Search Results

Search found 29508 results on 1181 pages for 'object initializers'.

Page 323/1181 | < Previous Page | 319 320 321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329 330  | Next Page >

  • How to transfer objects through the header in WCF

    - by Michael
    I'm trying to transfer some user information in the header of the message through message inspectors. I have created a behavior which adds the inspector to the service (both client and server). But when I try to communicate with the service I get the following error: XmlException: Name cannot begin with the '<' character, hexadecimal value 0x3C. I have also get exception telling me that DataContracts where unexpected. Type 'System.DelegateSerializationHolder+DelegateEntry' with data contract name 'DelegateSerializationHolder.DelegateEntry:http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System' is not expected. Consider using a DataContractResolver or add any types not known statically to the list of known types - for example, by using the KnownTypeAttribute attribute or by adding them to the list of known types passed to DataContractSerializer. The thing is that my object contains other objects which are marked as DataContract and I'm not interested adding the KnownType attribute for those types. Another problem might be that my object to serialize is very restricted in form of internal class and internal properties etc. Can anyone guide me in the right direction. What I'm I doing wrong? Some code: public virtual object BeforeSendRequest(ref Message request, IClientChannel channel) { var header = MessageHeader.CreateHeader("<name>", "<namespace>", object); request.Headers.Add(header); return Guid.NewGuid(); }

    Read the article

  • Unit tests for deep cloning

    - by Will Dean
    Let's say I have a complex .NET class, with lots of arrays and other class object members. I need to be able to generate a deep clone of this object - so I write a Clone() method, and implement it with a simple BinaryFormatter serialize/deserialize - or perhaps I do the deep clone using some other technique which is more error prone and I'd like to make sure is tested. OK, so now (ok, I should have done it first) I'd like write tests which cover the cloning. All the members of the class are private, and my architecture is so good (!) that I haven't needed to write hundreds of public properties or other accessors. The class isn't IComparable or IEquatable, because that's not needed by the application. My unit tests are in a separate assembly to the production code. What approaches do people take to testing that the cloned object is a good copy? Do you write (or rewrite once you discover the need for the clone) all your unit tests for the class so that they can be invoked with either a 'virgin' object or with a clone of it? How would you test if part of the cloning wasn't deep enough - as this is just the kind of problem which can give hideous-to-find bugs later?

    Read the article

  • How do I 'addChild' an DisplayObject3d from another class? (Papervision3d)

    - by Sandor
    Hi All Im kind of new in the whole papervision scene. For a school assignment I'm making a panorama version of my own room using a cube with 6 pictures in it. It created the panorama, it works great. But now I want to add clickable objects in it. One of the requirements is that my code is OOP focused. So that's what I am trying right now. Currently I got two classes - Main.as (Here i make the panorama cube as the room) - photoWall.as (Here I want to create my first clickable object) Now my problem is: I want to addChild a clickable object from photoWall.as to my panorama room. But he doesn't show it? I think it has something to do with the scenes. I use a new scene in Main.as and in photoWall.as. No errors or warnings are reported This is the piece in photoWall.as were I want to addChild my object (photoList): private function portret():void { //defining my material for the clickable portret var material : BitmapFileMaterial = new BitmapFileMaterial('images/room.jpg'); var material_list : MaterialsList = new MaterialsList( { front: material, back: material } ); // I don't know if this is nessecary? that's my problem scene = new Scene3D(); material.interactive = true; // make the clickable object as a cube var photoList : DisplayObject3D = new Cube(material_list, 1400, 1400, 1750, 1, 4, 4, 4); // positioning photoList.x = -1400; photoList.y = -280; photoList.z = 5000; //mouse event photoList.addEventListener( InteractiveScene3DEvent.OBJECT_CLICK, onPress); // this is my problem! I cannot see 'photoList' within my scene!!! scene.addChild(photoList); // trace works, so the function must be loaded. trace('function loaded'); } Hope you guys can help me out here. Would really be great! Thanks, Sandor

    Read the article

  • EJB3Unit testing no-tx-datasource

    - by justastefan
    Hello, I am doing tests on an ejb3-project using ejb3unit http://ejb3unit.sourceforge.net/Session-Bean.html for testing. All my Services long for @PersistenceContext (UnitName=bla). I set up the ejb3unit.properties like this: ejb3unit_jndi.1.isSessionBean=true ejb3unit_jndi.1.jndiName=ejb/MyServiceBean ejb3unit_jndi.1.className=com.company.project.MyServiceBean everything works with the in-memory-database. So now i want additionally test another servicebean with @PersistenceContext (UnitName=noTxDatasource) that goes for a defined in my datasources.xml: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> ... </local-tx-datasource> <no-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>noTxDatasource</jndi-name> <connection-url>...</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver</driver-class> <user-name>bla</user-name> <password>bla</password> </no-tx-datasource> </datasources> How do I tell ejb3unit to make this work: Object object = InitialContext.doLookup("java:/noTxDatasource"); if (object instanceof DataSource) { return ((DataSource) object).getConnection(); } else { return null; } Currently it fails saying: javax.NamingException: Cannot find the name (noTxDataSource) in the JNDI tree Current bindings: (ejb/MyServiceBean=com.company.project.MyServiceBean) How can I add this no-tx-datasource to the jndi bindings?

    Read the article

  • Making .NET assembly COM-visible and working for VB5

    - by Cyberherbalist
    I have an assembly which I have managed to make visible to VB6 and it works, but having a problem accomplishing the same thing with VB5. For VB6, I have built the assembly, made it COM-visible, registered it as a COM object etc., and the assembly shows in VB6's References list, and allows me to use it successfully. The Object Browser also shows the method in the assy. I copied the assembly and its TLB to a virtual workstation used for VB5 development, and ran Regasm, apparently successfully: C:\>C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727 \regasm arserviceinterface.dll /tlb:arserviceinterface.tlb Microsoft (R) .NET Framework Assembly Registration Utility 2.0.50727.3053 Copyright (C) Microsoft Corporation 1998-2004. All rights reserved. Assembly exported to 'C:\Projects\AR\3rd Party\ARService\arserviceinterface.tlb' , and the type library was registered successfully Note that the virtual W/S is Win2k and does not have .NET Fx 3.5 on it, just 2.0. The assembly shows up in the References that can be selected in VB5, but the method of the assembly doesn't show up in the Object Browser, and it is generally unusable. Either there is a step to do that I haven't done, or VB5 doesn't know how to use such a COM object. Note that the VB5 setup is on a virtual workstation, not the same workstation that VB6 is installed on. Any ideas? One thing that occurred to me is that I might need to generate and use a strong name on the workstation in question, but...

    Read the article

  • Django Forms - change the render multiple select widget

    - by John
    Hi, In my model I have a manytomany field mentors = models.ManyToManyField(MentorArea, verbose_name='Areas', blank=True) In my form I want to render this as: drop down box with list of all MentorArea objects which has not been associated with the object. Next to that an add button which will call a javascript function which will add it to the object. Then under that a ul list which has each selected MentorArea object with a x next to it which again calls a javascript function which will remove the MentorArea from the object. I know that to change how an field element is rendered you create a custom widget and override the render function and I have done that to create the add button. class AreaWidget(widgets.Select): def render(self, name, value, attrs=None, choices=()): jquery = u''' <input class="button def" type="button" value="Add" id="Add Area" />''' output = super(AreaWidget, self).render(name, value, attrs, choices) return output + mark_safe(jquery) However I don't know how to list the currently selected ones underneath as a list. Can anyone help me? Also what is the best way to filter down the list so that it only shows MentorArea objects which have not been added? I currently have the field as mentors = forms.ModelMultipleChoiceField(queryset=MentorArea.objects.all(), widget = AreaWidget, required=False) but this shows all mentors no matter if they have been added or not. Thanks

    Read the article

  • NSOutlineview - strange behavior after reloading data

    - by matei
    I have a NSOutlineView which loads data from a data source. The table is displayed in a panel. The items shown in the table are items which belong to an object (the relation is one-to many between the object and the items). I have a list of objects in a combo box (in fact a NSPopupButton), and when I select another object in the combo box, I want it's items to be shown in the table (the NSOutlineView). I managed to do all this , however when I select another object from the combo box, not all of it's items are displayed. I have put some logging messages in the data source and it seems that there are some items that are being returned from the data source , but are not shown in the table (and are not queried for children). Now the strange part is that when I click the main window (as I said, all that I described here is in a NSPanel loaded on top of the window) , all the data is displayed correctly. It seems as if clicking the main window triggers something in the NSOutlineView that makes it display the missing items, but I can't tell what it is.

    Read the article

  • System.Dynamic bug?

    - by ControlFlow
    While I playing with the C# 4.0 dynamic, I found strange things happening with the code like this: using System.Dynamic; sealed class Foo : DynamicObject { public override bool TryInvoke( InvokeBinder binder, object[] args, out object result) { result = new object(); return true; } static void Main() { dynamic foo = new Foo(); var t1 = foo(0); var t2 = foo(0); var t3 = foo(0); var t4 = foo(0); var t5 = foo(0); } } Ok, it works but... take a look at IntelliTrace window: So every invokation (and other operations too on dynamic object) causes throwing and catching strange exceptions twice! I understand, that sometimes exceptions mechanism may be used for optimizations, for example first call to dynamic may be performed to some stub delegate, that simply throws exception - this may be like a signal to dynamic binder to resolve an correct member and re-point delegate. Next call to the same delegate will be performed without any checks. But... behavior of the code above looks very strange. Maybe throwing and catching exceptions twice per any operation on DynamicObject - is a bug?

    Read the article

  • Hibernate: Dirty Checking and Only Update of Dirty Attributes?

    - by jens
    Hello Experts, in "good old JDBC days" I wrote a lot of SQL Queries that did very targeted updates of only the "attributes/members" that were actually changed: For Example having an object with the following members: public String name; public String address; public Date date; If only date was changed in some Business Method I would only issue an SQL UPDATE for the date member. ==It seems however (thats my "impression" of hibernate) that when working with a standard Hibernate mapping (mapping the full class), even updates of only one single member lead to a full update of the object in SQL Statements generated by Hibernate. My Questions are: 1.) Is this observation correct, that hibernate DOES NOT intelligently check (in a fully mapped class), what member(s) where changed and then only issue updates for the specific changed members, but rather always will update (in the generated SQL Update Statement) all mapped members (of a class), even if they were not changed (in case the object is dirty due to one member being dirty...) 2.) What can I do to make Hibernate only update those members, that have been changed? I am searching for a solution to have hibernate only update the member that actually changed. (I know hibernate does some big work on doing dirty-checking, but as far as I know this dirtychecking is only relevant to identify if the object as whole is dirty, not what single member is dirty.) Thank you very much! Jens

    Read the article

  • Google Radar Chart: Not plotting data

    - by Hallik
    Hi. I have different types of data that I have normalized just with base10, so everything is on a 10 point scale. There are two data points, and the legend for them show up fine. All the points around the radar show up fine and so do the labels for them, but I don't see any filled in data. Outside of the labels and axis, the chart is blank. Below is the actual image tag I render, then I split up the variables on each line for easy readability. Anyone mind telling me why it isn't working? <img src="http://chart.apis.google.com/chart?cht=rs&amp;chm=B,3366CC60,0,1.0,5.0|B,CC4D3360,1,1.0,5.0&chs=600x500&chd=t:4.6756775443385,4.7031365524912,1.8646655408171,1.8358167047079,4.2483837215455,4.1367786166752,|5.0319252700625,5.0370797208146,1.8415340693163,1.8591105937857,4.3392150450337,4.1434876641017&chco=3366CC,CC4D33&chls=2.0,4.0,0.0|2.0,4.0,0.0&chxt=x&chxl=0:|Label1|Label2|label3|Label4|Label5|Label6&chxr=0,0.0,10.0&chdl=Data Object 1|Data Object 2&"/> cht=rs& chm=B,3366CC60,0,1.0,5.0|B,CC4D3360,1,1.0,5.0& chs=600x500& chd=t:4.6756775443385,4.7031365524912,1.8646655408171,1.8358167047079,4.2483837215455,4.1367786166752,|5.0319252700625,5.0370797208146,1.8415340693163,1.8591105937857,4.3392150450337,4.1434876641017& chco=3366CC,CC4D33& chls=2.0,4.0,0.0|2.0,4.0,0.0& chxt=x& chxl=0:|Label1|Label2|label3|Label4|Label5|Label6& chxr=0,0.0,10.0& chdl=Data Object 1|Data Object 2& This is the radar chart page, I can't tell what I am doing wrong. http://code.google.com/apis/chart/docs/gallery/radar_charts.html

    Read the article

  • COM: How to handle a specific exception?

    - by Ian Boyd
    i'm talking to a COM object (Microsoft ADO Recordset object). In a certain case the recordset will return a failed (i.e. negative) HRESULT, with the message: Item cannot be found in the collection corresponding to the requested name or ordinal i know what this error message means, know why it happened, and i how to fix it. But i know these things because i read the message, which fortunately was in a language i understand. Now i would like to handle this exception specially. The COM object threw an HRESULT of 0x800A0CC1 In an ideal world Microsoft would have documented what errors can be returned when i try to access: records.Fields.Items( index ) with an invalid index. But they do not; they most they say is that an error can occur, i.e.: If Item cannot find an object in the collection corresponding to the Index argument, an error occurs. Given that the returned error code is not documented, is it correct to handle a specific return code of `0x800A0CC1' when i'm trying to trap the exception: Item cannot be found in the collection corresponding to the requested name or ordinal ? Since Microsoft didn't document the error code, they technically change it in the future.

    Read the article

  • display sqlite datatable in a jtable

    - by tuxou
    Hi I'm trying to display an sqlite data table in a jtable but i have an error " sqlite is type forward only" how could I display it in a jtable try { long start = System.currentTimeMillis(); Statement state = ConnectionBd.getInstance().createStatement( ResultSet.TYPE_SCROLL_INSENSITIVE, ResultSet.CONCUR_READ_ONLY ); ResultSet res = state.executeQuery("SELECT * FROM data"); ResultSetMetaData meta = res.getMetaData(); Object[] column = new Object[meta.getColumnCount()]; for(int i = 1 ; i <= meta.getColumnCount(); i++){ column[i-1] = meta.getColumnName(i); } res.last(); int rowCount = res.getRow(); Object[][] data = new Object[res.getRow()][meta.getColumnCount()]; res.beforeFirst(); int j = 1; while(res.next()){ for(int i = 1 ; i <= meta.getColumnCount(); i++) data[j-1][i-1] = res.getObject(i); j++; } res.close(); state.close(); long totalTime = System.currentTimeMillis() - start; result.removeAll(); result.add(new JScrollPane(new JTable(data, column)), BorderLayout.CENTER); result.add(new JLabel("execute in " + totalTime + " ms and has " + rowCount + " ligne(s)"), BorderLayout.SOUTH); result.revalidate(); } catch (SQLException e) { result.removeAll(); result.add(new JScrollPane(new JTable()), BorderLayout.CENTER); result.revalidate(); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null, e.getMessage(), "ERREUR ! ", JOptionPane.ERROR_MESSAGE); } thank you

    Read the article

  • Spring.net is not injecting chained base class properties!

    - by JohnIdol
    I am successfully injecting base class properties with spring.net with just a class that inherits from a base abstract class. Lets say Class MyClass : MyBase, and I am successfully setting a property like this: <object id="myInstantiableClass" type="myAssembly.MyClass myAssenbly" abstract="true"> <property name="MyBaseClassProperty" ref="anotherObjRef"></property> </object> Where MyBaseClassProperty is a property on the base class. Now I have another abstract class between the old base class and the instantiable class, and I am trying to set properties on both the abstract classes. So MyClass : MyNewBaseClass, and MyNewBaseClass : MyBaseClass. I have an additional property on the new base class (MyNewBaseClassProperty) and I am trying to inject it like this: <object id="myInstantiableClass" type="myAssembly.MyClass myAssenbly" abstract="true"> <property name="MyBaseClassProperty" ref="anotherObjRef"></property> <property name="MyNewBaseClassProperty" ref="someOtherObjRef"></property> </object> The property on the old base class is being injected but the one on the new one is not - and I am not getting an error or anything (so I am pretty sure my config is good), that property is just null! Any help appreciated! P.S. I am on asp.net (not MVC) but I don't think it's related.

    Read the article

  • How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

    Read the article

  • How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

    - by Gary McGill
    DUPLICATE of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2433422/how-can-i-stop-an-auto-generated-linq-to-sql-class-from-loading-all-data post answers there! I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

    Read the article

  • Application connection with database persist after sucessfull transaction also.

    - by anupam3m
    Hi , I am using Spring.Data.NHibernate12 on my database level.my application connection with database is not getting released. Underneath given is Dataconfiguration.xml < ?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ? < objects xmlns="http://www.springframework.net" xmlns:db="http://www.springframework.net/database" < object id="AuditLogger" type="Risco.Rsp.Ac.Audit.AuditLogger, Risco.Rsp.Ac.Audit" singleton="false" < property name="CacheSettings" ref="CacheSettings"/ < /object < object id="CacheSettings" type="Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMgmt.Utilities.UpdateEntityCacheHelper, Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMgmt.Utilities" singleton="false"/ < object type="Spring.Objects.Factory.Config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer, Spring.Core" < <property name="ConfigSections" value="databaseSettings"/> < < db:provider id="AMACDbProvider" provider="OracleClient-2.0" connectionString="Data Source=RISCODEVDB;User ID=amsbvt; Password=amsuser1234;"/ Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.Mapping Risco.Rsp.Ac.Logging.Appenders Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMappings --

    Read the article

  • Programmatically Add Controls to WPF Form

    - by user210757
    I am trying to add controls to a UserControl dynamically (programatically). I get a generic List of objects from my Business Layer (retrieved from the database), and for each object, I want to add a Label, and a TextBox to the WPF UserControl and set the Position and widths to make look nice, and hopefully take advantage of the WPF Validation capabilities. This is something that would be easy in Windows Forms programming but I'm new to WPF. How do I do this (see comments for questions) Say this is my object: public class Field { public string Name { get; set; } public int Length { get; set; } public bool Required { get; set; } } Then in my WPF UserControl, I'm trying to create a Label and TextBox for each object: public void createControls() { List<Field> fields = businessObj.getFields(); Label label = null; TextBox textbox = null; foreach (Field field in fields) { label = new TextBox(); // HOW TO set text, x and y (margin), width, validation based upon object? // i have tried this without luck: // Binding b = new Binding("Name"); // BindingOperations.SetBinding(label, Label.ContentProperty, b); MyGrid.Children.Add(label); textbox = new TextBox(); // ??? MyGrid.Children.Add(textbox); } // databind? this.DataContext = fields; }

    Read the article

  • c# Most efficient way to combine two objects

    - by Dested
    I have two objects that can be represented as an int, float, bool, or string. I need to perform an addition on these two objects with the results being the same thing c# would produce as a result. For instance 1+"Foo" would equal the string "1Foo", 2+2.5 would equal the float 5.5, and 3+3 would equal the int 6 . Currently I am using the code below but it seems like incredible overkill. Can anyone simplify or point me to some way to do this efficiently? private object Combine(object o, object o1) { float left = 0; float right = 0; bool isInt = false; string l = null; string r = null; if (o is int) { left = (int)o; isInt = true; } else if (o is float) { left = (float)o; } else if (o is bool) { l = o.ToString(); } else { l = (string)o; } if (o1 is int) { right = (int)o1; } else if (o is float) { right = (float)o1; isInt = false; } else if (o1 is bool) { r = o1.ToString(); isInt = false; } else { r = (string)o1; isInt = false; } object rr; if (l == null) { if (r == null) { rr = left + right; } else { rr = left + r; } } else { if (r == null) { rr = l + right; } else { rr = l + r; } } if (isInt) { return Convert.ToInt32(rr); } return rr; }

    Read the article

  • JSF:Resourcebundle Problem with Internationalization

    - by Sven
    I implemented internationalization like in that tutorial! When I change the language in my app. It works. But only until the next request happens. Then language settings are reset to my standard language -.- What am I missing here: LanguageBean.java @ManagedBean(name="language") @SessionScoped public class LanguageBean implements Serializable{ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; private String localeCode; private static Map<String,Object> countries; static{ countries = new LinkedHashMap<String,Object>(); countries.put("Deutsch", Locale.GERMAN); //label, value countries.put("English", Locale.ENGLISH); } public Map<String, Object> getCountriesInMap() { return countries; } public String getLocaleCode() { return localeCode; } public void setLocaleCode(String localeCode) { this.localeCode = localeCode; } //value change event listener public void countryLocaleCodeChanged(ValueChangeEvent e){ String newLocaleValue = e.getNewValue().toString(); //loop country map to compare the locale code for (Map.Entry<String, Object> entry : countries.entrySet()) { if(entry.getValue().toString().equals(newLocaleValue)){ FacesContext.getCurrentInstance() .getViewRoot().setLocale((Locale)entry.getValue()); } } } } my facelets template: <h:selectOneMenu value="#{language.localeCode}" onchange="submit()" valueChangeListener="#{language.countryLocaleCodeChanged}"> <f:selectItems value="#{language.countriesInMap}" /> </h:selectOneMenu> faces-config: <application> <locale-config> <default-locale>de</default-locale> </locale-config> <resource-bundle> <base-name>org.dhbw.stg.wwi2008c.mopro.ui.text</base-name> <var>msg</var> </resource-bundle> </application>

    Read the article

  • Dashcode code translation

    - by Alex Mcp
    Hi, a quick, probably easy question whose answer is probably "best practice" I'm following a tutorial for a custom-template mobile Safari webapp, and to change views around this code is used: function btnSave_ClickHandler(event) { var views = document.getElementById('stackLayout'); var front = document.getElementById('mainScreen'); if (views && views.object && front) { views.object.setCurrentView(front, true); } } My question is just about the if conditional statement. What is this triplet saying, and why do each of those things need to be verified before the view can be changed? Does views.object just test to see if the views variable responds to the object method? Why is this important? EDIT - This is/was the main point of this question, and it regards not Javascript as a language and how if loops work, but rather WHY these 3 things specifically need to be checked: Under what scenarios might views and front not exist? I don't typically write my code so redundantly. If the name of my MySQL table isn't changing, I'll just say UPDATE 'mytable' WHERE... instead of the much more verbose (and in my view, redundant) $mytable = "TheSQLTableName"; if ($mytable == an actual table && $mytable exists && entries can be updated){ UPDATE $mytable; } Whereas if the table's name (or in the JS example, the view's names) ARE NOT "hard coded" but are instead a user input or otherwise mutable, I might right my code as the DashCode example has it. So tell me, can these values "go wrong" anyhow? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • HttpModule to Write Out JavaScript Script References to the Response

    - by Chris
    On my page in the Page_Load event I add a collection of strings to the Context object. I have an HttpModule that will fire EndRequest and retrieve the collection of strings. What I then do is write out a script reference tag (based on the collection of strings) to the response. The problem is that the page reads the script reference but doesn't retrieve the contents of the file (I imagine because this is occurring in the EndRequest event). I can't fire the BeginRequest event because I won't have access to the Context Items collection. I tried to also registering an HttpHandler which Processes the request of the script reference but I can't access the collection of strings in the Context.Items from there. Any suggestions? Page_Load: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Context.Items.Add("ScriptFile", "/UserControls.js"); } HttpModule: public void OnEndRequest(Object s, EventArgs e) { HttpApplication app = s as HttpApplication; object script = app.Context.Items["ScriptFile"]; app.Response.Write("<script type='text/javascript' src='" + script + "'></script>"); }

    Read the article

  • Eclipse says I don't implement Enumeration, but I do

    - by Harm De Weirdt
    Goodmorning everybody, I'm having a little problem with a project for school. We are told to make an Iterator that implements Enumeration over a Hashmap. So i made this Enumeration: public Enumeration<Object> getEnumeration() { return new Enumeration<Object>() { private int itemsDone = 0; Collection<Long> keysCollection = getContent().keySet(); Long [] keys = keysCollection.toArray(new Long[keysCollection.size()]); @Override public boolean hasMoreElements() { if(itemsDone < getContent().size() +1 ) { return true; }else { return false; } } @Override public Object nextElement() { return getContent().get(keys[itemsDone++]); } }; } This goes in my Backpack class public class Backpack extends Item implements Carrier, Enumeration<Object>{ The hashmap is returned by getContent(). The problem now is that eclipse keeps telling me I havent implemented the methods from Enumeration. If I use the quick fix it just adds the hasMoreElements() and nextElement() dummy methods in my class. Somehow it doesn't see these methods in the inner class.. Can anyone help me please? Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • application-context.xml problem for Spring ActionScript

    - by jiri
    content of The application-content.xml is <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <objects xmlns="http://www.springactionscript.org/schema/objects" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springactionscript.org/schema/objects http://www.springactionscript.org/schema/objects/spring-actionscript-objects-1.0.xsd"> <property file="strings.properties" /> <object id="string1" class="String"/> <object id="string2" class="String"/> <object id="nlslzf" class="com.sgb.model.MyClass"/> </objects> content of strings.properties is: s1=Firststring s2=Secondstring but error: Main Thread (Suspended: Error: An object definition for 'string1' was not found.) org.springextensions.actionscript.ioc.factory.support::AbstractObjectFactory/getObject SpringActionScript/test SpringActionScript/onCreationComplete SpringActionScript/___SpringActionScript_Application1_creationComplete flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEventFunction [no source] mx.core::UIComponent/dispatchEvent mx.core::UIComponent/set initialized mx.managers::LayoutManager/doPhasedInstantiation Function/http://adobe.com/AS3/2006/builtin::apply [no source] mx.core::UIComponent/callLaterDispatcher2 mx.core::UIComponent/callLaterDispatcher2 mx.core::UIComponent/callLaterDispatcher i can run normal if removed the '' why it is? springactionscript bug?

    Read the article

  • Objective-C respondsToSelector question.

    - by Holli
    From what I have learned so far: In Objective-C you can send any message to any object. If the object does implement the right method it will be executed otherwise nothing will happen. This is because before the message is send Objective-C will perform respondsToSelector. I hope I am right so far. I did a little program for testing where an action is invoked every time a slider is moved. Also for testing I set the sender to NSButton but in fact it is an NSSlider. Now I asked the object if it will respond to setAlternateTitle. While a NSButton will do and NSSlider will not. If I run the code and do respondsToSelector myself it will tell me the object will not respond to that selector. If I test something else like intValue, it will respond. So my code is fine so far. - (IBAction)sliderDidMove:(id)sender { NSButton *slider = sender; BOOL responds = [slider respondsToSelector:@selector(setAlternateTitle)]; if(responds == YES) { NSLog(@"YES"); } else { NSLog(@"NO"); } [slider setAlternateTitle:@"Hello World"]; } But when I actually send the setAlternateTitle message the program will crash and I am not exactly sure why. Shouldn't it do a respondsToSelector before sending the message?

    Read the article

  • C# reflexion, cloning

    - by Enriquev
    Say I have this class Myclass that contains this method: public class MyClass { public int MyProperty { get; set; } public int MySecondProperty { get; set; } public MyOtherClass subClass { get; set; } public object clone<T>(object original, T emptyObj) { FieldInfo[] fis = this.GetType().GetFields(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.NonPublic); object tempMyClass = Activator.CreateInstance(typeof(T)); foreach (FieldInfo fi in fis) { if (fi.FieldType.Namespace != original.GetType().Namespace) fi.SetValue(tempMyClass, fi.GetValue(original)); else fi.SetValue(tempMyClass, this.clone(fi.GetValue(original), fi.GetValue(original))); } return tempMyClass; } } Then this class: public class MyOtherClass { public int MyProperty777 { get; set; } } when I do this: MyClass a = new MyClass { MyProperty = 1, MySecondProperty = 2, subClass = new MyOtherClass() { MyProperty777 = -1 } }; MyClass b = a.clone(a, a) as MyClass; how come on the second call to clone, T is of type object and not of type MyOtherClass

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 319 320 321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329 330  | Next Page >