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• Multiple Foreign keys to a single table and single key pointing to more than one table

  - by user1216775

  I need some suggestions from the database design experts here. I have around six foreign keys into a single table (defect) which all point to primary key in user table. It is like: defect (.....,assigned_to,created_by,updated_by,closed_by...) If I want to get information about the defect I can make six joins. Do we have any better way to do it? Another one is I have a states table which can store one of the user-defined set of values. I have defect table and task table and I want both of these tables to share the common state table (New, In Progress etc.). So I created: task (.....,state_id,type_id,.....) defect(.....,state_id,type_id,...) state(state_id,state_name,...) importance(imp_id,imp_name,...) There are many such common attributes along with state like importance(normal, urgent etc), priority etc. And for all of them I want to use same table. I am keeping one flag in each of the tables to differentiate task and defect. What is the best solution in such a case? If somebody is using this application in health domain, they would like to assign different types, states, importances for their defect or tasks. Moreover when a user selects any project I want to display all the types,states etc under configuration parameters section.

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• Passing HTML form data in the URL on local machine (file://)

  - by atzz

  Hi, I'm building a small HTML/JS application for primary use on local machine (i.e. everything is accessed via file:// protocol, though maybe in the future it will be hosted on a server within intranet). I'm trying to make a form with method="get" and action="target.html", in the hope that the browser will put form data in the URL (like, file://<path>/target.html?param1=aaa&param2=bbb). However, it's not happening (target.html opens fine, but no parameters is passed). What am I doing wrong? Is it possible to use forms over file:// at all? I can always build the url manually (via JS), but being lazy I'd prefer the browser do it for me. ;) Here is my sample form: <form name='config' action="test_form.html" method="get" enctype="application/x-www-form-urlencoded"> <input type="text" name="param1"> <input type="text" name="param2"> <input type="submit" value="Go"> </form>

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• CodeIgniter URI routing (dynamic, multilingual)

  - by koteko

  I'm trying to redirect all routs to one main controller. Here is my routes.php $route['default_controller'] = "main"; $route['scaffolding_trigger'] = ""; //$route['(\w{2})/(.*)'] = '$2'; //$route['(\w{2})'] = $route['default_controller']; $route['(en|ge)/(:any)'] = $route['default_controller']."/index/$1"; $route['(:any)'] = $route['default_controller']."/index/$1"; I need language id to be passed with every link (like: http://site.com/en/hello-world) Here is my main controller: class Main extends Controller { function __construct() { parent::Controller(); } function index($page_type=false, $param=false) { die($page_type.' | '.$param.'| Aaa!'); } } I want to check if predefined file type exists (like: http://site.com/en/archive/05-06-2010 - here predefined type would be archive) then do something. If not then search in the database for slug. If not found then go to 404. The problem is that I can't get index function parameters ($page_type, $param). Thanks for help.

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• TDD approach for complex function

  - by jamie

  I have a method in a class for which they are a few different outcomes (based upon event responses etc). But this is a single atomic function which is to used by other applications. I have broken down the main blocks of the functionality that comprise this function into different functions and successfully taken a Test Driven Development approach to the functionality of each of these elements. These elements however aren't exposed for other applications would use. And so my question is how can/should i easily approach a TDD style solution to verifying that the single method that should be called does function correctly without a lot of duplication in testing or lots of setup required for each test? I have considered / looked at moving the blocks of functionality into a different class and use Mocking to simulate the responses of the functions used but it doesn't feel right and the individual methods need to write to variables within the main class (it felt really heath robinson). The code roughly looks like this (i have removed a lot of parameters to make things clearer along with a fair bit of irrelevant code). public void MethodToTest(string parameter) { IResponse x = null; if (function1(parameter)) { if (!function2(parameter,out x)) { function3(parameter, out x); } } // ... // more bits of code here // ... if (x != null) { x.Success(); } }

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• Change post form data function into curl

  - by QLiu

  Hello Guys, In the old way in our website, when users clicks “logout” button. It runs a post form function; which will pass parameters (logout, sn) to external sites to execute “logout” function. Like: I do not want the users jump to the external site, therefore, i use curl to post data. (because we are in different domain, i guess Ajax request doesnot work ) Post the same data to execute logout function in external site. // create cURL resource $URL = "http://bswi.development.intra.local/"; //Initl curl $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $URL); // Load in the destination URL curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPAUTH, CURLAUTH_BASIC); //Normal HTTP request, not SSL curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, "logout=1"); // receive server response ... curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_exec ($ch); echo $content; curl_close ($ch); Do u think i am going in the right direction?

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• problem using 'as_json' in my model and 'render :json' => in my controller (rails)

  - by patrick

  Hi everyone. I am trying to create a unique json data structure, and I have run into a problem that I can't seem to figure out. In my controller, I am doing: favorite_ids = Favorites.all.map(&:photo_id) data = { :albums => PhotoAlbum.all.to_json, :photos => Photo.all.to_json(:favorite => lambda {|photo| favorite_ids.include?(photo.id)}) } render :json => data and in my model: def as_json(options = {}) { :name => self.name, :favorite => options[:favorite].is_a?(Proc) ? options[:favorite].call(self) : options[:favorite] } end The problem is, rails encodes the values of 'photos' & 'albums' (in my data hash) as JSON twice, and this breaks everything... The only way I could get this to work is if I call 'as_json' instead of 'to_json': data = { :albums => PhotoAlbum.all.as_json, :photos => Photo.all.as_json(:favorite => lambda {|photo| favorite_ids.include?(photo.id)}) } However, when I do this, my :favorite = lambda option no longer makes it into the model's as_json method.......... So, I either need a way to tell 'render :json' not to encode the values of the hash so I can use 'to_json' on the values myself, or I need a way to get the parameters passed into 'as_json' to actually show up there....... I hope someone here can help... Thanks!

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• Query with UDF works in Access but gives Undefined function in expression (Err 3085) in Excel

  - by ronwest

  I have an Access table with a date/time field. I wanted to make a composite Key field out of the date/time field and 3 other text fields in the same format as the matching Key field in another database. So I concatenated the 3 text fields and wrote a User-Defined-Function in a Module to output the date field as a string in the format "YYYYMMDD". Public Function YYYYMMDD(dteDate As Date) As String YYYYMMDD = Format(dteDate, "YYYYMMDD") End Function I can then successfully run my queries in Access and it all works fine. But when I set up some DAO code in Excel and try to run the query that works fine within Access... db.Execute "qryMake_tblValsDailyAccount" ...Excel gives me the "Undefined function in expression. (Error 3085)" error. To me this is a bug in Excel and/or Access, because the (Excel) client shouldn't need to know anything about the internal calculations that normally take place perfectly in the (Access) server when in isolation. Excel should send the querydef (name with no parameters) to the server, let the server do its work then receive the answers. Why does it need to get involved with a function internal to the server? Does anyone know a way around this?

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• Call instance method with objc_msgSend

  - by user772349

  I'm trying to use the objc_msgSend method to call some method dynamically. Say I want call some method in Class B from Class A and there are two methods in class B like: - (void) instanceTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; + (void) methodTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; And I can call the class method like this in Class A successfully: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassB"), sel_registerName("methodTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); And I can call the instance method like this in Class A successfully as well: objc_msgSend([[objc_getClass("ClassB") alloc] init], sel_registerName("instanceTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); But the thing is to get a instance of Class B I have to call "initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX" instead of "init" so that to pass some necessary parameters to class B to do the init stuff. So I stored a instance of ClassB in class A as variable: self.classBInstance = [[ClassB alloc] initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX]; And then I call the method like this (successfully): The problem is, I want to call a method by simply applying the classname and the method sel like "ClassName" and "SEL" and then call it dynamically: If it's a class method. then call it like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassName"), sel_registerName("SEL")); If it's a instance method, find the existing class instance variable in the calling class then: objc_msgSend([self.classInstance, sel_registerName("SEL")); So I want to know if there is any way to: Check if a class has a given method (I found "responseToSelector" will be the one) Check if a given method in class method or instance method (maybe can use responseToSelector as well) Check if a class has a instance variable of a given class So I can call a instance method like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClassInstance(self, "ClassB"), sel_registerName("SEL"));

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• passing xml to a webservice

  - by Neale

  I have a simple web service that will have one method: DoTransactions(xlm) Now the reason that i am using XML as a parameter is due to the fact that the parameters will often change. So for example it could be: <payload> <userId>1234</userid> <partnerId>ptn654</partnerId> </payload> OR <payload> <partnerId>ptn654</partnerId> <items> <item1> <cost>10</cost> <description>This is item 1</description> </item1> </items> </payload> As you can see the XML string will always change (this is due to a client request) Would it be better to rather pass in a string and parse the XML in the method or should is there a better way to do it. This web service will be used for varios different code languages.

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• Pass command line arguments to JUnit test case being run programmatically

  - by __nv__

  I am attempting to run a JUnit Test from a Java Class with: JUnitCore core = new JUnitCore(); core.addListener(new RunListener()); core.run(classToRun); Problem is my JUnit test requires a database connection that is currently hardcoded in the JUnit test itself. What I am looking for is a way to run the JUnit test programmatically(above) but pass a database connection to it that I create in my Java Class that runs the test, and not hardcoded within the JUnit class. Basically something like JUnitCore core = new JUnitCore(); core.addListener(new RunListener()); core.addParameters(java.sql.Connection); core.run(classToRun); Then within the classToRun: @Test Public void Test1(Connection dbConnection){ Statement st = dbConnection.createStatement(); ResultSet rs = st.executeQuery("select total from dual"); rs.next(); String myTotal = rs.getString("TOTAL"); //btw my tests are selenium testcases:) selenium.isTextPresent(myTotal); } I know about The @Parameters, but it doesn't seem applicable here as it is more for running the same test case multiple times with differing values. I want all of my test cases to share a database connection that I pass in through a configuration file to my java client that then runs those test cases (also passed in through the configuration file). Is this possible? P.S. I understand this seems like an odd way of doing things.

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• auto_complete plugin error: Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name

  - by bgadoci

  I have successfully set up this plugin before so I am curious as to what I am doing wrong here. I have built the ability for users to add tags to questions. I am not using tagging plugin here but that shouldn't matter for this. With respect to the auto complete, I am trying to have the form located in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file access the Tags table and display entries in the tags.tags_name column. When I begin to type in the field I get the following error message: Processing QuestionsController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-31 15:22:20) [GET] Parameters: {"tag"=>{"tag_name"=>"a"}, "id"=>"auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name"} Question Load (0.1ms) SELECT * FROM "questions" WHERE ("questions"."id" = 0) ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound (Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name): app/controllers/application_controller.rb:15:in `init_data' For some reason I am actually passing the field name as the Question.id. The plugin set up is fairly simple as you add the following line to your controller: auto_complete_for :tag, :tag_name and the following line in your routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have added the controller line to both my tags and questions controller and also mapped resources for both tags and questions in my routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } map.resources :questions, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have played around with removing either or of the above but can't seem to fix it. Any ideas what I am doing wrong here?

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• How to access property in sub method after it runs?

  - by Warren

  I'm having a hard time working this one out but I think it should be pretty simple. Basically, I have this method which talks to a webservice and I need to return some data from the sub method, the "authCode". What am I doing wrong? How can I get the authCode out of the manager, or can I create a block or something to to ensure that the manager block runs first? Am I even using the right words - blocks, sub methods??? Please help :) - (NSString *)getAuthCodeEXAMPLE { __block NSString *returnString = @"nothing yet!"; NSURL *baseURL = [NSURL URLWithString:BaseURLString]; NSDictionary *parametersGetAuthCode = @{@"req": @"getauth"}; AFHTTPSessionManager *manager = [[AFHTTPSessionManager alloc] initWithBaseURL:baseURL]; manager.responseSerializer = [AFJSONResponseSerializer serializer]; [manager POST:APIscript parameters:parametersGetAuthCode success:^(NSURLSessionDataTask *task, id responseObject) { if ([task.response isKindOfClass:[NSHTTPURLResponse class]]) { NSHTTPURLResponse *r = (NSHTTPURLResponse *)task.response; if ([r statusCode] == 200) { self.returnedData = responseObject; NSString *authCode = [self.returnedData authcode]; NSLog(@"Authcode: %@", authCode); returnString = authCode; } } } failure:^(NSURLSessionDataTask *task, NSError *error) { UIAlertView *alertView = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Error" message:[error localizedDescription] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"Ok" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [alertView show]; }]; //this currently returns "nothing yet!" return returnString; }

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• Javascript Conflict on PHP page

  - by patrick

  I am having trouble running two javascript files on the same page. I used JQuery.noConflict() (http://api.jquery.com/jQuery.noConflict/) but no luck. <script src="http://www.google.com/jsapi"></script> <script> google.load("prototype", "1.6.0.3",{uncompressed:false}); google.load("scriptaculous", "1.8.1",{uncompressed:false}); </script> <script src="js/jquery.tools.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $jQuery.noConflict(); jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("#download_now").tooltip({ effect: 'slide'}); }); function show_text() { new Ajax.Request('./new.php', { method: 'post', parameters: { userid: $('userid').value }, onSuccess: function(r) { $('update').update(r.responseText) } }); } document.observe("dom:loaded", function() { $('loading').hide(); Ajax.Responders.register({ onCreate: function() { new Effect.Opacity('loading',{ from: 1.0, to: 0.3, duration: 0.7 }); new Effect.toggle('loading', 'appear'); }, onComplete: function() { new Effect.Opacity('loading', { from: 0.3, to: 1, duration: 0.7 }); new Effect.toggle('loading', 'appear'); } }); }); </script>

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• Website badge system

  - by linkyndy

  I am currently working on a widget-based website, built entirely on user socialization. Since a reputation system pays off for attracting users, I decided to implement one of these. Now, I would like to hear some solutions on how should this be implemented the right way (take, for example, Foursquare's badge system). Basically, I need to be able to do the following: have a badges table, where I can add, edit and delete badges; be able to enable and disable a badge; be able to introduce a new badge, but without writing new code - simply give some parameters to the add badge form regarding what should be followed in order for a user to receive a badge; be able to give badges in real time - meaning that whenever a user accomplishes whatever it needs to receive a badge, the system should know immediately to give the badge to that user; also, the system should not be overloaded with "badge listeners" - I believe interrogating each user request with every badge requirements is time consuming; These being said, I would like to hear your opinions on how to implement the right way a badge system (logic, database schema, methods etc.) Thank you very much!

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• post values to external page explicitly PHP

  - by JPro

  Hi, I want to post values to a page through a hyperlink in another page. Is it possible to do that? Let's say I have a page results.php which has the starting line, <?php if(isset($_POST['posted_value'])) { echo "expected value"; // do something with the data } else { echo "no the value expected"; } If from another page say link.php I place a hyperlink like this: <a href="results.php?posted_value=1"> , will this be accepetd by the results page? If instead if I replace the above starting line with if(isset($_REQUEST['posted_value'])), will this work? I believe the above hyperlink evaluates to GET, but since the only visibility difference between GET and POST that is you can see parameters in the address bar with GET But, is there any other way to place a hyperlink which can post values to a page? or can we use jquery in the place of hyperlink to POST the values? Can anyone please suggest me something on this please? Thanks.

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• Adding an keyUp-event to form objects

  - by reporter

  Hello folks, I've got the issue to add a browser event to some input fields. The challenge I have to face is, that one parameter of my target function is the 'event'-variable and the second one an object. For a better understanding here some codes:The HTML object: <div id="1_dateFieldAdvanced" class="xp set"> <div id="1_dateFieldAdvanced_label" class="label">Birthday</div> <div id="1_dateFieldAdvanced_value" class="value date"> <input class="day" name="dayOfBirth" value="66" maxlength="2" type="text"> <input class="month" name="monthOfBirth" value="67" maxlength="2" type="text"> <input class="year" name="yearOfBirth" value="" maxlength="4" type="text"> </div> </div> The source code of target method is like below: function advancedDateFields(currentFieldAsObject, nextField, currentValueLength, ev){} Unfortunatly the HTML and the Javascript code is generated automatically, so I'm unable to refactore the code. My question is, how can I pass the key word 'event' and the other parameters? My tries did always fail. :-(

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• Is this method a good aproach to get SQL values from C#?

  - by MadBoy

  I have this little method that i use to get stuff from SQL. I either call it with varSearch = "" or varSearch = "something". I would like to know if having method written this way is best or would it be better to split it into two methods (by overloading), or maybe i could somehow parametrize whole WHERE clausule? private void sqlPobierzKontrahentDaneKlienta(ListView varListView, string varSearch) { varListView.BeginUpdate(); varListView.Items.Clear(); string preparedCommand; if (varSearch == "") { preparedCommand = @" SELECT t1.[KlienciID], CASE WHEN t2.[PodmiotRodzaj] = 'Firma' THEN t2.[PodmiotFirmaNazwa] ELSE t2.[PodmiotOsobaNazwisko] + ' ' + t2.[PodmiotOsobaImie] END AS 'Nazwa' FROM [BazaZarzadzanie].[dbo].[Klienci] t1 INNER JOIN [BazaZarzadzanie].[dbo].[Podmioty] t2 ON t1.[PodmiotID] = t2.[PodmiotID] ORDER BY t1.[KlienciID]"; } else { preparedCommand = @" SELECT t1.[KlienciID], CASE WHEN t2.[PodmiotRodzaj] = 'Firma' THEN t2.[PodmiotFirmaNazwa] ELSE t2.[PodmiotOsobaNazwisko] + ' ' + t2.[PodmiotOsobaImie] END AS 'Nazwa' FROM [BazaZarzadzanie].[dbo].[Klienci] t1 INNER JOIN [BazaZarzadzanie].[dbo].[Podmioty] t2 ON t1.[PodmiotID] = t2.[PodmiotID] WHERE t2.[PodmiotOsobaNazwisko] LIKE @searchValue OR t2.[PodmiotFirmaNazwa] LIKE @searchValue OR t2.[PodmiotOsobaImie] LIKE @searchValue ORDER BY t1.[KlienciID]"; } using (var varConnection = Locale.sqlConnectOneTime(Locale.sqlDataConnectionDetails)) using (SqlCommand sqlQuery = new SqlCommand(preparedCommand, varConnection)) { sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@searchValue", "%" + varSearch + "%"); using (SqlDataReader sqlQueryResult = sqlQuery.ExecuteReader()) if (sqlQueryResult != null) { while (sqlQueryResult.Read()) { string varKontrahenciID = sqlQueryResult["KlienciID"].ToString(); string varKontrahent = sqlQueryResult["Nazwa"].ToString(); ListViewItem item = new ListViewItem(varKontrahenciID, 0); item.SubItems.Add(varKontrahent); varListView.Items.AddRange(new[] {item}); } } } varListView.EndUpdate(); }

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• Name lookup for names not dependent on template parameter in VC++2008 Express. Is it a bug?

  - by Maciej H

  While experimenting a bit with C++ templates I managed to produce this simple code, for which the output is different, than I expected according to my understanding of C++ rules. void bar(double d) { std::cout << "bar(double) function called" << std::endl; } template <typename T> void foo(T t) { bar(3); } void bar(int i) { std::cout << "bar(int) function called" << std::endl; } int main() { foo(3); return 0; } When I compile this code is VC++2008 Express function bar(int) gets called. That would be the behaviour I would expect if bar(3);in the template body was dependent on the template parameter. But it's not. The rule I found here says "The C++ standard prescribes that all names that are not dependent on template parameters are bound to their present definitions when parsing a template function or class". Am I wrong, that "present definition" of bar when parsing the template function foo is the definition of void bar(double d);? Why it's not the case if I am wrong. There are no forward declarations of bar in this compilation unit.

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• What's the steps for SQL optimization and changes without reflect live system ?

  - by Space Cracker

  we have a big portal that build using SharePoint 2007 , asp.net 3.5 , SQL Server 2005 .. many developers work in it since 01/2008 and we are now doing huge analysis for current SQL Databases [not share-point DB ] to optimize and enhance it. The main db have about 330 table and 1720 stored procedure (SP) created from 01/2008 till now Many table names / Columns is very long and we want to short it we found SP names is written in 25 format :( , some of them are very complex and also we want to rename many SP parameters need to be renamed one of the biggest table is Registered user table, that will be spitted in more than one table for some optimization, many columns name will be changed I searched for the way that i can rename table names ,columns and i found SQL refactor tool but i still trying it .. my questions : Is SQl Refactor is the best tool for renaming ? or is there any other one ? if i want to make it manually, is there any references or best practice for that ? How can i do such changes in fast and stable way .. i search for recommendations and case studies if exist ?

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• What is a good solution to log the deletion of a row in MySQL?

  - by hobodave

  Background I am currently logging deletion of rows from my tickets table at the application level. When a user deletes a ticket the following SQL is executed: INSERT INTO alert_log (user_id, priority, priorityName, timestamp, message) VALUES (9, 4, 'WARN', NOW(), "TICKET: David A. deleted ticket #6 from Foo"); Please do not offer schema suggestions for the alert_log table. Fields: user_id - User id of the logged in user performing the deletion priority - Always 4 priorityName - Always 'WARN' timestamp - Always NOW() message - Format: "[NAMESPACE]: [FullName] deleted ticket #[TicketId] from [CompanyName]" NAMESPACE - Always TICKET FullName - Full name of user identified by user_id above TicketId - Primary key ID of the ticket being deleted CompanyName - Ticket has a Company via tickets.company_id Situation/Questions Obviously this solution does not work if a ticket is deleted manually from the mysql command line client. However, now I need to. The issues I'm having are as follows: Should I use a PROCEDURE, FUNCTION, or TRIGGER? -- Analysis: TRIGGER - I don't think this will work because I can't pass parameters to it, and it would trigger when my application deleted the row too. PROCEDURE or FUNCTION - Not sure. Should I return the number of deleted rows? If so, that would require a FUNCTION right? How should I account for the absence of a logged in user? -- Possibilities: Using either a PROC or FUNC, require the invoker to pass in a valid user_id Require the user to pass in a string with the name Use the CURRENT_USER - meh Hard code the FullName to just be "Database Administrator" Could the name be an optional parameter? I'm rather green when it comes to sprocs. Assuming I went with the PROC/FUNC approach, is it possible to outright restrict regular DELETE calls to this table, yet still allow users to call this PROC/FUNC to do the deletion for them? Ideally the solution is usable by my application as well, so that my code is DRY.

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• Internal typedef and circular dependency

  - by bcr

  I have two classes whose functions take typedefed pointers to eachother as return values and parameters. I.e.: class Segment; class Location : public Fwk::NamedInterface { public: // ===== Class Typedefs ===== typedef Fwk::Ptr<Location const> PtrConst; typedef Fwk::Ptr<Location> Ptr; // ===== Class Typedefs End ===== void segmentIs(Segment::Ptr seg); /* ... */ } and class Location; class Segment : public Fwk::NamedInterface { public: // ===== Class Typedefs ===== typedef Fwk::Ptr<Segment const> PtrConst; typedef Fwk::Ptr<Segment> Ptr; // ===== Class Typedefs End ===== void locationIs(Location::Ptr seg); /* ... */ } This understandably generated linker errors...which the forward declarations of the respective classes don't fix. How can I forward declare the Ptr and PtrConst typedefs while keeping these typedefs internal to the class (i.e. I would like to write Location::Ptr to refer to the location pointer type)? Thanks folks!

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• DynamicContent.html: Write a JavaScript in an HTML document that can change the content of an HTML e

  - by A sw A

  ShowHide.html: Write a JavaScript in an HTML document that displays an image and allows the user to toggle the image between appearing and not appearing in the document. Place your image in a (division) tag that has a style attribute. “style.visibility” can take two values: “visible” and “hidden”. The document has a button called “Toggle Image”, which calls the toggle function upon the event “onclick”. DynamicColors.html: Write a JavaScript in an HTML document that changes the background and foreground colors of the body of a document according to the user input. The document has two input texts: background color and foreground color. The colors change when the event “onchange” occurs as you type in the text input and the event handler is called. Your event handler takes two parameters: “where”, and “newColor”. To change the document color and background color you need to change the elements document.body.style.color and document.body.style.backgroundColor. Available colors are: black, silver, gray, white, maroon, red, purple, fuchsia, green, lime, olive, yellow, navy, blue, teal, and aqua. DynamicContent.html: Write a JavaScript in an HTML document that can change the content of an HTML element (a help box). The content of an element is accessed through its “value” property. The content of a help box can change depending on the placement of the mouse cursor. When the cursor is placed over a particular input field (“onmouseover” event), the help box can display advice on how the field is to be filled. When the cursor is moved away from the input field (“onmouseout” event), the help box content changes to simply indicate that assistance is available. Your messages are stored in an array of strings.

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• Joomla get plugin id

  - by Christian Sciberras

  I wrote a Joomla plugin which will eventually load a library. The path to library is a plugin parameter, as such when the path is incorrect, a message pops up in the backend, together with a link to edit the plugin parameters: /administrator/index.php?option=com_plugins&view=plugin&client=site&task=edit&cid[]=36 See the 36 at the end? That's my plugin's id in the database (table jos_plugins). My issue is that this id changes on installation, ie, on different installs, it would be something else. So I need to find this id programmatically. The problem is that I couldn't find this id from the plugin object itself (as to why not, that would be joomla's arguably short-sighted design decision). So unless you know about some neat trick, (I've checked and double checked JPlugin and JPluginHelper classes), I'll be using the DB. Edit; Some useful links: http://docs.joomla.org/Plugin_Developer_Overview http://api.joomla.org/Joomla-Framework/Plugin/JPlugin.html http://api.joomla.org/Joomla-Framework/Plugin/JPluginHelper.html http://forum.joomla.org/viewtopic.php?p=2227737 Guess I'll be using the wisdom from that last link...

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• auto_complete plugin error: Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_...

  - by bgadoci

  I have successfully set up this plugin before so I am curious as to what I am doing wrong here. I have built the ability for users to add tags to questions. I am not using tagging plugin here but that shouldn't matter for this. With respect to the auto complete, I am trying to have the form located in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file access the Tags table and display entries in the tags.tags_name column. When I begin to type in the field I get the following error message: Processing QuestionsController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-31 15:22:20) [GET] Parameters: {"tag"=>{"tag_name"=>"a"}, "id"=>"auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name"} Question Load (0.1ms) SELECT * FROM "questions" WHERE ("questions"."id" = 0) ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound (Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name): app/controllers/application_controller.rb:15:in `init_data' For some reason I am actually passing the field name as the Question.id. The plugin set up is fairly simple as you add the following line to your controller: auto_complete_for :tag, :tag_name and the following line in your routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have added the controller line to both my tags and questions controller and also mapped resources for both tags and questions in my routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } map.resources :questions, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have played around with removing either or of the above but can't seem to fix it. Any ideas what I am doing wrong here? UPDATE: My QuestionsController#show action is fishing posts by: @question = Question.find(params[:id])

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• iPhone: How to run a Beta build, in addition to the App Store build?

  - by rondoagogo

  Hi, All! I have an app on the Store for which we’re readying an update. The other members of our team have the App Store version already loaded up (~purchased) on their respective iPhones -- and those contain User Data which each member needs to be able to keep. In the meantime, we need to test out a Beta version of the next version of the app. Presumably, we’d need to have the two versions (ad hoc, and app store) co-existing on each device, at least until everyone’s signed off on the beta, and it’s uploaded to the store (at which point, they'd delete the beta version). [Once it’s on the Store, of course, they can each update their main (i.e., Release) version of the app via the usual App Store 'update' mechanism -- and then delete the beta version from their devices. In that case, all their user data is still retained intact.] So assuming that’s the proper workflow ... How do I issue a Beta to the team, and have it not replace/overwrite the existing App Store version? I’ve tried customizing parameters in the beta’s “[appname]-Info.plist”, but haven’t found a setting yet that allows the two versions (beta and release) to co-exist on the same device. Any ideas? And is this this is the proper approach to them being able to keep their data? (And last, how might I do it with & without a script? I assume there's just one parameter that'd need to be changed.) I hope this all makes sense -- thank you in advance for your help!

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