Search Results

Search found 22762 results on 911 pages for 'wcf client'.

Page 352/911 | < Previous Page | 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359  | Next Page >

  • .NET Remoting memory leak?

    - by PrimeTSS
    I have a Remoting Class as a Singleton <configuration> <system.runtime.remoting> <application> <service> <wellknown mode="Singleton" type="PTSSLinkClasses.PTSSLinkClientDesktopRemotable, PTSSLinkClasses" objectUri="PTSSLinkDesktop" /> </service> <channels> <channel ref="http" port="8901"/> </channels> </application> </system.runtime.remoting> </configuration> Its created within a "server" Service. Another client service consumes this remote object. The client is calling the remote object every .5 second using a timer (polling) (for testing) If the server service is stopped, so the remote object is not available, memory useage for the client service keeps increasing...... I have overwritten InitialLifetimeService to return a null public override Object InitializeLifetimeService() { return null; } If a remote object is not available does .net queue all the call requests to this object??? untill all the memory is consumed? How can I dected if the remote object is not available and stop trying to call the remote method?

    Read the article

  • RIA Services: Inserting multiple presentation-model objects

    - by nlawalker
    I'm sharing data via RIA services using a presentation model on top of LINQ to SQL classes. On the Silverlight client, I created a couple of new entities (album and artist), associated them with each other (by either adding the album to the artist's album collection, or setting the Artist property on the album - either one works), added them to the context, and submitted changes. On the server, I get two separate Insert calls - one for the album and one for the artist. These entitites are new so their ID values are both set to the default int value (0 - keep in mind that depending on my DB, this could be a valid ID in the DB) because as far as I know you don't set IDs for new entities on the client. This all would work fine if I was transferring the LINQ to SQL classes via my RIA services, because even though the Album insert includes the Artist and the Artist insert includes the Album, both are Entities and the L2S context recognizes them. However, with my custom presentation model objects, I need to convert them back to the LINQ to SQL classes maintaining the associations in the process so they can be added to the L2S context. Put simply, as far as I can tell, this is impossible. Each entity gets its own Insert call, but there's no way you can just insert the one entity because without IDs the associations are lost. If the database used GUID identifiers it would be a different story because I could set those on the client. Is this possible, or should I be pursuing another design?

    Read the article

  • Use VersionControlExt.Explorer outside Visual Studio

    - by Ian
    Hi All, I'm developing a TFS tool to assist the developers in our company. This said tool needs to be able to "browse" the TFS server like in the Source Control Explorer. I believe that by using VersionControlExt.Explorer.SelectedItems, a UI will pop-up that will enable the user to browse the TFS server (please correct me if I'm wrong). However, VersionControlExt is only accessible when developing inside Visual Studio (aka Plugin). Unfortunately, I am developing a Windows Application that won;t run inside VS. So the question is, Can I use VersionControlExt outside of Visual Studio? If yes, how? Here's an attempt on using the Changset Details Dialog outside of Visual Studio string path = System.IO.Path.GetDirectoryName(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location); Assembly vcControls = Assembly.LoadFile(path + @"\Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Controls.dll"); Assembly vcClient = Assembly.LoadFile(path + @"\Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Client.dll"); Type dialogChangesetDetailsType = vcControls.GetType("Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Controls.DialogChangesetDetails",true); Type[] ctorTypes = new Type[3] {vcClient.GetType("Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Client.VersionControlSever"), vcClient.GetType("Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Client.Changeset"), typeof(System.Boolean)}; ConstructorInfo ctorInfo = dialogChangesetDetailsType.GetConstructor(ctorTypes); Object[] ctorObjects = new Object[3] {VersionControlHelper.CurrentVersionControlServer, uc.ChangeSet, true}; Object oDialog = ctorInfo.Invoke(ctorObjects); dialogChangesetDetailsType.InvokeMember("ShowDialog", BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, oDialog, null);

    Read the article

  • How do I dynamically create a document for download in Javascript?

    - by Nelson
    I'm writing some Javascript code that generates an XML document in the client (via Google Earth plugin). I'd like the user to be able to click a button on the page and be prompted to save that XML to a new file. If I were generating the XML server-side this would be easy, just make the button open the link. But the XML is generated client-side. I've come up with a couple of hacks that half-work, inspired in part by this StackOverflow question. But neither completely work. Here's a demo HTML with embedded code: <html><head><script> function getData() { return '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?><doc>Hello</doc>'; } function dlDataURI() { window.open("data:text/xml;charset=utf-8," + getData()); } function dlWindow() { var w = window.open(); w.document.open(); w.document.write(getData()); w.document.close(); } </script><body> <div onclick="dlDataURI()">Click for Data URL</div> <div onclick="dlWindow()">Click for Window</div> </body></html> The dlDataURI() version works great in Firefox, poorly in Chrome (can't save), and not at all in IE. The Window() version works OK in Firefox and IE, and not well in Chrome (can't save, XML embedded inside HTML). Neither version ever prompts a user download, it always opens a new window trying to display the XML. Is there a good way to do what I want in client side Javascript? I'd like this to work in today's browsers, ideally Firefox, MSIE 8, and Chrome.

    Read the article

  • Automating ftp command line application redirecting I/O in .Net

    - by SoMoS
    Hello, I'm trying to automate the ftp client that Windows includes redirecting the I/O from the process. What I'm doing is starting the process from my application and trying to read what the client prints on the screen and sending my commands to it. The problem is that I can not read almost any data sent by the ftp client. Some data is present but most data is not read. That's the code I have until now. Public Sub Start() process = New Diagnostics.Process() process.StartInfo.FileName = "ftp.exe" #'' The command is on the path process.StartInfo.CreateNoWindow = True process.StartInfo.RedirectStandardInput = True process.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = True process.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False process.Start() process.StandardInput.AutoFlush = True process.BeginOutputReadLine() End Sub #'' takes data from the stdout Private Sub process_OutputDataReceived(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Diagnostics.DataReceivedEventArgs) Handles process.OutputDataReceived #'' At this moment here there is code to show the stdout at a textbox End Sub #'' sends data to stdin Private Sub Button2_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button2.Click process.StandardInput.WriteLine(Me.TextEdit1.Text) End Sub Now when I execute this for example and send ? I just get the first line (and I should get a lot more). Or when I send the open command I should receive an A but nothing is received. Any ideas? Another question is ... when a console applications writes on the screen it always does that by writing at the stdout or the stderr isn't it?

    Read the article

  • Diffie-Hellman in Silverlight

    - by cmaduro
    I am trying to devise a security scheme for encrypting the application level data between a silverlight client, and a php webservice that I created. Since I am dealing with a public website the information I am pulling from the service is public, but the information I'm submitting to the webservice is not public. There is also a back end to the website for administration, so naturally all application data being pushed and pulled from the webservice to the silverlight administration back end must also be encrypted. Silverlight does not support asymmetric encryption, which would work for the public website. Symmetric encryption would only work on the back end because users do not log in to the public website, so no password based keys could be derived. Still symmetric encryption would be great, but I cannot securely save the private key in the silverlight client. Because it would either have to be hardcoded or read from some kind of config file. None of that is considered secure. So... plan B. My final alternative would be then to implement the Diffie-Hellman algorithm, which supports symmetric encryption by means of key agreement. However Diffie-Hellman is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks. In other words, there is no guarantee that either side is sure of each others identity, making it possible for communication to be intercepted and altered without the receiving party knowing about it. It is thus recommended to use a private shared key to encrypt the key agreement handshaking, so that the identity of either party is confirmed. This brings me back to my initial problem that resulted in me needing to use Diffie-Hellman, how can I use a private key in a silverlight client without hardcoding it either in the code or an xml file. I'm all out of love on this one... is there any answer to this?

    Read the article

  • How do you determine subtype of an entity using Inheritance with Entity Framework 4?

    - by KallDrexx
    I am just starting to use the Entity Framework 4 for the first time ever. So far I am liking it but I am a bit confused on how to correctly do inheritance. I am doing a model-first approach, and I have my Person entity with two subtype entities, Employee and Client. EF is correctly using the table per type approach, however I can't seem to figure out how to determine what type of a Person a specific object is. For example, if I do something like var people = from p in entities.Person select p; return people.ToList<Person>(); In my list that I form from this, all I care about is the Id field so i don't want to actually query all the subtype tables (this is a webpage list with links, so all I need is the name and the Id, all in the Persons table). However, I want to form different lists using this one query, one for each type of person (so one list for Clients and another for Employees). The issue is if I have a Person entity, I can't see any way to determine if that entity is a Client or an Employee without querying the Client or Employee tables directly. How can I easily determine the subtype of an entity without performing a bunch of additional database queries?

    Read the article

  • What is the correct way to pass an object to WebApi RC controller

    - by Diver Dan
    I have a webapi project running rc I have a very basic controlller like [System.Web.Http.HttpPost] public void Update(Business business) { //if (business.Id == Guid.Empty) //{ // throw new HttpResponseException("Business ID not provided", HttpStatusCode.BadRequest); //} _repository.Update(business); //if (!isUpdated) //{ // throw new HttpResponseException("Business not found", HttpStatusCode.NotFound); //} } I found an example using HttpClient however it doesnt work with rc using (var client = new HttpClient()) { try { string url = string.Format("{0}{1}", ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ApiBaseUrl"].ToString(),apiMethod); HttpRequestMessage request = new HttpRequestMessage(); MediaTypeFormatter[] formatter = new MediaTypeFormatter[] { new JsonMediaTypeFormatter() }; var content = request.CreateContent<Business>( business, MediaTypeHeaderValue.Parse("application/json"), formatter, new FormatterSelector()); HttpResponseMessage response = client.PostAsync(url, content).Result; return response.Content.ToString(); } catch (Exception ex) { return null; } } I get an error Method not found: 'Void System.Net.Http.Headers.HttpHeaders.AddWithoutValidation(System.String, System.String)'. Passing the data from jquery is a piece of cake however I need call the api from code behind vs client side. Can someone point me in the right direction for calling the webapi? Thank you

    Read the article

  • Newbie question about Java

    - by Rob Nicholson
    Okay, I know that Java is a language but somebody has asked me if they can write a web application to interface in with a web app I've written in ASP.NET. I'm implementing a web service to serve up an XML so it's pretty language agnostic. However, I'm not 100% sure whether going down the Java route makes a lot of sense. I was kind of expecting PHP or ASP.NET server side code with maybe some Ajax/JavaScript or maybe a heavier client JavaScript program using JScript. Could some kind sole explain the basic Java environment when it comes with webapps. I've inferred the following - am I barking up the right tree? Java when run like ASP.NET is called JSP JavaBeans is a bit like the .NET framework, i.e. it's a library of re-usable components Java EE is a bit like ASP.NET in that it's a framework for building web pages on a server Java can also run on the client but it needs the Java VM installing When running Java on the client, can you use JavaBeans and is there a framework? Can it also use JScript? I don't think so as JScript is JavaScript library. Whilst running Java on the server would be okay, this is a relatively small application and therefore Java sounds like a bit of overkill. PHP or ASP.NET feels a better fit. But I don't think they should go down the Java applet in the browser and it adds complexity that's not needed. Thanks, Rob.

    Read the article

  • Wysiwyg with image copy/paste

    - by jW
    First, I understand that an image cannot be "copied" from a local machine into a website. I understand that it must be uploaded. I am a web programmer, and am familiar with common web wysiwyg tools such as TinyMCE and FCKEditor. My question is if there exists a program or web module or something of the sort that works will perform an automatic upload of images for a wysiwyg. I have a client that is constantly complaining about not being able to copy/paste documents with images from MS Word into a wysiwyg to create content on their website. I have looked into TX Text Control (http://labs.textcontrol.com/) and was looking into a possibly flash wysiwyg that could upload the file automatically behind the scenes. I don't know if this exists, and google did not much help me in my search, so I thought I would ask other coders. I am open to any sort of server technology, or browser requirements. I am looking for some browser based tool instead of an application tool such as Dreamweaver or otherwise. If no good solution to the problem exists, I am willing to accept that at this point. Note: This was a request from a client, and to me it seemed rather unreasonable. I decided to gather community advice instead of just tell the client 'No' and the options here have been extremely helpful and informative in presenting possible solutions.

    Read the article

  • Google Contacts Error: If-Match or If-None-Match header or entry etag attribute required

    - by Ali
    Hi guys I'm following the example code as defined on this website: http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/opensource/library/x-phpgooglecontact/index.html I want to be able to integrate with my google apps account and play around with teh contacts. However I get this error whenever I try to run the modify contacts code: If-Match or If-None-Match header or entry etag attribute required This is my code: Zend_Loader::loadClass('Zend_Gdata_ClientLogin'); Zend_Loader::loadClass('Zend_Http_Client'); Zend_Loader::loadClass('Zend_Gdata_Query'); Zend_Loader::loadClass('Zend_Gdata_Feed'); $client = getGoogleClient('cp'); // this is a function I made - its working fine $client->setHeaders('If-Match: *'); $gdata = new Zend_Gdata($client); $gdata->setMajorProtocolVersion(3); $query = new Zend_Gdata_Query($id);// id is the google reference $entry = $gdata->getEntry($query); $xml = simplexml_load_string($entry->getXML()); $xml->name->fullName = trim($contact->first_name).' '.trim($contact->last_name); $entryResult = $gdata->updateEntry($xml->saveXML(), $id);

    Read the article

  • How do you Access an Authenticated Google App Engine Service with Ruby?

    - by viatropos
    I am trying to do this same thing here but with Ruby: Access Authenticated GAE Client with Python. Any ideas how to retrieve authenticated content from GAE with Ruby? I am using the Ruby GData Gem to access everything in Google Docs and such and it's making life very easy, but now I'd like to access things on GAE that require admin access, programmatically, and it doesn't support that. Here's what I'm getting (using DocList, not sure what to use yet): c = GData::Client::DocList.new c.clientlogin(username, password, nil, nil, nil, "HOSTED") c => #<GData::Client::DocList:0x201bad8 @clientlogin_service="writely", @version="2", @auth_handler=#<GData::Auth::ClientLogin:0x200803c @account_type="HOSTED", @token="long-hash", @auth_url="https://www.google.com/accounts/ClientLogin", @service="writely">, @source="AnonymousApp", @headers={"Authorization"=>"GoogleLogin auth=long-hash", "User-Agent"=>"GoogleDataRubyUtil-AnonymousApp", "GData-Version"=>"2", "Content-Type"=>"application/atom+xml"}, @authsub_scope="http://docs.google.com/feeds/", @http_service=GData::HTTP::DefaultService> url = "http://my-cdn.appspot.com/files/restricted-file.html" c.get(url) => #<GData::HTTP::Response:0x20004b8 @status_code=302, @body="", @headers={"connection"=>"close", "date"=>"Sun, 11 Apr 2010 00:30:20 GMT", "content-type"=>"text/html", "server"=>"Google Frontend", "content-length"=>"0", "location"=>"https://www.google.com/accounts/ServiceLogin service=ah&continue=http://my-cdn.appspot.com/_ah/login%3Fcontinue%3D http://my-cdn.appspot.com/files/restricted-file.html& ltmpl=gm&ahname=My+CDN&sig=a-signature"}> Any tips? That other SO question pointed to doing something with the redirect... Not sure how to handle that. Just looking for a point in the right direction from the ruby experts. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • MINA: Performing synchronous write requests / read responses

    - by Matt Huggins
    I'm attempting to perform a synchronous write/read in a demux-based client application with MINA 2.0 RC1, but it seems to get stuck. Here is my code: public boolean login(final String username, final String password) { // block inbound messages session.getConfig().setUseReadOperation(true); // send the login request final LoginRequest loginRequest = new LoginRequest(username, password); final WriteFuture writeFuture = session.write(loginRequest); writeFuture.awaitUninterruptibly(); if (writeFuture.getException() != null) { session.getConfig().setUseReadOperation(true); return false; } // retrieve the login response final ReadFuture readFuture = session.read(); readFuture.awaitUninterruptibly(); if (readFuture.getException() != null) { session.getConfig().setUseReadOperation(true); return false; } // stop blocking inbound messages session.getConfig().setUseReadOperation(false); // determine if the login info provided was valid final LoginResponse loginResponse = (LoginResponse)readFuture.getMessage(); return loginResponse.getSuccess(); } I can see on the server side that the LoginRequest object is retrieved, and a LoginResponse message is sent. On the client side, the DemuxingProtocolCodecFactory receives the response, but after throwing in some logging, I can see that the client gets stuck on the call to readFuture.awaitUninterruptibly(). I can't for the life of me figure out why it is stuck here based upon my own code. I properly set the read operation to true on the session config, meaning that messages should be blocked. However, it seems as if the message no longer exists by time I try to read response messages synchronously. Any clues as to why this won't work for me?

    Read the article

  • Is This a Valid Way to Use Blocks in Objective-C?

    - by Carter
    I've been building a HTTP client that uses web services to synchronize information between the client and server. I've been using Blocks and NSURLConnection to achieve this on the client side, but I'm getting frequent EXC_BAD_ACCESS crashes in objc_msgSend(). From what I understand, this usually means that a stored block that has fallen off the stack has been called. I think I've coded things correctly to avoid this, but I'm still stuck. Here is conceptually what my code is doing. It starts by calling "synchronizeWithWebServer". That method invokes "listRootObjectsOnServerWithBlock:" which takes in a block to be called when the method returns. "listRootObjectsOnServersWithBlock:" initiates a NSURLConnection to the web server asynchronously. It to expects a block to be called when it returns. Inside that block I want to be able to execute the original Block (so aptly named 'block'). This is only a simplified version of my code. The real synchronization process is more complex but it's mostly more of the same as what you see below. Sometimes the code works perfectly, but about 80% of the time it crashes very early on in the routine. It seems to be more vulnerable to crashing when my data set gets larger. - (void)synchronizeWithWebServer { [self listRootObjectsOnServerWithBlock:^(NSArray *results, NSError *error) { //Iterate over result objects and perform some other similar routines. }]; } - (void)listRootObjectsOnServerWithBlock:(void (^)(NSArray *results, NSError *error))block { //Create NSURLRequest Here //Create connection asynchronously. block = [block copy]; [NSURLConnection sendAsynchronousRequest:urlRequest queue:[NSOperationQueue currentQueue] completionHandler:^(NSURLResponse *response, NSData *data, NSError *error){ //Parse response from web server (stored in NSData *data) NSArray *results = ..... //Call 'block' block(results, error); [block release]; }]; }

    Read the article

  • Media Kind in iTunes COM for Windows SDK

    - by Joel Verhagen
    I recently found out about the awesomeness of the iTunes COM for Windows SDK. I am using Python with win32com to talk to my iTunes library. Needless to say, my head is in the process of exploding. This API rocks. I have one issue though, how do I access the Media Kind attribute of the track? I looked through the help file provided in the SDK and saw no sign of it. If you go into iTunes, you can modify the track's media kind. This way if you have an audiobook that is showing up in your music library, you can set the Media Kind to Audiobook and it will appear in the Books section in iTunes. Pretty nifty. The reason I ask is because I have a whole crap load of audiobooks that are showing up in my LibraryPlaylist. Here is my code thus far. import win32com.client iTunes = win32com.client.gencache.EnsureDispatch('iTunes.Application') track = win32com.client.CastTo(iTunes.LibraryPlaylist.Tracks.Item(1), 'IITFileOrCDTrack') print track.Artist, '-', track.Name print print 'Is this track an audiobook?' print 'How the hell should I know?' Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to get IIS6 to respond to the OPTIONS verb?

    - by puffpio
    I have a WCF webservice hosted in IIS6 that another site will POST to in a cross domain manner using jquery. Because it is a cross domain POST, the browser first sends an OPTIONS verb with Access-Control-Request-Method: POST However, IIS6 does not respond back with anything. Is this something that I need to handle at a web service level or something at the IIS level?

    Read the article

  • How should I implement reverse AJAX in a Django application?

    - by Carson Myers
    How should I implement reverse AJAX when building a chat application in Django? I've looked at Django-Orbited, and from my understanding, this puts a comet server in front of the HTTP server. This seems fine if I'm just running the Django development server, but how does this work when I start running the application from mod_wsgi? How does having the orbited server handling every request scale? Is this the correct approach? I've looked at another approach (long polling) that seems like it would work, although I'm not sure what all would be involved. Would the client request a page that would live in its own thread, so as not to block the rest of the application? Would it even block? Wouldn't the script requested by the client have to continuously poll for information? Which of the approaches is more proper? Which is more portable, scalable, sane, etc? Are there other good approaches to this (aside from the client polling for messages) that I have overlooked?

    Read the article

  • Submit information to url, but also open PDF

    - by Mad Ducky Digital Branding
    I have a client whose desire is to have her Wordpress blog show a MailChimp form on her home page as a gateway to a .pdf. I need the following behavior to occur when the user clicks "Submit": execute the included MailChimp's javascript file; this ensures the form was properly filled, and then performs the sign-up to the newsletter list (don't need help with this part) then show the user an informational PDF for download or viewing EDIT: The logical order was flipped from when I originally posted this. The script should execute, and only if the script gets executed properly should the PDF show to the user Note: My experience level with HTML and PHP is 3/4, and with JS I am 2/4 EDIT: (seems more like 1/4 at this point lol). If my research is correct, PHP (server-side language) would be used to do that which the client wants. Additional validation is not necessary beyond what MailChimp's script provides (it ensures that user has submitted a completed form) is not necessary in this case (the client says it's ok if the e-mail isn't valid at all). EDIT: Reworded this sentence from original post to be more clear The .pdf URL and content is static, and simply needs to be shown, not generated. ----RESEARCH---- I know that the Mailchimp form uses the following line to actually submit the information, but I want to do the action mentioned below, as well as open the aforementioned .pdf: <form action="http://*BLAH*.us2.list-manage.com/subscribe/post?u=*BLAHBLAH*&amp;id=*BLAHBLAHBLAH*" method="post" id="mc-embedded-subscribe-form" name="mc-embedded-subscribe-form" class="validate" target="_blank"> I am reading on other sites that I can conceivably point "action" to a .php file, but if there is a way to do this with javascript - since its using the .js file that I created for that already anyways, then I would be most happy. Barring that, I'll take what I can get.. ----SOLUTION?---- ...

    Read the article

  • Sync Vs. Async Sockets Performance in .NET

    - by Michael Covelli
    Everything that I read about sockets in .NET says that the asynchronous pattern gives better performance (especially with the new SocketAsyncEventArgs which saves on the allocation). I think this makes sense if we're talking about a server with many client connections where its not possible to allocate one thread per connection. Then I can see the advantage of using the ThreadPool threads and getting async callbacks on them. But in my app, I'm the client and I just need to listen to one server sending market tick data over one tcp connection. Right now, I create a single thread, set the priority to Highest, and call Socket.Receive() with it. My thread blocks on this call and wakes up once new data arrives. If I were to switch this to an async pattern so that I get a callback when there's new data, I see two issues The threadpool threads will have default priority so it seems they will be strictly worse than my own thread which has Highest priority. I'll still have to send everything through a single thread at some point. Say that I get N callbacks at almost the same time on N different threadpool threads notifying me that there's new data. The N byte arrays that they deliver can't be processed on the threadpool threads because there's no guarantee that they represent N unique market data messages because TCP is stream based. I'll have to lock and put the bytes into an array anyway and signal some other thread that can process what's in the array. So I'm not sure what having N threadpool threads is buying me. Am I thinking about this wrong? Is there a reason to use the Async patter in my specific case of one client connected to one server?

    Read the article

  • SSIS 2005 Error while using script component Designer: "Cannot fetch a row from OLE DB provider "BUL

    - by user150541
    I am trying to debug a dts package in SSIS. I have a script component designer where I pass in the input variables to increment a counter. When I try to msgbox the counter value, I get the following error. Error: 0xC0202009 at STAGING1 to STAGING2, STAGING2 Destination [1056]: An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80040E14. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Native Client" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Cannot fetch a row from OLE DB provider "BULK" for linked server "(null)".". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Native Client" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "The OLE DB provider "BULK" for linked server "(null)" reported an error. The provider did not give any information about the error.". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Native Client" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Reading from DTS buffer timed out.". Below is the part of the code within the script component designer : Imports System Imports System.Data Imports System.Math Imports Microsoft.SqlServer.Dts.Pipeline.Wrapper Imports Microsoft.SqlServer.Dts.Runtime.Wrapper Public Class ScriptMain Inherits UserComponent Dim iCounter As Integer Dim iCurrentVal As Integer Dim sCurrentOracleSeq As String Dim sSeqName As String Dim sSeqAltProcName As String Public Overrides Sub Input0_ProcessInputRow(ByVal Row As Input0Buffer) ' ' Add your code here ' Row.SEQIDNCASE = iCounter + iCurrentVal iCounter += 1 MsgBox(iCounter + iCurrentVal, MsgBoxStyle.Information, "Input0") End Sub Public Overrides Sub PreExecute() sCurrentOracleSeq = Me.Variables.VSEQIDCurVal iCurrentVal = CInt(sCurrentOracleSeq) MsgBox(iCurrentVal, MsgBoxStyle.Information, "No Title") iCounter = 0 sSeqName = Me.Variables.VSEQIDName sSeqAltProcName = Me.Variables.VSEQIDAlterProc End Sub Public Overrides Sub PostExecute() Me.Variables.VSEQIDUpdateSQL = "Begin " & sSeqAltProcName & "('" & sSeqName & "'," & (iCounter + iCurrentVal) & "); End;" End Sub End Class Note that the above part of code works perfectly fine if I comment out the lines that has Msgbox.

    Read the article

  • Axis2 Class Generation

    - by Jack
    I have an instance of a derived class (called Child) that I would like to send between the client and server of my web service. However, the method that might be returning this instance, is marked as returning an instance of the parent class (called Parent). For example: public class Service{public Parent createInstanceOfParentOrChildObject();} While Child is not a parameter anywhere in the service nor is it ever specifically named as a return type (only Parent is ever named), it is nonetheless generated and returned inside certain methods (and then cast to Parent). I generated the wsdl file using Axis2 1.4.1 java2wsdl and specifying that it include this class (using the -xc parameter). I did not use Axis2 1.5.1 because it was not honoring the -xc parameter though it looks like that bug is supposedly fixed in Axis2 1.6. I even did a quick check of the generated .wsdl file to ensure that it did indeed include a definition for Child (and, of course, Parent). However, when I used wsdl2java to generate the server-side (and client-side) code, Child was not generated. How can I get wsdl2java to generate Child? I realize that I could do this by hand but I don't want to have to do this for both the client and server. I was also hoping that I could make this as easy as possible for people to use my wsdl to generate their own clients.

    Read the article

  • Subversion versus Vault

    - by WebDude
    I'm currently reviewing the benefits of moving from SVN to a SourceGear Vault. Has anyone got advice or a link to a detailed comparison between the two? Bear in mind I would have to move my current Source Control system across which works strongly in SVN's favor Here is some info I have found out thus far from my own investigations. I have been taking some time tests between the two and vault seems to perform most operations much faster. Time tests used the same server as the repository, the same workstation client, and the same project. Time Comparisons SVN Add/Commit    12:30 Get Latest Revision    5:35 Tagging/Labelling    0:01 Branching    N/A - I don't think true branching exists in SVN Vault Add/Commit    4:45 Get Latest Revision    0:51 Tagging/Labelling    0:30 Branching    3:23 (can't get this to format correctly) I also found an online source comparing some other points. This is the kind of information i'm looking for. Usage Comparisons Subversion is edit/merge/commit only. Vault allows you to do either edit/merge/commit or checkout/edit/checkin. Vault looks and acts just like VSS, which makes the learning curve effectively zero for VSS users. Vault has a VS plugin, but it only works if you're going to run in checkout-mode. Subversion has clients for pretty much every OS you can imagine; Vault has a GUI client for Windows and a command line client for Mono. Both will support remote work, since both use HTTP as their transport (Subversion uses extended DAV, Vault uses SOAP). Subversion installation, especially w/ Apache, is more complex. Subversion has a lot of third party support. Vault has just a few things. My question Has anyone got advice or a link to a detailed comparison between the two?

    Read the article

  • Unknown Exception on trying to initialize the web service stub created by Axis C++

    - by Harsha Reddy
    Hi, I am trying out the sample calculator program given in the folder of axis c++. I am mainly interested in the client side. So I used the wsdl to create the stubs and my main is pretty much the same as given in the sample. However on executing the call Calculator ws (endpoint) I get an unknown exception "First-chance exception at 0x7c0024b9 in CalculatorClient.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000000. First-chance exception at 0x7c812afb in CalculatorClient.exe: Microsoft C++ exception: [rethrow] at memory location 0x00000000.. Unhandled exception at 0x7c0024b9 in CalculatorClient.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000000." and the exception causing code is Calculator::Calculator(const char* pchEndpointUri, AXIS_PROTOCOL_TYPE eProtocol) :Stub(pchEndpointUri, eProtocol) { } I had earlier tried to run a a webservice using Axis C++ but had received the same error. At that time my web service was a java ws on WAS. Then I later tried the calculator client (but this time I did not have any server hosting the ws as I just wanted to check if the Client could initialize). Is the problem caused due to the web service not being hosted on Apache in C++ (though I highly doubt it). Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Harsha

    Read the article

  • SSL with private key on an HSM

    - by Jason
    I have a client-server architecture in my application that uses SSL. Currently, the private key is stored in CAPI's key store location. For security reasons, I'd like to store the key in a safer place, ideally a hardware signing module (HSM) that is built for this purpose. Unfortunately, with the private key stored on such a device, I can't figure out how to use it in my application. On the server, I am simply using the SslStream class and the AuthenticateAsServer(...) call. This method takes an X509Certificate object that has its private key loaded, but since the private key is stored in a secure (e.g. non exportable) location on the HSM, I don't know how to do this. On the client, I am using an HttpWebRequest object and then using the ClientCertificates property to add my client authentication certificate, but I have the same problem here: how do I get the private key? I know there are some HSMs that act as SSL accelerators but I don't really need an accelerator. Also, these products tend to have special integration with web servers such as IIS and Apache which I'm not using. Any ideas? The only thing I can think of would be to write my own SSL library that would allow me to hand off the signing portion of the transaction to the HSM, but this seems like a huge amount of work.

    Read the article

  • Append a dynamically changing watermark to a PDF in SharePoint

    - by ccomet
    This is primarily a question of possibilities more than instructions. I'm a programming consultant working on a WSS project site system for my client. We have a document library in which files are uploaded to go through a complex approval process. With multiple stages in this process, we have an extra field which dictates what the current status of the document is. Now, my client has become enamored with the idea of PDF watermarking. He wants the document (which is already a PDF) to be affixed with a watermark corresponding to the current status, such that with each stage of the approval process the watermark will change. One method, the traditional method for PDF watermarking, of accomplishing this is to have one "clean" copy of the document somewhere hidden on the site, and create a new PDF from it that has the watermark at each stage of the approval process. Since the filename will never change, this new PDF can be uploaded continually to a public library, always overwriting the old version and simulating a "dynamically changing watermark". However, in the various stages there will also be people uploading clean copies with corrections and suggestions, nevermind the complex nature of juggling around two libraries and the fact we double the number of files stored. My client and I agree that this is not a practical path to choose. What we would like to do is be able to "modify" the watermark in a PDF, so that we only have to keep one copy of the file. Unfortunately, from what I've seen, in most cases when you make something like a watermark, which in its nature is supposed to be "unmodifyable", you won't be able to edit it later. So, is it possible to have a part of a PDF which cannot be changed by anyone who downloads the file, but can be changed as part of a workflow or other object model process? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359  | Next Page >