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• How can I capture the keystroke that triggers "CellEndEdit" on a DataGridView in C#?

  - by Andy Stampor

  I have a DataGridView that is set to EditOnF2. I do some special processing of data in the CellEndEdit eventhandler that sets the value of the cell. I still want the functionality of the EditOnKeystrokeOrF2 of reverting to the original value when the Esc key is pressed. Unfortunately, at the CellEndEdit eventhandler, I don't see a way to tell what caused the CellEndEdit event to be fired. I only want to change the value of the cell if the Esc key is not pressed. How can I tell if it was or not? Edit: It is worth noting that the KeyDown event does not get fired when the cell is being edited, nor for the final ending keystroke. Edit2: I have tried the KeyPreview suggestion, but the form still does not capture the Escape key being pressed. Edit3: I've been experimenting with trying to get this working. I originally posted some of the following as a separate post, but feel it might be more relevant to include it here. I have a cell in a DataGridView that is now set to EditProgrammatically. To capture the keystroke that starts an edit, I am setting the cell.Value equal to the keystroke. However, this ruins the "Escape" functionality of the cell - when you press escape, instead of reverting to the original value, it reverts to the keystroke that I programmatically inserted into the cell. I believe that if I could set the "EditedFormattedValue" on a cell, this would be where I want to put my keystroke value, however this appears to be read only. How can I accomplish what I am attempting? An example to clarify: If the cell has a value of "54.3" in it, and I press the "9" key, it begins editing the cell and places a "9" there. If I hit Escape, instead of reverting to "54.3" it reverts to "9". What I want is for it to return to its original value of "54.3". So, I am trying to tackle this issue from both the beginning and the end. I think the real problem is that I am overwriting the original value and have no way to determine if I should revert it or not. Edit4: It looks like CellValidating might be worth using, but I am seeing strange behavior when I experiment with it. In a new project, I create the DataGridView and register for the various events and see that CellValidating is fired before the CellEndEdit. However, in my project where I am trying to get this to work, CellEndEdit is firing BEFORE CellValidating. Any ideas on what the difference might be?

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• Monitoring DOM Changes in JQuery

  - by user363866

  Is there a way to detect when the disabled attribute of an input changes in JQuery. I want to toggle the style based on the value. I can copy/paste the same enable/disable code for each change event (as I did below) but I was looking for a more generic approach. Can I create a custom event that will monitor the disabled attribute of specified inputs? Example: <style type="text/css">.disabled{ background-color:#dcdcdc; }</style> <fieldset> <legend>Option 1</legend> <input type="radio" name="Group1" id="Radio1" value="Yes" />Yes <input type="radio" name="Group1" id="Radio2" value="No" checked="checked" />No <div id="Group1Fields" style="margin-left: 20px;"> Percentage 1: <input type="text" id="Percentage1" disabled="disabled" /><br /> Percentage 2: <input type="text" id="Percentage2" disabled="disabled" /><br /> </div> </fieldset> <fieldset> <legend>Option 2</legend> <input type="radio" name="Group2" id="Radio3" value="Yes" checked="checked" />Yes <input type="radio" name="Group2" id="Radio4" value="No" />No <div id="Group2Fields" style="margin-left: 20px;"> Percentage 1: <input type="text" id="Text1" /><br /> Percentage 2: <input type="text" id="Text2" /><br /> </div> </fieldset> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { //apply disabled style to all disabled controls $("input:disabled").addClass("disabled"); $("input[name='Group1']").change(function () { var disabled = ($(this).val() == "No") ? "disabled" : ""; $("#Group1Fields input").attr("disabled", disabled); //apply disabled style to all disabled controls $("input:disabled").addClass("disabled"); //remove disabled style to all enabled controls $("input:not(:disabled)").removeClass("disabled"); }); $("input[name='Group2']").change(function () { var disabled = ($(this).val() == "No") ? "disabled" : ""; $("#Group2Fields input").attr("disabled", disabled); //apply disabled style to all disabled controls $("input:disabled").addClass("disabled"); //remove disabled style to all enabled controls $("input:not(:disabled)").removeClass("disabled"); }); }); </script>

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• CLR 4.0 inlining policy? (maybe bug with MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)

  - by ControlFlow

  I've testing some new CLR 4.0 behavior in method inlining (cross-assembly inlining) and found some strage results: Assembly ClassLib.dll: using System.Diagnostics; using System; using System.Reflection; using System.Security; using System.Runtime.CompilerServices; namespace ClassLib { public static class A { static readonly MethodInfo GetExecuting = typeof(Assembly).GetMethod("GetExecutingAssembly"); public static Assembly Foo(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // explicit call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } public static Assembly Bar(out StackTrace stack) // 25 bytes { // reflection call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return (Assembly) GetExecuting.Invoke(null, null); } public static Assembly Baz(out StackTrace stack) // 9 bytes { stack = new StackTrace(); return null; } public static Assembly Bob(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // call of non-inlinable method! return SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out stack); } [SecurityCritical, MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] static Assembly SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out StackTrace stack) { stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } } } Assembly ConsoleApp.exe using System; using ClassLib; using System.Diagnostics; class Program { static void Main() { Console.WriteLine("runtime: {0}", Environment.Version); StackTrace stack; Console.WriteLine("Foo: {0}\n{1}", A.Foo(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bar: {0}\n{1}", A.Bar(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Baz: {0}\n{1}", A.Baz(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bob: {0}\n{1}", A.Bob(out stack), stack); } } Results: runtime: 4.0.30128.1 Foo: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Foo(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Bar: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Bar(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Baz: at Program.Main() Bob: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at Program.Main() So questions are: Why JIT does not inlined Foo and Bar calls as Baz does? They are lower than 32 bytes of IL and are good candidates for inlining. Why JIT inlined call of Bob and inner call of SomeSecurityCriticalMethod that is marked with the [MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] attribute? Why GetExecutingAssembly returns a valid assembly when is called by inlined Baz and SomeSecurityCriticalMethod methods? I've expect that it performs the stack walk to detect the executing assembly, but stack will contains only Program.Main() call and no methods of ClassLib assenbly, to ConsoleApp should be returned.

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• Using multiple aggregate functions in an algebraic expression in (ANSI) SQL statement

  - by morpheous

  I have the following aggregate functions (AGG FUNCs): foo(), foobar(), fredstats(), barneystats(). I want to know if I can use multiple AGG FUNCs in an algebraic expression. This may seem a strange/simplistic question for seasoned SQL developers - however, the but the reason I ask is that so far, all AGG FUNCs examples I have seen are of the simplistic variety e.g. max(salary) < 100, rather than using the AGG FUNCs in an expression which involves using multiple AGG FUNCs in an expression (like agg_func1() agg_func2()). The information below should help clarify further. Given tables with the following schemas: CREATE TABLE item (id int, length float, weight float); CREATE TABLE item_info (item_id, name varchar(32)); # Is it legal (ANSI) SQL to write queries of this format ? SELECT id, name, foo, foobar, fredstats FROM A, B (SELECT id, foo(123) as foo, foobar('red') as foobar, fredstats('weight') as fredstats FROM item GROUP BY id HAVING [ALGEBRAIC EXPRESSION] ORDER BY id AS A), item_info AS B WHERE item.id = B.id Where: ALGEBRAIC EXPRESSION is the type of expression that can be used in a WHERE clause - for example: ((foo(x) < foobar(y)) AND foobar(y) IN (1,2,3)) OR (fredstats(x) <> 0)) I am using PostgreSQL as the db, but I would prefer to use ANSI SQL wherever possible. Assuming it is legal to include AGG FUNCS in the way I have done above, I'd like to know: Is there a more efficient way to write the above query ? Is there any way I can speed up the query in terms of a judicious choice of indexes on the tables item and item_info ? Is there a performance hit of using AGG FUNCs in an algebraic expression like I am (i.e. an expression involving the output of aggregate functions rather than constants? Can the expression also include 'scaled' AGG FUNC? (for example: 2*foo(123) < -3*foobar(456) ) - will scaling (i.e. multiplying an AGG FUNC by a number have an effect on performance?) How can I write the query above using INNER JOINS instead?

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• MVC Rendered Partial, how to get partial/view model in main model post to controller

  - by user1475788

  I have a text file and when users upload the file, the controller action method parses that file using state machine and uses a generic list to store some values. I pass this back to the view in the form of an IEnumerable. Within my main view, based on this ienumerable list I render a partail view to iterate items and display labels and a textarea. Users could add their input in the text area. When the users hit the save button this ienumrable list from the partial view rendered is null. so please advice any solutions. here is my main view @model RunLog.Domain.Entities.RunLogEntry @{ ViewBag.Title = "Create"; Layout = "~/Views/Shared/_Layout.cshtml"; } @using (Html.BeginForm("Create", "RunLogEntry", FormMethod.Post, new { enctype = "multipart/form-data" })) { <div id="inputTestExceptions" style="display: none;"> <table class="grid" style="width: 450px; margin: 3px 3px 3px 3px;"> <thead> <tr> <th> Exception String </th> <th> Comment </th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> @if (Model.TestExceptions != null) { foreach (var p in Model.TestExceptions) { Html.RenderPartial("RunLogTestExceptionSummary", p); } } </tbody> </table> </div> } partial view as follows: @model RunLog.Domain.Entities.RunLogEntryTestExceptionDisplay <tr> <td> @Model.TestException@ </td> <td>@Html.TextAreaFor(Model.Comment, new { style = "width: 200px; height: 80px;" }) </td> </tr> Controller action [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(RunLogEntry runLogEntry, String ServiceRequest, string Hour, string Minute, string AMPM, string submit, IEnumerable<HttpPostedFileBase> file, String AssayPerformanceIssues1, IEnumerable<RunLogEntryTestExceptionDisplay> models) { } The problem is test exceptions which contains exception string and comment is comming back null.

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• how to implement a "soft barrier" in multithreaded c++

  - by Jason

  I have some multithreaded c++ code with the following structure: do_thread_specific_work(); update_shared_variables(); //checkpoint A do_thread_specific_work_not_modifying_shared_variables(); //checkpoint B do_thread_specific_work_requiring_all_threads_have_updated_shared_variables(); What follows checkpoint B is work that could have started if all threads have reached only checkpoint A, hence my notion of a "soft barrier". Typically multithreading libraries only provide "hard barriers" in which all threads must reach some point before any can continue. Obviously a hard barrier could be used at checkpoint B. Using a soft barrier can lead to better execution time, especially since the work between checkpoints A and B may not be load-balanced between the threads (i.e. 1 slow thread who has reached checkpoint A but not B could be causing all the others to wait at the barrier just before checkpoint B). I've tried using atomics to synchronize things and I know with 100% certainty that is it NOT guaranteed to work. For example using openmp syntax, before the parallel section start with: shared_thread_counter = num_threads; //known at compile time #pragma omp flush Then at checkpoint A: #pragma omp atomic shared_thread_counter--; Then at checkpoint B (using polling): #pragma omp flush while (shared_thread_counter > 0) { usleep(1); //can be removed, but better to limit memory bandwidth #pragma omp flush } I've designed some experiments in which I use an atomic to indicate that some operation before it is finished. The experiment would work with 2 threads most of the time but consistently fail when I have lots of threads (like 20 or 30). I suspect this is because of the caching structure of modern CPUs. Even if one thread updates some other value before doing the atomic decrement, it is not guaranteed to be read by another thread in that order. Consider the case when the other value is a cache miss and the atomic decrement is a cache hit. So back to my question, how to CORRECTLY implement this "soft barrier"? Is there any built-in feature that guarantees such functionality? I'd prefer openmp but I'm familiar with most of the other common multithreading libraries. As a workaround right now, I'm using a hard barrier at checkpoint B and I've restructured my code to make the work between checkpoint A and B automatically load-balancing between the threads (which has been rather difficult at times). Thanks for any advice/insight :)

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• Injecting jQuery into a page fails when using Google AJAX Libraries API

  - by jakemcgraw

  I'd like to inject jQuery into a page using the Google AJAX Libraries API, I've come up with the following solution: http://my-domain.com/inject-jquery.js: ;((function(){ // Call this function once jQuery is available var func = function() { jQuery("body").prepend('<div>jQuery Rocks!</div>'); }; // Detect if page is already using jQuery if (!window.jQuery) { var done = false; var head = document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0]; var script = document.createElement("script"); script.src = "http://www.google.com/jsapi"; script.onload = script.onreadystatechange = function(){ // Once Google AJAX Libraries API is loaded ... if (!done && (!this.readyState || this.readyState == "loaded" || this.readyState == "complete")) { done = true; // ... load jQuery ... window.google.load("jquery", "1", {callback:function(){ jQuery.noConflict(); // ... jQuery available, fire function. func(); }}); // Prevent IE memory leaking script.onload = script.onreadystatechange = null; head.removeChild(script); } } // Load Google AJAX Libraries API head.appendChild(script); // Page already using jQuery, fire function } else { func(); } })()); The script would then be included in a page on a separate domain: http://some-other-domain.com/page.html: <html> <head> <title>This is my page</title> </head> <body> <h1>This is my page.</h1> <script src="http://my-domain.com/inject-jquery.js"></script> </body> </html> In Firefox 3 I get the following error: Module: 'jquery' must be loaded before DOM onLoad! jsapi (line 16) The error appears to be specific to the Google AJAX Libraries API, as I've seen others use a jQuery bookmarklet to inject jQuery into the current page. My question: Is there a method for injecting the Google AJAX Libraries API / jQuery into a page regardless of the onload/onready state?

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• Event sourcing: Write event before or after updating the model

  - by Magnus

  I'm reasoning about event sourcing and often I arrive at a chicken and egg problem. Would be grateful for some hints on how to reason around this. If I execute all I/O-bound processing async (ie writing to the event log) then how do I handle, or sometimes even detect, failures? I'm using Akka Actors so processing is sequential for each event/message. I do not have any database at this time, instead I would persist all the events in an event log and then keep an aggregated state of all the events in a model stored in memory. Queries are all against this model, you can consider it to be a cache. Example Creating a new user: Validate that the user does not exist in model Persist event to journal Update model (in memory) If step 3 breaks I still have persisted my event so I can replay it at a later date. If step 2 breaks I can handle that as well gracefully. This is fine, but since step 2 is I/O-bound I figured that I should do I/O in a separate actor to free up the first actor for queries: Updating a user while allowing queries (A0 = Front end/GUI actor, A1 = Processor Actor, A2 = IO-actor, E = event bus). (A0-E-A1) Event is published to update user 'U1'. Validate that the user 'U1' exists in model (A1-A2) Persist event to journal (separate actor) (A0-E-A1-A0) Query for user 'U1' profile (A2-A1) Event is now persisted continue to update model (A0-E-A1-A0) Query for user 'U1' profile (now returns fresh data) This is appealing since queries can be processed while I/O-is churning along at it's own pace. But now I can cause myself all kinds of problems where I could have two incompatible commands (delete and then update) be persisted to the event log and crash on me when replayed up at a later date, since I do the validation before persisting the event and then update the model. My aim is to have a simple reasoning around my model (since Actor processes messages sequentially single threaded) but not be waiting for I/O-bound updates when Querying. I get the feeling I'm modeling a database which in itself is might be a problem. If things are unclear please write a comment.

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• Send/cache multidimensional array to php with jQuery

  - by robertdd

  hy, i have a little, big problem here :) after i upload some images i get a list with all the images. I have some jQuery function for rotate, duplicate, delete, shuffle images! when i select a image and hit delete i send a post to php with the alt="" value of the image,i identify the picture and edit. I want to make a save button, Instead of sending a post every time i rotate a image, better send a post after editing the list of images with an array that contains all data? my php array after upload looks like this: [files] => Array ( [lcxkijgr] => lcxkijgr.jpg [xcewxpfv] => xcewxpfv.jpg [rtiurwxf] => rtiurwxf.jpg [gsbxdsdc] => gsbxdsdc.jpg ) say that I uploaded 4 pictures, firs picture i rotate 90 degrees second i want to duplicate third i rotate 270 degrees and the fourth image i delete i can do all this only with jQuery, but on the server the images are the same, after a refresh the images are the same this is the list with the images: <div class="upimage"> <ul id="upimagesQueue"> <li id="upimagesHPVEJM"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesHPVEJM').showlargeimage('HPVEJM')"> <img alt="lcxkijgr" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/lcxkijgr.jpg?1272087830477" id="HPVEJM" style="display: block;" > </a> </li> <li id="upimagesSTCSAV"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesSTCSAV').showlargeimage('STCSAV')"> <img alt="xcewxpfv" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/xcewxpfv.jpg?1272087831360" id="STCSAV" style="display: block;" > </a> </li> <li id="upimagesBFPUEQ"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesBFPUEQ').showlargeimage('BFPUEQ')"> <img alt="rtiurwxf" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/rtiurwxf.jpg?1272087832162" id="BFPUEQ" style="display: block;" > </a> </li> <li id="upimagesRKXNSV"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesRKXNSV').showlargeimage('RKXNSV')"> <img alt="gsbxdsdc" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/gsbxdsdc.jpg?1272087832957" id="RKXNSV" style="display: block;"> </a> </li> <ul> </div> is ok if i make one array like this: array{ imgFromLi = array(img1,img2,img3,img4,img5,img6) rotate = array{img1=90, img2=270, img3=90} delete = array{img4,img5,img6} duplicate = array{img2, img3} } how i can send/cache this array?? sorry for my very bad english

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• Why Won't My ASP.NET Hyperlink Work in IE?

  - by Giffyguy

  I'm making a very simple ad button system using ASP.NET 2.0 The advertisment is a 150x150px square that is displayed on "the r house." (Scroll down a little and you'll see the bright green "Angry Octopus" on the right side of the screen.) Now, I am not the administrator of "the r house." Instead, I am the administrator of angryoctopus.net Therefore, I don't have the ability to change the ad display code on a whim. So I gave "the r house" this snippet of code to display our ad nicely, while still allowing me to customize the back-end code on my end: <iframe src="http://www.angryoctopus.net/Content/Ad/150x150.aspx" frameborder="0" width="150" height="150" scrolling="no" style="padding: 0; margin: 0;"></iframe> You'll find this snippet in the page source to "the r house." On my side, the code looks like this: <asp:HyperLink runat="server" NavigateUrl="http://www.angryoctopus.net/" Target="_top"> <asp:Panel ID="pnlMain" runat="server" BackColor="#D1E231" style="padding: 0; margin: 0" Width="150" Height="150"> <asp:Image runat="server" ImageUrl="http://www.angryoctopus.net/Content/Ad/150x150.png" BorderStyle="None" style="padding: 0; margin: 0" /> </asp:Panel> </asp:HyperLink> ... and there's some insignificant back-end C# code for hit-counting. This looks all well and good from the code standpoint, as far as I can tell. Everything works in Firefox and Chrome. Also, everything appears to work in IE8 in all of my tests. I haven't tested IE7. But when you view "the r house" in IE(8) the hyperlink doesn't do anything, and the cursor doesn't indicate that the hyperlink is even there. Although you can see the target URL in the status bar. I've considered the fact that "the r house" uses XHTML 1.0 Strict could be causing problems, but that would probably effect Firefox and Chrome right? (My aspx pages use XHTML 1.0 Transitional) My only other theory is that some random CSS class could be applying a weird attribute to my iframe, but again I would expect that would effect Firefox and Chrome. Is this a security issue with IE? Does anyone know what part of the r house's website could be blocking the hyperlink in IE? And how can I get around this without having to hard code anything on the r house's website? Is there an alternative to iframe that would do the same job without requiring complicated scripting?

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• Beat Detection on iPhone with wav files and openal

  - by Dmacpro

  Using this website i have tried to make a beat detection engine. http://www.gamedev.net/reference/articles/article1952.asp { ALfloat energy = 0; ALfloat aEnergy = 0; ALint beats = 0; bool init = false; ALfloat Ei[42]; ALfloat V = 0; ALfloat C = 0; ALshort *hold; hold = new ALshort[[myDat length]/2]; [myDat getBytes:hold length:[myDat length]]; ALuint uiNumSamples; uiNumSamples = [myDat length]/4; if(alDatal == NULL) alDatal = (ALshort *) malloc(uiNumSamples*2); if(alDatar == NULL) alDatar = (ALshort *) malloc(uiNumSamples*2); for (int i = 0; i < uiNumSamples; i++) { alDatal[i] = hold[i*2]; alDatar[i] = hold[i*2+1]; } energy = 0; for(int start = 0; start<(22050*10); start+=512){ //detect for 10 seconds of data for(int i = start; i<(start+512); i++){ energy+= fabs(alDatal[i]) + fabs(alDatar[i]); } aEnergy = 0; for(int i = 41; i>=0; i--){ if(i ==0){ Ei[0] = energy; } else { Ei[i] = Ei[i-1]; } if(start >= 21504){ aEnergy+=Ei[i]; } } aEnergy = aEnergy/43.f; if (start >= 21504) { for(int i = 0; i<42; i++){ V += (Ei[i]-aEnergy); } V = V/43.f; C = (-0.0025714*V)+1.5142857; init = true; if(energy >(C*aEnergy)) beats++; } } } alDatal and alDatar are (short*) type; myDat is NSdata that holds the actual audio data of a wav file formatted to 22050 khz and 16 bit stereo. This doesn't seem to work correctly. If anyone could help me out that would be amazing. I've been stuck on this for 3 days.

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• Data Access Layer - static list objects and caching

  - by Truegilly

  Hello, i am devloping a site using .net MVC i have a data access layer which basically consists of static list objects that are created from data within my database. The method that rebuilds this data first clears all the list objects. Once they are empty it then add the data. Here is an example of one of the lists im using. its a method which generates all the UK postcodes. there are about 50 methods similar to this in my application that return all sorts of information, such as towns, regions, members, emails etc. public static List<PostCode> AllPostCodes = new List<PostCode>(); when the rebuild method is called it first clears the list. ListPostCodes.AllPostCodes.Clear(); next it re-bulilds the data, by calling the GetAllPostCodes() method /// <summary> /// static method that returns all the UK postcodes /// </summary> public static void GetAllPostCodes() { using (fab_dataContextDataContext db = new fab_dataContextDataContext()) { IQueryable AllPostcodeData = from data in db.PostCodeTables select data; IDbCommand cmd = db.GetCommand(AllPostcodeData); SqlDataAdapter adapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); adapter.SelectCommand = (SqlCommand)cmd; DataSet dataSet = new DataSet(); cmd.Connection.Open(); adapter.FillSchema(dataSet, SchemaType.Source); adapter.Fill(dataSet); cmd.Connection.Close(); // crete the objects foreach (DataRow row in dataSet.Tables[0].Rows) { PostCode postcode = new PostCode(); postcode.ID = Convert.ToInt32(row["PostcodeID"]); postcode.Outcode = row["OutCode"].ToString(); postcode.Latitude = Convert.ToDouble(row["Latitude"]); postcode.Longitude = Convert.ToDouble(row["Longitude"]); postcode.TownID = Convert.ToInt32(row["TownID"]); AllPostCodes.Add(postcode); postcode = null; } } } The rebuild occurs every 1 hour. this ensures that every 1 hour the site will have fresh set of cached data. the issue ive got is that occasionally if during a rebuild, the server will be hit by a request and an exception is thrown. The exception is "Index was outside the bounds of the array." it is due to when a list is being cleared. ListPostCodes.AllPostCodes.Clear(); - // throws exception - although its not always in regard to this list. Once this exception is thrown application dies, All users are affected. I have to restart the server to fix it. i have 2 questions... If i utilise caching instead of static objects would this help ? Is there any way i can say "while the rebuild is taking place, wait for it to complete until accepting requests" any help is most appricaiated ;) truegilly

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• should I ever put a major version number into a C#/Java namespace?

  - by Andrew Patterson

  I am designing a set of 'service' layer objects (data objects and interface definitions) for a WCF web service (that will be consumed by third party clients i.e. not in-house, so outside my direct control). I know that I am not going to get the interface definition exactly right - and am wanting to prepare for the time when I know that I will have to introduce a breaking set of new data objects. However, the reality of the world I am in is that I will also need to run my first version simultaneously for quite a while. The first version of my service will have URL of http://host/app/v1service.svc and when the times comes by new version will live at http://host/app/v2service.svc However, when it comes to the data objects and interfaces, I am toying with putting the 'major' version of the interface number into the actual namespace of the classes. namespace Company.Product.V1 { [DataContract(Namespace = "company-product-v1")] public class Widget { [DataMember] string widgetName; } public interface IFunction { Widget GetWidgetData(int code); } } When the time comes for a fundamental change to the service, I will introduce some classes like namespace Company.Product.V2 { [DataContract(Namespace = "company-product-v2")] public class Widget { [DataMember] int widgetCode; [DataMember] int widgetExpiry; } public interface IFunction { Widget GetWidgetData(int code); } } The advantages as I see it are that I will be able to have a single set of code serving both interface versions, sharing functionality where possible. This is because I will be able to reference both interface versions as a distinct set of C# objects. Similarly, clients may use both interface versions simultaneously, perhaps using V1.Widget in some legacy code whilst new bits move on to V2.Widget. Can anyone tell why this is a stupid idea? I have a nagging feeling that this is a bit smelly.. notes: I am obviously not proposing every single new version of the service would be in a new namespace. Presumably I will do as many non-breaking interface changes as possible, but I know that I will hit a point where all the data modelling will probably need a significant rewrite. I understand assembly versioning etc but I think this question is tangential to that type of versioning. But I could be wrong.

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• Testing for existence using SELECT WHERE HAVING and NOT HAVING in a grouped subset

  - by IanC

  I have data on which I need to count +1 if a particular condition exists or another condition doesn't exist. I'm using SQL Server 2008. I shred the following simplified sample XML into a temp table and validate it: <product type="1"> <param type="1"> <item mode="0" weight="1" /> </param> <param type="2"> <item mode="1" weight="1" /> <item mode="0" weight="0.1" /> </param> <param type="3"> <item mode="1" weight="0.75" /> <item mode="1" weight="0.25" /> </param> </product> The validation in concern is the following rule: For each product type, for each param type, mode may be 0 & (1 || 2). In other words, there may be a 0(s), but then 1s or 2s are required, or there may be only 1(s) or 2(s). There cannot be only 0s, and there cannot be 1s and 2s. The only part I haven't figured out is how to detect if there are only 0s. This seems like a "not having" problem. The validation code (for this part): WITH t1 AS ( SELECT SUM(t.ParamWeight) AS S, COUNT(1) AS C, t.ProductTypeID, t.ParamTypeID, t.Mode FROM @t AS t GROUP BY t.ProductTypeID, t.ParamTypeID, t.Mode ), ... UNION ALL SELECT TOP (1) 1 -- only mode 0 & (1 || 2) is allowed FROM t1 WHERE t1.Mode IN (1, 2) GROUP BY t1.ProductTypeID, t1.ParamTypeID HAVING COUNT(1) > 1 UNION ALL ... ) SELECT @C = COUNT(1) FROM t2 This will show if any mode 1s & 2s are mixed, but not if the group contains only a 0. I'm sure there is a simple solution, but it's evading me right now. EDIT: I thought of a "cheat" that works perfectly. I added the following to the above: SELECT TOP (1) 1 -- only mode 0 & (null || 1 || 2) is allowed FROM t1 GROUP BY t1.ProductTypeID, t1.ParamTypeID HAVING SUM(t1.Mode) = 0 However, I'd still like to know how to do this without cheating.

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• Special scheduling Algorithm (pattern expansion)

  - by tovare

  Question Do you think genetic algorithms worth trying out for the problem below, or will I hit local-minima issues? I think maybe aspects of the problem is great for a generator / fitness-function style setup. (If you've botched a similar project I would love hear from you, and not do something similar) Thank you for any tips on how to structure things and nail this right. The problem I'm searching a good scheduling algorithm to use for the following real-world problem. I have a sequence with 15 slots like this (The digits may vary from 0 to 20) : 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 (And there are in total 10 different sequences of this type) Each sequence needs to expand into an array, where each slot can take 1 position. 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 The constraints on the matrix is that: [row-wise, i.e. horizontally] The number of ones placed, must either be 11 or 111 [row-wise] The distance between two sequences of 1 needs to be a minimum of 00 The sum of each column should match the original array. The number of rows in the matrix should be optimized. The array then needs to allocate one of 4 different matrixes, which may have different number of rows: A, B, C, D A, B, C and D are real-world departments. The load needs to be placed reasonably fair during the course of a 10-day period, not to interfere with other department goals. Each of the matrix is compared with expansion of 10 different original sequences so you have: A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6, A7, A8, A9, A10 B1, B2, B3, B4, B5, B6, B7, B8, B9, B10 C1, C2, C3, C4, C5, C6, C7, C8, C9, C10 D1, D2, D3, D4, D5, D6, D7, D8, D9, D10 Certain spots on these may be reserved (Not sure if I should make it just reserved/not reserved or function-based). The reserved spots might be meetings and other events The sum of each row (for instance all the A's) should be approximately the same within 2%. i.e. sum(A1 through A10) should be approximately the same as (B1 through B10) etc. The number of rows can vary, so you have for instance: A1: 5 rows A2: 5 rows A3: 1 row, where that single row could for instance be: 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 etc.. Sub problem* I'de be very happy to solve only part of the problem. For instance being able to input: 1 1 2 3 4 2 2 3 4 2 2 3 3 2 3 And get an appropriate array of sequences with 1's and 0's minimized on the number of rows following th constraints above.

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• itextsharp PdfCopy and landscape pages

  - by Andreas Rehm

  I'm using itextsharp to join mutiple pdf documents and add a footer. My code works fine - except for landscape pages - it isn't detecting the page rotation - the footer is not centerd for landscape: public static int AddPagesFromStream(Document document, PdfCopy pdfCopy, Stream m, bool addFooter, int detailPages, string footer, int footerPageNumOffset, int numPages, string pageLangString, string printLangString) { CreateFont(); try { m.Seek(0, SeekOrigin.Begin); var reader = new PdfReader(m); // get page count var pdfPages = reader.NumberOfPages; var i = 0; // add pages while (i < pdfPages) { i++; // import page with pdfcopy var page = pdfCopy.GetImportedPage(reader, i); // get page center float posX; float posY; var rotation = page.BoundingBox.Rotation; if (rotation == 0 || rotation == 180) { posX = page.Width / 2; posY = 0; } else { posX = page.Height / 2; posY = 20f; } var ps = pdfCopy.CreatePageStamp(page); var cb = ps.GetOverContent(); // add footer cb.SetColorFill(BaseColor.WHITE); var gs1 = new PdfGState {FillOpacity = 0.8f}; cb.SetGState(gs1); cb.Rectangle(0, 0, document.PageSize.Width, 46f + posY); cb.Fill(); // Text cb.SetColorFill(BaseColor.BLACK); cb.SetFontAndSize(baseFont, 7); cb.BeginText(); // create text var pages = string.Format(pageLangString, i + footerPageNumOffset, numPages); cb.ShowTextAligned(PdfContentByte.ALIGN_CENTER, printLangString, posX, 40f + posY, 0f); cb.ShowTextAligned(PdfContentByte.ALIGN_CENTER, footer, posX, 28f + posY, 0f); cb.ShowTextAligned(PdfContentByte.ALIGN_CENTER, pages, posX, 20f + posY, 0f); cb.EndText(); ps.AlterContents(); // add page to new pdf pdfCopy.AddPage(page); } // close PdfReader reader.Close(); // return number of pages return i; } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e); return 0; } } How do I detect the page rotation (e.g. landscape) format in this case? The given example works for PdfReader but not for PdfCopy. Edit: Why do I need PdfCopy? I tried copying a word pdf export. Some word hyperlinks will not work when you try to copy pages with PdfReader. Only PdfCopy transfers all needed page informations. Edit: (SOLVED) You need to use reader.GetPageRotation(i);

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• QValidator for hex input

  - by Evan Teran

  I have a Qt widget which should only accept a hex string as input. It is very simple to restrict the input characters to [0-9A-Fa-f], but I would like to have it display with a delimiter between "bytes" so for example if the delimiter is a space, and the user types 0011223344 I would like the line edit to display 00 11 22 33 44 Now if the user presses the backspace key 3 times, then I want it to display 00 11 22 3. I almost have what i want, so far there is only one subtle bug involving using the delete key to remove a delimiter. Does anyone have a better way to implement this validator? Here's my code so far: class HexStringValidator : public QValidator { public: HexStringValidator(QObject * parent) : QValidator(parent) {} public: virtual void fixup(QString &input) const { QString temp; int index = 0; // every 2 digits insert a space if they didn't explicitly type one Q_FOREACH(QChar ch, input) { if(std::isxdigit(ch.toAscii())) { if(index != 0 && (index & 1) == 0) { temp += ' '; } temp += ch.toUpper(); ++index; } } input = temp; } virtual State validate(QString &input, int &pos) const { if(!input.isEmpty()) { // TODO: can we detect if the char which was JUST deleted // (if any was deleted) was a space? and special case this? // as to not have the bug in this case? const int char_pos = pos - input.left(pos).count(' '); int chars = 0; fixup(input); pos = 0; while(chars != char_pos) { if(input[pos] != ' ') { ++chars; } ++pos; } // favor the right side of a space if(input[pos] == ' ') { ++pos; } } return QValidator::Acceptable; } }; For now this code is functional enough, but I'd love to have it work 100% as expected. Obviously the ideal would be the just separate the display of the hex string from the actual characters stored in the QLineEdit's internal buffer but I have no idea where to start with that and I imagine is a non-trivial undertaking. In essence, I would like to have a Validator which conforms to this regex: "[0-9A-Fa-f]( [0-9A-Fa-f])*" but I don't want the user to ever have to type a space as delimiter. Likewise, when editing what they types, the spaces should be managed implicitly.

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• How to know when a user has really released a key in Java?

  - by Luis Soeiro

  (Edited for clarity) I want to detect when a user presses and releases a key in Java Swing, ignoring the keyboard auto repeat feature. I also would like a pure Java approach the works on Linux, Mac OS and Windows. Requirements: When the user presses some key I want to know what key is that; When the user releases some key, I want to know what key is that; I want to ignore the system auto repeat options: I want to receive just one keypress event for each key press and just one key release event for each key release; If possible, I would use items 1 to 3 to know if the user is holding more than one key at a time (i.e, she hits 'a' and without releasing it, she hits "Enter"). The problem I'm facing in Java is that under Linux, when the user holds some key, there are many keyPress and keyRelease events being fired (because of the keyboard repeat feature). I've tried some approaches with no success: Get the last time a key event occurred - in Linux, they seem to be zero for key repeat, however, in Mac OS they are not; Consider an event only if the current keyCode is different from the last one - this way the user can't hit twice the same key in a row; Here is the basic (non working) part of code: import java.awt.event.KeyListener; public class Example implements KeyListener { public void keyTyped(KeyEvent e) { } public void keyPressed(KeyEvent e) { System.out.println("KeyPressed: "+e.getKeyCode()+", ts="+e.getWhen()); } public void keyReleased(KeyEvent e) { System.out.println("KeyReleased: "+e.getKeyCode()+", ts="+e.getWhen()); } } When a user holds a key (i.e, 'p') the system shows: KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271673 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271923 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271923 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271956 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271956 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271990 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271990 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637272023 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637272023 ... At least under Linux, the JVM keeps resending all the key events when a key is being hold. To make things more difficult, on my system (Kubuntu 9.04 Core 2 Duo) the timestamps keep changing. The JVM sends a key new release and new key press with the same timestamp. This makes it hard to know when a key is really released. Any ideas? Thanks

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• Strange behaviour when posting CGEvent to PSN

  - by Ben Packard

  If I set up a loop that posts some keyboard events to a PSN, I find that it works fine except for when first launched. The event only seems to post when i do something with the mouse manually - even just moving it slightly. Here's the details, if they help. An external application has a list box of text lines, which I am reading by posting copy commands (and checking the pasteboard). Unfortunately this is my only way to get this text. Sometimes, the application pulls focus away from the list, which I can detect. When this happens, the most reliable way to return focus is by sending a mouse event to click on a text field directly above the list, then send a 'tab' keyboard event to shift the focus onto the list. So at launch, the loop runs fine, scrolling down the list and copying the text. When focus is shifted away, its is detected fine, and the events are sent to move focus back to the list. But nothing seems to happen. The loop continues detecting that focus has changed, but the events only work once I move the mouse. Or even just use the scroll wheel. Strange. Once this has happened the first time, it works fine - each time focus moves, the PSN events switch it back without me having to do anything at all. Here's the code that runs in the loop - verified as working: //copy to pasteboard - CMD-V e3 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)8, true); CGEventSetFlags(e3, kCGEventFlagMaskCommand); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e3); CFRelease(e3); e4 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)8, false); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e4); CFRelease(e4); //move cursor down e1 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)125, true); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e1); CFRelease(e1); e2 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)125, false); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e2); CFRelease(e2); And here's where I switch focus, also working (except when first required): //click in text input box - point is derived earlier e6 = CGEventCreateMouseEvent(NULL, kCGEventLeftMouseDown, point, 0); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e6); CFRelease(e6); e7 = CGEventCreateMouseEvent(NULL, kCGEventLeftMouseUp, point, 0); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e7); CFRelease(e7); //press tab key to move to chat log table CGEventRef e = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)48, true); //CGEventPost(kCGSessionEventTap, e); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e); CFRelease(e); CGEventRef e11 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)48, false); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e11); CFRelease(e11);

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• Android listview array adapter selected

  - by João Melo

  i'm trying to add a contextual action mode to a listview, but i'm having some problems with the selection, if i make aList1.setSelection(position) it doesn't select anything, and if i make List1.setItemChecked(position, true) it works but it only changes the font color a little and i want it to change the background or something more notable, is there any way to detect the selection and manually and change the background, or i'm missing something? the list: <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" > <ListView android:id="@+id/list1" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:choiceMode="singleChoice" android:drawSelectorOnTop="false"> </ListView> </RelativeLayout> the adapter: public class ServicesRowAdapter extends ArrayAdapter<String[]> { private final Activity context; private final ArrayList<String[]> names; static class ViewHolder { public TextView Id; public TextView Date; public RelativeLayout statusbar,bglayout; } public ServicesRowAdapter(Activity context, ArrayList<String[]> names) { super(context, R.layout.servicesrowlayout, names); this.context = context; this.names = names; } @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { View rowView = convertView; if (rowView == null) { LayoutInflater inflater = context.getLayoutInflater(); rowView = inflater.inflate(R.layout.servicesrowlayout, null); ViewHolder viewHolder = new ViewHolder(); viewHolder.Id = (TextView) rowView.findViewById(R.id.idlabel); viewHolder.Date = (TextView) rowView.findViewById(R.id.datelabel); rowView.setTag(viewHolder); } ViewHolder holder = (ViewHolder) rowView.getTag(); holder.Date.setText(names.get(position)[2]); holder.Id.setText(names.get(position)[1]); return rowView; } } with the use of a layout: <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" > <TextView android:id="@+id/idlabel" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_centerVertical="true" android:gravity="right" android:text="@+id/idlabel" android:textSize="20dp" android:width="70dp" > </TextView> <TextView android:id="@+id/datelabel" android:layout_centerVertical="true" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@+id/datelabel" android:textSize="20dp" android:layout_marginLeft="90dp" > </TextView> </RelativeLayout

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• Blackberry ListField Text Wrapping - only two lines.

  - by Diego Tori

  Within my ListField, I want to be able to take any given long String, and just be able to wrap the first line within the width of the screen, and just take the remaining string and display it below and ellipsis the rest. Right now, this is what I'm using to detect wrapping within my draw paint call: int totalWidth = 0; int charWidth = 0; int lastIndex = 0; int spaceIndex = 0; int lineIndex = 0; String firstLine = ""; String secondLine = ""; boolean isSecondLine = false; for (int i = 0; i < longString.length(); i++){ charWidth = Font.getDefault().getAdvance(String.valueOf(longString.charAt(i))); //System.out.println("char width: " + charWidth); if(longString.charAt(i) == ' ') spaceIndex = i; if((charWidth + totalWidth) > (this.getWidth()-32)){ //g.drawText(longString.substring(lastIndex, spaceIndex), xpos, y +_padding, DrawStyle.LEFT, w - xpos); lineIndex++; System.out.println("current lines to draw: " + lineIndex); /*if (lineIndex = 2){ int idx = i; System.out.println("first line " + longString.substring(lastIndex, spaceIndex)); System.out.println("second line " + longString.substring(spaceIndex+1, longString.length())); }*/ //firstLine = longString.substring(lastIndex, spaceIndex); firstLine = longString.substring(0, spaceIndex); //System.out.println("first new line: " +firstLine); //isSecondLine=true; //xpos = 0; //y += Font.getDefault().getHeight(); i = spaceIndex + 1; lastIndex = i; System.out.println("Rest of string: " + longString.substring(lastIndex, longString.length())); charWidth = 0; totalWidth = 0; } totalWidth += charWidth; System.out.println("total width: " + totalWidth); //g.drawText(longString.substring(lastIndex, i+1), xpos, y + (_padding*3)+4, DrawStyle.ELLIPSIS, w - xpos); //secondLine = longString.substring(lastIndex, i+1); secondLine = longString.substring(lastIndex, longString.length()); //isSecondLine = true; } Now this does a great job of actually wrapping any given string (assuming the y values were properly offsetted and it only drew the text after the string width exceeded the screen width, as well as the remaining string afterwards), however, every time I try to get the first two lines, it always ends up returning the last two lines of the string if it goes beyond two lines. Is there a better way to do this sort of thing, since I am fresh out of ideas?

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• Delphi getting property value of a member from ClassType

  - by Kayode Yusuf

  I am implementing a Boilerplate feature - allow users to Change descriptions of some components - like Tlabels - at run time. e.g. TFooClass = Class ( TBaseClass) Label : Tlabel; ... End; Var FooClass : TFooClass; ... At Design time, the value Label's caption property is say - 'First Name', when the application is run, there is a feature that allows the user to change the caption value to say 'Other Name'. Once this is changed, the caption for the label for the class instance of FooClass is updated immediately. The problem now is if the user for whatever reason wants to revert back to the design time value of say 'First Name' , it seems impossible. I can use the RTTIContext methods and all that but I at the end of the day, it seems to require the instance of the class for me to change the value and since this has already being changed - I seem to to have hit a brick wall getting around it. My question is this - is there a way using the old RTTI methods or the new RTTIContext stuff to the property of a class' member without instantiating the class - i.e. getting the property from the ClassType definition. This is code snippet of my attempt at doing that : c : TRttiContext; z : TRttiInstanceType; w : TRttiProperty; Aform : Tform; .... Begin ..... Aform := Tform(FooClass); for vCount := 0 to AForm.ComponentCount-1 do begin vDummyComponent := AForm.Components[vCount]; if IsPublishedProp(vDummyComponent,'Caption') then begin c := TRttiContext.Create; try z := (c.GetType(vDummyComponent.ClassInfo) as TRttiInstanceType); w := z.GetProperty('Caption'); if w <> nil then Values[vOffset, 1] := w.GetValue(vDummyComponent.ClassType).AsString ..... ..... .... .... I am getting all sorts of errors and any help will be greatly appreciated.

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• generated service mock: everything but RhinoMocks fails?

  - by hko

  I have the "quest" to search for the next Mocking Framework for my company, and basically it's down to NSubstitute (simplest syntax, but no strict mocks), FakeItEasy(best reviews, Roy Osherove bonus, and slightly better lib support than NSubstitute), Moq (best "other libs support", biggest featureset, downside: mock.Object). We definitely want to move on from RhinoMocks, e.g. because of the unusefull interactiontest error messages (it should tell me what the parameter was instead, when a verification fails). So I was pretty surprised the other day (that was yesterday) when I found out RhinoMocks could do a thing where every other mock framework fails at: Mocking an autogenerated SomethingService (a typical VS autogenerated service with a default construtor in a partial class). Please don't argue about the design.. I intend to write lightweight integration tests (and some unit tests), and I can't mess around with the service, the product is installed on too many customers system. See this code: // here the NSubstitute and FakeItEasy equivalents throw an exception.. see below TicketStoreService fakeTicketStoreService = MockRepository.GenerateMock<TicketStoreService>(); fakeTicketStoreService.Expect(service => service.DoSomething(Arg.Is(new Guid())).Return(new Guid()); fakeTicketStoreService.DoSomething(Arg.Is(new Guid())); fakeTicketStoreService.VerifyAllExpectations(); Note that DoSomething is a non-virtual methodcall in an autogenerated class. So it shouldn't work, according to common knowledge. But it does. Problem is that it's the only (non commercial) framework that can do this: Rhino.Mocks works, and verification works too FakeItEasy says it doesn't find a default constructor (probably just wrong exception message): No default constructor was found on the type SomeNamespace.TicketStoreService Moq gives something sane and understandable: Invalid setup on a non-virtual (overridable in VB) member: service=> service.DoSomething Nsubstitute gives a message System.NotSupportedException: Cannot serialize member System.ComponentModel.Component.Site of type System.ComponentModel.ISite because it is an interface. I'm really wondering what's going on here with the frameworks, except Moq. The "fancy new" frameworks seem to have an initial perf hit too, probably preparing some Type cache and serializing stuff, whilst RhinoMocks somehow manages to create a very "slim" mock without recursion. I have to admit I didn't like RhinoMocks very well, but here it shines.. unfortunately. So, is there a way to get that to work with newer (non-commercial!) mocking frameworks, or somehow get a sane error message out of Rhino.Mocks? And why can Rhino.Mocks achieve this, when clearly every Mocking framework states it can only work with virtual methods when given a concrete class? Let's not derail the discussion by talking about alternative approaches like Extract&Override or runtime-proxy Mocking frameworks like JustMock/TypeMock/Moles or the new Fakes framework, I know these, but that would be less ideal solutions, for reasons beyond this topic. Any help appreciated..

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• How to customize android analog clock widget through configuration screen

  - by michJ

  I'm trying to develop my own analog clock widget on the home screen. It's based on the stock ICS analog clock widget, but when added to the homescreen, my widget opens a configuration screen first. On this screen you can choose the color you want the clock to be (through a colorpicker dialog). You also see a preview of the clock in the chosen color on this screen. (See picture). My problem is changing the color of the widget on the home screen to the chosen color (when you hit the apply button). I have three .png files that I use for the dial, hour hand and minute hand. I color them using this code in my widgetconfig class: Drawable dial = getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.clockbackground); dial.setColorFilter(color, PorterDuff.Mode.MULTIPLY); //hour Drawable hour = getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.hourhand); hour.setColorFilter(color, PorterDuff.Mode.MULTIPLY); //minute Drawable min = getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.minutehand); min.setColorFilter(color, PorterDuff.Mode.MULTIPLY); // clock AnalogClock clockpreview = (AnalogClock) findViewById(R.id.ACconfig); clockpreview.setBackgroundDrawable(dial); This works fine because I can find the AnalogClock since it's in the layout xml file of the configuration screen, which I set in the OnCreate() through setContentView(). The problem is that for the clock widget on my screen I have to use RemoteViews. So I tried setting the new background of the clock widget through RemoteViews. But RemoteViews seems too limited to do this. I need something like setTextViewText() but then for the background of my analog clock widget, like for example: RemoteViews views = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.clockwidget); views.setAnalogClockBackgroundDrawable(dial); The clock widget background seems sort of unchangeable. How can I recolor my clockwidget on homescreen in widgetconfig class? There must be a way because it seems so easy to do at first... My project consists of the widget config class and clockwidget class, widgetconfig.xml, clockwidget.xml, and widget_info.xml (for appwidgetprovider).

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• send sms in asp.net by gsm modem

  - by danar jabbar

  I devloped an asp.net application to send sms from gsm modem to destination base on URL from the browser I used a library that developed by codeproject http://www.codeproject.com/articles/20420/how-to-send-and-receive-sms-using-gsm-modem but I get problem when I request form two browsers at same time and I want to make the my code detect that the modem is use by another process at the time here is my code: DeviceConnection deviceConnection = new DeviceConnection(); protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { if (Request.QueryString["destination"] != null && Request.QueryString["text"] != null) { deviceConnection.setBaudRate(9600); deviceConnection.setPort(12); deviceConnection.setTimeout(200); SendSms sendSms = new SendSms(deviceConnection); if (deviceConnection.getConnectionStatus()) { sendSms.strReciverNo = Request.QueryString["destination"]; sendSms.strTextMessage = Request.QueryString["text"]; if (sendSms.sendSms()) { Response.Write("Mesage successfuly sent to " + Request.QueryString["destination"]); } else { Response.Write("Message was not sent"); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine("Index "+ex.StackTrace); } } This is SendSms class: class SendSms { DeviceConnection deviceConnection; public SendSms(DeviceConnection deviceConnection) { this.deviceConnection = deviceConnection; } private string reciverNo; private string textMessage; private delegate void SetTextCallback(string text); public string strReciverNo { set { this.reciverNo = value; } get { return this.reciverNo; } } public string strTextMessage { set { this.textMessage = value; } get { return this.textMessage; } } public bool sendSms() { try { CommSetting.Comm_Port = deviceConnection.getPort();//GsmCommMain.DefaultPortNumber; CommSetting.Comm_BaudRate = deviceConnection.getBaudRate(); CommSetting.Comm_TimeOut = deviceConnection.getTimeout();//GsmCommMain.DefaultTimeout; CommSetting.comm = new GsmCommMain(deviceConnection.getPort() , deviceConnection.getBaudRate(), deviceConnection.getTimeout()); // CommSetting.comm.PhoneConnected += new EventHandler(comm_PhoneConnected); if (!CommSetting.comm.IsOpen()) { CommSetting.comm.Open(); } SmsSubmitPdu smsSubmitPdu = new SmsSubmitPdu(strTextMessage, strReciverNo, ""); smsSubmitPdu.RequestStatusReport = true; CommSetting.comm.SendMessage(smsSubmitPdu); CommSetting.comm.Close(); return true; } catch (Exception exception) { Console.WriteLine("sendSms " + exception.StackTrace); CommSetting.comm.Close(); return false; } } public void recive(object sender, EventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine("Message received successfuly"); } } }

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