiles">board.view</result> </action> 4)Here's the tiles-def.xml and the problem. I think the value of 'title' can't be popped from value stack. ==tiles-def.xml== <definition name="board.view" extends="layout"> <put-attribute name="title" value="%title" /> <put-attribute name="body" value="/board/view.jsp" /> </definition> (I can't indent with tags... sorry) Here's the layout.jsp ==layout.jsp== ... <title><tiles:getAsString name="title" /></title> ... I tried to replace the value attribute to %{title}, $title and ${title}. But nothings worked out. Web Browser just shows the string itself($title). I don't know what to do... please help me. I hope you all understand my works despite of my bad explanation.

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  • IE and Content-disposition inline vs. extension-token

    - by pinkgothic
    Preamble So IE does Mime-Type sniffing. That part's old news. Suggestions of how to combat it tend to be along the lines of 'supply a content-type IE trusts' (i.e. anything that isn't text/plain or application/octet-stream) or 'add extraneous data at the start of the file that is definitely of the type you're serving'. Now, I'm working on an application that has to allow message attachments (like in e-mails), and we want to close up XSS vectors. IE's mime sniffing is one of those vectors - a text/plain file with html content will trigger as html. Recoding isn't an option at this point, changing the attachments the user has provided can only happen if there is absolutely no doubt about the maliciousness of the file - and someone might want to send HTML as text. Now, Microsoft's MSDN article implies the situation might be easier to fix than advertised: If Internet Explorer knows the Content-Type specified and there is no Content-Disposition data, Internet Explorer performs a "MIME sniff," [...] Great! Except I don't have IE nor current means to reliably install it (I realise this is a fairly sad state for a webdeveloper to be in, I hope to fix this soon) and this is grey theory that I can't quite seem to get confirmed one way or the other. Local sources say that line is hogwash - IE will mime sniff anything that is Content-Disposition: inline / <default> and not specific enough for its tastes in -Type. But what about x-* ('extension-token' in the RFC)? Trying to google for how browsers handle Content-Disposition: <extension-token> hasn't yielded anything (though I may just be doing it wrong, my understanding of Google is seriously slipping lately). I found one question that looked promising, but turned out to be a misunderstanding on side of the thread author, meaning that the train of thought was never actually addressed there. Question(s) Does IE really Mime sniff if you expressly pass Content-Disposition: inline? If so: Does anyone here know how browsers handle Content-Disposition: <extension-token>? If they do this in a way that is for my purposes benign, by presuming it to be synonymous with the default (effectively 'inline', though I hear it's not defined anywhere?), is it specific enough for IE not to Mime sniff? Or am I actually shooting myself in the foot by thinking of pursuing this avenue?

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  • Custom Windows Forms Control not exporting functions, not showing in tools list, showing as Text

    - by flavour404
    Hi, I have written a very simple control. C# Visual Studio 2008. Its output should be, and is a dll. I have added a reference to the dll within the project that I intend to use it with. The msdn article about how to write a control states that it should appear in the 'Add reference / projects' list, which it doesn't but I simply navigated to it under the 'browse' tab, went to the /bin folder and added the reference that way. I dragged it over to my toolbox, but it shows up as a 'Text:xhair_tool' and when i try and add it to a form, it won't, so what have I done wrong? It was created as a 'Windows forms control' project. It should export the one method which is 'Target' which return an array, as shown below. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Data; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace xhair_tool { public partial class xhair : UserControl { public xhair() { InitializeComponent(); } private void xhair_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected override void OnPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { Graphics g = e.Graphics; Pen pen = new Pen(Color.Black, 1); SolidBrush redBrush = new SolidBrush(Color.Red); g.DrawLine(pen, 8, 0, 8, 7); g.DrawLine(pen, 8, 9, 8, 16); g.DrawLine(pen, 0, 8, 7, 8); g.DrawLine(pen, 9, 8, 16, 8); //ControlPaint.DrawReversibleLine(start, end, backColor) } /// <summary> /// Returns the point at the center of the crosshair /// </summary> /// <returns>int[x,y]</returns> public int[] Target { get { int[] _xy = new int[2]; _xy[0] = this.Left + 8; _xy[1] = this.Top + 8; return _xy; } } } } Thanks, R.

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  • How to fire server-side methods with jQuery

    - by Nasser Hajloo
    I have a large application and I'm going to enabling short-cut key for it. I'd find 2 JQuery plug-ins (demo plug-in 1 - Demo plug-in 2) that do this for me. you can find both of them in this post in StackOverFlow My application is a completed one and I'm goining to add some functionality to it so I don't want towrite code again. So as a short-cut is just catching a key combination, I'm wonder how can I call the server methods which a short-cut key should fire? So How to use either of these plug-ins, by just calling the methods I'd written before? Actually How to fire Server methods with Jquery? You can also find a good article here, by Dave Ward Update: here is the scenario. When User press CTRL+Del the GridView1_OnDeleteCommand so I have this protected void grdDocumentRows_DeleteCommand(object source, System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { try { DeleteRow(grdDocumentRows.DataKeys[e.Item.ItemIndex].ToString()); clearControls(); cmdSaveTrans.Text = Hajloo.Portal.Common.Constants.Accounting.Documents.InsertClickText; btnDelete.Visible = false; grdDocumentRows.EditItemIndex = -1; BindGrid(); } catch (Exception ex) { Page.AddMessage(GetLocalResourceObject("AProblemAccuredTryAgain").ToString(), MessageControl.TypeEnum.Error); } } private void BindGrid() { RefreshPage(); grdDocumentRows.DataSource = ((DataSet)Session[Hajloo.Portal.Common.Constants.Accounting.Session.AccDocument]).Tables[AccDocument.TRANSACTIONS_TABLE]; grdDocumentRows.DataBind(); } private void RefreshPage() { Creditors = (decimal)((AccDocument)Session[Hajloo.Portal.Common.Constants.Accounting.Session.AccDocument]).Tables[AccDocument.ACCDOCUMENT_TABLE].Rows[0][AccDocument.ACCDOCUMENT_CREDITORS_SUM_FIELD]; Debtors = (decimal)((AccDocument)Session[Hajloo.Portal.Common.Constants.Accounting.Session.AccDocument]).Tables[AccDocument.ACCDOCUMENT_TABLE].Rows[0][AccDocument.ACCDOCUMENT_DEBTORS_SUM_FIELD]; if ((Creditors - Debtors) != 0) labBalance.InnerText = GetLocalResourceObject("Differentiate").ToString() + "?" + (Creditors - Debtors).ToString(Hajloo.Portal.Common.Constants.Common.Documents.CF) + "?"; else labBalance.InnerText = GetLocalResourceObject("Balance").ToString(); lblSumDebit.Text = Debtors.ToString(Hajloo.Portal.Common.Constants.Common.Documents.CF); lblSumCredit.Text = Creditors.ToString(Hajloo.Portal.Common.Constants.Common.Documents.CF); if (grdDocumentRows.EditItemIndex == -1) clearControls(); } Th other scenario are the same. How to enable short-cut for these kind of code (using session , NHibernate, etc)

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  • Pass HTML-DOM to Flex's actionscript.

    - by raj
    Hi, All i want is to pass a HTML-Form (DOM object) from javascript to Actionscript. i saw this article on the net and tried a similar code. But when i execute the code in IE, it alerts : "Out of memory at line 18". I'm stuck here from yesterday. i'll post the mxml and html here.. The MXML : <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" creationComplete="init()"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function init() : void { if (ExternalInterface.available) { try { ExternalInterface.addCallback("populateFlashFile", populateFlashFile); } catch (error:SecurityError) { } catch (error:Error) { } } } public function populateFlashFile(window:*) : void { log.text = window.toString(); // just for checking if window has come to the function. window.document.write("Hello"); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:TextArea x="10" y="23" width="712" height="581" id="log"/> </mx:Application> The HTML : <html lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> </head> <body scroll="no"> <input type="button" onclick="document.getElementById('Test').populateFlashFile(window);"/> <object classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" id="Test" width="100%" height="100%" codebase="http://fpdownload.macromedia.com/get/flashplayer/current/swflash.cab"> <param name="movie" value="Test.swf" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <param name="bgcolor" value="#869ca7" /> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> </object> </body> </html> The problem occors only when i pass some DOM object, if i pass some String it works.!!! i.e : <input type="button" onclick="document.getElementById('Test').populateFlashFile('some text here');"/> works great!

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  • How to pass ctor args in Activator.CreateInstance?

    - by thames
    I need a performance enhanced Activator.CreateInstance() and came across this article by Miron Abramson that uses a factory to create the instance in IL and then cache it. (I've included code below from Miron Abramson's site in case it somehow disappears). I'm new to IL Emit code and anything beyond Activator.CreateInstance() for instantiating a class and any help would be much appreciative. My problem is that I need to create an instance of an object that takes a ctor with a parameter. I see there is a way to pass in the Type of the parameter, but is there a way to pass in the value of the ctor parameter as well? If possible, I would like to use a method similar to CreateObjectFactory<T>(params object[] constructorParams) as some objects I want to instantiate may have more than 1 ctor param. // Source: http://mironabramson.com/blog/post/2008/08/Fast-version-of-the-ActivatorCreateInstance-method-using-IL.aspx public static class FastObjectFactory { private static readonly Hashtable creatorCache = Hashtable.Synchronized(new Hashtable()); private readonly static Type coType = typeof(CreateObject); public delegate object CreateObject(); /// /// Create an object that will used as a 'factory' to the specified type T /// public static CreateObject CreateObjectFactory() where T : class { Type t = typeof(T); FastObjectFactory.CreateObject c = creatorCache[t] as FastObjectFactory.CreateObject; if (c == null) { lock (creatorCache.SyncRoot) { c = creatorCache[t] as FastObjectFactory.CreateObject; if (c != null) { return c; } DynamicMethod dynMethod = new DynamicMethod("DM$OBJ_FACTORY_" + t.Name, typeof(object), null, t); ILGenerator ilGen = dynMethod.GetILGenerator(); ilGen.Emit(OpCodes.Newobj, t.GetConstructor(Type.EmptyTypes)); ilGen.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); c = (CreateObject)dynMethod.CreateDelegate(coType); creatorCache.Add(t, c); } } return c; } } Update to Miron's code from commentor on his post 2010-01-11 public static class FastObjectFactory2<T> where T : class, new() { public static Func<T> CreateObject { get; private set; } static FastObjectFactory2() { Type objType = typeof(T); var dynMethod = new DynamicMethod("DM$OBJ_FACTORY_" + objType.Name, objType, null, objType); ILGenerator ilGen = dynMethod.GetILGenerator(); ilGen.Emit(OpCodes.Newobj, objType.GetConstructor(Type.EmptyTypes)); ilGen.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); CreateObject = (Func<T>) dynMethod.CreateDelegate(typeof(Func<T>)); } }

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  • showing errors from actions in table-based views

    - by enashnash
    I have a view where I want to perform different actions on the items in each row in a table, similar to this (in, say, ~/Views/Thing/Manage.aspx): <table> <% foreach (thing in Model) { %> <tr> <td><%: thing.x %></td> <td> <% using (Html.BeginForm("SetEnabled", "Thing")) { %> <%: Html.Hidden("x", thing.x) %> <%: Html.Hidden("enable", !thing.Enabled) %> <input type="submit" value="<%: thing.Enabled ? "Disable" : "Enable" %>" /> <% } %> </td> <!-- more tds with similar action forms here, a few per table row --> </tr> <% } %> In my ThingController, I have functions similar to the following: public ActionResult Manage() { return View(ThingService.GetThings()); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult SetEnabled(string x, bool enable) { try { ThingService.SetEnabled(x, enable); } catch (Exception ex) { ModelState.AddModelError("", ex.Message); // I know this is wrong... } return RedirectToAction("Manage"); } In the most part, this is working fine. The problem is that if ThingService.SetEnabled throws an error, I want to be able to display the error at the top of the table. I've tried a few things with Html.ValidationSummary() in the page but I can't get it to work. Note that I don't want to send the user to a separate page to do this, and I'm trying to do it without using any javascript. Am I going about displaying my table in the best way? How do I get the errors displayed in the way I want them to? I will end up with perhaps 40 small forms on the page. This approach comes largely from this article, but it doesn't handle the errors in the way I need to. Any takers?

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  • Can't make my WCF extension work

    - by Sergio Romero
    I have a WCF solution that consists of the following class libraries: Exercise.Services: Contains the implementation classes for the services. Exercise.ServiceProxy: Contains the classes that are instantiated in the client. Exercise.HttpHost: Contains the services (*.svc files). I'm calling the service from a console application and the "first version" works really well so I took the next step which is to create a custom ServiceHostFactory, ServiceHost, and InstanceProvider so I can use constructor injection in my services as it is explained in this article. These classes are implemented in yet another class library: 4. Exercise.StructureMapWcfExtension Now even though I've modified my service this: <%@ ServiceHost Language="C#" Debug="true" Factory="Exercise.StructureMapWcfExtension.StructureMapServiceHostFactory" Service="Exercise.Services.PurchaseOrderService" %> I always get the following exception: System.ServiceModel.CommunicationException Security negotiation failed because the remote party did not send back a reply in a timely manner. This may be because the underlying transport connection was aborted. It fails in this line of code: public class PurchaseOrderProxy : ClientBase<IPurchaseOrderService>, IPurchaseOrderService { public PurchaseOrderResponse CreatePurchaseOrder(PurchaseOrderRequest purchaseOrderRequest) { return base.Channel.CreatePurchaseOrder(purchaseOrderRequest); //Fails here } } But that is not all, I added a trace to the web.config file and this is the error that appears in the log file: System.InvalidOperationException The service type provided could not be loaded as a service because it does not have a default (parameter-less) constructor. To fix the problem, add a default constructor to the type, or pass an instance of the type to the host. So this means that my ServiceHostFactory is never being hit, I even set a breakpoint in both its constructor and its method and they never get hit. I've added a reference of the StructureMapWcfExtension library to all the other ones (even the console client), one by one to no avail. I also tried to use the option in the host's web.config file to configure the factory like so: <serviceHostingEnvironment> <serviceActivations> <add service="Exercise.Services.PurchaseOrderService" relativeAddress="PurchaseOrderService.svc" factory="Exercise.StructureMapWcfExtension.StructureMapServiceHostFactory"/> </serviceActivations> </serviceHostingEnvironment> That didn't work either. Please I need help in getting this to work so I can incorporate it to our project. Thank you. UPDATE: Here's the service host factory's code: namespace Exercise.StructureMapWcfExtension { public class StructureMapServiceHostFactory : ServiceHostFactory { private readonly Container Container; public StructureMapServiceHostFactory() { Container = new Container(); new ContainerConfigurer().Configure(Container); } protected override ServiceHost CreateServiceHost(Type serviceType, Uri[] baseAddresses) { return new StructureMapServiceHost(Container, serviceType, baseAddresses); } } public class ContainerConfigurer { public void Configure(Container container) { container.Configure(r => r.For<IPurchaseOrderFacade>().Use<PurchaseOrderFacade>()); } } }

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  • .NET 2.0 Process Elevation for App Installation

    - by Brian Gillespie
    We have an application written in both C++ and .NET that installs for all users in the Program Files folder. This application downloads new versions of itself (as MSI installers) and spawns the new installer process to replace itself. The install process as it exists today: Copy an install manager app (C#, .NET 2.0) to the temp directory. Call this 'Manager' Manager is executed with elevated privs per this article. The original application exits. Manager spawns the MSI installer (with elevated privs, since the copy is elevated) Manager spawns the new version of the app. The bug: The newly installed app is running in an elevated state. This causes problems I won't enumerate here. Ideally, the launch of the newly installed app would be run with the permissions of the original user. I can't figure out how to demote the app back to being the standard user after elevation. An inelegant hack: (yeah, yeah, this whole process is inelegant anyway) Copy the install manager to the temp directory Run the install manager with standard user privs. Lets call this instance 'LowlyManager'. Original application exits. LowlyManager spawns the app again, this time with elevated privs. Let's name this instance 'UpperManagement' UpperManagement spawns the installer UpperManagement exits gracefully, returning the exit code of the installer. LowlyManager interprets the error code from UpperManagement, and spawns the newly installed application. This time as the original invoker. Is there a better way to do this? (I've left out a bunch of other details before and after these steps that make the process smoother for the user, but this should be enough to understand the core of the problem I'm trying to solve.) Other requirements: We can't install as a per-user app The user shouldn't be presented with an authentication dialog box if UAC would have simply asked "are you sure you want to allow this?". I think this might kill a solution using WindowsImpersonationContext, but I'm not sure. The system needs to work on XP, Vista, and Windows 7 (even if there is a separate process for XP).

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  • Optimizing Haskell code

    - by Masse
    I'm trying to learn Haskell and after an article in reddit about Markov text chains, I decided to implement Markov text generation first in Python and now in Haskell. However I noticed that my python implementation is way faster than the Haskell version, even Haskell is compiled to native code. I am wondering what I should do to make the Haskell code run faster and for now I believe it's so much slower because of using Data.Map instead of hashmaps, but I'm not sure I'll post the Python code and Haskell as well. With the same data, Python takes around 3 seconds and Haskell is closer to 16 seconds. It comes without saying that I'll take any constructive criticism :). import random import re import cPickle class Markov: def __init__(self, filenames): self.filenames = filenames self.cache = self.train(self.readfiles()) picklefd = open("dump", "w") cPickle.dump(self.cache, picklefd) picklefd.close() def train(self, text): splitted = re.findall(r"(\w+|[.!?',])", text) print "Total of %d splitted words" % (len(splitted)) cache = {} for i in xrange(len(splitted)-2): pair = (splitted[i], splitted[i+1]) followup = splitted[i+2] if pair in cache: if followup not in cache[pair]: cache[pair][followup] = 1 else: cache[pair][followup] += 1 else: cache[pair] = {followup: 1} return cache def readfiles(self): data = "" for filename in self.filenames: fd = open(filename) data += fd.read() fd.close() return data def concat(self, words): sentence = "" for word in words: if word in "'\",?!:;.": sentence = sentence[0:-1] + word + " " else: sentence += word + " " return sentence def pickword(self, words): temp = [(k, words[k]) for k in words] results = [] for (word, n) in temp: results.append(word) if n > 1: for i in xrange(n-1): results.append(word) return random.choice(results) def gentext(self, words): allwords = [k for k in self.cache] (first, second) = random.choice(filter(lambda (a,b): a.istitle(), [k for k in self.cache])) sentence = [first, second] while len(sentence) < words or sentence[-1] is not ".": current = (sentence[-2], sentence[-1]) if current in self.cache: followup = self.pickword(self.cache[current]) sentence.append(followup) else: print "Wasn't able to. Breaking" break print self.concat(sentence) Markov(["76.txt"]) -- module Markov ( train , fox ) where import Debug.Trace import qualified Data.Map as M import qualified System.Random as R import qualified Data.ByteString.Char8 as B type Database = M.Map (B.ByteString, B.ByteString) (M.Map B.ByteString Int) train :: [B.ByteString] -> Database train (x:y:[]) = M.empty train (x:y:z:xs) = let l = train (y:z:xs) in M.insertWith' (\new old -> M.insertWith' (+) z 1 old) (x, y) (M.singleton z 1) `seq` l main = do contents <- B.readFile "76.txt" print $ train $ B.words contents fox="The quick brown fox jumps over the brown fox who is slow jumps over the brown fox who is dead."

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  • What would I use to remove escaped html from large sets of data.

    - by Elizabeth Buckwalter
    Our database is filled with articles retrieved from RSS feeds. I was unsure of what data I would be getting, and how much filtering was already setup (WP-O-Matic Wordpress plugin using the SimplePie library). This plugin does some basic encoding before insertion using Wordpress's built in post insert function which also does some filtering. I've figured out most of the filters before insertion, but now I have whacko data that I need to remove. This is an example of whacko data that I have data in one field which the content I want in the front, but this part removed which is at the end: <img src="http://feeds.feedburner.com/~ff/SoundOnTheSound?i=xFxEpT2Add0:xFbIkwGc-fk:V_sGLiPBpWU" border="0"></img> <img src="http://feeds.feedburner.com/~ff/SoundOnTheSound?d=qj6IDK7rITs" border="0"></img> &lt;img src=&quot;http://feeds.feedburner.com/~ff/SoundOnTheSound?i=xFxEpT2Add0:xFbIkwGc-fk:D7DqB2pKExk&quot; Notice how some of the images are escape and some aren't. I believe this has to do with the last part being cut off so as to be unrecognizable as an html tag, which then caused it to be html endcoded. Another field has only this which is now filtered before insertion, but I have to get rid of the others: &lt;img src=&quot;http://farm3.static.flickr.com/2183/2289902369_1d95bcdb85.jpg&quot; alt=&quot;post_img&quot; width=&quot;80&quot; (all examples are on one line, but broken up for readability) Question: What is the best way to work with the above escaped html (or portion of an html tag)? I can do it in Perl, PHP, SQL, Ruby, and even Python. I believe Perl to be the best at text parsing, so that's why I used the Perl tag. And PHP times out on large database operations, so that's pretty much out unless I wanted to do batch processing and what not. PS One of the nice things about using Wordpress's insert post function, is that if you use php's strip_tags function to strip out all html, insert post function will insert <p> at the paragraph points. Let me know if there's anything more that I can answer. Some article that didn't quite answer my questions. (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2016751/remove-text-from-within-a-database-text-field) (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/462831/regular-expression-to-escape-html-ampersands-while-respecting-cdata)

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  • Bullet indents in PowerPoint 2007 compatibility mode via .NET interop issue

    - by L. Shaydariv
    Hello. I've got a really difficult bug and I can't see the fix. The subject drives me insane for real for a long time. Let's consider the following scenario: 1) There is a PowerPoint 2003 presentation. It contains the only slide and the only shape, but the shape contains a text frame including a bulleted list with a random textual representation structure. 2) There is a requirement to get bullet indents for every bulletted paragraph using PowerPoint 2007. I can satisfy the requirement opening the presentation in the compatibility mode and applying the following VBA script: With ActivePresentation Dim sl As Slide: Set sl = .Slides(1) Dim sh As Shape: Set sh = sl.Shapes(1) Dim i As Integer For i = 1 To sh.TextFrame.TextRange.Paragraphs.Count Dim para As TextRange: Set para = sh.TextFrame.TextRange.Paragraphs(i, 1) Debug.Print para.Text; para.indentLevel, sh.TextFrame.Ruler.Levels(para.indentLevel).FirstMargin Next i End With that produces the following output: A 1 0 B 1 0 C 2 24 D 3 60 E 5 132 Obviously, everything is perfect indeed: it has shown the proper list item text, list item level and its bullet indent. But I can't see the way of how I can reach the same result using C#. Let's add a COM-reference to Microsoft.Office.Interop.PowerPoint 2.9.0.0 (taken from MSPPT.OLB, MS Office 12): // presentation = ...("presentation.ppt")... // a PowerPoint 2003 presentation Slide slide = presentation.Slides[1]; Shape shape = slide.Shapes[1]; for (int i = 1; i<=shape.TextFrame.TextRange.Paragraphs(-1, -1).Count; i++) { TextRange paragraph = shape.TextFrame.TextRange.Paragraphs(i, 1); Console.WriteLine("{0} {1} {2}", paragraph.Text, paragraph.IndentLevel, shape.TextFrame.Ruler.Levels[paragraph.IndentLevel].FirstMargin); } Oh, man... What's it? I've got problems here. First, the paragraph.Text value is trimmed until the '\r' character is found (however paragraph.Text[0] really returns the first character O_o). But it's ok, I can shut my eyes to this. But... But, second, I can't understand why the first margins are always zero and it does not matter which level they belong to. They are always zero in the compatibility mode... It's hard to believe it... :) So is there any way to fix it or just to find a workaround? I'd like to accept any help regarding to the solution of the subject. I can't even find any article related to the issue. :( Probably you have ever been face to face with it... Or is it just a bug with no fix and must it be reported to Microsoft? Thanks you.

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  • Dependency property does not work within a geometry in a controltemplate

    - by Erik Bongers
    I have a DepencencyProperty (a boolean) that works fine on an Ellipse, but not on an ArcSegment. Am I doing something that is not possible? Here's part of the xaml. Both the TemplateBindings of Origin and LargeArc do not work in the geometry. But the LargeArc DependencyProperty does work in the Ellipse, so my DependencyProperty seems to be set up correctly. <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type nodes:TestCircle}"> <Canvas Background="AliceBlue"> <Ellipse Height="10" Width="10" Fill="Yellow" Visibility="{TemplateBinding LargeArc, Converter={StaticResource BoolToVisConverter}}"/> <Path Canvas.Left="0" Canvas.Top="0" Stroke="Black" StrokeThickness="3"> <Path.Data> <GeometryGroup> <PathGeometry> <PathFigure IsClosed="True" StartPoint="{TemplateBinding Origin}"> <LineSegment Point="150,100" /> <ArcSegment Point="140,150" IsLargeArc="{TemplateBinding LargeArc}" Size="50,50" SweepDirection="Clockwise"/> </PathFigure> </PathGeometry> </GeometryGroup> </Path.Data> </Path> </Canvas> </ControlTemplate> What I'm trying to build is a (sort of) pie-shaped usercontrol where the shape of the Pie is defined by DependencyProperties and the actual graphics used are in a template, so they can be replaced or customized. In other words: I would like the code-behind to be visual-free (which, I assume, is good separation). SOLUTION--------------------------(I'm not allowed to answer my own questions yet) I found the answer myself, and this can be useful for others encountering the same issue. This is why the TemplateBinding on the Geometry failed: A TemplateBinding will only work when binding a DependencyProperty to another DependencyProperty. Following article set me on the right track: http://blogs.msdn.com/b/liviuc/archive/2009/12/14/wpf-templatebinding-vs-relativesource-templatedparent.aspx The ArcSegment properties are no DependencyProperties. Thus, the solution to the above problem is to replace <ArcSegment Point="140,150" IsLargeArc="{TemplateBinding LargeArc}" with <ArcSegment Point="140,150" IsLargeArc="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource TemplatedParent}, Path=LargeArc}" Colin, your working example where an 'ordinary' binding was used in the geometry set me on the right track. BTW, love the infographics and the construction of your UserControl in your blogpost. And, hey, that quick tip on code snippets, and especially on that DP attribute and the separation of those DPs into a partial class file is pure gold!

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  • Html.RadioButtonListFor problem

    - by ognjenb
    <%using (Html.BeginForm("Numbers", "Numbers", FormMethod.Post)) { %> <table id="numbers"> <tr> <th> prvi_br </th> <th> drugi_br </th> <th> treci_br </th> </tr> <%int rb =1; %>" <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.prvi_br) %> <input type="radio" name="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>" value="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>" /> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.drugi_br) %> <input type="radio" name="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>" value="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>"/> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.treci_br) %> <input type="radio" name="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>" value="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>"/> </td> </tr> <% rb++; %> <% } %> </table> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> <%} %> How post this form with only one checked radio button? In my case all of 3 radio buttons is possible to check. How to restrict so that it is possible check only one radio. In this article I found good solutions but it can not be applied because I have a table.

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  • Using WSH (VBS) with iMacros - how do they do it?

    - by Carl
    (iMacros For Firefox 6.6.5.0; Firefox 3.6.3; Windows XP Pro SP3 w/all updates) I made an iMacro to select "load next 25" (comments) on a web page (CNN.COM). Unfortunately, iMacros doesn't appear to do looping (do the above until that string doesn't appear on the page anymore - i.e. all the comments are loaded). I tried putting {!iloop} in the TAG command, and it didn't work - then I read it wouldn't. So I tried the example at http://wiki.imacros.net/Loop_after_Query_or_Login I can't find any information on how to actually run the script in the above example. I searched Google and found VBS scripting is handled with .wsh files with Windows XP Pro. (The examples and other references there say Windows does VBS natively, so I looked up how with Google.) So I made the following .wsh file (modified the above example): Option Explicit Dim iim1, iret 'initialize iMacros instance set iim1 = CreateObject ("imacros") iret = iim1.iimInit() do while not iret < 0 iret = iim1.iimPlay("Load All CNN Comments") loop ' tell user we're done msgbox "End." ' exit iMacros instance and quit script iret = iim1.iimExit() Wscript.Quit() Here's the iMacro: (Load All CNN Comments.iim) VERSION BUILD=6650406 RECORDER=FX TAG POS=1 TYPE=A ATTR=TXT:Load<SP>next<SP>25 WAIT SECONDS=#DOWNLOADCOMPLETE# The iMacro works by itself - I press Play (left iMacro panel) and the next 25 comments load on the CNN.com page in the current tab. I put the .wsh file in the ...\iMacros\Macros directory - with the iMacro "Load All CNN Comments.iim" When I run the .wsh file (by just double clicking on it's icon - I created it with Notepad, and Windows gave it an icon for that file type - it's executable) I get the message from "Windows Script Host" - "There is no script file specified." I wasn't actually expecting it to work, as I don't see how Windows would know to call iMacros to run the iim macro. It would be nice if there was a simple, COMPLETE, example of how to use a VBS script with iMacros, that isn't bogged down with unnecessary complication like filling in a form, loading multiple pages, etc. I can't find ANY example. So what do I need to do to get this to work? I just installed iMacros yesterday, because I am constantly having the problem that there are hundred of comments after a CNN.com article, and loading 25 more at a time until they are all on the page makes it impractical to read any replies to my comments. It would also be nice if I could run the Macro from Firefox, rather than by double clicking on some file somewhere. Thanks for any help.

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  • How to implement Xml Serialization with inherited classes in C#

    - by liorafar
    I have two classes : base class name Component and inheritd class named DBComponent [Serializable] public class Component { private string name = string.Empty; private string description = string.Empty; } [Serializable] public class DBComponent : Component { private List<string> spFiles = new List<string>(); // Storage Procedure Files [XmlArrayItem("SPFile", typeof(string))] [XmlArray("SPFiles")] public List<string> SPFiles { get { return spFiles; } set { spFiles = value; } } public DBComponent(string name, string description) : base(name, description) { } } [Serializable] public class ComponentsCollection { private static ComponentsCollection instance = null; private List<Component> components = new List<Component>(); public List<Component> Components { get { return components; } set { components = value; } } public static ComponentsCollection GetInstance() { if (ccuInstance == null) { lock (lockObject) { if (instance == null) PopulateComponents(); } } return instance; } private static void PopulateComponents() { instance = new CCUniverse(); XmlSerializer xs = new XmlSerializer(instance.GetType()); instance = xs.Deserialize(XmlReader.Create("Components.xml")) as ComponentsCollection; } } } I want read\write from a Xml file. I know that I need to implement the Serialization for DBComponent class otherwise it will not read it.But i cannot find any simple article for that. all the articles that I found were too complex for this simple scenario. The Xml file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <ComponentsCollection> <Components> <DBComponent Name="Tenant Historical Database" Description="Tenant Historical Database"> <SPFiles> <SPFile>Setup\TenantHistoricalSP.sql</SPFile> </SPFiles> </DBComponent> <Component Name="Agent" Description="Desktop Agent" /> </Components> </ComponentsCollection> Can someone please give me a simple example of how to read this kind of xml file and what should be implemented ? Thanks Lior

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  • C++ type-checking at compile-time

    - by Masterofpsi
    Hi, all. I'm pretty new to C++, and I'm writing a small library (mostly for my own projects) in C++. In the process of designing a type hierarchy, I've run into the problem of defining the assignment operator. I've taken the basic approach that was eventually reached in this article, which is that for every class MyClass in a hierarchy derived from a class Base you define two assignment operators like so: class MyClass: public Base { public: MyClass& operator =(MyClass const& rhs); virtual MyClass& operator =(Base const& rhs); }; // automatically gets defined, so we make it call the virtual function below MyClass& MyClass::operator =(MyClass const& rhs); { return (*this = static_cast<Base const&>(rhs)); } MyClass& MyClass::operator =(Base const& rhs); { assert(typeid(rhs) == typeid(*this)); // assigning to different types is a logical error MyClass const& casted_rhs = dynamic_cast<MyClass const&>(rhs); try { // allocate new variables Base::operator =(rhs); } catch(...) { // delete the allocated variables throw; } // assign to member variables } The part I'm concerned with is the assertion for type equality. Since I'm writing a library, where assertions will presumably be compiled out of the final result, this has led me to go with a scheme that looks more like this: class MyClass: public Base { public: operator =(MyClass const& rhs); // etc virtual inline MyClass& operator =(Base const& rhs) { assert(typeid(rhs) == typeid(*this)); return this->set(static_cast<Base const&>(rhs)); } private: MyClass& set(Base const& rhs); // same basic thing }; But I've been wondering if I could check the types at compile-time. I looked into Boost.TypeTraits, and I came close by doing BOOST_MPL_ASSERT((boost::is_same<BOOST_TYPEOF(*this), BOOST_TYPEOF(rhs)>));, but since rhs is declared as a reference to the parent class and not the derived class, it choked. Now that I think about it, my reasoning seems silly -- I was hoping that since the function was inline, it would be able to check the actual parameters themselves, but of course the preprocessor always gets run before the compiler. But I was wondering if anyone knew of any other way I could enforce this kind of check at compile-time.

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  • Where can I find information on the Get, Set and Address methods for multidimensional System.Array i

    - by Rob Smallshire
    System.Array serves as the base class for all arrays in the Common Language Runtime (CLR). According to this article, For each concrete array type, [the] runtime adds three special methods: Get/Set/Address. and indeed if I disassemble this C# code, int[,] x = new int[1024,1024]; x[0,0] = 1; x[1,1] = 2; x[2,2] = 3; Console.WriteLine(x[0,0]); Console.WriteLine(x[1,1]); Console.WriteLine(x[2,2]); into CIL I get, IL_0000: ldc.i4 0x400 IL_0005: ldc.i4 0x400 IL_000a: newobj instance void int32[0...,0...]::.ctor(int32, int32) IL_000f: stloc.0 IL_0010: ldloc.0 IL_0011: ldc.i4.0 IL_0012: ldc.i4.0 IL_0013: ldc.i4.1 IL_0014: call instance void int32[0...,0...]::Set(int32, int32, int32) IL_0019: ldloc.0 IL_001a: ldc.i4.1 IL_001b: ldc.i4.1 IL_001c: ldc.i4.2 IL_001d: call instance void int32[0...,0...]::Set(int32, int32, int32) IL_0022: ldloc.0 IL_0023: ldc.i4.2 IL_0024: ldc.i4.2 IL_0025: ldc.i4.3 IL_0026: call instance void int32[0...,0...]::Set(int32, int32, int32) IL_002b: ldloc.0 IL_002c: ldc.i4.0 IL_002d: ldc.i4.0 IL_002e: call instance int32 int32[0...,0...]::Get(int32, int32) IL_0033: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) IL_0038: ldloc.0 IL_0039: ldc.i4.1 IL_003a: ldc.i4.1 IL_003b: call instance int32 int32[0...,0...]::Get(int32, int32) IL_0040: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) IL_0045: ldloc.0 IL_0046: ldc.i4.2 IL_0047: ldc.i4.2 IL_0048: call instance int32 int32[0...,0...]::Get(int32, int32) IL_004d: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) where the calls to the aforementioned Get and Set methods can be clearly seen. It seems the arity of these methods is related to the dimensionality of the array, which is presumably why they are created by the runtime and are not pre-declared. I couldn't locate any information about these methods on MSDN and their simple names makes them resistant to Googling. I'm writing a compiler for a language which supports multidimensional arrays, so I'd like to find some official documentation about these methods, under what conditions I can expect them to exist and what I can expect their signatures to be. In particular, I'd like to know whether its possible to get a MethodInfo object for Get or Set for use with Reflection.Emit without having to create an instance of the array with correct type and dimensionality on which to reflect, as is done in the linked example.

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  • Closure Tables - Is this enough data to display a tree view?

    - by James Pitt
    Here is the table I have created by testing the closure table method. | id | parentId | childId | hops | | | | | 270 | 6 | 6 | 0 | 271 | 7 | 7 | 0 | 272 | 8 | 8 | 0 | 273 | 9 | 9 | 0 | 276 | 10 | 10 | 0 | 281 | 9 | 10 | 1 | 282 | 7 | 9 | 1 | 283 | 7 | 10 | 2 | 285 | 7 | 8 | 1 | 286 | 6 | 7 | 1 | 287 | 6 | 9 | 2 | 288 | 6 | 10 | 3 | 289 | 6 | 8 | 2 | 293 | 6 | 9 | 1 | 294 | 6 | 10 | 2 I am trying to create a simple tree of this using PHP. There does not seem to be enough data to create the table. For example, when I look purely at parentId = 6: -Part 6 -Part 7 - ? - ? -Part 9 - ? - ? We know that parts 8 and 10 exists below Part 7 or 9, but not which. We know that part 10 exists at both 3 and 4 nodes deep but where? If I look at other data in the table it is possible to tell it should be: - Part 6 - Part 7 - Part 9 - Part 10 - Part 9 - Part 10 I thought one of the benefits of closure tables was there was no need for recursive queries? Could you help explain what I am doing wrong? EDIT: For clarification, this is a mapping table. There is another table called "parts" which has a column called part_id that correlates to both the parentId and childId columns in the "closure" table. The "id" column in the table above (closure) is just for the purposes of maintaining a primary key. It is not really necessary. The methods I have used to create this closure table is described in the following article: http://dirtsimple.org/2010/11/simplest-way-to-do-tree-based-queries.html EDIT2: It can have two and three hops. I will explain easier by assigning names to the items. Part 6 = Bicycle Part 7 = Gears Part 8 = Chain Part 9 = Bolt Part 10 = Nut Nut is part of Bolt. The Bolt and Nut combo exists directly within Bicycle and within Gears which is part of Bicycle. In relation to what method to use I have looked at Adjacency, Edges, Enum Paths, Closures, DAGS(networks) and the Nested Set Model. I am still trying to work out what is what, but this is an extremely complex component database where there are multiple parents and any modification to a sub-tree must propogate through the other trees. More importantly there will be insertions, deletions and tree views that I wish to avoid recursion during general use, even at the cost of database space and query time during entry.

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