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  • Loosely coupled implicit conversion

    - by ltjax
    Implicit conversion can be really useful when types are semantically equivalent. For example, imagine two libraries that implement a type identically, but in different namespaces. Or just a type that is mostly identical, except for some semantic-sugar here and there. Now you cannot pass one type into a function (in one of those libraries) that was designed to use the other, unless that function is a template. If it's not, you have to somehow convert one type into the other. This should be trivial (or otherwise the types are not so identical after-all!) but calling the conversion explicitly bloats your code with mostly meaningless function-calls. While such conversion functions might actually copy some values around, they essentially do nothing from a high-level "programmers" point-of-view. Implicit conversion constructors and operators could obviously help, but they introduce coupling, so that one of those types has to know about the other. Usually, at least when dealing with libraries, that is not the case, because the presence of one of those types makes the other one redundant. Also, you cannot always change libraries. Now I see two options on how to make implicit conversion work in user-code: The first would be to provide a proxy-type, that implements conversion-operators and conversion-constructors (and assignments) for all the involved types, and always use that. The second requires a minimal change to the libraries, but allows great flexibility: Add a conversion-constructor for each involved type that can be externally optionally enabled. For example, for a type A add a constructor: template <class T> A( const T& src, typename boost::enable_if<conversion_enabled<T,A>>::type* ignore=0 ) { *this = convert(src); } and a template template <class X, class Y> struct conversion_enabled : public boost::mpl::false_ {}; that disables the implicit conversion by default. Then to enable conversion between two types, specialize the template: template <> struct conversion_enabled<OtherA, A> : public boost::mpl::true_ {}; and implement a convert function that can be found through ADL. I would personally prefer to use the second variant, unless there are strong arguments against it. Now to the actual question(s): What's the preferred way to associate types for implicit conversion? Are my suggestions good ideas? Are there any downsides to either approach? Is allowing conversions like that dangerous? Should library implementers in-general supply the second method when it's likely that their type will be replicated in software they are most likely beeing used with (I'm thinking of 3d-rendering middle-ware here, where most of those packages implement a 3D vector).

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  • REST and links: middle ground?

    - by pbean
    I've been wondering about how far to go with links in REST. Consider books which have authors, but there is obviously a many-to-many relationship between books an authors (a book can be written by multiple authors, and authors can write multiple books). So let's say we have a rest call http://server/book/21, which will return a book XML, containing information about an author. Now since the book is a resource, and the author is a resource, the XML should not straight up include all the author information. It should contain a link to the author information. But which of the below two examples is more widely accepted? (Excuse my crappy formatted XML, I am not that experienced with hand writing XML) <book> <title>Some Book</title> <authors> <author link="http://server/author/82">Some Guy</author> <author link="http://server/author/51">Some Other Guy</author> </authors> </book> Then, an author link would return more information: <author> <name>Some Guy</name> <dateOfBirth>some time</dateOfBirth> </author> Or: <book> <title>Some Book</title> <authors>http://server/book/21/authors</authors> </book> Where http://server/book/21/authors returns: <authors> <author link="http://server/author/82">Some Guy</author> <author link="http://server/author/51">Some Other Guy</author> </authors> And then each of those returns the former <author> example again. The reason I'm asking is basically because at my job they went with the second approach, and it seems to me that clients have to take many more steps to reach where they want to go. Also, for basic information which "you're always going to need" (author's name), you do have to take one additional step. On the other hand, that way the book resource only returns information about the book (nothing else), and to get anything else, you have to access other resources.

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  • Webservice for uploading data: security considerations

    - by Philip Daubmeier
    Hi everyone! Im not sure about what authentification method I should use for my webservice. I've searched on SO, and found nothing that helped me. Preliminary Im building an application that uploads data from a local database to a server (running my webservice), where all records are merged and stored in a central database. I am currently binary serializing a DataTable, that holds a small fragment of the local database, where all uninteresting stuff is already filtered out. The byte[] (serialized DataTable), together with the userid and a hash of the users password is then uploaded to the webservice via SOAP. The application together with the webservice already work exactly like intended. The Problem The issue I am thinking about is now: What is if someone just sniffs the network traffic, 'steals' the users id and password hash to send his own SOAP message with modified data that corrupts my database? Options The approaches to solving that problem, I already thought of, are: Using ssl + certificates for establishing the connection: I dont really want to use ssl, I would prefer a simpler solution. After all, every information that is transfered to the webservice can be seen on the website later on. What I want to say is: there is no secret/financial/business-critical information, that has to be hidden. I think ssl would be sort of an overkill for that task. Encrypting the byte[]: I think that would be a performance killer, considering that the goal of the excercise was simply to authenticate the user. Hashing the users password together with the data: I kind of like the idea: Creating a checksum from the data, concatenating that checksum with the password-hash and hashing this whole thing again. That would assure the data was sent from this specific user, and the data wasnt modified. The actual question So, what do you think is the best approach in terms of meeting the following requirements? Rather simple solution (As it doesnt have to be super secure; no secret/business-critical information transfered) Easily implementable retrospectively (Dont want to write it all again :) ) Doesnt impact to much on performance What do you think of my prefered solution, the last one in the list above? Is there any alternative solution I didnt mention, that would fit better? You dont have to answer every question in detail. Just push me in the right direction. I very much appreciate every well-grounded opinion. Thanks in advance!

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  • How can I sort an array, yet exclude certain elements (to be kept at the same position in the array)

    - by calumbrodie
    This will be implemented in Javascript (jQuery) but I suppose the method could be used in any language. I have an array of items and I need to perform a sort. However there are some items in the array that have to be kept in the same position (same index). The array in question is build from a list of <li> elements and I'm using .data() values attached to the list item as the value on which to sort. What approach would be best here? <ul id="fruit"> <li class="stay">bananas</li> <li>oranges</li> <li>pears</li> <li>apples</li> <li class="stay">grapes</li> <li>pineapples</li> </ul> <script type="text/javascript"> var sugarcontent = new Array('32','21','11','45','8','99'); $('#fruit li').each(function(i,e){ $(this).data(sugarcontent[i]); }) </script> I want the list sorted with the following result... <ul id="fruit"> <li class="stay">bananas</li> <!-- score = 32 --> <li>pineapples</li> <!-- score = 99 --> <li>apples</li> <!-- score = 45 --> <li>oranges</li> <!-- score = 21 --> <li class="stay">grapes</li> <!-- score = 8 --> <li>pears</li> <!-- score = 11 --> </ul> Thanks!

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  • This code appears to achieve the return of a null reference in C++

    - by Chuck
    Hi folks, My C++ knowledge is somewhat piecemeal. I was reworking some code at work. I changed a function to return a reference to a type. Inside, I look up an object based on an identifier passed in, then return a reference to the object if found. Of course I ran into the issue of what to return if I don't find the object, and in looking around the web, many people claim that returning a "null reference" in C++ is impossible. Based on this advice, I tried the trick of returning a success/fail boolean, and making the object reference an out parameter. However, I ran into the roadblock of needing to initialize the references I would pass as actual parameters, and of course there is no way to do this. I retreated to the usual approach of just returning a pointer. I asked a colleague about it. He uses the following trick quite often, which is accepted by both a recent version of the Sun compiler and by gcc: MyType& someFunc(int id) { // successful case here: // ... // fail case: return *static_cast<MyType*>(0); } // Use: ... MyType& mt = somefunc(myIdNum); if (&mt) // test for "null reference" { // whatever } ... I have been maintaining this code base for a while, but I find that I don't have as much time to look up the small details about the language as I would like. I've been digging through my reference book but the answer to this one eludes me. Now, I had a C++ course a few years ago, and therein we emphasized that in C++ everything is types, so I try to keep that in mind when thinking things through. Deconstructing the expression: "*static_cast(0);", it indeed seems to me that we take a literal zero, cast it to a pointer to MyType (which makes it a null pointer), and then apply the dereferencing operator in the context of assigning to a reference type (the return type), which should give me a reference to the same object pointed to by the pointer. This sure looks like returning a null reference to me. Any advice in explaining why this works (or why it shouldn't) would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Chuck

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  • Passing custom info to mongrel_rails start

    - by whaka
    One thing I really don't understand is how I can pass custom start-up options to a mongrel instance. I see that a common approach is the use environment variables, but in my environment this is not going to work because my rails application serves many different clients. Much code is shared between clients, but there are also many differences which I implement by subclassing controllers and views to overload or extend existing features or introduce new ones. To make this all work, I simply add the paths to client specific modules the module load path ($:). In order to start the application for a particular client, I could now use an environment variable like say, TARGET=AMAZONE. Unfortunately, on some systems I'm running multiple mongrel clusters, each cluster serving a different client. Some of these systems run under Windows and to start mongrel I installed mongrel_services. Clearly, this makes my environment variable unsuitable. Passing this extra bit of data to the application is proving to be a real challenge. For a start, mongrel_rails service_install will reject any [custom] command line parameters that aren't documented. I'm not too concerned as installing the services using the install program is trivial. However, even if I manage to install mongrel_services such that when run it passes the custom command line option --target to mongrel_rails start, I get an error because mongrel_rails doesn't recognize the switch. So here were the things I looked at: Pass an extra parameter: mongrel_rails start --target XYZ ... use a config file and add target:XYZ, then do: mongrel_rails start -C x:\myapp\myconfig.yml modify the file: Ruby\lib\ruby\gems\1.8\gems\mongrel-1.1.5-x86-mswin32-60\lib\mongrel\command.rb Perhaps I can use the --script option, but all docs that I found on it were for Unix 1 and 2 simply don't work. I played with 4 but never managed it to do anything. So I had no choice but to go with 3. While it is relatively simple, I hate changing ruby library code. Particularly disappointing is that 2 doesn't work. I mean what is so unreasonable about adding other [custom] options in the config file? Actually I think this is a fundamental piece that is missing in rails. Somehow, the application should be able to register and access command line arguments it expects. If anybody has a good idea how to do this more elegantly using the current infrastructure, I have a chocolate fish to give away!!!

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  • Planning to create PDF files in Ruby on Rails

    - by deau
    Hi there, A Ruby on Rails app will have access to a number of images and fonts. The images are components of a visual layout which will be stored separately as a set of rules. The rules specify document dimensions along with which images are used and where. The app needs to take these rules, fetch the images, and generate a PDF that is ready for local printing or emailing. The fonts will also be important. The user needs to customize the layout by inputting text which will be included in the PDF. The PDF must therefore also contain the desired font so that the document renders identically across different machines. Each PDF may have many pages. Each page may have different dimensions but this is not essential. Either way, the ability to manipulate the dimensions and margins given by the PDF is essential. The only thing that needs to be regularly changed is the text. If this is takes too much development then the app can store the layouts in 3rd party PDFs and edit the textual content directly. Eventually though, this will prove too restrictive on the apps intended functionality so I would prefer the app to generate the PDF's itself. I have never worked with PDFs before and, for the most part, I've never had to output anything to the user outside their monitor. A printed medium could require a very different approach to get the best results. If anyone has any advice on how to model the PDF format this it would be really appreciated. The technical aspects of printing such as bleed, resolution and colour have already been factored in to the layouts and images. I am aware that PDF is a proprietary file format and I want to use free or open source software. I have seen a number of Ruby libraries for generating PDF files but because I am new on this scene I have no way to reliably compare them and too little time to implement and test them all. I also have the option of using C to handle this feature and if this is process intensive then that might be preferred. What should I be thinking about and how should I be planning to implement this?

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  • PHP Sockets Errors (connection refused and No such file or directory)

    - by Purefan
    Hello all, I am writing a server app (broadcaster) and a client (relayer). Several relayers can connect to the broadcaster at the same time, send information and the broadcaster will redirect the message to a matching relayer (for example relayer1 sends to broadcaster who sends to relayer43, relayer2 - broadcaster - relayer73...) The server part is working as I have tested it with a telnet client and although its at this point only an echo server it works. Both relayer and broadcaster sit on the same server so I am using AF_UNIX sockets, both files are in different folders though. I have tried two approaches for the relayer and both have failed, the first one is using socket_create: public function __construct() { // where is the socket server? $this->_sHost = 'tcp://127.0.0.1'; $this->_iPort = 11225; // open a client connection $this->_hSocket = socket_create(AF_UNIX, SOCK_STREAM, 0); echo 'Attempting to connect to '.$this->_sHost.' on port '.$this->_iPort .'...'; $result = socket_connect($this->_hSocket, $this->_sHost, $this->_iPort); if ($result === false) { echo "socket_connect() failed.\nReason: ($result) " . socket_strerror(socket_last_error($this->_hSocket)) . "\n"; } else { echo "OK.\n"; } This returns "Warning: socket_connect(): unable to connect [2]: No such file or directory in relayer.class.php on line 27" and (its running from command line) it often also returns a segmentation fault. The second approach is using pfsockopen: public function __construct() { // where is the socket server? $this->_sHost = 'tcp://127.0.0.1'; $this->_iPort = 11225; // open a client connection $fp = pfsockopen ($this->_sHost, $this->_iPort, $errno, $errstr); if (!$fp) { $result = "Error: could not open socket connection"; } else { // get the welcome message fgets ($fp, 1024); // write the user string to the socket fputs ($fp, 'Message ' . __LINE__); // get the result $result .= fgets ($fp, 1024); // close the connection fputs ($fp, "END"); fclose ($fp); // trim the result and remove the starting ? $result = trim($result); $result = substr($result, 2); // now print it to the browser } which only returns the error "Warning: pfsockopen(): unable to connect to tcp://127.0.0.1:11225 (Connection refused) in relayer.class.php on line 33 " In all tests I have tried with different host names, 127.0.0.1, localhost, tcp://127.0.0.1, 192.168.0.199, tcp://192.168.0.199, none of it has worked. Any ideas on this?

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  • ocjective-c Obtain return value from public method

    - by Felix
    I'm pretty new to objective-C (and C in general) and iPhone development and am coming from the java island, so there are some fundamentals that are quite tough to learn for me. I'm diving right into iOS5 and want to use storyboards. For now I am trying to setup a list in a UITableViewController that will be filled with values returned by a web service in the future. For now, I just want to generate some mock objects and show their names in the list to be able to proceed. Coming from java, my first approach would be to create a new Class that provides a global accessible method to generate some objects for my list: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface MockObjectGenerator : NSObject +(NSMutableArray *) createAndGetMockProjects; @end Implementation is... #import "MockObjectGenerator.h" // Custom object with some fields #import "Project.h" @implementation MockObjectGenerator + (NSMutableArray *) createAndGetMockObjects { NSMutableArray *mockProjects = [NSMutableArray alloc]; Project *project1 = [Project alloc]; Project *project2 = [Project alloc]; Project *project3 = [Project alloc]; project1.name = @"Project 1"; project2.name = @"Project 2"; project3.name = @"Project 3"; [mockProjects addObject:project1]; [mockProjects addObject:project2]; [mockProjects addObject:project3]; } And here is my ProjectTable.h that is supposed to control my ListView #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface ProjectsTable : UITableViewController @property (strong, nonatomic) NSMutableArray *projectsList; @end And finally ProjectTable.m #import "ProjectsTable.h" #import "Project.h" #import "MockObjectGenerator.h" @interface ProjectsTable { @synthesize projectsList = _projectsList; -(id)initWithStyle:(UITableViewStyle:style { self = [super initWithStyle:style]; if (self) { _projectsList = [[MockObjectGenerator createAndGetMockObjects] copy]; } return self; } - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { // only one section for all return 1; - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { NSLog(@"%d entries in list", _projectsList.count); return _projectsList.count; - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // the identifier of the lists prototype cell is set to this string value static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"projectCell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; Project *project = [_projectsList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = project.name } So while I think everything is correctly set, I expect the tableView to show my three mock objects in its rows. But it stays empty and the NSLog method prints "0 entries in list" into the console. So what am I doing wrong? Any help is appreciated. Best regards Felix

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  • Showing div based on filled form field

    - by Fabio
    I have this script where I use a slider to show some elements of a form. So far so good. The way I'm doing it is by having a slider (can't use a multistep form since it uses a plugin not allowing multistep forms, plus some graphic behaviors) and a button that goes to the next slider. So now I need that button (not part of the form) to show only if a certain field is filled. I tried teh following, but it's not working, I assume some error but can't figure what. My code is as follows: $('#clientname').change(function() { var clientVal = $("input").val() == ''; $(".next").hide(); if ($('#clientname').val() != '').show(); else $('.next').hide(); }); and the html as follows: <div class="b40-right"> <h3>The Basics</h3> <div class="label"> Your Name (required)</div> <div class="inputes"> <span class="wpcf7-form-control-wrap your-name"><input id="clientname" type="text" name="your-name" value="" class="wpcf7-form-control wpcf7-text wpcf7-validates-as-required" size="40" /></span> </div> <div class="label">Your Email (required)</div> <div class="inputes"> <span class="wpcf7-form-control-wrap your-email"><input type="text" name="your-email" value="" class="wpcf7-form-control wpcf7-text wpcf7-email wpcf7-validates-as-required wpcf7-validates-as-email" size="40" /></span> </div> <div class="label">Type of Business</div> <div class="inputes"> <span class="wpcf7-form-control-wrap type-of-business"><textarea name="type-of-business" class="wpcf7-form-control wpcf7-textarea" cols="40" rows="10"></textarea></span> </div> </div> <a class="next" href="javascript:stepcarousel.stepBy('mygallery2', 1)"><img id="nextbut1" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory'); ?>/images/next.png" alt="" /></a> any help on what am I doing wrong? Is there a better approach/solution? (I'm not a programmer as you may figure) Thank you in advance!

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  • How can I improve my select query for storing large versioned data sets?

    - by Jason Francis
    At work, we build large multi-page web applications, consisting mostly of radio and check boxes. The primary purpose of each application is to gather data, but as users return to a page they have previously visited, we report back to them their previous responses. Worst-case scenario, we might have up to 900 distinct variables and around 1.5 million users. For several reasons, it makes sense to use an insert-only approach to storing the data (as opposed to update-in-place) so that we can capture historical data about repeated interactions with variables. The net result is that we might have several responses per user per variable. Our table to collect the responses looks something like this: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[results]( [id] [bigint] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [userid] [int] NULL, [variable] [varchar](8) NULL, [value] [tinyint] NULL, [submitted] [smalldatetime] NULL) Where id serves as the primary key. Virtually every request results in a series of insert statements (one per variable submitted), and then we run a select to produce previous responses for the next page (something like this): SELECT t.id, t.variable, t.value FROM results t WITH (NOLOCK) WHERE t.userid = '2111846' AND (t.variable='internat' OR t.variable='veteran' OR t.variable='athlete') AND t.id IN (SELECT MAX(id) AS id FROM results WITH (NOLOCK) WHERE userid = '2111846' AND (t.variable='internat' OR t.variable='veteran' OR t.variable='athlete') GROUP BY variable) Which, in this case, would return the most recent responses for the variables "internat", "veteran", and "athlete" for user 2111846. We have followed the advice of the database tuning tools in indexing the tables, and against our data, this is the best-performing version of the select query that we have been able to come up with. Even so, there seems to be significant performance degradation as the table approaches 1 million records (and we might have about 150x that). We have a fairly-elegant solution in place for sharding the data across multiple tables which has been working quite well, but I am open for any advice about how I might construct a better version of the select query. We use this structure frequently for storing lots of independent data points, and we like the benefits it provides. So the question is, how can I improve the performance of the select query? I assume the nested select statement is a bad idea, but I have yet to find an alternative that performs as well. Thanks in advance. NB: Since we emphasize creating over reading in this case, and since we never update in place, there doesn't seem to be any penalty (and some advantage) for using the NOLOCK directive in this case.

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  • Is there anything wrong with having a few private methods exposing IQueryable<T> and all public meth

    - by Nate Bross
    I'm wondering if there is a better way to approach this problem. The objective is to reuse code. Let’s say that I have a Linq-To-SQL datacontext and I've written a "repository style" class that wraps up a lot of the methods I need and exposes IQueryables. (so far, no problem). Now, I'm building a service layer to sit on top of this repository, many of the service methods will be 1<-1 with repository methods, but some will not. I think a code sample will illustrate this better than words. public class ServiceLayer { MyClassDataContext context; IMyRepository rpo; public ServiceLayer(MyClassDataContext ctx) { context = ctx; rpo = new MyRepository(context); } private IQueryable<MyClass> ReadAllMyClass() { // pretend there is some complex business logic here // and maybe some filtering of the current users access to "all" // that I don't want to repeat in all of the public methods that access // MyClass objects. return rpo.ReadAllMyClass(); } public IEnumerable<MyClass> GetAllMyClass() { // call private IQueryable so we can do attional "in-database" processing return this.ReadAllMyClass(); } public IEnumerable<MyClass> GetActiveMyClass() { // call private IQueryable so we can do attional "in-database" processing // in this case a .Where() clause return this.ReadAllMyClass().Where(mc => mc.IsActive.Equals(true)); } #region "Something my class MAY need to do in the future" private IQueryable<MyOtherTable> ReadAllMyOtherTable() { // there could be additional constrains which define // "all" for the current user return context.MyOtherTable; } public IEnumerable<MyOtherTable> GetAllMyOtherTable() { return this.ReadAllMyOtherTable(); } public IEnumerable<MyOtherTable> GetInactiveOtherTable() { return this.ReadAllMyOtherTable.Where(ot => ot.IsActive.Equals(false)); } #endregion } This particular case is not the best illustration, since I could just call the repository directly in the GetActiveMyClass method, but let’s presume that my private IQueryable does some extra processing and business logic that I don't want to replicate in both of my public methods. Is that a bad way to attack an issue like this? I don't see it being so complex that it really warrants building a third class to sit between the repository and the service class, but I'd like to get your thoughts. For the sake of argument, lets presume two additional things. This service is going to be exposed through WCF and that each of these public IEnumerable methods will be calling a .Select(m => m.ToViewModel()) on each returned collection which will convert it to a POCO for serialization. The service will eventually need to expose some context.SomeOtherTable which wont be wrapped into the repository.

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  • Replace text in XSL using wildcards

    - by JosephThomas
    This is similar to an earlier problem I was having which you guys solved in less than a day. I am working with XML files that are generated by a digital video camera. The camera allows the user to save all of the camera's settngs to an SD card so that the settings can be recalled or loaded into another camera. The XSL stylesheet I am writing will allow users to view the camera's settings, as saved to the SD card in a web browser. While most of the values in the XML file -- as formatted by my stylesheet -- make sense to humans, some do not. What I would like to do is have the stylesheet display text that is based on the value in the XML file but more easily understood by humans. A typical value that can be written to the XML file is "_23_970" which represents the camera's frame rate. This would be better displayed as 23.970 (or 023.970). The first underscore is a sort of place holder to make a space for values over 099.999. The second underscore, obviously represents the decimal. My previous (similar) question involved replacing predictable text, and the solution was matching templates. In this case, however, the camera can be set at any one of 119,999 frame rates (I think I did that math correctly). The approach, I would guess, is to pass a value to the displayed webpage that keeps the numeric values (each digit), replaces the second underscore with a decimal, and replaces the first underscore with either an nbsp or a zero (whichever is easier). If the first character in the string is a "1" (the camera can run at frame rates up to 120.000) then the one should be passed on to the page displayed by the stylesheet. I have read other posts here regarding wildcards, but couldn't find one that answered this question. EDIT: Sorry for leaving out important info. I fared better on my first try at asking a question! I guess I got complacent. Anyhow . . . I should have shown you the code that displays the text in the XSL file as is: <tr> <xsl:for-each select="Settings/Groups/Recording"> <tr><td class="title_column">Frame Rate</td><td><xsl:value-of select="RecOutLinkSpeed"/></td></tr> </xsl:for-each> </tr> I should also have given you the URL for the sample file I have been working with: http://josephthomas.info/Alexa/Setup_120511_140322.xml

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  • Achieving C# "readonly" behavior in C++

    - by Tommy Fisk
    Hi guys, this is my first question on stack overflow, so be gentle. Let me first explain the exact behavior I would like to see. If you are familiar with C# then you know that declaring a variable as "readonly" allows a programmer to assign some value to that variable exactly once. Further attempts to modify the variable will result in an error. What I am after: I want to make sure that any and all single-ton classes I define can be predictably instantiated exactly once in my program (more details at the bottom). My approach to realizing my goal is to use extern to declare a global reference to the single-ton (which I will later instantiate at a time I choose. What I have sort of looks like this, namespace Global { extern Singleton& mainInstance; // not defined yet, but it will be later! } int main() { // now that the program has started, go ahead and create the singleton object Singleton& Global::mainInstance = Singleton::GetInstance(); // invalid use of qualified name Global::mainInstance = Singleton::GetInstance(); // doesn't work either :( } class Singleton { /* Some details ommited */ public: Singleton& GetInstance() { static Singleton instance; // exists once for the whole program return instance; } } However this does not really work, and I don't know where to go from here. Some details about what I'm up against: I'm concerned about threading as I am working on code that will deal with game logic while communicating with several third-party processes and other processes I will create. Eventually I would have to implement some kind of synchronization so multiple threads could access the information in the Singleton class without worry. Because I don't know what kinds of optimizations I might like to do, or exactly what threading entails (never done a real project using it), I was thinking that being able to predictably control when Singletons were instantiated would be a Good Thing. Imagine if Process A creates Process B, where B contains several Singletons distributed against multiple files and/or libraries. It could be a real nightmare if I can not reliably ensure the order these singleton objects are instantiated (because they could depend on each other, and calling methods on a NULL object is generally a Bad Thing). If I were in C# I would just use the readonly keyword, but is there any way I can implement this (compiler supported) behavior in C++? Is this even a good idea? Thanks for any feedback.

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  • organizing unit test

    - by soulmerge
    I have found several conventions to housekeeping unit tests in a project and I'm not sure which approach would be suitable for our next PHP project. I am trying to find the best convention to encourage easy development and accessibility of the tests when reviewing the source code. I would be very interested in your experience/opinion regarding each: One folder for productive code, another for unit tests: This separates unit tests from the logic files of the project. This separation of concerns is as much a nuisance as it is an advantage: Someone looking into the source code of the project will - so I suppose - either browse the implementation or the unit tests (or more commonly: the implementation only). The advantage of unit tests being another viewpoint to your classes is lost - those two viewpoints are just too far apart IMO. Annotated test methods: Any modern unit testing framework I know allows developers to create dedicated test methods, annotating them (@test) and embedding them in the project code. The big drawback I see here is that the project files get cluttered. Even if these methods are separated using a comment header (like UNIT TESTS below this line) it just bloats the class unnecessarily. Test files within the same folders as the implementation files: Our file naming convention dictates that PHP files containing classes (one class per file) should end with .class.php. I could imagine that putting unit tests regarding a class file into another one ending on .test.php would render the tests much more present to other developers without tainting the class. Although it bloats the project folders, instead of the implementation files, this is my favorite so far, but I have my doubts: I would think others have come up with this already, and discarded this option for some reason (i.e. I have not seen a java project with the files Foo.java and FooTest.java within the same folder.) Maybe it's because java developers make heavier use of IDEs that allow them easier access to the tests, whereas in PHP no big editors have emerged (like eclipse for java) - many devs I know use vim/emacs or similar editors with little support for PHP development per se. What is your experience with any of these unit test placements? Do you have another convention I haven't listed here? Or am I just overrating unit test accessibility to reviewing developers?

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  • Keeping Velocity Constant and Player in Position - Sidescrolling

    - by user2904951
    I'm working on a Little Mobile Game with Cocos2D-X and Box2D. The Point where I got stuck is the movement of a box2d-body (the main actor) and the according Sprite. Now I want to : move this Body with a constant velocity along the x-axis, no matter if it's rolling (it's a circleshape) upwards or downwards keep the body nearly sticking to the ground on which it's rolling keep the Body and the according Sprite in the Center of the Screen. What I tried : in the update()- method I used body->SetLinearVelocity(b2Vec2(x,y)) to higher/lower values, if the Body was passing a constant value for his velocity I used to set very high y-Values in body->SetLinearVelocity(b2Vec2(x,y)) First tried to use CCFollow with my playerSprite, which was also Scrolling along the y-axis, as i only need to scroll along the x-axis, so I decided to move the whole layer which is containing the ambience (platforms etc.) to the left of my Screen and my Player Body & Player sprite to the right of the Screen, adjusting the speed values to Keep the Player in the Center of the Screen. Well... ...didn't work as i wanted it to, because each time i set the velocity manually (I also tried to use body->applyLinearImpulse(...) when the Body is moving upwards just as playing around with the value of velocityIterations in world->Step(...)) there's a small delay, which pushes the player Body more or less further of the Center of the Screen. ... didn't also work as I expected it to, because I needed to adjust the x-Values, when the Body was moving upwards to Keep it not getting slowed down, this made my Body even less sticky to the ground.... ... CCFollow did a good Job, except that I didn't want to scroll along the y-axis also and it Forces the overgiven sprite to start in the Center of the Screen. Moving the whole Layer even brought no good results, I have tried a Long time to adjust values of the movement Speed of the layer and the Body to Keep it negating each other, that the player stays nearly in the Center of the Screen.... So my question is : Does anyone of you have any Kind of new Approach for me to solve this cohesive bunch of Problems ? Cheers, Seb

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  • How to reflect over T to build an expression tree for a query?

    - by Alex
    Hi all, I'm trying to build a generic class to work with entities from EF. This class talks to repositories, but it's this class that creates the expressions sent to the repositories. Anyway, I'm just trying to implement one virtual method that will act as a base for common querying. Specifically, it will accept a an int and it only needs to perform a query over the primary key of the entity in question. I've been screwing around with it and I've built a reflection which may or may not work. I say that because I get a NotSupportedException with a message of LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'System.Object GetValue(System.Object, System.Object[])' method, and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. So then I tried another approach and it produced the same exception but with the error of The LINQ expression node type 'ArrayIndex' is not supported in LINQ to Entities. I know it's because EF will not parse the expression the way L2S will. Anyway, I'm hopping someone with a bit more experience can point me into the right direction on this. I'm posting the entire class with both attempts I've made. public class Provider<T> where T : class { protected readonly Repository<T> Repository = null; private readonly string TEntityName = typeof(T).Name; [Inject] public Provider( Repository<T> Repository) { this.Repository = Repository; } public virtual void Add( T TEntity) { this.Repository.Insert(TEntity); } public virtual T Get( int PrimaryKey) { // The LINQ expression node type 'ArrayIndex' is not supported in // LINQ to Entities. return this.Repository.Select( t => (((int)(t as EntityObject).EntityKey.EntityKeyValues[0].Value) == PrimaryKey)).Single(); // LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method // 'System.Object GetValue(System.Object, System.Object[])' method, // and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. return this.Repository.Select( t => (((int)t.GetType().GetProperties().Single( p => (p.Name == (this.TEntityName + "Id"))).GetValue(t, null)) == PrimaryKey)).Single(); } public virtual IList<T> GetAll() { return this.Repository.Select().ToList(); } protected virtual void Save() { this.Repository.Update(); } }

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  • Fastest way to copy a set (100+) of related SQLAlchemy objects and change attribute on each one

    - by rebus
    I am developing an app that keeps track of items going in and out of factory. For example, lets say you have 3 kinds of plastic coming in, they are mixed in various ratios and then sent out as a new product. So to keep track of this I've created following database structure: This is very simplified overview of my SQLAlchemy models: IN <- RATIO <- OUT <- REPORT ITEMS -> REPORT IN are products coming in, RATIO is various information on measurements, and OUT is a final product. REPORT is basically a header model which has a lot of REPORT ITEMS attached to it, which in turn relate it to OUT products. This would all work perfectly, but IN and RATION values can change. These changes ultimately change the OUT product which would mean the REPORT values would change. So in order to change an attribute on IN object for example I should copy that object with that attribute changed. I would think this is basically a question about database normalization, because i didn't want to duplicate all the IN, RATIO and OUT information by writing it in REPORT ITEMS table for example, but I've came across this problem (well not really a problem but rather a feature I'd like for a user to have). When the attribute on IN object is changed I want related objects (RATIO and OUT) automatically copied and related to a new IN object. So I was thinking something like: Take an existing instance of model IN that needs to change (call it old_in) Create a new one out of it with some attributes changed (call it new_in) Collect all the RATIO objects that are related to old_in Copy each RATIO and relate them to a new_in Collect all the OUT objects that are related to old RATIO Copy each OUT and relate them to a new RATIO Few questions pop to mind when i look at this problem: Should i just duplicate the data, does all this copying even make sense? If it does, should i rather do it in plain SQL? If no what would be the best approach to do it with Python and SQLAlchemy? Any general answer would suffice really, at least a pointer in right direction. I really want to free then end user for hassle of having create new ratios and out products.

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  • Representation of a DateTime as the local to remote user

    - by TwoSecondsBefore
    Hello! I was confused in the problem of time zones. I am writing a web application that will contain some news with dates of publication, and I want the client to see the date of publication of the news in the form of corresponding local time. However, I do not know in which time zone the client is located. I have three questions. I have to ask just in case: does DateTimeOffset.UtcNow always returns the correct UTC date and time, regardless of whether the server is dependent on daylight savings time? For example, if the first time I get the value of this property for two minutes before daylight savings time (or before the transition from daylight saving time back) and the second time in 2 minutes after the transfer, whether the value of properties in all cases differ by only 4 minutes? Or here require any further logic? (Question #1) Please see the following example and tell me what you think. I posted the news on the site. I assume that DateTimeOffset.UtcNow takes into account the time zone of the server and the daylight savings time, and so I immediately get the correct UTC server time when pressing the button "Submit". I write this value to a MS SQL database in the field of type datetime2(0). Then the user opens a page with news and no matter how long after publication. This may occur even after many years. I did not ask him to enter his time zone. Instead, I get the offset of his current local time from UTC using the javascript function following way: function GetUserTimezoneOffset() { var offset = new Date().getTimezoneOffset(); return offset; } Next I make the calculation of the date and time of publication, which will show the user: public static DateTime Get_Publication_Date_In_User_Local_DateTime( DateTime Publication_Utc_Date_Time_From_DataBase, int User_Time_Zone_Offset_Returned_by_Javascript) { int userTimezoneOffset = User_Time_Zone_Offset_Returned_by_Javascript; // For // example Javascript returns a value equal to -300, which means the // current user's time differs from UTC to 300 minutes. Ie offset // is UTC +6. In this case, it may be the time zone UTC +5 which // currently operates summer time or UTC +6 which currently operates the // standard time. // Right? (Question #2) DateTimeOffset utcPublicationDateTime = new DateTimeOffset(Publication_Utc_Date_Time_From_DataBase, new TimeSpan(0)); // get an instance of type DateTimeOffset for the // date and time of publication for further calculations DateTimeOffset publication_DateTime_In_User_Local_DateTime = utcPublicationDateTime.ToOffset(new TimeSpan(0, - userTimezoneOffset, 0)); return publication_DateTime_In_User_Local_DateTime.DateTime;// return to user } Is the value obtained correct? Is this the right approach to solving this problem? (Question #3)

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  • SQL Query takes about 10 - 20 minutes

    - by masfenix
    I have a select from (nothing to complex) Select * from VIEW This view has about 6000 records and about 40 columns. It comes from a Lotus Notes SQL database. So my ODBC drive is the LotusNotesSQL driver. The query takes about 30 seconds to execute. The company I worked for used EXCEL to run the query and write everything to the worksheet. Since I am assuming it writes everything cell by cell, it used to take up to 30 - 40 minutes to complete. I then used MS access. I made a replica local table on Access to store the data. My first try was INSERT INTO COLUMNS OF LOCAL TABLE FROM (SELECT * FROM VIEW) note that this is pseudocode. This ran successfully, but again took up to 20 - 30 minutes. Then I used VBA to loop through the data and insert it in manually (using an INSERT statement) for each seperate record. This took about 10 - 15 minutes. This has been my best case yet. What i need to do after: After i have the data, I need to filter through it by department. The thing is if I put a where clause in the SQL query (the time jumps from 30 seconds to execute the query, to about 10 minutes + the time to write to local table/excel). I dont know why. MAYBE because the columns are all text columns? If we change some of the columns to integer, would that make it faster in terms of the where clause? I am looking for suggestions on how to approach this. My boss has said we could employ some Java based solution. Will this help? I am not a java person but a c#, and maybe I'll convince them to use c# as well, but i am mainly looking for suggestions on how to cut down the time. I've already cut it down from 40 minutes to 10 minutes, but the want it under 2 minutes. Just to recap: Query takes about 30 seconds to exceute Query takes about 15 - 40 minutes to be used locally in excel/acess Need it under 2 minutes Could use java based solution You may suggest other solutions instead of java.

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  • Inventory count in CakePHP

    - by metrobalderas
    We are developing an inventory tracking system. Basically we've got an order table in which orders are placed. When an order is payed, the status changes from 0 to 1. This table has multiple children in another table order_items. This is the main structure. CREATE TABLE order( id INT UNSIGNED AUTO_INCREMENT PRIMARY KEY, user_id INT UNSIGNED, status INT(1), total INT UNSIGNED ); CREATE TABLE order_items( id INT UNSIGNED AUTO_INCREMENT PRIMARY KEY, order_id INT UNSIGNED, article_id INT UNSIGNED, size enum('s', 'm', 'l', 'xl'), quantity INT UNSIGNED ); Now, we've got a stocks table with similar architecture for the acquisitions. This is the structure. CREATE TABLE stock( id INT UNSIGNED AUTO_INCREMENT PRIMARY KEY, article_id INT UNSIGNED ); CREATE TABLE stock_items( id INT UNSIGNED AUTO_INCREMENT PRIMARY KEY, stock_id INT UNSIGNED, size enum('s', 'm', 'l', 'xl'), quantity INT(2) ); The main difference is that stocks has no status field. What we are looking for is a way to sum each article size from stock_items, then sum each article size from order_items where Order.status = 1 and substract both these items to find our current inventory. This is the table we want to get from a single query: Size | Stocks | Sales | Available s | 10 | 3 | 7 m | 15 | 13 | 2 l | 7 | 4 | 3 Initially we thought abouth using complex find conditions, but perhaps that's the wrong approach. Also, since it's not a direct join, it turns out to be quite hard. This is the code we have to retrieve the stock's total for each item. function stocks_total($id){ $find = $this->StockItem->find('all', array( 'conditions' => array( 'StockItem.stock_id' => $this->find('list', array('conditions' => array('Stock.article_id' => $id))) ), 'fields' => array_merge( array( 'SUM(StockItem.cantidad) as total' ), array_keys($this->StockItem->_schema) ), 'group' => 'StockItem.size', 'order' => 'FIELD(StockItem.size, \'s\', \'m\' ,\'l\' ,\'xl\') ASC' )); return $find; } Thanks.

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  • How can I enable a debugging mode via a command-line switch for my Perl program?

    - by Michael Mao
    I am learning Perl in a "head-first" manner. I am absolutely a newbie in this language: I am trying to have a debug_mode switch from CLI which can be used to control how my script works, by switching certain subroutines "on and off". And below is what I've got so far: #!/usr/bin/perl -s -w # purpose : make subroutine execution optional, # which is depending on a CLI switch flag use strict; use warnings; use constant DEBUG_VERBOSE => "v"; use constant DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS => "s"; use constant DEBUG_IGNORE_VALIDATION => "i"; use constant DEBUG_SETPPING_COMPUTATION => "c"; our ($debug_mode); mainMethod(); sub mainMethod # () { if(!$debug_mode) { print "debug_mode is OFF\n"; } elsif($debug_mode) { print "debug_mode is ON\n"; } else { print "OMG!\n"; exit -1; } checkArgv(); printErrorMsg("Error_Code_123", "Parsing Error at..."); verbose(); } sub checkArgv #() { print ("Number of ARGV : ".(1 + $#ARGV)."\n"); } sub printErrorMsg # ($error_code, $error_msg, ..) { if(defined($debug_mode) && !($debug_mode =~ DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS)) { print "You can only see me if -debug_mode is NOT set". " to DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS\n"; die("terminated prematurely...\n") and exit -1; } } sub verbose # () { if(defined($debug_mode) && ($debug_mode =~ DEBUG_VERBOSE)) { print "Blah blah blah...\n"; } } So far as I can tell, at least it works...: the -debug_mode switch doesn't interfere with normal ARGV the following commandlines work: ./optional.pl ./optional.pl -debug_mode ./optional.pl -debug_mode=v ./optional.pl -debug_mode=s However, I am puzzled when multiple debug_modes are "mixed", such as: ./optional.pl -debug_mode=sv ./optional.pl -debug_mode=vs I don't understand why the above lines of code "magically works". I see both of the "DEBUG_VERBOS" and "DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS" apply to the script, which is fine in this case. However, if there are some "conflicting" debug modes, I am not sure how to set the "precedence of debug_modes"? Also, I am not certain if my approach is good enough to Perlists and I hope I am getting my feet in the right direction. One biggest problem is that I now put if statements inside most of my subroutines for controlling their behavior under different modes. Is this okay? Is there a more elegant way? I know there must be a debug module from CPAN or elsewhere, but I want a real minimal solution that doesn't depend on any other module than the "default". And I cannot have any control on the environment where this script will be executed...

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  • Can you call FB.login inside a callback from other FB methods (like FB.getLoginStatus) without triggering popup blockers?

    - by Erik Kallevig
    I'm trying to set up a pretty basic authentication logic flow with the FB JavaScript SDK to check a user's logged-in status and permissions before performing an action (and prompting the user to login with permissions if they are not)... User types a message into a textarea on my site to post to their Facebook feed and click's a 'post to facebook' button on my site. In response to the click, I check user's logged in status with FB.getLoginStatus In the callback to FB.getLoginStatus, if user is not logged in, prompt them to login (FB.login). In the callback to FB.login I then need to make sure they have the right permissions so I make a call to FB.api('/me/permissions') -- if they don't , I again prompt them to login (FB.login) The problem I'm running into is that anytime I try to call FB.login inside a callback to other FB methods, the browser seems to lose track of the origin of execution (the click) and thus will block the popup. I'm wondering if I'm missing some way to prompt the user to login after checking their status without the browser mistakenly thinking that it's not a user-initiated popup? I've currently fallen back to just calling FB.login() first regardless. The undesired side effect of this approach, however, is that if the user is already logged-in with permissions and I'm still calling FB.login, the auth popup will open and close immediately before continuing, which looks rather buggy despite being functional. It seems like checking a user's login status and permissions before doing something would be a common flow so I feel like I'm missing something. Here's some example code. <div onclick="onClickPostBtn()">Post to Facebook</div> <script> // Callback to click on Post button. function onClickPostBtn() { // Check if logged in, prompt to do so if not. FB.getLoginStatus(function(response) { if (response.status === 'connected') { checkPermissions(response.authResponse.accessToken); } else { FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } }); } // Logged in, check permissions. function checkPermissions(accessToken) { FB.api('/me/permissions', {'access_token': accessToken}, function(response){ // Logged in and authorized for this site. if (response.data && response.data.length) { // Parse response object to check for permission here... if (hasPermission) { // Logged in with permission, perform some action. } else { // Logged in without proper permission, request login with permissions. FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } // Logged in to FB but not authorized for this site. } else { FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } } ); } </script>

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  • how to populate the tables within xmlDataDocument.DataSet

    - by alex
    Hi all: I am working on a C# application that involves using XML schema file as databases for message definitions and XML file as databases for message data. I was following the example I found:http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.xml.xmldatadocument.dataset%28v=VS.100%29.aspx I wrote my own xsd and XML file. I used the same approach in the example, read the xsd file and then load the xml file. But I don't have any "Rows" created for my DataTable. I used debugger to step through my codes. When I am get my DataTable use xmlDataDocument.DataSet.Tables["name of the table"], the Rows property of that tables is 0. Does anybody know what might cause the DataSet tables not get populated after I loaded the xmlDataDocument with XML file? Here is a fragment of XSD file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xs:schema id="test" targetNamespace="http://tempuri.org/test.xsd" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns="http://tempuri.org/test.xsd" xmlns:mstns="http://tempuri.org/test.xsd" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" > <xs:element name="reboot_msg"> <xs:complexType> <xs:complexContent> <xs:extension base="header_s"> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="que_name"> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:minLength value="4"/> <xs:maxLength value="8"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:element> <xs:element name="priority" type="xs:unsignedShort"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:extension> </xs:complexContent> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> and here is a fragment of the XML file: <?xml version="1.0" standalone="yes"?> <test xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" > <reboot_msg> <message_length>16</message_length> <message_type>7</message_type> <message_sequence>0</message_sequence> <que_name>NONE</que_name> <priority>5</priority> </reboot_msg> It could be the XML and XSD file I created missed something. Please help. Thanks

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  • Can't access Elements previously created by innerHTML with Javascript/Prototype

    - by Joe Hopfgartner
    I am setting the innerHTML variable of a div with contents from an ajax request: new Ajax.Request('/search/ajax/allakas/?ext_id='+extid, { method:'get', onSuccess: function(transport){ var response = transport.responseText || "no response text"; $('admincovers_content').innerHTML=response; }, onFailure: function(){ alert('Something went wrong...') } }); The response text cotains a form: <form id="akas-admin" method="post" action="/search/ajax/modifyakas/"> <input type="text" name="formfield" value="i am a form field"/> </form> Then I call a functiont that should submit that form: $('akas-admin').request({ onComplete: function(transport){ //alert('Form data saved! '+transport.responseText) $('admincovers_content').innerHTML=transport.responseText; } }); The problem is $('akas-admin) returns null , I tried to put the form with this id in the original document, which works. Question: Can I somehow "revalidate" the dom or access elements that have been inserted with innerHTML? Edit Info: document.getElementById("akas-admin").submit() works just fine, problem is i don't want to reload the whole page but post the form over ajax and get the response text in a callback function. Edit: Based on the answers provided, i replaced my function that does the request with the following observer: Event.observe(document.body, 'click', function(event) { var e = Event.element(event); if ('aka-savelink' == e.identify()) { alert('savelink clicked!'); if (el = e.findElement('#akas-admin')) { alert('found form to submit it has id: '+el.identify()); el.request({ onComplete: function(transport){ alert('Form data saved! '+transport.responseText) $('admincovers_content').innerHTML=transport.responseText; } }); } } }); problem is that i get as far as alert('savelink clicked!'); . findelement doesnt return the form. i tried to place the save link above and under the form. both doesnt work. i also think this approach is a bit clumsy and i am doing it wrong. could anyone point me in the right direction?

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