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• DesignTime data not showing in Blend when bound against CollectionViewSource

  - by bitbonk

  I have datatemplate for a viewmodel where an itemscontrol is bound again a CollectionViewSource (to enable sorting in xaml). <DataTemplate x:Key="equipmentDataTemplate"> <Viewbox> <Viewbox.Resources> <CollectionViewSource x:Key="viewSource" Source="{Binding Modules}"> <CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> <scm:SortDescription PropertyName="ID" Direction="Ascending"/> </CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> </CollectionViewSource> </Viewbox.Resources> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource viewSource}}" Height="{DynamicResource equipmentHeight}" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource moduleDataTemplate}"> <ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> </ItemsControl> </Viewbox> </DataTemplate> I have also setup the UserControl where all of this is defined to provide designtime data d:DataContext="{x:Static vm:DesignTimeHelper.Equipment}"> This is basically a static property that gives me an EquipmentViewModel that has a list of ModuleViewModels (Equipment.Modules). Now as long as I bind to the CollectionViewSource the designtime data does not show up in blend 3. When I bind to the ViewModel collection directly <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Modules}" I can see the designtime data. Any idea what I could do?

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• MySQL: order by and limit gives wrong result

  - by Larry K

  MySQL ver 5.1.26 I'm getting the wrong result with a select that has where, order by and limit clauses. It's only a problem when the order by uses the id column. I saw the MySQL manual for LIMIT Optimization My guess from reading the manual is that there is some problem with the index on the primary key, id. But I don't know where I should go from here... Question: what should I do to best solve the problem? Works correctly: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC ; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | | 1334 | 2010-05-06 08:05:25 | | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 3 rows in set (0.00 sec) WRONG result when limit added! Should be the first row, id - 1336 mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC limit 1; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Works correctly: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY created_at DESC ; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | | 1334 | 2010-05-06 08:05:25 | | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 3 rows in set (0.01 sec) Works correctly with limit: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY created_at DESC limit 1; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | +------+---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.01 sec) Additional info: explain SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC limit 1; +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | billing_invoices | range | index_billing_invoices_on_account_id | index_billing_invoices_on_account_id | 4 | NULL | 3 | Using where | +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+

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• Coloring text with css using jQuery

  - by ArtWorkAD

  Hi, I have a little problem adding a class to a span element and so coloring it in order to perform simple validation. Here is my js: function validateKey(){ var length = $('#appkey').val().length; if(length != 8){ $('#appkey').addClass('error'); $('#appKeyInfo').addClass('error'); return false; }else{ $('#appkey').removeClass('error'); $('#appKeyInfo').removeClass('error'); return true; } } And html: <label>KEY</label></br> <input type="text" id="appkey" value=""/></br> <span id="appKeyInfo">Dein App-Key aus 8 Ziffern</span> And the jsfiddle: example Any ideas? UPDATE: coloring of appKeyInfo fails, coloring appkey works. When I remove color:red and type font-weight:bold instead the text is bold on error. when I remove color definition of appKeyInfo the text can be colored red on error, strange thing, but I need a font color for the appKeyInfo

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• Browser: Cookie lost on refresh

  - by Nirmal

  I am experiencing a strange behaviour of my application in Chrome browser (No problem with other browsers). When I refresh a page, the cookie is being sent properly, but intermittently the browser doesn't seem to pass the cookie on some refreshes. This is how I set my cookie: $identifier = / some weird string /; $key = md5(uniqid(rand(), true)); $timeout = number_format(time(), 0, '.', '') + 43200; setcookie('fboxauth', $identifier . ":" . $key, $timeout, "/", "fbox.mysite.com", 0); This is what I am using for page headers: header("Last-Modified: " . gmdate("D, d M Y H:i:s") . " GMT"); header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Expires: Thu, 25 Nov 1982 08:24:00 GMT"); // Date in the past Do you see any issue here that might affect the cookie handling? Thank you for any suggestion. EDIT-01: It seems that the cookie is not being sent with some requests. This happens intermittently and I am seeing this behaviour for ALL the browsers now. Has anyone come across such situation? Is there any situation where a cookie will not be sent with the request? Thanks again, for any guideline.

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• NHibernate Child items query using Parent Id

  - by thorkia

  So I have a set up similar to this questions: Parent Child Setup Everything works great when saving the parent and the children. However, I seem to have a problem when selecting the children. I can't seem to get all the children with a specific parent. This fails with: NHibernate.QueryException: could not resolve property: ParentEntity_id of: Test.Data.ChildEntity Here is my code: public IEnumerable<ChildEntity> GetByParent(ParentEntity parent) { using (ISession session = OrmHelper.OpenSession()) { return session.CreateCriteria<ChildEntity>().Add(Restrictions.Eq("ParentEntity_id ", parent.Id)).List<ChildEntity>(); } } Any help in building a proper function to get all the items would be appreciated. Oh, I am using Fluent NHibernate to construct the mappings - version 1 RTM and NHibernate 2.1.2 GA If you need more information, let me know. As per you request, my fluent mappings: public ParentEntityMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); Map(x => x.Code).UniqueKey("ukCode"); HasMany(x => x.ChildEntity).LazyLoad() .Inverse().Cascade.SaveUpdate(); } public ChildEntityMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Amount); Map(x => x.LogTime); References(x => x.ParentEntity); } That maps to the following 2 tables: CREATE TABLE "ParentEntity" ( Id integer, Name TEXT, Code TEXT, primary key (Id), unique (Code) ) CREATE TABLE "ChildEntity" ( Id integer, Amount NUMERIC, LogTime DATETIME, ParentEntity_id INTEGER, primary key (Id) ) The data store in SQLite.

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• Configuring DNS and IIS for multiple domains on a single server

  - by RichardS

  I might be over complicating this but...I am hosting several websites and dns for the domains on a single server: domain1.net domain1.com domain2.net I have three items which I'm trying to work out whether to achieve by DNS, by IIS hostnames(bindings), or by IIS redirect. 1. Where I have domain1.net and domain1.com, I want everything from both (all emails and web requests) to just point to the domain1.net. Can I do this at the DNS level, or do I have to set up the email as forwarders on the email server and the domain as a hostname in IIS? For example: [email protected] [email protected] www.domain1.com www.domain1.net 2. I want to make sure that requests for domain1.net and www.domain1.net both resolve to the same place. Should this be done with DNS or with multiple hostnames, or with IIS redirects? 3. If I then want to have one webmail site serving all of domains (webmail.domain1.net, webmail.domain2.net), is it best to this with a cname in DNS or with host headers in IIS?

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• SQL Server: Clutering by timestamp; pros/cons

  - by Ian Boyd

  i have a table in SQL Server, where i want inserts to be added to the end of the table (as opposed to a clustering key that would cause them to be inserted in the middle). This means i want the table clustered by some column that will constantly increase. This could be achieved by clustering on a datetime column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... CreatedDate datetime DEFAULT getdate(), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (CreatedDate) ) But i can't guaranteed that two Things won't have the same time. So my requirements can't really be achieved by a datetime column. i could add a dummy identity int column, and cluster on that: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... RowID int IDENTITY(1,1), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (RowID) ) But you'll notice that my table already constains a timestamp column; a column which is guaranteed to be a monotonically increasing. This is exactly the characteristic i want for a candidate cluster key. So i cluster the table on the rowversion (aka timestamp) column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (timestamp) ) Rather than adding a dummy identity int column (RowID) to ensure an order, i use what i already have. What i'm looking for are thoughts of why this is a bad idea; and what other ideas are better. Note: Community wiki, since the answers are subjective.

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• ASP.net MVC 2 EditorFor Dictionary Bind

  - by user307540

  Hi! I try this, but don't work. bemutatkozas@Modify = null all the time. public class Iroda { public Dictionary<int,string> bemutatkozas { get; set; } } public ActionResult Index() { var dct = new Dictionary<int, string>(); dct.Add(1, "magyar"); dct.Add(2, "angol"); dct.Add(3, "olasz"); return View(new Iroda { bemutatkozas = dct }); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Modify(Dictionary<int,string> bemutatkozas) { return View(); } <% using (Html.BeginForm("Modify","Iroda")) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(true) %> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <%= Html.EditorFor(o=>o.bemutatkozas,"MultiLanguageEditor") %> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<Dictionary<int, string>>" %> <% int i = 0; %> <% foreach (var s in Model) { %> <%= Html.Hidden(Html.ViewContext.ViewData.TemplateInfo.HtmlFieldPrefix+"["+i+"].key", s.Key) %> <%= Html.TextBox(Html.ViewContext.ViewData.TemplateInfo.HtmlFieldPrefix+"["+i+"].value",s.Value) %> <% i++; %> <% }%> Whats the solution? Thx!

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• GET Trello JSON to put in a string var

  - by Verber

  I'm trying to get the JSON that a TRELLO API Url returns and put it into a string. On my own private board I am getting "401 Unauthorized". But the Trello Api doesn't seem to give any way to authorize a user through the URL. If I try a public board I get "XMLHttpRequest cannot load https://api.trello.com/1/board/4d5ea62fd76aa1136000000c?key=68d02bf40d2ad57dd9eb418eb15f9564. Request header field X-Requested-With is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Headers." This is my code: <body> <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.8.0/jquery.min.js"> </script> <script> var list = $.getJSON(" https://api.trello.com/1/board/4d5ea62fd76aa1136000000c? key=68d02bf40d2ad57dd9eb418eb15f9564"); document.getElementById('print').innerHTML = list; </script> <div id="print"> </div> </body>

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• How do you replace an entire xaml element?

  - by luke

  <ListView> <ListView.Resources> <DataTempalte x:Key="label"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Label}"/> </DataTEmplate> <DataTemplate x:Key="editor"> <UserControl Content="{Binding Control.content}"/> <!-- This is the line --> </DataTemplate> </ListView.Resources> <ListView.View> <GridView> <GridViewColumn Header="Name" CellTemplate="{StaticResource label}"/> <GridViewColumn Header="Value" CellTemplate="{StaticResource editor}"/> </GridView> </ListView.View> On the marketed line, I'm replacing the contents of a UserControl with the contents of another UserControl that is dynamically created in code. I'd like to replace the entire control, and not just the content. Is there a way to do this?

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• core-plot barchart does not work!!

  - by user355068

  Hello~ I try to draw bar chart!! numberForPlot is not good work, only CPBarPlotFieldBarLength set. -(NSNumber *)numberForPlot: (CPPlot *)plot field:(NSUInteger)fieldEnum recordIndex:(NSUInteger)index { NSDecimalNumber *num = nil; NSString *key = (fieldEnum == CPScatterPlotFieldX) ? @"x" : @"y"; if ( [plot isKindOfClass:[CPBarPlot class]] ) { switch ( fieldEnum ) { NSLog(@"fieldEnum = %d",fieldEnum); case CPBarPlotFieldBarLocation: num = (NSDecimalNumber *)[NSDecimalNumber numberWithUnsignedInteger:index]; NSLog(@"CPBarPlotFieldBarLocation return num = %@",num); break; case CPBarPlotFieldBarLength: num = (NSDecimalNumber *)[NSDecimalNumber numberWithUnsignedInteger: (index+1)*(index+1)]; if ( [plot.identifier isEqual:Plot3Identity] ) num = [[self.ExForPlot objectAtIndex:index] valueForKey:key]; NSLog(@"CPBarPlotFieldBarLength return num = %@",num); break; } } else { NSLog(@"...??.."); } return num; } # LOG 2010-06-01 02:43:19.424 myHealth[5071:207] CPBarPlotFieldBarLength return num = 0 2010-06-01 02:43:19.425 myHealth[5071:207] CPBarPlotFieldBarLength return num = 0 2010-06-01 02:43:19.425 myHealth[5071:207] CPBarPlotFieldBarLength return num = 30 # EXPlot set // Add some initial data NSMutableArray *contentArray = [NSMutableArray arrayWithCapacity:100]; int prevWeight = 0; int prevBmi = 0 ; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sql, -1, &statement, NULL) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(statement)==SQLITE_ROW) { id x = [NSNumber numberWithInt:graphTimeStamp]; id y = [NSNumber numberWithInt:sqlite3_column_int(statement, 2)]; [contentArray addObject:[NSMutableDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:x, @"x", y, @"y", nil]]; } self.ExForPlot = contentArray;

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• How do I specify Open ID Realm in spring security ?

  - by Salvin Francis

  We are using Spring security in our application with support for username / password based authentication as well as Open id based authentication. The issue is that google gives a different open id for the return url specified and we have at least 2 different entry points in our application from where open id is configured into our system. Hence we decided to use open id realm. http://blog.stackoverflow.com/2009/0...ue-per-domain/ http://groups.google.com/group/googl...unts-api?pli=1 how is it possible to integrate realm into our spring configuration/code ? This is how we are doing it in traditional openid library code: AuthRequest authReq = consumerManager.authenticate(discovered, someReturnToUrl,"http://www.example.com"); This works and gives same open id for different urls from our site. our configuration: Code: ... <http auto-config="false"> <!-- <intercept-url> tags are here --> <remember-me user-service-ref="someRememberedService" key="some key" /> <form-login login-page="/Login.html" authentication-failure-url="/Login.html?error=true" always-use-default-target="false" default-target-url="/MainPage.html"/> <openid-login authentication-failure-url="/Login.html?error=true" always-use-default-target="true" default-target-url="/MainPage.html" user-service-ref="someOpenIdUserService"/> </http> ... <beans:bean id="someOpenIdUserService" class="com.something.MyOpenIDUserDetailsService"> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="openIdAuthenticationProvider" class="com.something.MyOpenIDAuthenticationProvider"> <custom-authentication-provider /> <beans:property name="userDetailsService" ref="someOpenIdUserService"/> </beans:bean> ...

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• wpf error template - red box still visible on collapse of an expander

  - by Andy Clarke

  Hi, I'm doing some validation on the DataSource of TextBox that's within an Expander and have found that once a validation error has been triggered, if I collapse the Expander, the red box stays where the TextBox would have been. <Expander Header="Blah Blah Blah"> <TextBox Name="TextBox" Validation.ErrorTemplate="{DynamicResource TextBoxErrorTemplate}" Text="{Binding Path=Blah, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged, ValidatesOnDataErrors=True}" /> </Expander> I've tried to get round this by binding the visibility of the Error Template to the Expander, however I think there's something wrong with the binding. <local:NotVisibleConverter x:Key="NotVisibleConverter" /> <ControlTemplate x:Key="TextBoxErrorTemplate"> <DockPanel> <Border BorderBrush="Red" BorderThickness="2" Visibility="{Binding Path=IsExpanded, Converter={StaticResource NotVisibleConverter}, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=Expander}}" > <AdornedElementPlaceholder Name="MyAdorner" /> </Border> </DockPanel> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Validation.HasError" Value="true"> <Setter Property="ToolTip" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}"/> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> </ControlTemplate> I guess I've gone wrong with my binding, can someone put me back on track please? Alternatively does anyone know another solution to the ErrorTemplate still being visible on the collapse of an Expander?

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• What are some typing patterns using a standard QWERTY keyboard that work well for you as a programme

  - by OrbMan

  After hunting and pecking for about 35 years, I have decided to learn to type. I am learning QWERTY and have learned about 2/3 of the letters so far. While learning, I have noticed how asymmeterical the keyboard is, which really bothers me. (I will probably switch to a symmetrical keyboard eventually, but for now am trying to do everything as standard and "correct" as possible.) Although I am not there yet in my lessons, it seems that many of the keys I am going to use as a C# web developer are supposed to be typed by the pinky of my right hand. Are there any typing patterns you have developed that are more ergonomic (or faster) when typing large volumes of code rife with braces, colons, semi-colons and quotes? Or, should I just accept the fact that every other key is going to be hit with my right pinky? It is not that speed is such a huge concern, as much as that it seems so inefficient to rely on one finger so much... As an example, some of the conventions I use as a hunt and pecker, like typing open and close braces right away with my index and middle finger, and then hitting the left arrow key to fill in the inner content, don't seem to work as well with just a pinky. What are some typing patterns using a standard QWERTY keyboard that work really well for you as a programmer? Update: US layout and I use home row Update 2: Despite my best efforts to the contrary, people are interpreting this questionas "how do I learn to type" or "what keyboard should I use". Take it as a given, that I will learn to type, and that I will be doing so on a standard QWERTY layout keyboard, not DVORAK. I am interested in aquiring a skill that will be useful wherever I go.

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• Foreach loop returning null values in PHP?

  - by Jascha

  Hello, I have a pretty simple problem. Basically I have an array called $list that is a list of titles. If I do a print_r($list) I get these results: Array ( [0] => Another New Title [1] => Awesome Movies and stuff [2] => Jascha's Title ) Now, I'm running a foreach loop to retrieve their values and format them in an <ul> like so... function get_film_list(){ global $categories; $list = $categories->get_film_list(); if(count($list)==0){ echo 'No films are in this category'; }else{ echo '<ul>'; foreach($list as $title){ echo '<li>' . $title . '<li>'; } echo '</ul>'; } } The problem I'm having is my loop is returning two values per value (is it the key value?) The result of the preceding function looks like this: Another New Title   Awesome Movies and stuff   Jascha's Title   I even tried: foreach($list as $key => $title){ echo '<li>' . $title . '<li>'; } With the same results: Another New Title   Awesome Movies and stuff   Jascha's Title   What am I missing here? Thanks in advance.

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• PayPal IPN "FAIL"

  - by Rob

  Hey all... I'm trying to figure out how to use PayPal's IPN and I've run into a wall. I want a buyer to be forwarded to a success page after making a purchase, and I want that page to show the details of their transaction. I choose IPN instead of the PDT because I also want to do some other behind the scenes stuff with their data. Anyway, here's the code I'm using -- I'm testing in sandbox mode -- but it returns "FAIL" every time. $req = 'cmd=_notify-validate'; foreach ($_POST as $key => $value) { $value = urlencode(stripslashes($value)); $req .= "&$key=$value"; } // post back to PayPal system to validate $header = "POST /cgi-bin/webscr HTTP/1.0\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Length: " . strlen($req) . "\r\n\r\n"; $fp = fsockopen ('www.sandbox.paypal.com', 80, $errno, $errstr, 30); if (!$fp) { // HTTP ERROR } else { fputs ($fp, $header . $req); while (!feof($fp)) { $res = fgets ($fp, 1024); if (strcmp ($res, "VERIFIED") == 0) { // PAYMENT VALIDATED & VERIFIED! echo "Validated!"; } else if (strcmp ($res, "INVALID") == 0) { // PAYMENT INVALID & INVESTIGATE MANUALY! echo "Invalid!"; } } fclose ($fp); }

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• Find items with belongs_to associations in Rails?

  - by dannymcc

  Hi Everyone, I have a model called Kase each "Case" is assigned to a contact person via the following code: class Kase < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :jobno has_many :notes, :order => "created_at DESC" belongs_to :company # foreign key: company_id belongs_to :person # foreign key in join table belongs_to :surveyor, :class_name => "Company", :foreign_key => "appointedsurveyor_id" belongs_to :surveyorperson, :class_name => "Person", :foreign_key => "surveyorperson_id" I was wondering if it is possible to list on the contacts page all of the kases that that person is associated with. I assume I need to use the find command within the Person model? Maybe something like the following? def index @kases = Person.Kase.find(:person_id) or am I completely misunderstanding everything again? Thanks, Danny EDIT: If I use: @kases= @person.kases I can successfully do the following: <% if @person.kases.empty? %> No Cases Found <% end %> <% if @person.kases %> This person has a case assigned to them <% end %> but how do I output the "jobref" field from the kase table for each record found?

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• Oracle why does creating trigger fail when there is a field called timestamp?

  - by Omar Kooheji

  I've just wasted the past two hours of my life trying to create a table with an auto incrementing primary key bases on this tutorial, The tutorial is great the issue I've been encountering is that the Create Target fails if I have a column which is a timestamp and a table that is called timestamp in the same table... Why doesn't oracle flag this as being an issue when I create the table? Here is the Sequence of commands I enter: Creating the Table: CREATE TABLE myTable (id NUMBER PRIMARY KEY, field1 TIMESTAMP(6), timeStamp NUMBER, ); Creating the Sequence: CREATE SEQUENCE test_sequence START WITH 1 INCREMENT BY 1; Creating the trigger: CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER test_trigger BEFORE INSERT ON myTable REFERENCING NEW AS NEW FOR EACH ROW BEGIN SELECT test_sequence.nextval INTO :NEW.ID FROM dual; END; / Here is the error message I get: ORA-06552: PL/SQL: Compilation unit analysis terminated ORA-06553: PLS-320: the declaration of the type of this expression is incomplete or malformed Any combination that does not have the two lines with a the word "timestamp" in them works fine. I would have thought the syntax would be enough to differentiate between the keyword and a column name. As I've said I don't understand why the table is created fine but oracle falls over when I try to create the trigger... CLARIFICATION I know that the issue is that there is a column called timestamp which may or may not be a keyword. MY issue is why it barfed when I tried to create a trigger and not when I created the table, I would have at least expected a warning. That said having used Oracle for a few hours, it seems a lot less verbose in it's error reporting, Maybe just because I'm using the express version though. If this is a bug in Oracle how would one who doesn't have a support contract go about reporting it? I'm just playing around with the express version because I have to migrate some code from MySQL to Oracle.

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• How should I design my MYSQL table/s?

  - by yaya3

  I built a really basic php/mysql site for an architect that uses one 'projects' table. The website showcases various projects that he has worked on. Each project contained one piece of text and one series of images. Original projects table (create syntax): CREATE TABLE `projects` ( `project_id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `project_name` text, `project_text` text, `image_filenames` text, `image_folder` text, `project_pdf` text, PRIMARY KEY (`project_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=8 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; The client now requires the following, and I'm not sure how to handle the expansions in my DB. My suspicion is that I will need an additional table. Each project now have 'pages'. Pages either contain... One image One "piece" of text One image and one piece of text. Each page could use one of three layouts. As each project does not currently have more than 4 pieces of text (a very risky assumption) I have expanded the original table to accommodate everything. New projects table attempt (create syntax): CREATE TABLE `projects` ( `project_id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `project_name` text, `project_pdf` text, `project_image_folder` text, `project_img_filenames` text, `pages_with_text` text, `pages_without_img` text, `pages_layout_type` text, `pages_title` text, `page_text_a` text, `page_text_b` text, `page_text_c` text, `page_text_d` text, PRIMARY KEY (`project_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=8 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; In trying to learn more about MYSQL table structuring I have just read an intro to normalization and A Simple Guide to Five Normal Forms in Relational Database Theory. I'm going to keep reading! Thanks in advance

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• SCD2 + Merge Statement + SQL Server

  - by Nev_Rahd

  I am trying work out with MERGE statment to Insert / Update Dimension Table of Type SCD2 My source is a Table var to Merge with Dimension table. My MERGE statement is throwing an error as: The target table 'DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION' of the INSERT statement cannot be on either side of a (primary key, foreign key) relationship when the FROM clause contains a nested INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, or MERGE statement. Found reference constraint 'FK_ERROR_DIMENSION_to_AUDIT_CreatedBy'. My MERGE Statement: DECLARE @DATAERROROBJECT AS [ERROR_DIMENSION] INSERT INTO DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION SELECT ERROR_CODE, DATA_STREAM_ID, [ERROR_SEVERITY], DATA_QUALITY_RATING, ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION, ERROR_DESCRIPTION, VALIDATION_RULE, ERROR_TYPE, ERROR_CLASS, VALID_FROM, VALID_TO, CURR_FLAG, CREATED_BY_AUDIT_SK, UPDATED_BY_AUDIT_SK FROM (MERGE DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION ED USING @DATAERROROBJECT OBJ ON(ED.ERROR_CODE = OBJ.ERROR_CODE AND ED.DATA_STREAM_ID = OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID) WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT VALUES( OBJ.ERROR_CODE ,OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID ,OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] ,OBJ.DATA_QUALITY_RATING ,OBJ.ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION ,OBJ.ERROR_DESCRIPTION ,OBJ.VALIDATION_RULE ,OBJ.ERROR_TYPE ,OBJ.ERROR_CLASS ,GETDATE() ,'9999-12-13' ,'Y' ,1 ,1 ) WHEN MATCHED AND ED.CURR_FLAG = 'Y' AND ( ED.[ERROR_SEVERITY] <> OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] OR ED.[DATA_QUALITY_RATING] <> OBJ.[DATA_QUALITY_RATING] OR ED.[ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION] <> OBJ.[ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION] OR ED.[ERROR_DESCRIPTION] <> OBJ.[ERROR_DESCRIPTION] OR ED.[VALIDATION_RULE] <> OBJ.[VALIDATION_RULE] OR ED.[ERROR_TYPE] <> OBJ.[ERROR_TYPE] OR ED.[ERROR_CLASS] <> OBJ.[ERROR_CLASS] ) THEN UPDATE SET ED.CURR_FLAG = 'N', ED.VALID_TO = GETDATE() OUTPUT $ACTION ACTION_OUT, OBJ.ERROR_CODE ERROR_CODE, OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID DATA_STREAM_ID, OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] [ERROR_SEVERITY], OBJ.DATA_QUALITY_RATING DATA_QUALITY_RATING, OBJ.ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION, OBJ.ERROR_DESCRIPTION ERROR_DESCRIPTION, OBJ.VALIDATION_RULE VALIDATION_RULE, OBJ.ERROR_TYPE ERROR_TYPE, OBJ.ERROR_CLASS ERROR_CLASS, GETDATE() VALID_FROM, '9999-12-31' VALID_TO, 'Y' CURR_FLAG, 555 CREATED_BY_AUDIT_SK, 555 UPDATED_BY_AUDIT_SK ) AS MERGE_OUT WHERE MERGE_OUT.ACTION_OUT = 'UPDATE'; What am I doing wrong ?

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• Type conversion between PHP client and Java webservice

  - by a1ex07

  I have a web service implemented as EJB. One of it's methods returns Map<String,String>. On client side I use php : $client = new SoapClient($wsdl,array("cache_wsdl"=>WSDL_CACHE_NONE)); $result = $client->foo($params); Everything works fine, but I would like $result-return to be an associative array. Now it looks like array(10) { [0]=> object(stdClass)#46 (2) { ["key"]=> string(4) "key1" ["value"]=> string(4) "val1" } .... I want array(10) {"key1"=>"value1", "key2"=>"value2", .... } The obvious solution is to iterate through this array and create a new array $arr = array(); foreach ($result->return as $val) $arr[$val->key] = $val->value; But I wonder if there is a better way to get an assosicative array ? Thanks in advance.

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• Readonly SiteMapNodes in ASP.Net MVC?

  - by BenN

  I'm using MVCSiteMap as a SiteMapProvider for my MVC site. I have a node set up like so.... <mvcSiteMapNode key="1" title="Product" controller="Product" action="Display" isDynamic="true" dynamicParameters="id"> <mvcSiteMapNode key="11" title="More Details" controller="Product" action="MoreDetails" isDynamic="true" dynamicParameters="id" /> </mvcSiteMapNode> ...Which means I can go to ~/Product/Display/12 and get a correct sitemap node for product id 12 (in this case just Product. And I can go to ~/Product/MoreDetails/12 and get the sitemap path for the MoreDetails (Product - More Details). The problem is that the link back to Product in this sitemap doesn't work - it skips the id off the end, instead linking to ~/Product/Display/. Which sucks. I've discovered I can edit the Title of a node using SiteMap.CurrentNode.Title = "My New Title"; But... SiteMap.CurrentNode.ParentNode.Url = "http://www.google.com"; Doesn't set the Url for the parent node; it gets the default link described before. Any ideas how I can set the URL of a SiteMapNode?

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• Mysql InnoDB performance optimization and indexing

  - by Davide C

  Hello everybody, I have 2 databases and I need to link information between two big tables (more than 3M entries each, continuously growing). The 1st database has a table 'pages' that stores various information about web pages, and includes the URL of each one. The column 'URL' is a varchar(512) and has no index. The 2nd database has a table 'urlHops' defined as: CREATE TABLE urlHops ( dest varchar(512) NOT NULL, src varchar(512) DEFAULT NULL, timestamp timestamp NOT NULL DEFAULT CURRENT_TIMESTAMP, KEY dest_key (dest), KEY src_key (src) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 Now, I need basically to issue (efficiently) queries like this: select p.id,p.URL from db1.pages p, db2.urlHops u where u.src=p.URL and u.dest=? At first, I thought to add an index on pages(URL). But it's a very long column, and I already issue a lot of INSERTs and UPDATEs on the same table (way more than the number of SELECTs I would do using this index). Other possible solutions I thought are: -adding a column to pages, storing the md5 hash of the URL and indexing it; this way I could do queries using the md5 of the URL, with the advantage of an index on a smaller column. -adding another table that contains only page id and page URL, indexing both columns. But this is maybe a waste of space, having only the advantage of not slowing down the inserts and updates I execute on 'pages'. I don't want to slow down the inserts and updates, but at the same time I would be able to do the queries on the URL efficiently. Any advice? My primary concern is performance; if needed, wasting some disk space is not a problem. Thank you, regards Davide

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• Mapping composite foreign keys in a many-many relationship, with overlapping components.

  - by Kirk Broadhurst

  I have a Page table and a View table. There is a many-many relationship between these two via a PageView table. Unfortunately all of these tables need to have composite keys (for business reasons). Page has a primary key of (PageCode, Version), View has a primary key of (ViewCode, Version). PageView obviously enough has PageCode, ViewCode, and Version. The FK to Page is (PageCode, Version) and the FK to View is (ViewCode, Version) Makes sense and works, but when I try to map this in Entity framework I get Error 3021: Problem in mapping fragments...: Each of the following columns in table PageView is mapped to multiple conceptual side properties: PageView.Version is mapped to (PageView_Association.View.Version, PageView_Association.Page.Version) So clearly enough, EF is having a complain about the Version column being a common component of the two foreign keys. Obviously I could create a PageVersion and ViewVersion column in the join table, but that kind of defeats the point of the constraint, i.e. the Page and View must have the same Version value. Has anyone encountered this, and is there anything I can do get around it? Thanks!

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• Excel Automation Addin UDFs not accesible

  - by Eric

  I created the following automation addin: namespace AutomationAddin { [Guid("6652EC43-B48C-428a-A32A-5F2E89B9F305")] [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.AutoDual)] [ComVisible(true)] public class MyFunctions { public MyFunctions() { } #region UDFs public string ToUpperCase(string input) { return input.ToUpper(); } #endregion [ComRegisterFunctionAttribute] public static void RegisterFunction(Type type) { Registry.ClassesRoot.CreateSubKey( GetSubKeyName(type, "Programmable")); RegistryKey key = Registry.ClassesRoot.OpenSubKey( GetSubKeyName(type, "InprocServer32"), true); key.SetValue("", System.Environment.SystemDirectory + @"\mscoree.dll", RegistryValueKind.String); } [ComUnregisterFunctionAttribute] public static void UnregisterFunction(Type type) { Registry.ClassesRoot.DeleteSubKey( GetSubKeyName(type, "Programmable"), false); } private static string GetSubKeyName(Type type, string subKeyName) { System.Text.StringBuilder s = new System.Text.StringBuilder(); s.Append(@"CLSID\{"); s.Append(type.GUID.ToString().ToUpper()); s.Append(@"}\"); s.Append(subKeyName); return s.ToString(); } } } I build it and it registers just fine. I open excel 2003, go to tools-Add-ins, click on the automation button and the addin appears in the list. I add it and it shows up in the addins list. but, the functions themselves don't appear. If I type it in it doesn't work and if I look in the function wizard, my addin doesn't show up as a category and the functions are not in the list. I am using excel 2003 on windows 7 x86. I built the project with visual studio 2010. This addin worked fine on windows xp built with visual studio 2008.

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