Search Results

Search found 9026 results on 362 pages for 'vs extensibility'.

Page 352/362 | < Previous Page | 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359  | Next Page >

  • .NET SerialPort DataReceived event not firing

    - by Klay
    I have a WPF test app for evaluating event-based serial port communication (vs. polling the serial port). The problem is that the DataReceived event doesn't seem to be firing at all. I have a very basic WPF form with a TextBox for user input, a TextBlock for output, and a button to write the input to the serial port. Here's the code: public partial class Window1 : Window { SerialPort port; public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); port = new SerialPort("COM2", 9600, Parity.None, 8, StopBits.One); port.DataReceived += new SerialDataReceivedEventHandler(port_DataReceived); port.Open(); } void port_DataReceived(object sender, SerialDataReceivedEventArgs e) { Debug.Print("receiving!"); string data = port.ReadExisting(); Debug.Print(data); outputText.Text = data; } private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { Debug.Print("sending: " + inputText.Text); port.WriteLine(inputText.Text); } } Now, here are the complicating factors: The laptop I'm working on has no serial ports, so I'm using a piece of software called Virtual Serial Port Emulator to setup a COM2. VSPE has worked admirably in the past, and it's not clear why it would only malfunction with .NET's SerialPort class, but I mention it just in case. When I hit the button on my form to send the data, my Hyperterminal window (connected on COM2) shows that the data is getting through. Yes, I disconnect Hyperterminal when I want to test my form's ability to read the port. I've tried opening the port before wiring up the event. No change. I've read through another post here where someone else is having a similar problem. None of that info has helped me in this case. EDIT: Here's the console version (modified from http://mark.michaelis.net/Blog/TheBasicsOfSystemIOPortsSerialPort.aspx): class Program { static SerialPort port; static void Main(string[] args) { port = new SerialPort("COM2", 9600, Parity.None, 8, StopBits.One); port.DataReceived += new SerialDataReceivedEventHandler(port_DataReceived); port.Open(); string text; do { text = Console.ReadLine(); port.Write(text + "\r\n"); } while (text.ToLower() != "q"); } public static void port_DataReceived(object sender, SerialDataReceivedEventArgs args) { string text = port.ReadExisting(); Console.WriteLine("received: " + text); } } This should eliminate any concern that it's a Threading issue (I think). This doesn't work either. Again, Hyperterminal reports the data sent through the port, but the console app doesn't seem to fire the DataReceived event. EDIT #2: I realized that I had two separate apps that should both send and receive from the serial port, so I decided to try running them simultaneously... If I type into the console app, the WPF app DataReceived event fires, with the expected threading error (which I know how to deal with). If I type into the WPF app, the console app DataReceived event fires, and it echoes the data. I'm guessing the issue is somewhere in my use of the VSPE software, which is set up to treat one serial port as both input and output. And through some weirdness of the SerialPort class, one instance of a serial port can't be both the sender and receiver. Anyway, I think it's solved.

    Read the article

  • How do I use C# and ADO.NET to query an Oracle table with a spatial column of type SDO_GEOMETRY?

    - by John Donahue
    My development machine is running Windows 7 Enterprise, 64-bit version. I am using Visual Studio 2010 Release Candidate. I am connecting to an Oracle 11g Enterprise server version 11.1.0.7.0. I had a difficult time locating Oracle client software that is made for 64-bit Windows systems and eventually landed here to download what I assume is the proper client connectivity software. I added a reference to "Oracle.DataAccess" which is version 2.111.6.0 (Runtime Version is v2.0.50727). I am targeting .NET CLR version 4.0 since all properties of my VS Solution are defaults and this is 2010 RC. I was then able to write a console application in C# that established connectivity, executed a SELECT statement, and properly returned data when the table in question does NOT contain a spatial column. My problem is that this no longer works when the table I query has a column of type SDO_GEOMETRY in it. Below is the simple console application I am trying to run that reproduces the problem. When the code gets to the line with the "ExecuteReader" command, an exception is raised and the message is "Unsupported column datatype". using System; using System.Data; using Oracle.DataAccess.Client; namespace ConsoleTestOracle { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { string oradb = string.Format("Data Source={0};User Id={1};Password={2};", "hostname/servicename", "login", "password"); try { using (OracleConnection conn = new OracleConnection(oradb)) { conn.Open(); OracleCommand cmd = new OracleCommand(); cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandText = "select * from SDO_8307_2D_POINTS"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; OracleDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); } } catch (Exception e) { string error = e.Message; } } } } The fact that this code works when used against a table that does not contain a spatial column of type SDO_GEOMETRY makes me think I have my windows 7 machine properly configured so I am surprised that I get this exception when the table contains different kinds of columns. I don't know if there is some configuration on my machine or the Oracle machine that needs to be done, or if the Oracle client software I have installed is wrong, or old and needs to be updated. Here is the SQL I used to create the table, populate it with some rows containing points in the spatial column, etc. if you want to try to reproduce this exactly. SQL Create Commands: create table SDO_8307_2D_Points (ObjectID number(38) not null unique, TestID number, shape SDO_GEOMETRY); Insert into SDO_8307_2D_Points values (1, 1, SDO_GEOMETRY(2001, 8307, null, SDO_ELEM_INFO_ARRAY(1, 1, 1), SDO_ORDINATE_ARRAY(10.0, 10.0))); Insert into SDO_8307_2D_Points values (2, 2, SDO_GEOMETRY(2001, 8307, null, SDO_ELEM_INFO_ARRAY(1, 1, 1), SDO_ORDINATE_ARRAY(10.0, 20.0))); insert into user_sdo_geom_metadata values ('SDO_8307_2D_Points', 'SHAPE', SDO_DIM_ARRAY(SDO_DIM_ELEMENT('Lat', -180, 180, 0.05), SDO_DIM_ELEMENT('Long', -90, 90, 0.05)), 8307); create index SDO_8307_2D_Point_indx on SDO_8307_2D_Points(shape) indextype is mdsys.spatial_index PARAMETERS ('sdo_indx_dims=2' ); Any advice or insights would be greatly appreciated. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Jquery datepicker popup not closing on select date in IE8

    - by Notorious2tall
    I've got a web form with a start date field. I've tied a jquery datepicker to the txt field. Now when I choose a date in FF, the selected date is populated in the text box and the calendar popup closes. However when I do the same thing in IE8, the selected date is populated in the text box but the popup remains open. I've also noticed that a script error is generated as soon as I select a date in the popup calendar. I'm using jquery 1.3.2, jquery-ui 1.7.2, and .NET 3.5. Here's an example of my code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#<%=txtStartDate.ClientID%>").datepicker({ changeMonth: true, changeYear: true, showButtonPanel: true, showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '/_layouts/images/CALENDAR.GIF', buttonImageOnly: true }); }); </script> <div id="stylized"> <asp:ValidationSummary ID="vs" runat="server" CssClass="messages-error" HeaderText=" Action required before the form can be submitted." ForeColor="" ValidationGroup="sh" /> <div class="formrow"> <div class="ms-formlabel formlabel"> <asp:Label ID="lblStartDate" runat="server" CssClass="ms-standardheader" AssociatedControlID="txtStartDate">Start Date:</asp:Label> </div> <div class="ms-formbody formfield"> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="reqStartDate" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtStartDate" ErrorMessage="Start Date is a required field." Text="*" Display="Dynamic" ValidationGroup="sh"></asp:RequiredFieldValidator> <asp:CompareValidator ID="cvStartDate" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtStartDate" ErrorMessage="Date must be in the format MM/DD/YYYY" Text="*" Display="Dynamic" ValidationGroup="sh" Operator="DataTypeCheck" Type="Date"></asp:CompareValidator> <asp:TextBox ID="txtStartDate" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <span class="formMessage">ex. MM/DD/YYYY</span> </div> </div> <div id="buttonrow"> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" Text="Submit" CssClass="ms-ButtonHeightWidth" OnClick="Submit_Click" ValidationGroup="sh" /> <asp:Button ID="btnCancel" runat="server" Text="Cancel" CssClass="ms-ButtonHeightWidth" OnClick="Cancel_Click" CausesValidation="false" /> </div> </div> Here's the script error I get in IE when I select the date: 'length' is null or not an object WebResource.axd Here's the code where the error is being thrown from: function ValidatorOnChange(event) { if (!event) { event = window.event; } Page_InvalidControlToBeFocused = null; var targetedControl; if ((typeof(event.srcElement) != "undefined") && (event.srcElement != null)) { targetedControl = event.srcElement; } else { targetedControl = event.target; } var vals; if (typeof(targetedControl.Validators) != "undefined") { vals = targetedControl.Validators; } else { if (targetedControl.tagName.toLowerCase() == "label") { targetedControl = document.getElementById(targetedControl.htmlFor); vals = targetedControl.Validators; } } var i; for (i = 0; i < vals.length; i++) { ValidatorValidate(vals[i], null, event); } ValidatorUpdateIsValid(); } It happens on the .length in the for loop at the end. Vals is null and isn't found in the previous if/else. I've stepped through the javascript and if (typeof(targetedControl.Validators) != "undefined") returns false and then if (targetedControl.tagName.toLowerCase() == "label") returns false too. Thus the length is null or not an object error. Now I'm not sure if the datepicker popup not closing in IE and the script error in the WebResources.axd file are related errors, but I'm leaning that way. Can anyone tell me why the popup isn't closing?

    Read the article

  • Ninject 3.0 MVC kernel.bind error Auto Registration

    - by user295734
    Getting and error on kernel.Bind(scanner = ... "scanner" has the little error line under it in VS 2010. Cannot convert lambda expression to type 'System.Type[]' because it is not a delegate type Tyring to Auto Register like the old kernel.scan in 2.0. I can not figure out what i am doing wrong. Added and removed so many Ninject packages. completely lost, getting to be a big waste of time. using System; using System.Web; using Microsoft.Web.Infrastructure.DynamicModuleHelper; using Ninject; using Ninject.Web.Common; //using Ninject.Extensions.Conventions; using Ninject.Web.WebApi; using Ninject.Web.Mvc; using CommonServiceLocator.NinjectAdapter; using System.Reflection; using System.IO; using LR.Repository; using LR.Repository.Interfaces; using LR.Service.Interfaces; using System.Web.Http; public static class NinjectWebCommon { private static readonly Bootstrapper bootstrapper = new Bootstrapper(); /// <summary> /// Starts the application /// </summary> public static void Start() { DynamicModuleUtility.RegisterModule(typeof(OnePerRequestHttpModule)); DynamicModuleUtility.RegisterModule(typeof(NinjectHttpModule)); bootstrapper.Initialize(CreateKernel); } /// <summary> /// Stops the application. /// </summary> public static void Stop() { bootstrapper.ShutDown(); } /// <summary> /// Creates the kernel that will manage your application. /// </summary> /// <returns>The created kernel.</returns> private static IKernel CreateKernel() { var kernel = new StandardKernel(); kernel.Bind<Func<IKernel>>().ToMethod(ctx => () => new Bootstrapper().Kernel); kernel.Bind<IHttpModule>().To<HttpApplicationInitializationHttpModule>(); RegisterServices(kernel); return kernel; } /// <summary> /// Load your modules or register your services here! /// </summary> /// <param name="kernel">The kernel.</param> private static void RegisterServices(IKernel kernel) { kernel.Bind(scanner => scanner.FromAssembliesInPath(Path.GetDirectoryName(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location)) .Select(IsServiceType) .BindToDefaultInterface() .Configure(binding => binding.InSingletonScope()) ); } private static bool IsServiceType(Type type) { // temp return true; // .Any() is not recognized either. return true; // type.IsClass && type.GetInterfaces().Any(intface => intface.Name == "I" + type.Name); }

    Read the article

  • WPF Binding Error reported when Binding appears to work fine

    - by Noldorin
    I am trying to create a custom TabItem template/style in my WPF 4.0 application (using VS 2010 Pro RTM), but inspite of everything seeming to work correctly, I am noticing a binding error in the trace window. The resource dictionary XAML I use to style the TabItems of a TabControl is given in full here. (Just create a simple TabControl with several items and apply the given ResourceDictionary to test it out.) Specifically, the error is occurring due to the following line (discovered through trial and error testing, since Visual Studio isn't actually reporting it at design tim <TranslateTransform X="{Binding ActualWidth, ElementName=leftSideBorderPath}"/> The full error given in the trace (Ouput window) is the following: System.Windows.Data Error: 2 : Cannot find governing FrameworkElement or FrameworkContentElement for target element. BindingExpression:Path=ActualWidth; DataItem=null; target element is 'TranslateTransform' (HashCode=35345840); target property is 'X' (type 'Double') The error occurs on load and is repeated 5 times then (note that I have 3 tab items in my example). It also occurs consistently and repeatedly whenever for the Window is resized, for example - filling the Output window. Perhaps every time the TabItem layout is updated? And again, though it is not reported, the error very much seems to be due to the fact that I am binding to any element at all, not specifically leftSideBorderPath or the the ActualWidth propertry. For example, changing this line to the following fixes things. <TranslateTransform X="25"/> Unfortunately, hard-coding the value isn't really an option. This issue seems very strange to me in that the binding does appear to be giving the correct results. (Inspecting the X value of the TranslateTransform at runtime clearly shows the correct bound value, and the ClipGeometry when viewed is exactly what it hsould be.) Neither Visual Studio nor WPF seems to be giving me any more information on the cause of the error perhaps (setting PresentationTraceSources.TraceLevel to High doesn't help), yet the fact that things are working despite the error being reported inclines me to think that this is some fringe-case WPF bug. As a side note, the Visual Studio WPF designer and XAML editor are giving me a problem with the following line: <PathGeometry Figures="{Binding Source={StaticResource TabSideFillFigures}}"/> Although WPF (at runtime) is perfectly happy binding Figures to the TabSideFillFigures string, with the Binding enforcing the use of the TypeConverter, the XAML editor and WPF designer are complaining. All the XAML code for the ControlTemplate is underlined and I get the following errors in the Error List: Error 9 '{DependencyProperty.UnsetValue}' is not a valid value for the 'System.Windows.Controls.Control.Template' property on a Setter. C:\Users\Alex\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\Ircsil\devel\Ircsil\MainWindow.xaml 1 1 Ircsil Error 10 Object reference not set to an instance of an object. C:\Users\Alex\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\Ircsil\devel\Ircsil\Skins\Default\MainSkin.xaml 58 17 Ircsil Again, to repeat, everything works perfectly well at runtime, which is what makes this particularly odd... Could someone perhaps shed some light on these issues, in particular the first (which seems to be a potential WPF bug), and the latter (which seems to be a Visual Studio bug). Any sort of feedback or suggestions would be much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • How do you pass user credentials from WebClient to a WCF REST service?

    - by Alex
    I am trying to expose a WCT REST service and only users with valid username and password would be able to access it. The username and password are stored in a SQL database. Here is the service contract: public interface IDataService { [OperationContract] [WebGet(ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] byte[] GetData(double startTime, double endTime); } Here is the WCF configuration: <bindings> <webHttpBinding> <binding name="SecureBinding"> <security mode="Transport"> <transport clientCredentialType="Basic"/> </security> </binding> </webHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="DataServiceBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceCredentials> <userNameAuthentication userNamePasswordValidationMode="Custom" customUserNamePasswordValidatorType= "CustomValidator, WCFHost" /> </serviceCredentials> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="DataServiceBehavior" name="DataService"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="SecureBinding" contract="IDataService" /> </service> </services> I am accessing the service via the WebClient class within a Silverlight application. However, I have not been able to figure out how to pass the user credentials to the service. I tried various values for client.Credentials but none of them seems to trigger the code in my custom validator. I am getting the following error: The underlying connection was closed: An unexpected error occurred on a send. Here is some sample code I have tried: WebClient client = new WebClient(); client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("name", "password", "domain"); client.OpenReadCompleted += new OpenReadCompletedEventHandler(GetData); client.OpenReadAsync(new Uri(uriString)); If I set the security mode to None, the whole thing works. I also tried other clientCredentialType values and none of them worked. I also self-hosted the WCF service to eliminate the issues related to IIS trying to authenticate a user before the service gets a chance. Any comment on what the underlying issues may be would be much appreciated. Thanks. Update: Thanks to Mehmet's excellent suggestions. Here is the tracing configuration I had: <system.diagnostics> <sources> <source name="System.ServiceModel" switchValue="Information, ActivityTracing" propagateActivity="true"> <listeners> <add name="xml" /> </listeners> </source> <source name="System.IdentityModel" switchValue="Information, ActivityTracing" propagateActivity="true"> <listeners> <add name="xml" /> </listeners> </source> </sources> <sharedListeners> <add name="xml" type="System.Diagnostics.XmlWriterTraceListener" initializeData="c:\Traces.svclog" /> </sharedListeners> </system.diagnostics> But I did not see any message coming from my Silverlight client. As for https vs http, I used https as follows: string baseAddress = "https://localhost:6600/"; _webServiceHost = new WebServiceHost(typeof(DataServices), new Uri(baseAddress)); _webServiceHost.Open(); However, I did not configure any SSL certificate. Is this the problem?

    Read the article

  • How is WPF Data Binding using Object Data Source in Visual Studio 2010 done?

    - by Rob Perkins
    This is probably mostly a question about how to use the VS 2010 IDE tools in a way the Microsofties didn't specifically intend. But since this is something I immediately tried without success. I have defined a .NET 4.0 WPF Application project with a simple class that looks like this: Public Class Class1 Public Property One As String = "OneString" Public Property Two As String = "TwoString" End Class I then defined it as an "Object Data Source" in VS2010, using the IDE's "Add New Data Source..." feature. This exposes the class members in a GUI element in the IDE as given in this image: Dragging "Class1" from that tool to the surface of "Window1.xaml" in a default "WPF Application" results in the design view looking like this: And generated XAML like this: <Window x:Class="Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="133" Width="170" xmlns:my="clr-namespace:WpfApplication1" mc:Ignorable="d" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" > <Window.Resources> <CollectionViewSource x:Key="Class1ViewSource" d:DesignSource="{d:DesignInstance my:Class1, CreateList=True}" /> </Window.Resources> <Grid DataContext="{StaticResource Class1ViewSource}" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Name="Grid1" VerticalAlignment="Top"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Label Content="One:" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="0" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="3" VerticalAlignment="Center" /> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="0" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="3" Name="OneTextBlock" Text="{Binding Path=One}" VerticalAlignment="Center" /> <Label Content="Two:" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="3" VerticalAlignment="Center" /> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="3" Name="TwoTextBlock" Text="{Binding Path=Two}" VerticalAlignment="Center" /> </Grid> Note the data bindings Text="{Binding Path=One}" and Text="{Binding Path=Two}" in the TextBlock elements. Code-behind for Window1.xaml has this in Window_Loaded: Class Window1 Private m_c1 As New Class1 Private Sub Window1_Loaded(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs) Handles Me.Loaded Dim Class1ViewSource As System.Windows.Data.CollectionViewSource = CType(Me.FindResource("Class1ViewSource"), System.Windows.Data.CollectionViewSource) 'Load data by setting the CollectionViewSource.Source property: 'Class1ViewSource.Source = [generic data source] Me.DataContext = m_c1 End Sub End Class Running the application produces this output: The expected result was that "OneString" would appear next to "One" and "TwoString" next to "Two" in the running window. The question is: Why didn't this work? What will work instead? If I put bindings in a DataTemplate, it works. Blend, with its sample data stuff, implied that this should work, but it doesn't. I know I'm missing something pretty fundamental here; what is it?

    Read the article

  • Understanding Node.js and concept of non-blocking I/O

    - by Saif Bechan
    Recently I became interested in using Node.js to tackle some of the parts of my web-application. I love the part that its full JavaScript and its very light weight so no use anymore to call an JavaScript-PHP call but a lighter JavaScript-JavaScript call. I however do not understand all the concepts explained. Basic concepts Now in the presentation for Node.js Ryan Dahl talks about non-blocking IO and why this is the way we need to create our programs. I can understand the theoretical concept. You just don't wait for a response, you go ahead and do other things. You make a callback for the response, and when the response arrives millions of clock-cycles later, you can fire that. If you have not already I recommend to watch this presentation. It is very easy to follow and pretty detailed. There are some nice concepts explained on how to write your code in a good manner. There are also some examples given and I am going to work with the basic example given. Examples The way we do thing now: puts("Enter your name: "); var name = gets(); puts("Name: " + name); Now the problem with this is that the code is halted at line 1. It blocks your code. The way we need to do things according to node puts("Enter your name: "); gets(function (name) { puts("Name: " + name); }); Now with this your program does not halt, because the input is a function within the output. So the programs continues to work without halting. Questions Now the basic question I have is how does this work in real-life situations. I am talking here for the use in web-applications. The application I am writing does I/O, bit is still does it in am blocking matter. I think that most of the time, if not all, you need to block, because you have to wait on what the response is you have to work with. When you need to get some information from the database, most of the time this data needs to be verified before you can further with the code. Example 1 If you take a login for example. You have to wait for the database to response to return, because you can not do anything else. I can't see a way around this without blocking. Example 2 Going back to the basic example. The use just request something from a database which does not need any verification. You still have to block because you don't have anything to do more. I can not come up with a single example where you want to do other things while you wait for the response to return. Possible answers I have read that this frees up recourses. When you program like this it takes less CPU or memory usage. So this non-blocking IO is ONLY meant to free up recourses and does not have any other practical use. Not that this is not a huge plus, freeing up recourses is always good. Yet I fail to see this as a good solution. because in both of the above examples, the program has to wait for the response of the user. Whether this is inside a function, or just inline, in my opinion there is a program that wait for input. Resources I looked at I have looked at some recourses before I posted this question. They talk a lot about the theoretical concept, which is quite clear. Yet i fail to see some real-life examples where this is makes a huge difference. Stackoverflow: What is in simple words blocking IO and non-blocking IO? Blocking IO vs non-blocking IO; looking for good articles tidy code for asynchronous IO Other recources: Wikipedia: Asynchronous I/O Introduction to non-blocking I/O The C10K problem

    Read the article

  • How do I get Visual Studio build process to pass condition to library(external) project

    - by Billy Talented
    I have tried several solutions for this problem. Enough to know I do not know enough about MSBuild to do this elegantly but I feel like there should be a method. I have a set of libraries for working with .net projects. A few of the projects utilize System.Web.Mvc - which recently released Version 2 - and we are looking forward to the upgrade. Currently sites which reference this library reference it directly by the project(csproj) on the developer's computer - not a built version of the library so that changes and source code case easily be viewed when dealing code from this library. This works quite well and would prefer to not have to switch to binary references (but will if this is the only solution). The problem I have is that because of some of the functionality that was added onto the MVC1 based library (view engines, model binders etc) several of the sites reliant on these libraries need to stay on MVC1 until we have full evaluated and tested them on MVC2. I would prefer to not have to fork or have two copies on each dev machine. So what I would like to be able to do is set a property group value in the referencing web application and have this read by the above mentions library with the caviat that when working directly on the library via its containing solution I would like to be able to control this via Configuration Manager by selecting a build type and that property overriding the build behavior of the solution (i.e. 'Debug - MVC1' vs 'Debug -MVC2') - I have this working via: <Choose> <When Condition=" '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Release - MVC2|AnyCPU' Or '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Debug - MVC2|AnyCPU'"> <ItemGroup> <Reference Include="System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> </Reference> <Reference Include="Microsoft.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> <SpecificVersion>False</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\Dependancies\Web\MVC2\Microsoft.Web.Mvc.dll</HintPath> </Reference> </ItemGroup> </When> <Otherwise> <ItemGroup> <Reference Include="System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> <SpecificVersion>False</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\Dependancies\Web\MVC\System.Web.Mvc.dll</HintPath> </Reference> </ItemGroup> </Otherwise> The item that I am struggling with is the cross solution issue(solution TheWebsite references this project and needs to control which build property to use) that I have not found a way to work with that I think is a solid solution that enabled the build within visual studio to work as it has to date. Other bits: we are using VS2008, Resharper, TeamCity for CI, SVN for source control.

    Read the article

  • WCF and Firewall

    - by Jim Biddison
    I have written a very simple WCF service (hosted in IIS) and web application that talks to it. If they are both in the same domain, it works fine. But when I put them in different domains (on different sides of a firewall), then the web applications says: The request for security token could not be satisfied because authentication failed. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ServiceModel.FaultException: The request for security token could not be satisfied because authentication failed. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. The revelant part of the service web.config is: <system.serviceModel> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="MigrationHelperBehavior" name="MigrationHelper"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="IMigrationHelper"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> <endpoint binding="httpBinding" contract="IMigrationHelper" /> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="MigrationHelperBehavior"> <!-- To avoid disclosing metadata information, set the value below to false and remove the metadata endpoint above before deployment --> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <!-- To receive exception details in faults for debugging purposes, set the value below to true. Set to false before deployment to avoid disclosing exception information --> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> The web appliation (client) web.config says: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="WSHttpBinding_IMigrationHelper" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" transactionFlow="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" useDefaultWebProxy="true" allowCookies="false"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384"/> <reliableSession ordered="true" inactivityTimeout="00:10:00" enabled="false"/> <security mode="Message"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows" proxyCredentialType="None" realm=""/> <message clientCredentialType="Windows" negotiateServiceCredential="true" algorithmSuite="Default" establishSecurityContext="true"/> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://mydomain.com/MigrationHelper.svc" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSHttpBinding_IMigrationHelper" contract="MyNewServiceReference.IMigrationHelper" name="WSHttpBinding_IMigrationHelper"> <identity> <dns value="localhost"/> </identity> </endpoint> </client> </system.serviceModel> I believe both these are just the default that VS 2008 created for me. So my question is, how does one go about configurating the service and client, when they are not in the same domain? Thanks .Jim Biddison

    Read the article

  • Access violation when accessing a COM object from .Net

    - by Groo
    Dear Sirs, I am sorry if the post is too long, but I would be happy if someone would at least point read the bolded titles, and point me in the right direction. I am having this problem for couple of days, but was unable to found the answer on the net. These are the things I have found out so far. 1. "Access violation" exception crushes my managed application My C# WinForms app sometimes closes with an "Access violation" exception ("Attempted to read or write protected memory"), right in the moment when selecting a TabPage in a windows form TabControl. From the stack trace (try/catch around Application.Run) I can see that the exception happens at System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.DispatchMessageW(MSG& msg), called inside UnsafeNativeMethods.IMsoComponentManager.FPushMessageLoop(Int32 dwComponentID, Int32 reason, Int32 pvLoopData). -- Message: Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt. -- Stack trace: at System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.DispatchMessageW(MSG& msg) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ComponentManager .System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods .IMsoComponentManager.FPushMessageLoop (Int32 dwComponentID, Int32 reason, Int32 pvLoopData) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext .RunMessageLoopInner(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext .RunMessageLoop(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.Run(ApplicationContext context) at MyApp.Program.Main() 2. The faulting module seems to be a COM object (ChartFX Client Server 6.2) Using WinDbg (with SoS loaded), I caught it on the unmanaged side, inside ChartFX.ClientServer.Core.dll (that's a COM charting component we are using): (ca84.c98c): Access violation - code c0000005 (first chance) First chance exceptions are reported before any exception handling. This exception may be expected and handled. eax=00000000 ebx=06e67c38 ecx=06e67c38 edx=000018c6 esi=06e7df30 edi=317a9e80 eip=31666110 esp=0015e040 ebp=0015e08c iopl=0 nv up ei pl zr na pe nc cs=001b ss=0023 ds=0023 es=0023 fs=003b gs=0000 efl=00010246 ChartFX_ClientServer_Core!Ordinal5507+0x97b7: 31666110 8a404d mov al,byte ptr [eax+4Dh] ds:0023:0000004d=?? [edit:] I also wasn't able to get the unmamanged stack details from WinDbg (it said "Stack unwind info not available"): 0:000 kP ChildEBP RetAddr WARNING: Stack unwind information not available. Following frames may be wrong. 0015e08c 3166288b ChartFX_ClientServer_Core!Ordinal5507+0x97b7 0015e394 3165a921 ChartFX_ClientServer_Core!Ordinal5507+0x5f32 0015e480 31678685 ChartFX_ClientServer_Core!Ordinal5496+0x26a 0015e568 3167bef4 ChartFX_ClientServer_Core!Ordinal5492+0x975 0015e668 316a356b ChartFX_ClientServer_Core!Ordinal5492+0x41e4 0015e77c 31709496 ChartFX_ClientServer_Core!Ordinal443+0x5745 0015e7d0 31707f70 ChartFX_ClientServer_Core!Ordinal2584+0x3cdc 0015e7f8 3170817d ChartFX_ClientServer_Core!Ordinal2584+0x27b6 0015e81c 3162fd76 ChartFX_ClientServer_Core!Ordinal2584+0x29c3 0015e86c 7719f8d2 ChartFX_ClientServer_Core!Ordinal899+0x6b6 0015e898 7719f794 USER32!GetMessageW+0x93 0015e910 771a06f6 USER32!GetWindowLongW+0x115 0015e940 771a069c USER32!CallWindowProcW+0x75 0015e960 747fcef4 USER32!CallWindowProcW+0x1b 0015e97c 747fd073 comctl32!Ordinal377+0x5c 0015e9e0 747fd027 comctl32!DefSubclassProc+0x92 0015ea04 747fd4e6 comctl32!DefSubclassProc+0x46 0015ea20 747fd073 comctl32!DefSubclassProc+0x505 0015ea84 747fd118 comctl32!DefSubclassProc+0x92 0015eae4 7719f8d2 comctl32!DefSubclassProc+0x137 3. Bug is not easy to reproduce (although it can be provoked usually in less than 5 min.) I have several Chart instances in several TabPages, and this usually happens while I am switching the tabs. I still don't know how to reproduce it, besides switching those tabs for several minutes before it happens, so I cannot use our source control to reliably find the build which didn't have this problem. I am accessing the charts through the managed AxChart wrapper class (derived from AxHost), which was created by VS designer automatically. 4. What should be my next step? If someone could point me to the next step I should do to find the actual cause, I would be very grateful. Experimenting (removing and returning code) does not do much good, because I don't know how to reproduce it, so it would take large amounts of time on each iteration just to convince myself that the bug is still there. I have found that people often suggest something like "switching compiler optimizations", but since the exception is not thrown deterministically, I don't want to simply rearrange some bytes and hope that it never returns. Thanks a lot in advance! Best regards, Groo

    Read the article

  • SOAP call with query on result (SSRS, Sharepoint)

    - by Erik404
    Hi! I created a report in VS using a shared data source which is connected to a sharepoint list. In the report I created a dataset with a SOAP call to the data source so I get the result from the sharepoint list in a table. this is the soap call <Query> <SoapAction>http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/GetListItems</SoapAction> <Method Namespace="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/" Name="GetListItems"> <Parameters> <Parameter Name="listName"> <DefaultValue>{BD8D39B7-FA0B-491D-AC6F-EC9B0978E0CE}</DefaultValue> </Parameter> <Parameter Name="viewName"> <DefaultValue>{E2168426-804F-4836-9BE4-DC5F8D08A54F}</DefaultValue> </Parameter> <Parameter Name="rowLimit"> <DefaultValue>9999</DefaultValue> </Parameter> </Parameters> </Method> <ElementPath IgnoreNamespaces="True">*</ElementPath> </Query> THis works fine, I have a result which I can show in a report, but I want to have the ability to select a parameter to filter the result on. I have created a parameter and when I preview the Report I see the dropdownbox which I can use to make a selection from the Title field, when I do this it still shows the first record, obviously it doens't work yet (DUH!) because I need to create a query somewhere, But! I have no idea where, I tried to include <Where> <Eq> <FieldRef Name="ows_Title" /> <Value Type="Text">testValue</Value> </Eq> </Where> in the the soap request but it didn't worked... I've searched teh intarwebz but couldn't find any simliar problems... kinda stuck now...any thoughts on this? EDIT Here's the query I used according to the blogpost Alex Angas linked. <Query> <SoapAction>http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/GetListItems</SoapAction> <Method Namespace="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/" Name="GetListItems"> <queryOptions></queryOptions> <query><Query> <Where> <Eq> <FieldRef Name="ows_Title"/> <Value Type="Text">someValue</Value> </Eq> </Where> </Query></query> <Parameters> <Parameter Name="listName"> <DefaultValue>{BD8D39B7-FA0B-491D-AC6F-EC9B0978E0CE}</DefaultValue> </Parameter> <Parameter Name="viewName"> <DefaultValue>{E2168426-804F-4836-9BE4-DC5F8D08A54F}</DefaultValue> </Parameter> <Parameter Name="rowLimit"> <DefaultValue>9999</DefaultValue> </Parameter> </Parameters> </Method> <ElementPath IgnoreNamespaces="True">*</ElementPath> </Query> I tried to put the new query statement in every possible way in the existing, but it doesn't work at all, I do not get an error though so the code is valid, but I still get an unfiltered list as return... pulling my hair out here!

    Read the article

  • Strategy for using snapshots to back up Ubuntu Linux server?

    - by MountainX
    I need some backup advice for my home file server. Here are the mount points, volume groups, logical volumes and used/total space of all the volumes on my Ubuntu 8.10 home file server. / vgA/lvRoot [7.5G/50G] /tmp vgB/lvTmp [195M/30G] /var vgB/lvVar [780M/30G] swap vgB/lvSwap [16.00 GB] /media1 vgC/lvMedia1 [400G/975G] /media2 vgC/lvMedia2 [75G/295G] /boot partition (no volume group) [95M/200M] /video partition (no volume group) [450G/950G] /backups vgD/lvBackupTarget [800G/925G] /home vgE/lvHome [85G/200G] I have just added a 2.0 TB external USB drive that I would like to use to backup everything. (It will be a close fit to get it all on one 2.0 TB drive. I actually have a 2nd external USB drive if needed.) I'd like to backup "/", var, /media1, media2 and /home. I'll deal with /boot and /video separately since they are not logical volumes. For all the logical volumes I'm anticipating taking snapshots and then copying those snapshots to the 2.0 TB external USB drive. I have never done a task like that before. If I do that, I could use the tutorial I found here: http://www.howtoforge.com/linux_lvm_snapshots My questions are: What is the best overall strategy? Is it LVM snapshots, as I'm assuming? How should I prepare, subdivide and mount the 2.0 TB external USB drive? 2.a. Should I create one or more regular partitions or should I create a physical volume with one or more logical volumes? 2.b. Would it be advisable to extactly mirror the source pv/lv layout on the external drive, and if so, is this a good strategy? What's the best way to get the snapshots onto the external drive? dd? Even though this is a strategy question, feedback with actual commands is appreciated. I need step-by-step cookbook-style help because I don't do much server admin work. (Background: This is a home file server that I have rarely had to touch in about 2 years. It has done its job without much intervention. The really old PC that I used to back everything up recently failed, so I'm replacing that with the external USB drive(s) and I'd like to upgrade my backup strategy at the same time. Previously, I just copied stuff from /backups over to the other computer and that would not have made things very easy in a real restore situation. The /backups mount point contains backup copies of "most" of the important data on a file by file basis, but it does not contain copies of /boot, etc. BTW, the actual internal HDD that holds /backups is separate from the other storage devices.) EDIT: I'll propose a strategy... The idea came from a comment here: LVM mirroring VS RAID1 "LVM mirrors are for replication of a logical volume to a different physical volume. It's essentially meant to "move the data to a different disk". The mirror is then broken..." That would fit my requirements well. Here is an ideal situation: establish the LV mirror on the external drive break the link with the mirror create a (persistent) snapshot on the mirror after a week, resync the mirror with the original source and update the mirror break the link and create another snapshot on the mirror. Obviously, the mirror will be like a weekly full backup. And the snapshots on the mirror will represent earlier points in time. If this would work and if it would be time efficient, it would give a nice full & differential type backup on the external drive based on LVM. I have not heard of a strategy like this before. Will it work? Could it be scripted? Thoughts? EDIT 2: Creating Portable DiskSafes With LoopbackFS And LVM Snapshots This article seems intriguing: http://www.howtoforge.com/creating-portable-disksafes-with-loopbackfs-and-lvm-snapshots Unfortunately, I don't understand exactly how to map those ideas to the strategy I'm proposing above. I'm going to ask this last bit as a separate question. I will leave my original question in place because I still desire feedback on the overall best strategy. At this moment I'm assuming it is LVM mirroring in the style of "Creating Portable DiskSafes with LVM Snapshots" but that might be wrong.

    Read the article

  • 401 Using Multiple Authentication methods IE 10 only

    - by jon3laze
    I am not sure if this is more of a coding issue or server setup issue so I've posted it on stackoverflow and here... On our production site we've run into an issue that is specific to Internet Explorer 10. I am using jQuery doing an ajax POST to a web service on the same domain and in IE10 I am getting a 401 response, IE9 works perfectly fine. I should mention that we have mirrored code in another area of our site and it works perfectly fine in IE10. The only difference between the two areas is that one is under a subdomain and the other is at the root level. www.my1stdomain.com vs. portal.my2nddomain.com The directory structure on the server for these are: \my1stdomain\webservice\name\service.aspx \portal\webservice\name\service.aspx Inside of the \portal\ and \my1stdomain\ folders I have a page that does an ajax call, both pages are identical. $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: '/webservice/name/service.aspx/function', cache: false, contentType: 'application/json; charset=utf-8', dataType: 'json', data: '{ "json": "data" }', success: function() { }, error: function() { } }); I've verified permissions are the same on both folders on the server side. I've applied a workaround fix of placing the <meta http-equiv="X-UA-Compatible" value="IE=9"> to force compatibility view (putting IE into compatibility mode fixes the issue). This seems to be working in IE10 on Windows 7, however IE 10 on Windows 8 still sees the same issue. These pages are classic asp with the headers that are being included, also there are no other meta tags being used. The doctype is being specified as <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> on the portal page and <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> on the main domain. UPDATE1 I used Microsoft Network Monitor 3.4 on the server to capture the request. I used the following filter to capture the 401: Property.HttpStatusCode.StringToNumber == 401 This was the response - Http: Response, HTTP/1.1, Status: Unauthorized, URL: /webservice/name/service.aspx/function Using Multiple Authetication Methods, see frame details ProtocolVersion: HTTP/1.1 StatusCode: 401, Unauthorized Reason: Unauthorized - ContentType: application/json; charset=utf-8 - MediaType: application/json; charset=utf-8 MainType: application/json charset: utf-8 Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 jsonerror: true - WWWAuthenticate: Negotiate - Authenticate: Negotiate WhiteSpace: AuthenticateData: Negotiate - WWWAuthenticate: NTLM - Authenticate: NTLM WhiteSpace: AuthenticateData: NTLM XPoweredBy: ASP.NET Date: Mon, 04 Mar 2013 21:13:39 GMT ContentLength: 105 HeaderEnd: CRLF - payload: HttpContentType = application/json; charset=utf-8 HTTPPayloadLine: {"Message":"Authentication failed.","StackTrace":null,"ExceptionType":"System.InvalidOperationException"} The thing here that really stands out is Unauthorized, URL: /webservice/name/service.aspx/function Using Multiple Authentication Methods With this I'm still confused as to why this only happens in IE10 if it's a permission/authentication issue. What was added to 10, or where should I be looking for the root cause of this? UPDATE2 Here are the headers from the client machine from fiddler (server information removed): Main SESSION STATE: Done. Request Entity Size: 64 bytes. Response Entity Size: 9 bytes. == FLAGS ================== BitFlags: [ServerPipeReused] 0x10 X-EGRESSPORT: 44537 X-RESPONSEBODYTRANSFERLENGTH: 9 X-CLIENTPORT: 44770 UI-COLOR: Green X-CLIENTIP: 127.0.0.1 UI-OLDCOLOR: WindowText UI-BOLD: user-marked X-SERVERSOCKET: REUSE ServerPipe#46 X-HOSTIP: ***.***.***.*** X-PROCESSINFO: iexplore:2644 == TIMING INFO ============ ClientConnected: 14:43:08.488 ClientBeginRequest: 14:43:08.488 GotRequestHeaders: 14:43:08.488 ClientDoneRequest: 14:43:08.488 Determine Gateway: 0ms DNS Lookup: 0ms TCP/IP Connect: 0ms HTTPS Handshake: 0ms ServerConnected: 14:40:28.943 FiddlerBeginRequest: 14:43:08.488 ServerGotRequest: 14:43:08.488 ServerBeginResponse: 14:43:08.592 GotResponseHeaders: 14:43:08.592 ServerDoneResponse: 14:43:08.592 ClientBeginResponse: 14:43:08.592 ClientDoneResponse: 14:43:08.592 Overall Elapsed: 0:00:00.104 The response was buffered before delivery to the client. == WININET CACHE INFO ============ This URL is not present in the WinINET cache. [Code: 2] Portal SESSION STATE: Done. Request Entity Size: 64 bytes. Response Entity Size: 105 bytes. == FLAGS ================== BitFlags: [ClientPipeReused, ServerPipeReused] 0x18 X-EGRESSPORT: 44444 X-RESPONSEBODYTRANSFERLENGTH: 105 X-CLIENTPORT: 44439 X-CLIENTIP: 127.0.0.1 X-SERVERSOCKET: REUSE ServerPipe#7 X-HOSTIP: ***.***.***.*** X-PROCESSINFO: iexplore:7132 == TIMING INFO ============ ClientConnected: 14:37:59.651 ClientBeginRequest: 14:38:01.397 GotRequestHeaders: 14:38:01.397 ClientDoneRequest: 14:38:01.397 Determine Gateway: 0ms DNS Lookup: 0ms TCP/IP Connect: 0ms HTTPS Handshake: 0ms ServerConnected: 14:37:57.880 FiddlerBeginRequest: 14:38:01.397 ServerGotRequest: 14:38:01.397 ServerBeginResponse: 14:38:01.464 GotResponseHeaders: 14:38:01.464 ServerDoneResponse: 14:38:01.464 ClientBeginResponse: 14:38:01.464 ClientDoneResponse: 14:38:01.464 Overall Elapsed: 0:00:00.067 The response was buffered before delivery to the client. == WININET CACHE INFO ============ This URL is not present in the WinINET cache. [Code: 2]

    Read the article

  • Is C# slower than VB.NET?

    - by Matt Winckler
    Believe it or not, despite the title, this is not a troll. Running some benchmarks this morning, my colleagues and I have discovered some strange things concerning performance, and I am wondering if we're doing something horribly wrong. We started out comparing C# vs. Delphi Prism calculating prime numbers, and found that Prism was about 30% faster. I figured maybe CodeGear did more optimization when generating IL (the exe was about twice as big as C#'s and had all sorts of different IL in it.) So I decided to write a test in VB.NET as well, assuming that Microsoft's compilers would end up writing essentially the same IL for each language. However, the result there was more shocking: C# was more than three times slower than VB running the same operations. The generated IL was different, but not extremely so, and I'm not good enough at reading it to understand the differences. As a fan of C#, this apparent slowness wounds me horribly, and I am left wondering: what in the world is going on here? Is it time to pack it all in and go write web apps in Ruby? ;-) I've included the code for each below--just copy it into a new VB or C# console app, and run. On my machine, VB finds 348513 primes in about 6.36 seconds. C# finds the same number of primes in 21.76 seconds. (I've got an Intel Core2 Quad Q6600 @2.4Ghz; on another Intel machine in the office the code for both runs much faster but the ratio is about the same; on an AMD machine here the timing is ~10 seconds for VB and ~13 for C#--much less difference, but C# is still always slower.) Both of the console applications were compiled in Release mode, but otherwise no project settings were changed from the defaults generated by Visual Studio 2008. Is it a generally-known fact that C#'s generated IL is worse than VB's? Or is this a strange edge case? Or is my code flawed somehow (most likely)? Any insights are appreciated. VB code Imports System.Diagnostics Module Module1 Private temp As List(Of Int32) Private sw As Stopwatch Private totalSeconds As Double Sub Main() serialCalc() End Sub Private Sub serialCalc() temp = New List(Of Int32)() sw = Stopwatch.StartNew() For i As Int32 = 2 To 5000000 testIfPrimeSerial(i) Next sw.Stop() totalSeconds = sw.Elapsed.TotalSeconds Console.WriteLine(String.Format("{0} seconds elapsed.", totalSeconds)) Console.WriteLine(String.Format("{0} primes found.", temp.Count)) Console.ReadKey() End Sub Private Sub testIfPrimeSerial(ByVal suspectPrime As Int32) For i As Int32 = 2 To Math.Sqrt(suspectPrime) If (suspectPrime Mod i = 0) Then Exit Sub End If Next temp.Add(suspectPrime) End Sub End Module C# Code using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Diagnostics; namespace FindPrimesCSharp { class Program { List<Int32> temp = new List<Int32>(); Stopwatch sw; double totalSeconds; static void Main(string[] args) { new Program().serialCalc(); } private void serialCalc() { temp = new List<Int32>(); sw = Stopwatch.StartNew(); for (Int32 i = 2; i <= 5000000; i++) { testIfPrimeSerial(i); } sw.Stop(); totalSeconds = sw.Elapsed.TotalSeconds; Console.WriteLine(string.Format("{0} seconds elapsed.", totalSeconds)); Console.WriteLine(string.Format("{0} primes found.", temp.Count)); Console.ReadKey(); } private void testIfPrimeSerial(Int32 suspectPrime) { for (Int32 i = 2; i <= Math.Sqrt(suspectPrime); i++) { if (suspectPrime % i == 0) return; } temp.Add(suspectPrime); } } }

    Read the article

  • LDAP over SSL with an EFI Fiery printer

    - by austinian
    I've got a printer with a Fiery running 8e Release 2. I can authenticate users against AD using the LDAP configuration, but I can only get it to work if I don't use SSL/TLS, and only if I use SIMPLE authentication. Right now, it's authenticating using a fairly low-impact user, but it's also the only system on our network that's not using LDAPS. I can get AD info fine over LDAPS using ldp.exe from my machine, our firewall, our mail filter, our linux boxes, etc. The only problem child is the Fiery. I've added the LDAP server certificate as a trusted cert to the Fiery, but after I check the box for Secure Communication and change the port to 636, pressing Validate results in a dialog box coming up saying: LDAP Validation Failed Server Name invalid or server is unavailable. I've tried changing the server name to use just the name, the FQDN, and the IP address, and changed it to another server, just to see if it was just this AD server that was fussy with the Fiery. EDIT: removed LDP output, added packet capture analysis from wireshark: The conversation seems pretty normal to me, up to the point where the Fiery terminates the connection after the server sends back a handshake response. Maybe they messed up their TLS implementation? I'm trying support, but it's been fairly useless so far. The cert is a SHA-2 (sha256RSA) 2048-bit certificate. Also, it looks like the Fiery is specifying TLS 1.0. Looking at http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/desktop/aa374757(v=vs.85).aspx, I'm not seeing SHA256 and TLS 1.0 combination being supported by SChannel. headdesk perhaps that's why, after the DC changes the cipher spec, the connection is terminated by the Fiery? TLS 1.1 and 1.2 are enabled on the DC. Wireshark conversation: DC: 172.17.2.22, Fiery: 172.17.2.42 No. Time Source Source Port Destination Destination Port Protocol Length Info 1 0.000000000 172.17.2.42 48633 172.17.2.22 ldaps TCP 74 48633 > ldaps [SYN] Seq=0 Win=5840 Len=0 MSS=1460 SACK_PERM=1 TSval=3101761 TSecr=0 WS=4 2 0.000182000 Dell_5e:94:e3 Broadcast ARP 60 Who has 172.17.2.42? Tell 172.17.2.22 3 0.000369000 TyanComp_c9:0f:90 Dell_5e:94:e3 ARP 60 172.17.2.42 is at 00:e0:81:c9:0f:90 4 0.000370000 172.17.2.22 ldaps 172.17.2.42 48633 TCP 74 ldaps > 48633 [SYN, ACK] Seq=0 Ack=1 Win=8192 Len=0 MSS=1460 WS=256 SACK_PERM=1 TSval=67970573 TSecr=3101761 5 0.000548000 172.17.2.42 48633 172.17.2.22 ldaps TCP 66 48633 > ldaps [ACK] Seq=1 Ack=1 Win=5840 Len=0 TSval=3101761 TSecr=67970573 6 0.001000000 172.17.2.42 48633 172.17.2.22 ldaps TLSv1 147 Client Hello 7 0.001326000 172.17.2.22 ldaps 172.17.2.42 48633 TCP 1514 [TCP segment of a reassembled PDU] 8 0.001513000 172.17.2.22 ldaps 172.17.2.42 48633 TCP 1514 [TCP segment of a reassembled PDU] 9 0.001515000 172.17.2.42 48633 172.17.2.22 ldaps TCP 66 48633 > ldaps [ACK] Seq=82 Ack=1449 Win=8736 Len=0 TSval=3101761 TSecr=67970573 10 0.001516000 172.17.2.42 48633 172.17.2.22 ldaps TCP 66 48633 > ldaps [ACK] Seq=82 Ack=2897 Win=11632 Len=0 TSval=3101761 TSecr=67970573 11 0.001732000 172.17.2.22 ldaps 172.17.2.42 48633 TCP 1514 [TCP segment of a reassembled PDU] 12 0.001737000 172.17.2.22 ldaps 172.17.2.42 48633 TLSv1 1243 Server Hello, Certificate, Certificate Request, Server Hello Done 13 0.001738000 172.17.2.42 48633 172.17.2.22 ldaps TCP 66 48633 > ldaps [ACK] Seq=82 Ack=4345 Win=14528 Len=0 TSval=3101761 TSecr=67970573 14 0.001739000 172.17.2.42 48633 172.17.2.22 ldaps TCP 66 48633 > ldaps [ACK] Seq=82 Ack=5522 Win=17424 Len=0 TSval=3101761 TSecr=67970573 15 0.002906000 172.17.2.42 48633 172.17.2.22 ldaps TLSv1 78 Certificate 16 0.004155000 172.17.2.42 48633 172.17.2.22 ldaps TLSv1 333 Client Key Exchange 17 0.004338000 172.17.2.22 ldaps 172.17.2.42 48633 TCP 66 ldaps > 48633 [ACK] Seq=5522 Ack=361 Win=66304 Len=0 TSval=67970573 TSecr=3101762 18 0.004338000 172.17.2.42 48633 172.17.2.22 ldaps TLSv1 72 Change Cipher Spec 19 0.005481000 172.17.2.42 48633 172.17.2.22 ldaps TLSv1 327 Encrypted Handshake Message 20 0.005645000 172.17.2.22 ldaps 172.17.2.42 48633 TCP 66 ldaps > 48633 [ACK] Seq=5522 Ack=628 Win=66048 Len=0 TSval=67970574 TSecr=3101762 21 0.010247000 172.17.2.22 ldaps 172.17.2.42 48633 TLSv1 125 Change Cipher Spec, Encrypted Handshake Message 22 0.016451000 172.17.2.42 48633 172.17.2.22 ldaps TCP 66 48633 > ldaps [FIN, ACK] Seq=628 Ack=5581 Win=17424 Len=0 TSval=3101765 TSecr=67970574 23 0.016630000 172.17.2.22 ldaps 172.17.2.42 48633 TCP 66 ldaps > 48633 [ACK] Seq=5581 Ack=629 Win=66048 Len=0 TSval=67970575 TSecr=3101765 24 0.016811000 172.17.2.22 ldaps 172.17.2.42 48633 TCP 60 ldaps > 48633 [RST, ACK] Seq=5581 Ack=629 Win=0 Len=0

    Read the article

  • .NET Exception error, what does this error means?

    - by gsvirdi
    I've tried to develop a simple winform utility which is using xml file as its database. I've used VS 2008 express edition, C#. When this utility tries to write into the xml file then this error is displayed on other computer. I've tried to provide System.Xml.dll & System.Xml.Linq.dll in the same folder on the other computer but no use. What does it means? Any solution? See the end of this message for details on invoking just-in-time (JIT) debugging instead of this dialog box. ************** Exception Text ************** System.MissingMethodException: Method not found: 'Void System.Xml.XmlReaderSettings.set_MaxCharactersFromEntities(Int64)'. at System.Xml.Linq.XNode.GetXmlReaderSettings(LoadOptions o) at System.Xml.Linq.XDocument.Load(String uri, LoadOptions options) at System.Xml.Linq.XDocument.Load(String uri) at Issues.Form1.button1_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.OnClick(EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnClick(EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnMouseUp(MouseEventArgs mevent) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmMouseUp(Message& m, MouseButtons button, Int32 clicks) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ButtonBase.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) ************** Loaded Assemblies ************** mscorlib Assembly Version: 2.0.0.0 Win32 Version: 2.0.50727.832 (QFE.050727-8300) CodeBase: file:///C:/WINDOWS/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/mscorlib.dll ---------------------------------------- Issues Assembly Version: 1.0.0.0 Win32 Version: 1.0.0.0 CodeBase: file:///C:/Documents%20and%20Settings/sumsnl.LTSLFBD/Desktop/Process%20Improvement/Issues%20Register/Issues.exe ---------------------------------------- System.Windows.Forms Assembly Version: 2.0.0.0 Win32 Version: 2.0.50727.832 (QFE.050727-8300) CodeBase: file:///C:/WINDOWS/assembly/GAC_MSIL/System.Windows.Forms/2.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089/System.Windows.Forms.dll ---------------------------------------- System Assembly Version: 2.0.0.0 Win32 Version: 2.0.50727.832 (QFE.050727-8300) CodeBase: file:///C:/WINDOWS/assembly/GAC_MSIL/System/2.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089/System.dll ---------------------------------------- System.Drawing Assembly Version: 2.0.0.0 Win32 Version: 2.0.50727.832 (QFE.050727-8300) CodeBase: file:///C:/WINDOWS/assembly/GAC_MSIL/System.Drawing/2.0.0.0__b03f5f7f11d50a3a/System.Drawing.dll ---------------------------------------- System.Xml Assembly Version: 2.0.0.0 Win32 Version: 2.0.50727.832 (QFE.050727-8300) CodeBase: file:///C:/WINDOWS/assembly/GAC_MSIL/System.Xml/2.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089/System.Xml.dll ---------------------------------------- System.Configuration Assembly Version: 2.0.0.0 Win32 Version: 2.0.50727.832 (QFE.050727-8300) CodeBase: file:///C:/WINDOWS/assembly/GAC_MSIL/System.Configuration/2.0.0.0__b03f5f7f11d50a3a/System.Configuration.dll ---------------------------------------- 4u_pgrmq Assembly Version: 1.0.0.0 Win32 Version: 2.0.50727.832 (QFE.050727-8300) CodeBase: file:///C:/WINDOWS/assembly/GAC_MSIL/System/2.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089/System.dll ---------------------------------------- ************** JIT Debugging ************** To enable just-in-time (JIT) debugging, the .config file for this application or computer (machine.config) must have the jitDebugging value set in the system.windows.forms section. The application must also be compiled with debugging enabled. For example: <configuration> <system.windows.forms jitDebugging="true" /> </configuration> When JIT debugging is enabled, any unhandled exception will be sent to the JIT debugger registered on the computer rather than be handled by this dialog box.

    Read the article

  • using PixelBender to double the size of a bitmap

    - by jedierikb
    I have a performance question about pixel bender. I want to enlarge many BitmapData (double their size into new BitmapData). I was doing this with as3, but wanted to use pixel bender to get better performance. On my machines, I get great comparative performance out of many pixel bender demonstrations. To my surprise (or bad coding / understanding), I am getting much worse performance out of pixel bender -- 2 seconds to do 3000 scalings vs .5 seconds! I expected to get at least the same performance as as3. What am I doing wrong? I got the straightforward pixel bender code here (and it is included below for easy reference). package { import aCore.aUtil.timingUtils; import flash.display.BitmapData; import flash.display.Shader; import flash.display.ShaderJob; import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.display.StageAlign; import flash.display.StageScaleMode; import flash.events.Event; import flash.geom.Matrix; public class flashFlash extends Sprite { [Embed ( source="pixelbender/bilinearresample.pbj", mimeType="application/octet-stream" ) ] private static var BilinearScaling:Class; public function flashFlash( ):void { stage.align = StageAlign.TOP_LEFT; stage.scaleMode = StageScaleMode.NO_SCALE; addEventListener( Event.ENTER_FRAME, efCb, false, 0, true ); } private function efCb( evt:Event ):void { removeEventListener( Event.ENTER_FRAME, efCb, false ); traceTime( "init" ); var srcBmd:BitmapData = new BitmapData( 80, 120, false, 0 ); var destBmd:BitmapData = new BitmapData( 160, 240, false, 0 ); var mx:Matrix = new Matrix( ); mx.scale( 2, 2 ); for (var i:uint = 0; i < 3000; i++) { destBmd.draw( srcBmd, mx ); } traceTime( "scaled with as3" ); // create and configure a Shader object var shader:Shader = new Shader( ); shader.byteCode = new BilinearScaling( ); shader.data.scale.value = [2]; shader.data.src.input = srcBmd; for (var j:uint = 0; j < 3000; j++) { var shaderJob:ShaderJob = new ShaderJob( ); shaderJob.shader = shader; shaderJob.target = destBmd; shaderJob.start( true ); } traceTime( "scaled with pixel bender bilinearresample.pbj" ); } private static var _lastTraceTime:Number = new Date().getTime(); public static function traceTime( note:String ):Number { var nowTime:Number = new Date().getTime(); var diff:Number = (nowTime-_lastTraceTime); trace( "[t" + diff + "] " + note ); _lastTraceTime = nowTime; return diff; } } } And the pixel bender code: <languageVersion : 1.0;> kernel BilinearResample < namespace : "com.brooksandrus.pixelbender"; vendor : "Brooks Andrus"; version : 1; description : "Resizes an image using bilinear resampling. Constrains aspect ratio - divide Math.max( input.width / output.width, input.height / output.height ) and pass in to the scale parameter"; > { parameter float scale < minValue: 0.0; maxValue: 1000.0; defaultValue: 1.0; >; input image4 src; output pixel4 dst; void evaluatePixel() { // scale should be Math.max( src.width / output.width, src.height / output.height ) dst = sampleLinear( src, outCoord() * scale ); // bilinear scaling } }

    Read the article

  • "Invalid Handle Object" when plotting 2 figures Matlab

    - by pinnacler
    I'm having a difficult time understanding the paradigm of Matlab classes vs compared to c++. I wrote code the other day, and I thought it should work. It did not... until I added <handle after the classdef. So I have two classes, landmarks and robot, both are called from within the simulation class. This is the main loop of obj.simulation.animate() and it works, until I try to plot two things at once. DATA.path is a record of all the places a robot has been on the map, and it's updated every time the position is updated. When I try to plot it, by uncommenting the two marked lines below, I get this error: ??? Error using == set Invalid handle object. Error in == simulationsimulation.animate at 45 set(l.lm,'XData',obj.landmarks.apparentPositions(:,1),'YData',obj.landmarks.apparentPositions(:,2)); %INITIALIZE GLOBALS global DATA XX XX = [obj.robot.x ; obj.robot.y]; DATA.i=1; DATA.path = XX; %Setup Plots fig=figure; xlabel('meters'), ylabel('meters') set(fig, 'name', 'Phil''s AWESOME 80''s Robot Simulator') xymax = obj.landmarks.mapSize*3; xymin = -(obj.landmarks.mapSize*3); l.lm=scatter([0],[0],'b+'); %"UNCOMMENT ME"l.pth= plot(0,0,'k.','markersize',2,'erasemode','background'); % vehicle path axis([xymin xymax xymin xymax]); %Simulation Loop for n = 1:720, %Calculate and Set Heading/Location XX = [obj.robot.x;obj.robot.y]; store_data(XX); if n == 120, DATA.path end %Update Position headingChange = navigate(n); obj.robot.updatePosition(headingChange); obj.landmarks.updatePerspective(obj.robot.heading, obj.robot.x, obj.robot.y); %Animate %"UNCOMMENT ME" set(l.pth, 'xdata', DATA.path(1,1:DATA.i), 'ydata', DATA.path(2,1:DATA.i)); set(l.lm,'XData',obj.landmarks.apparentPositions(:,1),'YData',obj.landmarks.apparentPositions(:,2)); rectangle('Position',[-2,-2,4,4]); drawnow This is the classdef for landmarks classdef landmarks <handle properties fixedPositions; %# positions in a fixed coordinate system. [ x, y ] mapSize; %Map Size. Value is side of square x; y; heading; headingChange; end properties (Dependent) apparentPositions end methods function obj = landmarks(mapSize, numberOfTrees) obj.mapSize = mapSize; obj.fixedPositions = obj.mapSize * rand([numberOfTrees, 2]) .* sign(rand([numberOfTrees, 2]) - 0.5); end function apparent = get.apparentPositions(obj) currentPosition = [obj.x ; obj.y]; apparent = bsxfun(@minus,(obj.fixedPositions)',currentPosition)'; apparent = ([cosd(obj.heading) -sind(obj.heading) ; sind(obj.heading) cosd(obj.heading)] * (apparent)')'; end function updatePerspective(obj,tempHeading,tempX,tempY) obj.heading = tempHeading; obj.x = tempX; obj.y = tempY; end end end To me, this is how I understand things. I created a figure l.lm that has about 100 xy points. I can rotate this figure by using set(l.lm,'XData',obj.landmarks.apparentPositions(:,1),'YData',obj.landmarks.apparentPositions(:,2)); When I do that, things work. When I try to plot a second group of XY points, stored in DATA.path, it craps out and I can't figure out why.

    Read the article

  • Asp.net mvc application deployment / security issues

    - by WestDiscGolf
    I'll start with appologies; I wasn't sure if this was best posted here of Server Fault so if its in the wrong place then please move :-) Basic information I have written the first module of a new application at work. This is written using Visual Studio 2010, targetting .net 3.5 (at the moment) and asp.net mvc 2. This has been working fine during development running on the built in Development server from VS but however does not work once deployed to IIS 7/7.5. To deploy the application, I have built it in release mode and created a deployment package by right clicking on the project in the solution explorer (this will be done with an automated build in tfs once upgrade from the beta). This has then been imported into IIS on the server. The application is using windows/domain authentication. Issue #1 I can fire up internet explorer and browse to the application from a client computer as well as on a remote desktop connection. I can execute the code which reads/stores data in Session fine from the IE instance on the remote desktop but if I browse to it from the client pc it seems to lose the session state. I click on the form submit and the page refreshes and doesn't execute the required code. I've tried setting with; InProc, SQLServer and StateServer. but with no luck :-( Issue #2 As part of the application it views PDF and Tiff documents on the fly which are on a network share on the office network and creates thumbnails if the document hasn't been viewed before. This works if running on the machine the application is deployed to; however when browsing from a client pc I get an error saying: Access to the path '\\fileserver\folder\file.tif' is denied Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.UnauthorizedAccessException: Access to the path '\\fileserver\folder\file.TIF' is denied. ASP.NET is not authorized to access the requested resource. Consider granting access rights to the resource to the ASP.NET request identity. ASP.NET has a base process identity (typically {MACHINE}\ASPNET on IIS 5 or Network Service on IIS 6) that is used if the application is not impersonating. If the application is impersonating via , the identity will be the anonymous user (typically IUSR_MACHINENAME) or the authenticated request user. As this is on a different server the user is not accessible. To get round this I have tried: 1 - setting the application pool to run as domain administrator (I know this is a security risk, but I'm just trying to get it to work at the moment!) 2 - to set the log on account for World Wide Web Publishing service to be the domain admin . When trying to restart the service I get ... Windows could not start the World Wide Web Publishing Service service on the Local Computer. Error 1079: The account specified for this service is different from the account specified fro the other services running in the same process. Any pointers/help would be much appriciated as I'm pulling my hair out (of what little I have left). Update I've been using this funky little tool I found - DelegConfig v2 beta (Delegation / Kerberos Configuration Tool). This has been really usefull. So I've got the accessing of the file share working (there is a test page which will read the files) so now I've just got the issue of passing through the users credentials through to the SQL Server (wans't my choice to do it this way!!) to execute the queries etc. but I can't get it to log on as the user. It tries to access it as "NT Authority\Network Service" which doesn't have a sql login (as should be the logged on user). My connection string is: <add name="User" connectionString="Data Source=.;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> No initial catalog is specified as the system is over multiple dbs (also wasn't my choice!!). I really appriciate all the help so far! :-) Any further hints?!

    Read the article

  • Minimum-Waste Print Job Grouping Algorithm?

    - by Matt Mc
    I work at a publishing house and I am setting up one of our presses for "ganging", in other words, printing multiple jobs simultaneously. Given that different print jobs can have different quantities, and anywhere from 1 to 20 jobs might need to be considered at a time, the problem would be to determine which jobs to group together to minimize waste (waste coming from over-printing on smaller-quantity jobs in a given set, that is). Given the following stable data: All jobs are equal in terms of spatial size--placement on paper doesn't come into consideration. There are three "lanes", meaning that three jobs can be printed simultaneously. Ideally, each lane has one job. Part of the problem is minimizing how many lanes each job is run on. If necessary, one job could be run on two lanes, with a second job on the third lane. The "grouping" waste from a given set of jobs (let's say the quantities of them are x, y and z) would be the highest number minus the two lower numbers. So if x is the higher number, the grouping waste would be (x - y) + (x - z). Otherwise stated, waste is produced by printing job Y and Z (in excess of their quantities) up to the quantity of X. The grouping waste would be a qualifier for the given set, meaning it could not exceed a certain quantity or the job would simply be printed alone. So the question is stated: how to determine which sets of jobs are grouped together, out of any given number of jobs, based on the qualifiers of 1) Three similar quantities OR 2) Two quantities where one is approximately double the other, AND with the aim of minimal total grouping waste across the various sets. (Edit) Quantity Information: Typical job quantities can be from 150 to 350 on foreign languages, or 500 to 1000 on English print runs. This data can be used to set up some scenarios for an algorithm. For example, let's say you had 5 jobs: 1000, 500, 500, 450, 250 By looking at it, I can see a couple of answers. Obviously (1000/500/500) is not efficient as you'll have a grouping waste of 1000. (500/500/450) is better as you'll have a waste of 50, but then you run (1000) and (250) alone. But you could also run (1000/500) with 1000 on two lanes, (500/250) with 500 on two lanes and then (450) alone. In terms of trade-offs for lane minimization vs. wastage, we could say that any grouping waste over 200 is excessive. (End Edit) ...Needless to say, quite a problem. (For me.) I am a moderately skilled programmer but I do not have much familiarity with algorithms and I am not fully studied in the mathematics of the area. I'm I/P writing a sort of brute-force program that simply tries all options, neglecting any option tree that seems to have excessive grouping waste. However, I can't help but hope there's an easier and more efficient method. I've looked at various websites trying to find out more about algorithms in general and have been slogging my way through the symbology, but it's slow going. Unfortunately, Wikipedia's articles on the subject are very cross-dependent and it's difficult to find an "in". The only thing I've been able to really find would seem to be a definition of the rough type of algorithm I need: "Exclusive Distance Clustering", one-dimensionally speaking. I did look at what seems to be the popularly referred-to algorithm on this site, the Bin Packing one, but I was unable to see exactly how it would work with my problem. Any help is appreciated. :)

    Read the article

  • Weighted round robins via TTL - possible?

    - by Joe Hopfgartner
    I currently use DNS round robin for load balancing, which works great. The records look like this (I have a ttl of 120 seconds) ;; ANSWER SECTION: orion.2x.to. 116 IN A 80.237.201.41 orion.2x.to. 116 IN A 87.230.54.12 orion.2x.to. 116 IN A 87.230.100.10 orion.2x.to. 116 IN A 87.230.51.65 I learned that not every ISP / device treats such a response the same way. For example some DNS servers rotate the addresses randomly or always cycle them through. Some just propagate the first entry, others try to determine which is best (regionally near) by looking at the ip address. However if the userbase is big enough (spreads over multiple ISPs etc) it balances pretty well. The discrepancies from highest to lowest loaded server hardly every exceeds 15%. However now I have the problem that I am introducing more servers into the systems, that not all have the same capacities. I currently only have 1gbps servers, but I want to work with 100mbit and also 10gbps servers too. So what I want is I want to introduce a server with 10 GBps with a weight of 100, a 1 gbps server with a weight of 10 and a 100 mbit server with a weight of 1. I used to add servers twice to bring more traffic to them (which worked nice. the bandwidth doubled almost.) But adding a 10gbit server 100 times to DNS is a bit rediculous. So I thought about using the TTL. If I give server A 240 seconds ttl and server B only 120 seconds (which is about about the minimum to use for round robin, as a lot of dns servers set to 120 if a lower ttl is specified.. so i have heard) I think something like this should occour in an ideal scenario: first 120 seconds 50% of requests get server A -> keep it for 240 seconds. 50% of requests get server B -> keep it for 120 seconds second 120 seconds 50% of requests still have server A cached -> keep it for another 120 seconds. 25% of requests get server A -> keep it for 240 seconds 25% of requests get server B -> keep it for 120 seconds third 120 seconds 25% will get server A (from the 50% of Server A that now expired) -> cache 240 sec 25% will get server B (from the 50% of Server A that now expired) -> cache 120 sec 25% will have server A cached for another 120 seconds 12.5% will get server B (from the 25% of server B that now expired) -> cache 120sec 12.5% will get server A (from the 25% of server B that now expired) -> cache 240 sec fourth 120 seconds 25% will have server A cached -> cache for another 120 secs 12.5% will get server A (from the 25% of b that now expired) -> cache 240 secs 12.5% will get server B (from the 25% of b that now expired) -> cache 120 secs 12.5% will get server A (from the 25% of a that now expired) -> cache 240 secs 12.5% will get server B (from the 25% of a that now expired) -> cache 120 secs 6.25% will get server A (from the 12.5% of b that now expired) -> cache 240 secs 6.25% will get server B (from the 12.5% of b that now expired) -> cache 120 secs 12.5% will have server A cached -> cache another 120 secs ... i think i lost something at this point but i think you get the idea.... As you can see this gets pretty complicated to predict and it will for sure not work out like this in practice. But it should definitely have an effect on the distribution! I know that weighted round robin exists and is just controlled by the root server. It just cycles through dns records when responding and returns dns records with a set propability that corresponds to the weighting. My DNS server does not support this, and my requirements are not that precise. If it doesnt weight perfectly its okay, but it should go into the right direction. I think using the TTL field could be a more elegant and easier solution - and it deosnt require a dns server that controls this dynamically, which saves resources - which is in my opinion the whole point of dns load balancing vs hardware load balancers. My question now is... are there any best prectices / methos / rules of thumb to weight round robin distribution using the TTL attribute of DNS records? Edit: The system is a forward proxy server system. The amount of Bandwidth (not requests) exceeds what one single server with ethernet can handle. So I need a balancing solution that distributes the bandwidth to several servers. Are there any alternative methods than using DNS? Of course I can use a load balancer with fibre channel etc, but the costs are rediciulous and it also increases only the width of the bottleneck and does not eliminate it. The only thing i can think of are anycast (is it anycast or multicast?) ip addresses, but I don't have the means to set up such a system.

    Read the article

  • DataTable to JSON

    - by Joel Coehoorn
    I recently needed to serialize a datatable to JSON. Where I'm at we're still on .Net 2.0, so I can't use the JSON serializer in .Net 3.5. I figured this must have been done before, so I went looking online and found a number of different options. Some of them depend on an additional library, which I would have a hard time pushing through here. Others require first converting to List<Dictionary<>>, which seemed a little awkward and needless. Another treated all values like a string. For one reason or another I couldn't really get behind any of them, so I decided to roll my own, which is posted below. As you can see from reading the //TODO comments, it's incomplete in a few places. This code is already in production here, so it does "work" in the basic sense. The places where it's incomplete are places where we know our production data won't currently hit it (no timespans or byte arrays in the db). The reason I'm posting here is that I feel like this can be a little better, and I'd like help finishing and improving this code. Any input welcome. public static class JSONHelper { public static string FromDataTable(DataTable dt) { string rowDelimiter = ""; StringBuilder result = new StringBuilder("["); foreach (DataRow row in dt.Rows) { result.Append(rowDelimiter); result.Append(FromDataRow(row)); rowDelimiter = ","; } result.Append("]"); return result.ToString(); } public static string FromDataRow(DataRow row) { DataColumnCollection cols = row.Table.Columns; string colDelimiter = ""; StringBuilder result = new StringBuilder("{"); for (int i = 0; i < cols.Count; i++) { // use index rather than foreach, so we can use the index for both the row and cols collection result.Append(colDelimiter).Append("\"") .Append(cols[i].ColumnName).Append("\":") .Append(JSONValueFromDataRowObject(row[i], cols[i].DataType)); colDelimiter = ","; } result.Append("}"); return result.ToString(); } // possible types: // http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.data.datacolumn.datatype(VS.80).aspx private static Type[] numeric = new Type[] {typeof(byte), typeof(decimal), typeof(double), typeof(Int16), typeof(Int32), typeof(SByte), typeof(Single), typeof(UInt16), typeof(UInt32), typeof(UInt64)}; // I don't want to rebuild this value for every date cell in the table private static long EpochTicks = new DateTime(1970, 1, 1).Ticks; private static string JSONValueFromDataRowObject(object value, Type DataType) { // null if (value == DBNull.Value) return "null"; // numeric if (Array.IndexOf(numeric, DataType) > -1) return value.ToString(); // TODO: eventually want to use a stricter format // boolean if (DataType == typeof(bool)) return ((bool)value) ? "true" : "false"; // date -- see http://weblogs.asp.net/bleroy/archive/2008/01/18/dates-and-json.aspx if (DataType == typeof(DateTime)) return "\"\\/Date(" + new TimeSpan(((DateTime)value).ToUniversalTime().Ticks - EpochTicks).TotalMilliseconds.ToString() + ")\\/\""; // TODO: add Timespan support // TODO: add Byte[] support //TODO: this would be _much_ faster with a state machine // string/char return "\"" + value.ToString().Replace(@"\", @"\\").Replace(Environment.NewLine, @"\n").Replace("\"", @"\""") + "\""; } }

    Read the article

  • MSBuild condition across projects

    - by Billy Talented
    I have tried several solutions for this problem. Enough to know I do not know enough about MSBuild to do this elegantly but I feel like there should be a method. I have a set of libraries for working with .net projects. A few of the projects utilize System.Web.Mvc - which recently released Version 2 - and we are looking forward to the upgrade. Currently sites which reference this library reference it directly by the project(csproj) on the developer's computer - not a built version of the library so that changes and source code case easily be viewed when dealing code from this library. This works quite well and would prefer to not have to switch to binary references (but will if this is the only solution). The problem I have is that because of some of the functionality that was added onto the MVC1 based library (view engines, model binders etc) several of the sites reliant on these libraries need to stay on MVC1 until we have full evaluated and tested them on MVC2. I would prefer to not have to fork or have two copies on each dev machine. So what I would like to be able to do is set a property group value in the referencing web application and have this read by the above mentions library with the caviat that when working directly on the library via its containing solution I would like to be able to control this via Configuration Manager by selecting a build type and that property overriding the build behavior of the solution (i.e. 'Debug - MVC1' vs 'Debug -MVC2') - I have this working via: <Choose> <When Condition=" '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Release - MVC2|AnyCPU' Or '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Debug - MVC2|AnyCPU'"> <ItemGroup> <Reference Include="System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> </Reference> <Reference Include="Microsoft.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> <SpecificVersion>False</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\Dependancies\Web\MVC2\Microsoft.Web.Mvc.dll</HintPath> </Reference> </ItemGroup> </When> <Otherwise> <ItemGroup> <Reference Include="System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> <SpecificVersion>False</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\Dependancies\Web\MVC\System.Web.Mvc.dll</HintPath> </Reference> </ItemGroup> </Otherwise> The item that I am struggling with is the cross solution issue(solution TheWebsite references this project and needs to control which build property to use) that I have not found a way to work with that I think is a solid solution that enabled the build within visual studio to work as it has to date. Other bits: we are using VS2008, Resharper, TeamCity for CI, SVN for source control.

    Read the article

  • Passing a variable from Excel 2007 Custom Task Pane to Hosted PowerShell

    - by Uros Calakovic
    I am testing PowerShell hosting using C#. Here is a console application that works: using System; using System.Collections; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Collections.ObjectModel; using System.Management.Automation; using System.Management.Automation.Runspaces; using Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel; namespace ConsoleApplication3 { class Program { static void Main() { Application app = new Application(); app.Visible = true; app.Workbooks.Add(XlWBATemplate.xlWBATWorksheet); Runspace runspace = RunspaceFactory.CreateRunspace(); runspace.Open(); runspace.SessionStateProxy.SetVariable("Application", app); Pipeline pipeline = runspace.CreatePipeline("$Application"); Collection<PSObject> results = null; try { results = pipeline.Invoke(); foreach (PSObject pob in results) { Console.WriteLine(pob); } } catch (RuntimeException re) { Console.WriteLine(re.GetType().Name); Console.WriteLine(re.Message); } } } } I first create an Excel.Application instance and pass it to the hosted PowerShell instance as a varible named $Application. This works and I can use this variable as if Excel.Application was created from within PowerShell. I next created an Excel addin using VS 2008 and added a user control with two text boxes and a button to the addin (the user control appears as a custom task pane when Excel starts). The idea was this: when I click the button a hosted PowerShell instance is created and I can pass to it the current Excel.Application instance as a variable, just like in the first sample, so I can use this variable to automate Excel from PowerShell (one text box would be used for input and the other one for output. Here is the code: using System; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Management.Automation; using System.Management.Automation.Runspaces; using System.Collections.ObjectModel; using Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel; namespace POSHAddin { public partial class POSHControl : UserControl { public POSHControl() { InitializeComponent(); } private void btnRun_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { txtOutput.Clear(); Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application app = Globals.ThisAddIn.Application; Runspace runspace = RunspaceFactory.CreateRunspace(); runspace.Open(); runspace.SessionStateProxy.SetVariable("Application", app); Pipeline pipeline = runspace.CreatePipeline( "$Application | Get-Member | Out-String"); app.ActiveCell.Value2 = "Test"; Collection<PSObject> results = null; try { results = pipeline.Invoke(); foreach (PSObject pob in results) { txtOutput.Text += pob.ToString() + "-"; } } catch (RuntimeException re) { txtOutput.Text += re.GetType().Name; txtOutput.Text += re.Message; } } } } The code is similar to the first sample, except that the current Excel.Application instance is available to the addin via Globals.ThisAddIn.Application (VSTO generated) and I can see that it is really a Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application instance because I can use things like app.ActiveCell.Value2 = "Test" (this actually puts the text into the active cell). But when I pass the Excel.Application instance to the PowerShell instance what gets there is an instance of System.__ComObject and I can't figure out how to cast it to Excel.Application. When I examine the variable from PowerShell using $Application | Get-Member this is the output I get in the second text box: TypeName: System.__ComObject Name MemberType Definition ---- ---------- ---------- CreateObjRef Method System.Runtime.Remoting.ObjRef CreateObj... Equals Method System.Boolean Equals(Object obj) GetHashCode Method System.Int32 GetHashCode() GetLifetimeService Method System.Object GetLifetimeService() GetType Method System.Type GetType() InitializeLifetimeService Method System.Object InitializeLifetimeService() ToString Method System.String ToString() My question is how can I pass an instance of Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application from a VSTO generated Excel 2007 addin to a hosted PowerShell instance, so I can manipulate it from PowerShell? (I have previously posted the question in the Microsoft C# forum without an answer)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359  | Next Page >