Search Results

Search found 10028 results on 402 pages for 'berkeley db'.

Page 353/402 | < Previous Page | 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360  | Next Page >

• SQL Server log backups "stalling"

  - by MattK

  I have interited a box running SQL Server 2008 and Windows 2003, and have had a few events where largeish (35GB) log backups "stall", both before and after the installation of SQL 2008 SP1. The server log ships to a standby, so regular log backups are taken at 15 minute intervals. However, after an index reorg causes the log to grow to about 35GB (on a DB with about 17GB of data), the next log backup runs to ~95% completion, then seems to stop. The process shows as suspended, with a wait state of BACKUPIO. CPU, read, and write activity on the SPID also does not change, and the process stays in this state for hours, when normally a backup of this size should complete in about 20 minutes. This server has a single RAID-1 volume, thus the source database files and destination backup files are on the same volume. However, I cannot determine if another process is blocking the backup. The backup SPID cannot be killed, and the only way to terminate the log backup and clear the lock on the backup file is to cycle the SQL Server service. There was one event where the backup terminated completely, with an error that another process had locked the backup file, but no details about what that process was. Can anyone suggest a cause or diagnostic process to this situation?

  Read the article

• how to synchronize database table and directory with php

  - by twmulloy

  hello, I have a directory with files and a database table with what should be the same files. I would like to be able to synchronize the database table with the directory. What would be the most efficient way to do this? or would I realistically only be able to do this in a brute manner? Here's my approach: 1. retrieve all of the files in the directory as array 2. retrieve all of the filenames in the database table as array 3. loop through the file values in the directory array and use in_array() on the database table array to verify the filename is in that array, and if not then start building an array to insert the missing filenames. run db query to add each missing file row to database table 4. loop through directory array and use in_array() on the directory array and anything not found in the directory array will just be deleted from the table. Is there a better way to go about this? or something better for this in php than in_array()?

  Read the article

• Do all the HTML5 storage systems work together ?

  - by azera

  While there are a lot of good stuff about html5, one thing I don't get is the redondant storage mechanism, first there is localstorage and sessionstorage, which are key value stores, one is for one instance of the app ("one tab"), and the other works for all the instances of that application so they can share data. Both are saved when you close your browser and have a limited size (usually 5MB), that's great and everything would be nice if we stopped there. But then there is the "Web SQL Database", which has the same security system as the localstorage, the same size limit, the same everything except it works like/is sqlite, with tables and sql syntax and all of that. And the bummer is, they don't work on the same data at all ! This is not two way to access your data, this is really two storage for every html 5 app out there (not created by default yes, but still you see my point). What I would like to know is, is there a reason for both of this mechanisms to exist at the same time ? Or did they just look at sql and nosql movement to pick the best then went "screw it let's add both !" ? Why not implement local/session storage as a table inside web sql db ?

  Read the article

• how to make a software and preserve database integrity and correctness and please help confused

  - by user287745

  i have made an application project in vs 08 c#, sql server from vs 08. the database has like 20 tables and many fields in each have made an interface for adding deleting editting and retrieving data according to predefined needs of the users. now i have to 1) make to project in to a software which i can deliver to professor. that is he can just double click the icon and the software simply starts. no vs 08 needed to start the debugging 2) the database will be on one powerful computer (dual core latest everything win xp) and the user will access it from another computer connected using LAN i am able to change the connection string to the shared database using vs 08/ debugger whenever the server changes but how am i supposed to do that when its a software? 3)there will by many clients am i supposed to give the same software to every one, so they all can connect to the database, how will the integrity and correctness of the database be maintained? i mean the db.mdf file will be in a folder which will be shared with read and write access. so its not necessary that only one user will write at a time. so is there any coding for this or? please help me out here i am stuck do not know what to do i have no practical experience, would appreciate all the help thank you

  Read the article

• How to Update with LINQ?

  - by DaveDev

  currently, I'm doing an update similar to as follows, because I can't see a better way of doing it. I've tried suggestions that I've read in blogs but none work, such as http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb425822.aspx and http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2007/05/19/using-linq-to-sql-part-1.aspx Maybe these do work and I'm missing some point. Has anyone else had luck with them? // please note this isn't the actual code. // I've modified it to clarify the point I wanted to make // and also I didn't want to post our code here! public bool UpdateMyStuff(int myId, List<int> funds) { // get MyTypes that correspond to the ID I want to update IQueryable<MyType> myTypes = database.MyTypes.Where(xx => xx.MyType_MyId == myId); // delete them from the database foreach (db.MyType mt in myTypes) { database.MyTypes.DeleteOnSubmit(mt); } database.SubmitChanges(); // create a new row for each item I wanted to update, and insert it foreach (int fund in funds) { database.MyType mt = new database.MyType { MyType_MyId = myId, fund_id = fund }; database.MyTypes.InsertOnSubmit(mt); } // try to commit the insert try { database.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; throw; } } Unfortunately, there isn't a database.MyTypes.Update() method so I don't know a better way to do it. Can sombody suggest what I could do? Thanks. ..as a side note, why isn't there an Update() method?

  Read the article

• For a set of sql-queries, how do you determine which result-set contains a certain row?

  - by ManBugra

  I have a set of sql - queries: List<String> queries = ... queries[0] = "select id from person where ..."; ... queries[8756] = "select id from person where ..."; Each query selects rows from the same table 'person'. The only difference is the where-clause. Table 'person' looks like this: id | name | ... many other columns How can i determine which queries will contain a certain person in their subset? For example: List<Integer> matchingQueries = magicMethod(queries, [23,45]); The list obtained by 'magicMethod' filters all sql queries present in the list 'queries' (defined above) and returns only those that contain either the person with id 23 OR a person with id 45. Why i need it: I am dealing with an application that contains products and categories where the categories are sql queries that define which products belong to them (queries stored in a table also). Now i have a requirement where an admin has to see all categories an item belongs to immediately after the item was created. Btw, over 8.000 categories defined (so far, more to come). language and db: java && postgreSQL Thanks,

  Read the article

• Synchronizing one or more databases with a master database - Foreign keys

  - by Ikke

  I'm using Google Gears to be able to use an application offline (I know Gears is deprecated). The problem I am facing is the synchronization with the database on the server. The specific problem is the primary keys or more exactly, the foreign keys. When sending the information to the server, I could easily ignore the primary keys, and generate new ones. But then how would I know what the relations are. I had one sollution in mind, bet the I would need to save all the pk for every client. What is the best way to synchronize multiple client with one server db. Edit: I've been thinking about it, and I guess seqential primary keys are not the best solution, but what other possibilities are there? Time based doesn't seem right because of collisions which could happen. A GUID comes to mind, is that an option? It looks like generating a GUID in javascript is not that easy. I can do something with natural keys or composite keys. As I'm thinking about it, that looks like the best solution. Can I expect any problems with that?

  Read the article

• EF 4.0 Code only assocation from abstract to derived

  - by Jeroen

  Using EF 4.0 Code only i want to make an assocation between an abstract and normal class. I have class 'Item', 'ContentBase' and 'Test'. 'ContentBase' is abstract and 'Test' derives from it. 'ContentBase' has a property 'Item' that links to an instance of 'Item'. So that 'Test.Item' or any class that derives from 'ContentBase' has an 'Item' navigation property. In my DB every record for Test has a matching record for Item. public class Item { public int Id { get; set;} } public abstract class ContentBase { public int ContentId { get; set;} public int Id { get; set;} public Item Item { get; set;} } public class Test : ContentBase { public string Name { get; set;} } now some init code public void SomeInitFunction() { var itemConfig = new EntityConfiguration<Item>(); itemConfig.HasKey(p => p.Id); itemConfig.Property(p => p.Id).IsIdentity(); this.ContextBuilder.Configurations.Add(itemConfig); var testConfig = new EntityConfiguration<Test>(); testConfig.HasKey(p => p.ContentId); testConfig.Property(p => p.ContentId).IsIdentity(); // the problem testConfig.Relationship(p => p.Item).HasConstraint((p, q) => p.Id == q.Id); this.ContextBuilder.Configurations.Add(testConfig); } This gives an error: A key is registered for the derived type 'Test'. Keys must be registered for the root type 'ContentBase'. anyway i try i get an error. What am i a doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Modify SQL result set before returning from stored procedure

  - by m0sa

  I have a simple table in my SQL Server 2008 DB: Tasks_Table -id -task_complete -task_active -column_1 -.. -column_N The table stores instructions for uncompleted tasks that have to be executed by a service. I want to be able to scale my system in future. Until now only 1 service on 1 computer read from the table. I have a stored procedure, that selects all uncompleted and inactive tasks. As the service begins to process tasks it updates the task_active flag in all the returned rows. To enable scaleing of the system I want to enable deployment of the service on more machines. Because I want to prevent a task being returned to more than 1 service I have to update the stored procedure that returns uncompleted and inactive tasks. I figured that i have to lock the table (only 1 reader at a time - I know I have to use an apropriate ISOLATION LEVEL), and updates the task_active flag in each row of the result set before returning the result set. So my question is how to modify the SELECT result set iin the stored procedure before returning it?

  Read the article

• Same session and session ID for different subdomains in Grails project - How can I do that?

  - by fluxon

  I am currently working on a project that supports multiple languages. In order to be seo friendly, I am trying to redirect users subdomains corresponding to their locale (or their preferred language). I.e., my projects's url is mydomain.com and I work with the subdomains en.mydomain.com, es.mydomain.com, de.mydomain.com, fr.mydomain.com ... you get the idea. All subdomains are served by the same grails app for now. What happens is that my grails project maintains different sessions (as seen by the session ids) for every single subdomain, hence information is lost, when a user switches between languages. I had not forseen that. :( How can I explicitly set the session identifier? I would like it to be based on just mydomain.com. I got the hint that Apache Tomcat offers something like <Context sessionCookiePath="/" sessionCookieDomain=".mydomain.com"> , but that does not help for the devel environment etc. Any hints? Have you tried storing session information in the DB? This is sometimes used for load-balancing purposes and might help here as well?! Help is highly appreciated (as always)! Cheers!

  Read the article

• Good case for a Null Object Pattern? (Provide some service with a mailservice)

  - by fireeyedboy

  For a website I'm working on, I made an Media Service object that I use in the front end, as well as in the backend (CMS). This Media Service object manipulates media in a local repository (DB); it provides the ability to upload/embed video's and upload images. In other words, website visitors are able to do this in the front end, but administrators of the site are also able to do this in the backend. I'ld like this service to mail the administrators when a visitor has uploaded/embedded a new medium in the frontend, but refrain from mailing them when they upload/embed a medium themself in the backend. So I started wondering whether this is a good case for passing a null object, that mimicks the mail funcionality, to the Media Service in the backend. I thought this might come in handy when they decide the backend needs to have implemented mail functionality as well. In simplified terms I'ld like to do something like this: Frontend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new StandardMailService() ); Backend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new NullMailService() ); How do you feel about this? Does this make sense? Or am I setting myself up for problems down the road?

  Read the article

• Projects integration question

  - by qkrsppopcmpt

  Other team has one legacy system, which is data aggregators. It is implemented as web service using JAVA, SOAP,MTOM,Tomcat and Axis2. They have wsdl files defining functionalities such as search, retrieve data, upload, download. Our team has a new developed website which is developed using RoR with mySQL. It is sort of social networking. Users can register, add friends, upload images, videos. Also, they can search data. We are required to connect the two systems. One possible solution I think is - Adding components into our website. The component invoke services on the aggregators. - Synchronize website database to the aggregators. My doubts are: 1. How to add components in our websites? The components should use Java or Ruby or adapter from java to ruby. It is possible using ruby invoke web service. I think it should work since it is the point of web service. If so, can ruby call those services in wsdl directly? But how to deal with those different data structure? How to synchroinze our database to the aggregators. I think the best way is also through web service invocation such as upload. That means, we have to export the db records into xml files and then write some tools to upload. The web service project support MTOM. So, it is fine to upload huge data. Am I on the right record? Can anybody give me some hint. Thanks.

  Read the article

• MySQL Stored Procedures : Use a variable as the database name in a cursor declaration

  - by Justin

  I need to use a variable to indicate what database to query in the declaration of a cursor. Here is a short snippet of the code : CREATE PROCEDURE `update_cdrs_lnp_data`(IN dbName VARCHAR(25), OUT returnCode SMALLINT) cdr_records:BEGIN DECLARE cdr_record_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT cdrs_id, called, calling FROM dbName.cdrs WHERE lrn_checked = 'N'; # Setup logging DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION BEGIN #call log_debug('Got exception in update_cdrs_lnp_data'); SET returnCode = -1; END; As you can see, I'm TRYING to use the variable dbName to indicate in which database the query should occur within. However, MySQL will NOT allow that. I also tried things such as : CREATE PROCEDURE `update_cdrs_lnp_data`(IN dbName VARCHAR(25), OUT returnCode SMALLINT) cdr_records:BEGIN DECLARE cdr_record_cursor CURSOR FOR SET @query = CONCAT("SELECT cdrs_id, called, calling FROM " ,dbName, ".cdrs WHERE lrn_checked = 'N' "); PREPARE STMT FROM @query; EXECUTE STMT; # Setup logging DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION BEGIN #call log_debug('Got exception in update_cdrs_lnp_data'); SET returnCode = -1; END; Of course this doesn't work either as MySQL only allows a standard SQL statement in the cursor declaration. Can anyone think of a way to use the same stored procedure in multiple databases by passing in the name of the db that should be affected?

  Read the article

• connecting to secure database on private network from website host

  - by jim

  Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. [edit] the webservice will also be available to the retail website in order for it to lookup product info as well as allocate stock transfers to the same sqlserver db. it will therefore be located on the same domain as the retail site The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not feasible, so I have to work with the scenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

  Read the article

• OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

  - by Pace

  I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

  Read the article

• Where do objects merge/join data in a 3-tier model?

  - by BerggreenDK

  Its probarbly a simple 3-tier problem. I just want to make sure we use the best practice for this and I am not that familiary with the structures yet. We have the 3 tiers: GUI: ASP.NET for Presentation-layer (first platform) BAL: Business-layer will be handling the logic on a webserver in C#, so we both can use it for webforms/MVC + webservices DAL: LINQ to SQL in the Data-layer, returning BusinessObjects not LINQ. DB: The SQL will be Microsoft SQL-server/Express (havent decided yet). Lets think of setup where we have a database of [Persons]. They can all have multiple [Address]es and we have a complete list of all [PostalCode] and corresponding citynames etc. The deal is that we have joined a lot of details from other tables. {Relations}/[tables] [Person]:1 --- N:{PersonAddress}:M --- 1:[Address] [Address]:N --- 1:[PostalCode] Now we want to build the DAL for Person. How should the PersonBO look and when does the joins occure? Is it a business-layer problem to fetch all citynames and possible addressses pr. Person? or should the DAL complete all this before returning the PersonBO to the BAL ? Class PersonBO { public int ID {get;set;} public string Name {get;set;} public List<AddressBO> {get;set;} // Question #1 } // Q1: do we retrieve the objects before returning the PersonBO and should it be an Array instead? or is this totally wrong for n-tier/3-tier?? Class AddressBO { public int ID {get;set;} public string StreetName {get;set;} public int PostalCode {get;set;} // Question #2 } // Q2: do we make the lookup or just leave the PostalCode for later lookup? Can anyone explain in what order to pull which objects? Constructive criticism is very welcome. :o)

  Read the article

• Ajax request gets to server but page doesn't update - Rails, jQuery

  - by Jesse

  So I have a scenario where my jQuery ajax request is hitting the server, but the page won't update. I'm stumped... Here's the ajax request: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: '/jsrender', data: "id=" + $.fragment().nav.replace("_link", "") }); Watching the rails logs, I get the following: Processing ProductsController#jsrender (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-17 23:07:35) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"jsrender", "id"=>"products", "controller"=>"products"} ... Rendering products/jsrender.rjs Completed in 651ms (View: 608, DB: 17) | 200 OK [http://localhost/jsrender?id=products] So, it seems apparent to me that the ajax request is getting to the server. The code in the jsrender method is being executed, but the code in the jsrender.rjs doesn't fire. Here's the method, jsrender: def jsrender @currentview = "shared/#{params[:id]}" respond_to do |format| format.js {render :template => 'products/jsrender.rjs'} end end For the sake of argument, the code in jsrender.rjs is: page<<"alert('this works!');" Why is this? I see in the params that there is no authenticity_token, but I have tried passing an authenticity_token as well with the same result. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• problems with retrieving data that was saved outside of a grails webflow

  - by callie16

  Hi, this is actually connected to an earlier question of mine here. Anyway, I have 3 domains that look like this: class A { ... static hasMany = [ b : B ] ... } class B { ... static belongsTo = [ a : A ] static hasMany = [ c : C ] ... } class C { ... static belongsTo = [ b : B ] ... } In my GSP page, I call an action in the Controller via a remote function in a javascript block (I'm using Dojo so I'm passing data to be saved this way... it's not a form per se so I use JSON for now to pass the data to the Controller). Let's say, I'm calling something like this: def someAction = { def jsonArr = [parse the JSON here] def tmpA = A.get(params.id) ... def tmpB = new B() b.someParam = jsonArr.someParam ... def tmpC = new C() tmpC.cParam = jsonArr.cParam tmpB.addToC(tmpC) tmpB.save(flush: true) //this may or may not be here but I'm adding it for the sake of completeness tmpA.addToB(tmpB) tmpA.save(flush: true) // NOTE: If I check here via println or whatnot, tmpA has a tmpB which has a tmpC... in other words, the data got saved. It's also in the DB. redirect(action: 'order' ...) } Then comes the fun part. Here's the webflow sample: def orderFlow = { ... someStateIShouldEndUpIn { on("next") { // or on previous... doesn't matter def anId = params.id def currA = A.get(anId) // this does NOT return a null value def testB = currA.b // this DOES return a null value }.to("somePage") ... } ... } Any ideas on why this happens? Moreover, when I dump the data of currA, b=null... instead of b=[] or b=[contents of tmpB]. Any help would be seriously appreciated... been at this for a couple of days now... Thanks!

  Read the article

• Blocking error in celery

  - by dmitry

  I have no idea what's this. Python 2.7 + django-1.5.1 + httpd + rabbitmq + django-celery==3.0.17 Tasks are not executed because of some error. Below is celery's log. Maybe someone has faced it before. [2013-06-24 17:10:03,792: CRITICAL/MainProcess] Can't decode message body: AttributeError("'JoinInfo' object has no attribute '__dict__'",) (type:u'application/x-python-serialize' encoding:u'binary' raw:'\'\\x80\\x02}q\\x01(U\\x07expiresq\\x02NU\\x03utcq\\x03\\x88U\\x04argsq\\x04cdjango.contrib.auth.models\\nUser\\nq\\x05)\\x81q\\x06}q\\x07(U\\x08usernameq\\x08X\\x19\\x00\\x00\\[email protected]\\nfirst_nameq\\tX\\x05\\x00\\x00\\x00BibbyU\\tlast_nameq\\nX\\x08\\x00\\x00\\x00OffshoreU\\r_client_cacheq\\x0bccopy_reg\\n_reconstructor\\nq\\x0ccbongoregistration.models\\nClient\\nq\\rc__builtin__\\nobject\\nq\\x0eN\\x87Rq\\x0f}q\\x10(h\\nX\\x08\\x00\\x00\\x00OffshoreU\\x1bpurchase_confirmation_emailq\\x11X\\x1f\\x00\\x00\\[email protected]\\x1dpurchase_confirmation_email_1q\\x12X!\\x00\\x00\\[email protected]\\x06_stateq\\x13cdjango.db.models.base\\nModelState\\nq\\x14)\\x81q\\x15}q\\x16(U\\x06addingq\\x17\\x89U\\x02dbq\\x18U\\x07defaultq\\x19ubU\\x0buser_ptr_idq\\x1aJ\\xb4\\xa2\\x03\\x00U\\x08is_staffq\\x1b\\x89U\\x08postcodeq\\x1cX\\x08\\x00\\x00\\x00AB11 5BSU\\x0cdegree_limitq\\x1dK\\x06U\\x07messageq\\x1eX\\xd1E\\x00\\x00<table id="container" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0px; width: 100%; background-color: #ffffff;" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"... (22911b)'') Traceback (most recent call last): File "/opt/www/MyProject-main/eggs/kombu-2.5.10-py2.7.egg/kombu/messaging.py", line 556, in _receive_callback decoded = None if on_m else message.decode() File "/opt/www/MyProject-main/eggs/kombu-2.5.10-py2.7.egg/kombu/transport/base.py", line 147, in decode self.content_encoding, accept=self.accept) File "/opt/www/MyProject-main/eggs/kombu-2.5.10-py2.7.egg/kombu/serialization.py", line 187, in decode return decode(data) File "/opt/www/MyProject-main/eggs/kombu-2.5.10-py2.7.egg/kombu/serialization.py", line 74, in pickle_loads return load(BytesIO(s)) AttributeError: 'JoinInfo' object has no attribute '__dict__'

  Read the article

• Is it better to use a relational database or document-based database for an app like Wufoo?

  - by mboyle

  I'm working on an application that's similar to Wufoo in that it allows our users to create their own databases and collect/present records with auto generated forms and views. Since every user is creating a different schema (one user might have a database of their baseball card collection, another might have a database of their recipes) our current approach is using MySQL to create separate databases for every user with its own tables. So in other words, the databases our MySQL server contains look like: main-web-app-db (our web app containing tables for users account info, billing, etc) user_1_db (baseball_cards_table) user_2_db (recipes_table) .... And so on. If a user wants to set up a new database to keep track of their DVD collection, we'd do a "create database ..." with "create table ...". If they enter some data in and then decide they want to change a column we'd do an "alter table ....". Now, the further along I get with building this out the more it seems like MySQL is poorly suited to handling this. 1) My first concern is that switching databases every request, first to our main app's database for authentication etc, and then to the user's personal database, is going to be inefficient. 2) The second concern I have is that there's going to be a limit to the number of databases a single MySQL server can host. Pretending for a moment this application had 500,000 user databases, is MySQL designed to operate this way? What if it were a million, or more? 3) Lastly, is this method going to be a nightmare to support and scale? I've never heard of MySQL being used in this way so I do worry about how this affects things like replication and other methods of scaling. To me, it seems like MySQL wasn't built to be used in this way but what do I know. I've been looking at document-based databases like MongoDB, CouchDB, and Redis as alternatives because it seems like a schema-less approach to this particular problem makes a lot of sense. Can anyone offer some advice on this?

  Read the article

• Preventing a heavy process from sinking in the swap file

  - by eran

  Our service tends to fall asleep during the nights on our client's server, and then have a hard time waking up. What seems to happen is that the process heap, which is sometimes several hundreds of MB, is moved to the swap file. This happens at night, when our service is not used, and others are scheduled to run (DB backups, AV scans etc). When this happens, after a few hours of inactivity the first call to the service takes up to a few minutes (consequent calls take seconds). I'm quite certain it's an issue of virtual memory management, and I really hate the idea of forcing the OS to keep our service in the physical memory. I know doing that will hurt other processes on the server, and decrease the overall server throughput. Having that said, our clients just want our app to be responsive. They don't care if nightly jobs take longer. I vaguely remember there's a way to force Windows to keep pages on the physical memory, but I really hate that idea. I'm leaning more towards some internal or external watchdog that will initiate higher-level functionalities (there is already some internal scheduler that does very little, and makes no difference). If there were a 3rd party tool that provided that kind of service is would have been just as good. I'd love to hear any comments, recommendations and common solutions to this kind of problem. The service is written in VC2005 and runs on Windows servers.

  Read the article

• Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

  - by user79339

  Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

  Read the article

• Dynamically generate client-side HTML form control using JavaScript and server-side Python code in Google App Engine

  - by gisc

  I have the following client-side front-end HTML using Jinja2 template engine: {% for record in result %} <textarea name="remark">{{ record.remark }}</textarea> <input type="submit" name="approve" value="Approve" /> {% endfor %} Thus the HTML may show more than 1 set of textarea and submit button. The back-end Python code retrieves a variable number of records from a gql query using the model, and pass this to the Jinja2 template in result. When a submit button is clicked, it triggers the post method to update the record: def post(self): if self.request.get('approve'): updated_remark = self.request.get('remark') record.remark = db.Text(updated_remark) record.put() However, in some instances, the record updated is NOT the one that correspond to the submit button clicked (eg if a user clicks on record 1 submit, record 2 remark gets updated, but not record 1). I gather that this is due to the duplicate attribute name remark. I can possibly use JavaScript/jQuery to generate different attribute names. The question is, how do I code the back-end Python to get the (variable number of) names generated by the JavaScript? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Spring Security ACL: NotFoundException from JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl

  - by user340202

  Hello, I've been working on this task for too long to abandon the idea of using Spring Security to achieve it, but I wish that the community will provide with some support that will help reduce the regret that I have for choosing Spring Security. Enough ranting and now let's get to the point. I'm trying to create an ACL by using JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl as follows: [code] public void addPermission(IWFArtifact securedObject, Sid recipient, Permission permission, Class clazz) { ObjectIdentity oid = new ObjectIdentityImpl(clazz.getCanonicalName(), securedObject.getId()); this.addPermission(oid, recipient, permission); } @Override @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, isolation = Isolation.READ_UNCOMMITTED, readOnly = false) public void addPermission(ObjectIdentity oid, Sid recipient, Permission permission) { SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet(); MutableAcl acl; try { acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); } catch (AlreadyExistsException e) { acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); } // try { // acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); // } catch (NotFoundException nfe) { // acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); // } acl.insertAce(acl.getEntries().length, permission, recipient, true); this.mutableAclService.updateAcl(acl); } [/code] The call throws a NotFoundException from the line: [code] // Retrieve the ACL via superclass (ensures cache registration, proper retrieval etc) Acl acl = readAclById(objectIdentity); [/code] I believe this is caused by something related to Transactional, and that's why I have tested with many TransactionDefinition attributes. I have also doubted the annotation and tried with declarative transaction definition, but still with no luck. One important point is that I have used the statement used to insert the oid in the database earlier in the method directly on the database and it worked, and also threw a unique constraint exception at me when it tried to insert it in the method. I'm using Spring Security 2.0.8 and IceFaces 1.8 (which doesn't support spring 3.0 but definetely supprorts 2.0.x, specially when I keep caling SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet()). My AppServer is Tomcat 6.0, and my DB Server is MySQL 6.0 I wish to get back a reply soon because I need to get this task off my way

  Read the article

• Who's setting TCP window size down to 0, Indy or Windows?

  - by François

  We have an application server which have been observed sending headers with TCP window size 0 at times when the network had congestion (at a client's site). We would like to know if it is Indy or the underlying Windows layer that is responsible for adjusting the TCP window size down from the nominal 64K in adaptation to the available throughput. And we would be able to act upon it becoming 0 (nothing gets send, users wait = no good). So, any info, link, pointer to Indy code are welcome... Disclaimer: I'm not a network specialist. Please keep the answer understandable for the average me ;-) Note: it's Indy9/D2007 on Windows Server 2003 SP2. More gory details: The TCP zero window cases happen on the middle tier talking to the DB server. It happens at the same moments when end users complain of slowdowns in the client application (that's what triggered the network investigation). 2 major Network issues causing bottlenecks have been identified. The TCP zero window happened when there was network congestion, but may or may not be caused by it. We want to know when that happen and have a way to do something (logging at least) in our code. So where to hook (in Indy?) to know when that condition occurs?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360  | Next Page >