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  • File.Replace throwing IOException

    - by WebDevHobo
    I have an app that can make modify images. In some cases, this makes the filesize smaller, in some cases bigger. The program doesn't have an option to "not replace the file if result has a bigger filesize". So I wrote a little C# app to try and solve this. Instead of overwriting the files, I make the app write the result to a folder under the current one and name that folder Test. The C# app I wrote compares grabs the contents of both folders and puts the full path to the file(s) in two List objects. I then compare and replace. The replacing isn't working however. I get the following IOException: Unable to remove the file to be replaced The location is on an external hard-drive, on which I have full rights. Now, I know I can just do File.Delete and File.Move in that order, but this exception has gotten me interested in why this particular setup wont work. Here's the source code: http://pastebin.com/4Vq82Umu And yes, the file specified as last argument of the Replace function does exist.

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  • What library can I use to do simple, lightweight message passing?

    - by Mike
    I will be starting a project which requires communication between distributed nodes(the project is in C++). I need a lightweight message passing library to pass very simple messages(basically just strings of text) between nodes. The library must have the following characteristics: No external setup required. I need to be able to get everything up-and-running in my code - I don't want to require the user to install any packages or edit any configuration files(other than a list of IP addresses and ports to connect to). The underlying protocol which the library uses must be TCP(or if it is UDP, the library must guarantee the eventual receipt of the message). The library must be able to send and receive arbitrarily large strings(think up to 3GB+). The library needn't support any security mechanisms, fault tolerance, or encryption - I just need it to be fast, simple, and easy to use. I've considered MPI, but concluded it would require too much setup on the user's machine for my project. What library would you recommend for such a project? I would roll my own, but due to time constraints, I don't think that will be feasible.

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  • How can I embed images within my application and use them in HTML control?

    - by Atara
    Is there any way I can embed the images within my exe (as resource?) and use it in generated HTML ? Here are the requirements: A. I want to show dynamic HTML content (e.g. using webBrowser control, VS 2008, VB .Net, winForm desktop application) B. I want to generate the HTML on-the-fly using XML and XSL (file1.xml or file2.xml transformed by my.xsl) C. The HTML may contain IMG tags (file1.gif and or file2.gif according to the xml+xsl transformation) and here comes the complicated one: D. All these files (file1.xml, file2.xml, my.xsl, file1.gif, file2.gif) should be embedded in one exe file. I guess the XML and XSL can be embedded resources, and I can read them as stream, but what ways do I have to reference the image within the HTML ? <IMG src="???" /> I do not want to use absolute path and external files. If the image files are resources, can I use relative path? Relative to what? (I can use BASE tag, and then what?) Can I use stream as in email messages? If so, where can I find the format I need to use? http://www.websiteoptimization.com/speed/tweak/inline-images/ are browser dependent. What is the browser used by webBrowser control? IE? what version? Does it matter if I use GIF or JPG or BMP (or any other image format) for the images? Does it matter if I use mshtml library and not the regular webBrowser control? (currently I use http://www.itwriting.com/htmleditor/index.php ) Does it matter if I upgrade to VS 2010 ? Thanks, Atara

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  • Not all symbols of an DLL-exported class is exported (VS9)

    - by mandrake
    I'm building a DLL from a group of static libraries and I'm having a problem where only parts of classes are exported. What I'm doing is declaring all symbols I want to export with a preprocessor definition like: #if defined(MYPROJ_BUILD_DLL) //Build as a DLL # define MY_API __declspec(dllexport) #elif defined(MYPROJ_USE_DLL) //Use as a DLL # define MY_API __declspec(dllimport) #else //Build or use as a static lib # define MY_API #endif For example: class MY_API Foo{ ... } I then build static library with MYPROJ_BUILD_DLL & MYPROJ_USE_DLL undefined causing a static library to be built. In another build I create a DLL from these static libraries. So I define MYPROJ_BUILD_DLL causing all symbols I want to export to be attributed with __declspec(dllexport) (this is done by including all static library headers in the DLL-project source file). Ok, so now to the problem. When I use this new DLL I get unresolved externals because not all symbols of a class is exported. For example in a class like this: class MY_API Foo{ public: Foo(char const* ); int bar(); private: Foo( char const*, char const* ); }; Only Foo::Foo( char const*, char const*); and int Foo::bar(); is exported. How can that be? I can understand if the entire class was missing, due to e.g. I forgot to include the header in the DLL-build. But it's only partial missing. Also, say if Foo::Foo( char const*) was not implemented; then the DLL build would have unresolved external errors. But the build is fine (I also double checked for declarations without implementation). Note: The combined size of the static libraries I'm combining is in the region of 30MB, and the resulting DLL is 1.2MB. I'm using Visual Studio 9.0 (2008) to build everything. And Depends to check for exported symbols.

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  • When should we use private variables and when should we use properties.

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    In most of the cases we usually creates a private variable and its corresponding public properties and uses them for performing our functionalities. Everyone has different approach like some ppl uses properties every where and some uses private variables within a same class as they are private and opens it to be used by external environment by using properties. Suppose I takes a scenario say insertion in a database. I creates some parameters that need to be initialized. I creates 10 private variables and their corresp public properties which are given as private string name; public string Name { get{return name;} set{name=value;} } and so on. In these cases what should be used internally variables or properties. And in those cases like public string Name { get{return name;} set{name=value>5?5:0;} //or any action can be done. this is just an eg. } In such cases what should be done.

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  • Elegant Disjunctive Normal Form in Django

    - by Mike
    Let's say I've defined this model: class Identifier(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User) key = models.CharField(max_length=64) value = models.CharField(max_length=255) Each user will have multiple identifiers, each with a key and a value. I am 100% sure I want to keep the design like this, there are external reasons why I'm doing it that I won't go through here, so I'm not interested in changing this. I'd like to develop a function of this sort: def get_users_by_identifiers(**kwargs): # something goes here return users The function will return all users that have one of the key=value pairs specified in **kwargs. Here's an example usage: get_users_by_identifiers(a=1, b=2) This should return all users for whom a=1 or b=2. I've noticed that the way I've set this up, this amounts to a disjunctive normal form...the SQL query would be something like: SELECT DISTINCT(user_id) FROM app_identifier WHERE (key = "a" AND value = "1") OR (key = "b" AND value = "2") ... I feel like there's got to be some elegant way to take the **kwargs input and do a Django filter on it, in just 1-2 lines, to produce this result. I'm new to Django though, so I'm just not sure how to do it. Here's my function now, and I'm completely sure it's not the best way to do it :) def get_users_by_identifiers(**identifiers): users = [] for key, value in identifiers.items(): for identifier in Identifier.objects.filter(key=key, value=value): if not identifier.user in users: users.append(identifier.user) return users Any ideas? :) Thanks!

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  • Passing a outside variable into a <asp:sqldatasource> tag. ASP.NET 2.0

    - by MadMAxJr
    I'm designing some VB based ASP.NET 2.0, and I am trying to make more use of the various ASP tags that visual studio provides, rather than hand writing everything in the code-behind. I want to pass in an outside variable from the Session to identify who the user is for the query. <asp:sqldatasource id="DataStores" runat="server" connectionstring="<%$ ConnectionStrings:MY_CONNECTION %>" providername="<%$ ConnectionStrings:MY_CONNECTION.ProviderName %>" selectcommand="SELECT THING1, THING2 FROM DATA_TABLE WHERE (THING2 IN (SELECT THING2 FROM RELATED_DATA_TABLE WHERE (USERNAME = @user)))" onselecting="Data_Stores_Selecting"> <SelectParameters> <asp:parameter name="user" defaultvalue ="" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:sqldatasource> And on my code behind I have: Protected Sub Data_Stores_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Web.UI.WebControls.SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs) Handles Data_Stores.Selecting e.Command.Parameters("user").Value = Session("userid") End Sub Oracle squaks at me with ORA-01036, illegal variable name. Am I declaring the variable wrong in the query? I thought external variables share the same name with a @ prefixed. from what I understand, this should be placing the value I want into the query when it executes the select. EDIT: Okay, thanks for the advice so far, first error was corrected, I need to use : and not @ for the variable declaration in the query. Now it generates an ORA-01745 invalid host/bind variable name. EDIT AGAIN: Okay, looks like user was a reserved word. It works now! Thanks for other points of view on this one. I hadn't thought of that approach.

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  • Android - Where to store generated bitmaps?

    - by Josh
    I've got an app which dynamically generates anywhere from 6 to 100 small bitmaps for the user to move around the screen in a given session. I currently generate them in onCreate and store them to the sd card, so that after an orientation change I can grab them out of external storage and display them again. However, this takes time (the loading) and I'd like to keep the bitmap references around between lifecyle changes for quicker access. My question is, is there a better place to store my generated bitmaps? I was thinking about creating a static storage library in my base activity, something that would only need to be reloaded when the app is completely removed from memory (shutdown, other apps need resources, 30 minute restart, etc). Ideally, I'd like the user to be able to back out to the title screen, click a "Resume" button, and in onCreate I just have access to those resident bitmap references instead of having to load them from storage again. For this reason I don't think Activity.onRetainNonConfigurationInstance is what I need. Alternatively, is there a better way to handle multiple generated bitmaps than what I'm doing or the plan I described?

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  • How do I use curl to display a table on a page?

    - by user272899
    I want to use curl to retrieve a table from an external page. So far my code retrieves all data from the page. I have read that using preg_match or preg_replace is the way to go about it. This is my code so far: <?php $ch = curl_init() or die(curl_error()); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL,"http://www.megaupload.com/?d=XE30L1GA&w=631&h=392"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $data1=curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); echo "<font color=black face=verdana size=3>".$data1."</font>"; echo curl_error($ch); curl_close($ch); ?> This is the data I want to retrieve from the page: <FORM method="POST" id="captchaform"> <INPUT type="hidden" name="captchacode" value="1a589e0a53c54f937eb8"> <INPUT type="hidden" name="megavar" value="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"> <TR> <TD>Enter this </TD> <TD width="100" align="center" height="40"><img src="http://wwwq32.megaupload.com/gencap.php?23243f17c2404dd4.gif" border="0" alt=""></TD> <TD> here:</TD> <TD><input type="text" name="captcha" id="captchafield" maxlength="4" style="border:solid 1px; border-color:#C4C4C4; background-color:#F9F9F9; width:50px; height:25px;"></TD> </TR> </FORM>

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  • Remote connection to SQL Server Express fails

    - by worlds-apart89
    I have two computers that share the same Internet IP address. Using one of the computers, I can remotely connect to a SQL Server database on the other. Here is my connection string: SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=192.168.1.101\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); 192.168.1.101 is the server, SQLEXPRESSNI is the SQL Server instance name, and FirstDB is the name of the database. Now, I have another computer with a different Internet IP address. I want to connect to the server above using the third computer that does not belong to my local area network. I dont have access to that third computer at the moment, so I want to use (if possible) the client computer in LAN again. SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=SharedInternetIP\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); Does not work Note that I am a beginner, so I am not quite sure what I am doing even though I know what I want to do. By passing the Internet IP to the SqlConnection object rather than the local IP address, how can I successfully connect to the server computer, using the client computer in the same network? Also note that my ultimate goal is to connect to the server with an external client, but I don't have access to that computer right now. I'd appreciate any help.

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  • Importing Excel spreadsheet data into existing Access DB

    - by Keeb13r
    I've designed an Access 2003 DB with 3 tables: APPLICATIONS, SERVERS, and INSTALLATIONS. Records in the APPLICATIONS and SERVERS tables are uniquely identified by a synthetic primary key (in Access, an "auto number"). The INSTALLATIONS table is essentially a mapping table between APPLICATIONS and SERVERS: it's a list of records of which applications are installed on which servers. A record in the INSTALLATIONS table is also identified by a synthetic primary key, and it consists of an APPLICATION_ID and SERVER_ID for the records in their respective tables. I have an Excel 2003 spreadsheet I would like to import into this database, but it's proving difficult. The spreadsheet is made up of several tabs/worksheets, each one representing a server with its own listing of installed applications. I'm not sure how to proceed with an import - the "Get External Data -- Import" feature in Access has an import "In an Existing Table" option, but it's greyed out. I'm also unsure how I build the relationships between applications and servers for importing records into the INSTALLATIONS table. I had previously fooled around with adding some security to the Access DB file. I think I removed everything but perhaps I didn't and that's causing the problem? Some sample data from the Excel spreadsheet: SERVER101 * Adobe Reader 9 * BMC Remedy User 7.0 * HostExplorer 2008 * Microsoft Office 2003 * Microsoft Office 2007 * Notepad++ SERVER102 * Adobe Reader 9 * DameWare Mini Remote Control * Microsoft Office 2003 * Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 SP1 * Oracle 9.2 SERVER103 * AWDView * EXTRA! Personal Client 32-bit * Microsoft Office 2003 * Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 SP1 * Snagit 9.1 * WinZip 12.1 The Access DB design is very simple: APPLICATION * APPLICATION_ID (autonumber) * APPLICATION_NAME (varchar) SERVER * SERVER_ID (autonumber) * SERVER_NAME (varchar) INSTALLATION * INSTALLATION_ID (autonumber) * APPLICATION_ID (number) * SERVER_ID (number)

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  • How to properly handle signals when using the worker thread pattern?

    - by ipartola
    I have a simple server that looks something like this: void *run_thread(void *arg) { // Communicate via a blocking socket } int main() { // Initialization happens here... // Main event loop while (1) { new_client = accept(socket, ...); pthread_create(&thread, NULL, &run_thread, *thread_data*); pthread_detach(thread); } // Do cleanup stuff: close(socket); // Wait for existing threads to finish exit(0); ) Thus when a SIGINT or SIGTERM is received I need to break out of the main event loop to get to the clean up code. Moreover most likely the master thread is waiting on the accept() call so it's not able to check some other variable to see if it should break;. Most of the advice I found was along the lines of this: http://devcry.blogspot.com/2009/05/pthreads-and-unix-signals.html (creating a special signal handling thread to catch all the signals and do processing on those). However, it's the processing portion that I can't really wrap my head around: how can I possibly tell the main thread to return from the accept() call and check on an external variable to see if it should break;?

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  • Is there a Symfony callback at the termination of a session?

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    I have an application that is authenticating against an external server in a filter. In that filter, I'm trying to set a couple of session attributes on the user by using Symfony's setAttribute() method: $this->getContext()->getUser()->setAttribute( 'myAttribute', 'myValue' ); What I'm finding is that, if I dump $_SESSION immediately after setting the attribute. On the other hand, if I call getAttribute( 'myAttribute' ), I get back exactly what I put in. All along, I've assumed that reading/writing to user attributes was synonymous with reading/writing to the session, but that seems to be an incorrect assumption. Is there a timing issue? I'm not getting any non-object errors, so it seems that the user is fully initialized. Where is the disconnect here? Thanks. UPDATE The reason this was happening is because I had some code in myUser::shutdown() that cleared out a bunch of stuff. Because myUser is loosely equivalent to $_SESSION (at least with respect to attributes), I assumed that the shutdown() method would be called at the end of each session. It's not. It seems to get called at the close of each request which is why my attributes never seemed to get set. Now, though, I'm left wondering whether there's a session closing callback. Anyone know?

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  • Serialization of Entity Framework Models with .NET WCF Rest Service

    - by Chris Phillips
    I'm trying to put together a very simple REST-style interface for communicating with our partners. An example object in the API is a partner, which we'd like to have serialized like this: <partner> <id>ID</id> <name>NAME</name> </partner> This is fairly simply to achieve using the .NET 4.0 WCF REST template if we simply declare a partner class as: public class Partner { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} } But when I use the Entity Framework to define and store Partner objects, the resulting serialization looks something like this: <Partner p1:Id="NCNameString" p1:Ref="NCNameString" xmlns:p1="http://schemas.microsoft.com/2003/10/Serialization/" xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/TheTradeDesk.AdPlatform.Provisioning"> <EntityKey p1:Id="NCNameString" p1:Ref="NCNameString" xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.Data.Objects.DataClasses"> <EntityContainerName xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.Data">String content</EntityContainerName> <EntityKeyValues xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.Data"> ... This XML is obviously unacceptable for use as an external API. What are suggested mechanisms for using EF for the data store but maintaining a simple XML serialization interface?

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  • How to provide i18n service for developer and end user

    - by user247245
    Many android applications have quite poor i18n-support, and for an understandable reason, as it adds much work for the developer. From a both intuitive and cultural point of view it would be a good thing if end-users could translate the apps themself, and OTA share the translation, without reinstalling the app itself. In concept; as wikipedia, some add content easily, others only use what's there. It's of course important that the service is as easy as possible to use, both for app-developers, and people willing to transcribe. To keep it simple, this is the solution I'm concidering; Developer perspective: Developer uses a customized setContentView when open activities/layouts that will seach for thanslations of xml-entries. (below) The customized version is provided as a free downloadable library/class..., turning the i18n feature to more or less a one liner. User perspective: User downloads app without any translation As app launches, it checks locale running at phone, and will look for a translated xml-file at shared space in SD. If no or old transcribed xml (above), try to download new from internet-service (ansync). This is all done by library above, no need for intents. Translator perspective: Separate app to provide translations for any app using the i18n service above. (Could be just a webapp), with some form of QA on translators/input. QUESTION: Now, for this to work efficiently, it has to be AeasyAP for the developer to even bother, and the most fluent solution would be a customized version of setContentView, that simply loads the translated values from external xml, instead of the ones in the apk. Is this possible at all, and if not, what's your suggested solutions? (And of course, Happy New Year, feliz ano novo, blwyddyn newydd dda, Gott Nytt År, kontan ane nouvo, szczesliwego nowego roku ...) Regards, /T

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  • unexpected behaviour of object stored in web service Session

    - by draconis
    Hi. I'm using Session variables inside a web service to maintain state between successive method calls by an external application called QBWC. I set this up by decorating my web service methods with this attribute: [WebMethod(EnableSession = true)] I'm using the Session variable to store an instance of a custom object called QueueManager. The QueueManager has a property called ChangeQueue which looks like this: [Serializable] public class QueueManager { ... public Queue<QBChange> ChangeQueue { get; set; } ... where QBChange is a custom business object belonging to my web service. Now, every time I get a call to a method in my web service, I use this code to retrieve my QueueManager object and access my queue: QueueManager qm = (QueueManager)Session[ticket]; then I remove an object from the queue, using qm.dequeue() and then I save the modified query manager object (modified because it contains one less object in the queue) back to the Session variable, like so: Session[ticket] = qm; ready for the next web service method call using the same ticket. Now here's the thing: if I comment out this last line //Session[ticket] = qm; , then the web service behaves exactly the same way, reducing the size of the queue between method calls. Now why is that? The web service seems to be updating a class contained in serialized form in a Session variable without being asked to. Why would it do that? When I deserialize my Queuemanager object, does the qm variable hold a reference to the serialized object inside the Session[ticket] variable?? This seems very unlikely.

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  • Sharepoint fails to load a C++ dll on windows 2008

    - by Nathan
    I have a sharepoint DLL that does some licensing things and as part of the code it uses an external C++ DLL to get the serial number of the hardisk. When i run this application on windows server 2003 it works fine, but on 2008 the whole site (loaded on load) crashes and resets continually. This is not 2008 R2 and is the same in 64 or 32 bits. If i put a debugger.break before the dll execution then I see the code get to the point of the break then never come back into the dll again. I do get some debug assertion warnings from within the function, again only in 2008, but im not sure this is related. I created a console app that runs the c# dll, which in turn loads the c++ dll, and this works perfectly on 2008 (although does show the assertion errors, but I have suppressed these now). The assertion errors are not in my code but within ICtypes.c and not something I can debug. If i put a breakpoint in the DLL it is never hit and the compiler says : "step in: Stepping over non user code" if i try to debug into the DLL using VS. I have tried wrapping the code used to call the DLL in: SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() but this also does not help. I have the sourcecode for this DLL so that is not a problem. If i delete the DLL from the directory I get an error about a missing DLL, if i replace it back to no error or warning just a complete failure. If i replace this code with a hardcoded string the whole application works fine. Any advice would be much appreciated, I can't understand why it works as a console app yet not when run by sharepoint, this is with the same user account, on the same machine... This is the code used to call the DLL: [DllImport("idDll.dll", EntryPoint = "GetMachineId", SetLastError = true)] extern static string GetComponentId([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)]String s); public static string GetComponentId() { Debugger.Break(); if (_machine == string.Empty) { string temp = ""; id= ComponentId.GetComponentId(temp); } return id; }

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  • java , eclipse jar problem

    - by Raxvan
    Hello , i'm kind of new to java. I use eclipse and i imported some jar files with some classes by going to properties - Add External Jars; The problem is that when i try to use a class from the jar i get the following exception: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: nextapp/echo2/app/event/ActionListener at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(Unknown Source) at java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(Unknown Source) at java.net.URLClassLoader.defineClass(Unknown Source) at java.net.URLClassLoader.access$000(Unknown Source) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(Unknown Source) at Program.main(Program.java:12) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: nextapp.echo2.app.event.ActionListener at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(Unknown Source) ... 13 more The class is supposed to create a window, i guess that the jar has to import somehow other stuff or something like that, How can i fix this? PS. Sorry for the bad code , i don't know tags here. thansk, Raxvan

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  • Building an 'Activation Key' Generator in JAVA

    - by jax
    I want to develop a Key generator for my phone applications. Currently I am using an external service to do the job but I am a little concerned that the service might go offline one day hence I will be in a bit of a pickle. How authentication works now. Public key stored on the phone. When the user requests a key the 'phone ID' is sent to the "Key Generation Service" and the encrypted key key is returned and stored inside a license file. On the phone I can check if the key is for the current phone by using a method getPhoneId() which I can check with the the current phone and grant or not grant access to features. I like this and it works well, however, I want to create my own "Key Generation Service" from my own website. Requirements: Public and Private Key Encryption:(Bouncy Castle) Written in JAVA Must support getApplicationId() (so that many applications can use the same key generator) and getPhoneId() (to get the phone id out of the encrypted license file) I want to be able to send the ApplicationId and PhoneId to the service for license key generation. Can someone give me some pointers on how to accomplish this? I have dabbled around with some java encryption but am definitely no expert and can't find anything that will help me. A list of the Java classes I would need to instantiate would be helpful.

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  • Web Reference Code generator template.

    - by Bluephlame
    I Have an internal SOAP Web service that is being called from an external REST service in .NET it works fine however I am simply passing through the SOAP objects of the REST Layer but the automatic generation of the WebReference Code in Visual Studio adds the 'field' to the end of every attribute. basically it makes my XML look all nasty. Everything works I just want to clean up my XML. Any ideas how i can change the template for the reference.cs or to make the XML generate nicely from the Web Service Objects. Here is an example of the reference.cs public int HeadLeft { get { return this.headLeftField; } set { this.headLeftField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadTop { get { return this.headTopField; } set { this.headTopField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadWidth { get { return this.headWidthField; } set { this.headWidthField = value; } } Here is an examle of the XML <a:headHeightField>208</a:headHeightField> <a:headLeftField>316</a:headLeftField> <a:headTopField>103</a:headTopField> <a:headWidthField>161</a:headWidthField>

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  • Ajax and JSF 1.1 using hidden iframe with "proxy forms", what do you think about this development st

    - by Steel Plume
    Hi, currently I am using yet 1.1 specs, so I am trying to make simple what is too complex for me :p, managing backing beans with conflicting navigation rules, external params breaking rules and so on... for example when I need a backing bean used by other "views" simply I call it using FacesContext inside other backing beans, but often it's too wired up to JSF navigation/initialization rules to be really usable, and of course more simple is more useful become the FacesContext. So with only a bit of cross browser Javascript (simply a form copy and a read-write on a "proxy" form), I create a sort of proxy form inside the main user page (totally disassociated from JSF navigation rules, but using JSF taglibs). Ajax gives me flexibility on the user interaction, but data is always managed by JSF. Pratically I demand all "fictious" user actions to an hidden "iframe" which build up all needed forms according JSF rules, then a javascript simply clone its form output and put it into the user view level (CSS for showing/hiding real command buttons and making pretty), the user plays around and when he click submit, a script copies all "proxied" form values into the real JSF form inside the "iframe" that invokes the real submit of the form, what it returns is obviously dependent by your choice. Now JSF is really a pleasure :-p My real interest is to know what are your alternative strategy for using pure Ajax and JSF 1.1 without adopting middle layer like ajax4jsf and others, all good choices but too much "plugins" than specs.

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  • Invoke Command When "ENTER" Key Is Pressed In XAML

    - by bitxwise
    I want to invoke a command when ENTER is pressed in a TextBox. Consider the following XAML: <UserControl ... xmlns:i="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Interactivity;assembly=System.Windows.Interactivity" ...> ... <TextBox> <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="KeyUp"> <i:InvokeCommandAction Command="{Binding MyCommand}" CommandParameter="{Binding Text}" /> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> </TextBox> ... </UserControl> and that MyCommand is as follows: public ICommand MyCommand { get { return new DelegateCommand<string>(MyCommandExecute); } } private void MyCommandExecute(string s) { ... } With the above, my command is invoked for every key press. How can I restrict the command to only invoke when the ENTER key is pressed? I understand that with Expression Blend I can use Conditions but those seem to be restricted to elements and can't consider event arguments. I have also come across SLEX which offers its own InvokeCommandAction implementation that is built on top of the Systems.Windows.Interactivity implementation and can do what I need. Another consideration is to write my own trigger, but I'm hoping there's a way to do it without using external toolkits.

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  • Threadpool design question

    - by ZeroVector
    I have a design question. I want some feedback to know if a ThreadPool is appropriate for the client program I am writing. I am having a client running as a service processing database records. Each of these records contains connection information to external FTP sites [basically it is a queue of files to transfer]. A lot of them are to the same host, just moving different files. Therefore, I am grouping them together by host. I want to be able to create a new thread per host. I really don't care when the transfers finish, they just need to do all the work (or try to do) they were assigned, and then terminate once they are finished, cleaning up all resources they used in the process. I anticipate no more than 10-25 connections to be established. Once the transfer queue is empty, the program will simply wait until there are records in the queue again. Is the ThreadPool a good candidate for this or should I use a different approach? Edit: For the most part, this is the only significant custom application running on the server.

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  • submittingthe form even if the form is in invalid state

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i am using asp.net web forms and i am using bassistance.de jquery validation.. i have bunch of fields in the form and its validatating how it suppose to but its still executing my code behind code, why is it doing that? here is my code: form: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true } ................. }, messages: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter visit name", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters.") } ............ }, success: function(label) { label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); $("#aspnetForm").validate(); }); </script> <div > <h1> Page</h1> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1'>Visit Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtVisitName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> ............ ............... <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button> </div> and i have a external .js file referencing to my web form page. $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnSubmit").click(function() { SavePage(); }); }); i have a WebMethod .cs and i have bookmark and it does hitting that line of code even thoug my page is in invalid state. how would i fix this? thanks.

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  • How to manage lifecycle in a ViewGroup-derived class?

    - by Scott Smith
    I had a bunch of code in an activity that displays a running graph of some external data. As the activity code was getting kind of cluttered, I decided to extract this code and create a GraphView class: public class GraphView extends LinearLayout { public GraphView(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater) context.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); inflater.inflate(R.layout.graph_view, this, true); } public void start() { // Perform initialization (bindings, timers, etc) here } public void stop() { // Unbind, destroy timers, yadda yadda } . . . } Moving stuff into this new LinearLayout-derived class was simple. But there was some lifecycle management code associated with creating and destroying timers and event listeners used by this graph (I didn't want this thing polling in the background if the activity was paused, for example). Coming from a MS Windows background, I kind of expected to find overridable onCreate() and onDestroy() methods or something similar, but I haven't found anything of the sort in LinearLayout (or any of its inherited members). Having to leave all of this initialization code in the Activity, and then having to pass it into the view seemed like it defeated the original purpose of encapsulating all of this code into a reusable view. I ended up adding two additional public methods to my view: start() and stop(). I make these calls from the activity's onResume() and onPause() methods respectively. This seems to work, but it feels like I'm using duct tape here. Does anyone know how this is typically done? I feel like I'm missing something...

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