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  • Creation of zip folder in php

    - by Kishan
    I am trying to create a zip folder of my downloaded images. Here is my code. I am not getting any errors, but the zip is not getting downloaded.The code is getting compiled and I am getting the output till the display part of the current directory, but after that the code seems to go wrong somewhere and I am not able to get any Zip archive. <?php $conn_id=ftp_connect("localhost") or die("Could not connect"); ftp_login($conn_id,"kishan","ubuntu"); //login to ftp localhost echo "The current directory is " . ftp_pwd($conn_id); //display current directory ftp_chdir($conn_id,'/var/www/test1'); //changing to the directory where my images are downloaded. echo "<br/><p> Changing to directory" . ftp_pwd($conn_id); $file_folder="."; echo "<br/> The content of the directory is <br/>"; print_r(ftp_rawlist($conn_id,".")); // display the contents of the directory if(extension_loaded('zip')) //check whether extension is loaded { $zip=new ZipArchive(); $zip_name="a.zip"; //some name to my zip file if($zip->open($zip_name,ZIPARCHIVE::CREATE)!==TRUE) { $error="Sorry ZIP creation failed at this time"; } $contents=ftp_nlist($conn_id,"."); foreach($contents as $file) //addition of files to zip one-by-one { $zip->addFile($file_folder.$file); } $zip->close(); //seal the zip } if(file_exists($zip_name)) //Content-dispostion of my zip file { header('Content-type:application/zip'); header('Content-Disposition:attachment; filename="'.$zip_name.'"'); readfile($zip_name); unlink($zip_name); } ?>

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  • javascript watching for variable change via a timer

    - by DA
    I have a slide show where every 10 seconds the next image loads. Once an image loads, it waits 10 seconds (setTimeout) and then calls a function which fades it out, then calls the function again to fade in the next image. It repeats indefinitely. This works. However, at times, I'm going to want to over-ride this "function1 call - pause - function2 call - function1 call" loop outside of this function (for instance, I may click on a slide # and want to jump directly to that slide and cancel the current pause). One solution seems to be to set up a variable, allow other events to change that variable and then in my original function chain, check for any changes before continuing the loop. I have this set up: var ping = 500; var pausetime = 10000; for(i=0; i<=pausetime; i=i+ping){ setTimeout(function(){ console.log(gocheckthevariable()); console.log(i); pseudoIf('the variable is true AND the timer is done then...do the next thing') },i) } The idea is that I'd like to pause for 10 seconds. During this pause, every half second I'll check to see if this should be stopped. The above will write out to the console the following every half second: true 10000 true 10000 true 10000 etc... But what I want/need is this: true 0 true 500 true 1000 etc... The basic problem is that the for loop executes before each of the set timeouts. While I can check the value of the variable every half second, I can't match that against the current loop index. I'm sure this is a common issue, but I'm at a loss what I should actually be searching for.

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  • SVG text parameter changing on conversion to image uri : random dy on tspan element

    - by Kitex
    Sorry that I could not compile jsfiddle because it's jsf application hosted locally and code is dependent on data from jsf application. Although I have arrange part of it and part if it as snippet here. Now Everything's correct in Firefox. Suddenly when I open it in chrome something happened. The text on raphael paper suddenly gets scattered in the paper. It's not where it's meant to be. This happens when I convert svg to image and again generate svg. Everything works fine in Firefox. There is chagne id dy of tspan dy=3.09499999 dy=432.0949999999999 Why is there this change in dy although x and y are same? SVG Correct: The fiddle is here. SVG Incorrect: The fiddle is here. function printMap(){ var svg = $('#map').html().replace(/>\s+/g, ">").replace(/\s+</g, "<"); // strips off all spaces between tags canvg('cvs', svg, { ignoreMouse: true, ignoreAnimation: true }); var canvas = document.getElementById('cvs'); var img = canvas.toDataURL("image/png"); $("#resImg").attr("src",img); $("#resImg").css("display",'block'); //$("resImg").css("display",'none'); $("#map").css("display",'none'); // location.href = img; } Before: Text are above the object: After: Texts are scattered:

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  • Does the managed main UI thread stay on the same (unmanaged) Operation System thread?

    - by Daniel Rose
    I am creating a managed WPF UI front-end to a legacy Win32-application. The WPF front-end is the executable; as part of its startup routines I start the legacy app as a DLL in a second thread. Any UI-operation (including CreateWindowsEx, etc.) by the legacy app is invoked back on the main UI-thread. As part of the shutdown process of the app I want to clean up properly. Among other things, I want to call DestroyWindow on all unmanaged windows, so they can properly clean themselves up. Thus, during shutdown I use EnumWindows to try to find all my unmanaged windows. Then I call DestroyWindow one the list I generate. These run on the main UI-thread. After this background knowledge, on to my actual question: In the enumeration procedure of EnumWindows, I have to check if one of the returned top-level windows is one of my unmanaged windows. I do this by calling GetWindowThreadProcessId to get the process id and thread id of the window's creator. I can compare the process id with Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id to check if my app created it. For additional security, I also want to see if my main UI-thread created the window. However, the returned thread id is the OS's ThreadId (which is different than the managed thread id). As explained in this question, the CLR reserves the right to re-schedule the managed thread to different OS threads. Can I rely on the CLR to be "smart enough" to never do this for the main UI thread (due to thread-affinity of the UI)? Then I could call GetCurrentThreadId to get the main UI-thread's unmanaged thread id for comparison.

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  • PHP array checkbox and radio default value

    - by Arg Geo
    I have the code below in my wordpress options page. I can't define the default values for checkbox and radio. array( "name" => "Post Thumbnails", "desc" => "Choose if you want to display <strong>post thumbnails</strong> or not.", "id" => $shortname."_post_thumbs", "type" => "checkbox", "std" => "checked" ), array( "name" => "Example", "desc" => " The Descriptions", "id" => $shortname."_case_thumb", "type" => "radio", "options" => array("nothumb" => " Display nothing", "defthumb" => " Display thumbnail"), "std" => "nothumb" ), For the checkbox tried also "std" => "true" and "std" => " "... but didn't work. Thanks!

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  • exit /B 0 does not work

    - by murxx
    I have the following problem: I have created a batch script which calls itself in there (for being able to write a log in parallel). In the script I start another process (like start startServer.bat) which starts up a java process and keeps opened up all the time. In my original script I wait 30 seconds, check if the process is running and do an: exit /B 0 Unfortunately that does not work, the window shows that the exit /B 0 is being evaluated, but the window still keeps open. When I close the window with the other process (meaning the "child" processes started up in my .bat) my script continues its run. So: scriptA.bat -> in there I call: start startServer.bat -> wait 30 seconds -> check is server is started -> exit /B 0 Process hangs up! What's very odd, if I wrap another script around, like: scriptB.bat -> call scriptA.bat -----> in there I call: start startServer.bat -----> wait 30 seconds -----> check if server is started -----> exit /B 0 -> scriptA.bat continues without any hangup! I also tried the same with exit 0 (without /B) also, same result! In the first case it hangs up, in the second case my window closes as expected... Has anyone of you ever had such a problem before and knows what's wrong here? Process hangs up!

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  • Error 2025: The supplied DisplayObject must be a child of the caller

    - by Mocca
    Hi, sorry, new to actionscript 3. I have a display() function for an object rotator(image based like a QT object movie). It first saves the current image in a helper variable and then allocates a new image, from the library, beneath the old one. To get a nice crossfade effect, the old image's alpha is looped down via enter_frame and then removed. Which is where there seems to be an issue with the display list, maybe recognizing oldImg's value as being already added? (it's not a first pass error) Btw, do i have to remove the old image or can i leave it, for when it's being called up via the mouse position again? (the image number can get fairly large) Does anyone have further insight? Thanks! function display(num:Number):void //num: image number { ... oldImg = newImg; ClassReference = getDefinitionByName("Class"+num) as Class; imgBD = new ClassReference(0,0); newImg = new Bitmap(imgBD); images.addChild(newImg); newImg.x=0; newImg.y=0; } function onEnter(evt:Event):void { if (oldImg) { if (oldImg.alpha > 0) oldImg.alpha -= 0.15; **else images.removeChild(oldImg);** } ... }

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  • How do C++ compilers actually pass reference parameters?

    - by T.E.D.
    This question came about as a result of some mixed-langauge programming. I had a Fortran routine I wanted to call from C++ code. Fortran passes all its parameters by reference (unless you tell it otherwise). So I thought I'd be clever (bad start right there) in my C++ code and define the Fortran routine something like this: extern "C" void FORTRAN_ROUTINE (unsigned & flag); This code worked for a while but (of course right when I needed to leave) suddenly started blowing up on a return call. Clear indication of a munged call stack. Another engineer came behind me and fixed the problem, declaring that the routine had to be deinfed in C++ as extern "C" void FORTRAN_ROUTINE (unsigned * flag); I'd accept that except for two things. One is that it seems rather counter-intuitive for the compiler to not pass reference parameters by reference, and I can find no documentation anywhere that says that. The other is that he changed a whole raft of other code in there at the same time, so it theoretically could have been another change that fixed whatever the issue was. So the question is, how does C++ actually pass reference parameters? Is it perhaps free to do copy-in, copy-out for small values or something? In other words, are reference parameters utterly useless in mixed-language programming? I'd like to know so I don't make this same code-killing mistake ever again.

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  • are mobile can be used as a devices to develop application

    - by Richa Media and services
    I say that we can work @ mobile using a technique and work with any IDE and use any OS without problem like work on visual studio and use Window 7 How it possible ? 1. We use Mobile like a CPU and Use a monitor to watch code. We use samsung's techniques to display on monitor. it's give signal to monitor wirelessly to display code on monitor 2 We use Wireless keyboard and Mouse (if user like USB then he also use USB keyboard and mouse) 3. We use a component inside of mobile to control all devices like internet , wi-fi bluethoth. by component user easily setup , control and use feature. 4 don't be confused. i am sure to say that we not use mobile to watch code on mobile screen and Mobile 's keyboard because it's too smaller to work so we use Monitor (LCD) to display code and a keyboard to work comfortably and freely. 5. what are you think if you see a developer who work using this way 6. it is not impossible. give me some feedback and suggestion about your thinking on this technologies.

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  • Knowing which annotation is selected and accessing properties of it.

    - by kevin Mendoza
    So far my program can display a database of custom annotation views. Eventually I want my program to be able to display extra information after a button on the annotation bubble is clicked. Each element in the database has a unique entry Number, so I thought it would be a good idea to add this entry number as a property of the custom annotation. The problem I am having is that after the button is clicked and the program switches to a new view I am unable to retrieve the entry number of the annotation I selected. Below is the code that assigns the entry Number property to the annotation: for (id mine in mines) { workingCoordinate.latitude = [[mine latitudeInitial] doubleValue]; workingCoordinate.longitude = [[mine longitudeInitial] doubleValue]; iProspectAnnotation *tempMine = [[iProspectAnnotation alloc] initWithCoordinate:workingCoordinate]; [tempMine setTitle:[mine mineName]]; [tempMine setAnnotationEntryNumber:[mine entryNumber]]; } [mines dealloc]; When the button on an annotation is selected, this is the code that initializes the new view: - (void)mapView:(MKMapView *)mapView annotationView:(MKAnnotationView *)view calloutAccessoryControlTapped:(UIControl *)control { mineInformationController *controller = [[mineInformationController alloc] initWithNibName:@"mineInformationController" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCrossDissolve; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } and lastly is my attempt at retrieving the entryNumber property from the new view so that I can compare it to the mines database and retrieve more information on the array element. iProspectFresno_LiteAppDelegate *appDelegate = (iProspectFresno_LiteAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSMutableArray* mines = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithArray:(NSMutableArray *)appDelegate.mines]; for(id mine in mines) { if ([[mine entryNumber] isEqualToNumber: /*the entry Number of the selected annotation*/]) { /* display the information in the mine object */ } } So how do I access this entry number property in this new view controller?

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  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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  • Callback from static library

    - by MortenHN
    I think this should be simple, but im having a real hard time finding information about this topic. I have made a static library and have no problem getting the basics to work. But im having a hard time figuring out how to make a call back from the static library to the main APP. I would like my static library to only use one header as front, this header should contain functions like: requestImage:(NSString *)path; requestLikstOfSomething:(NSSting *)guid; and so on.. These functions should do the necessary work and start a async NSURLConnection, and call back to the main application when the call have finished. How do you guys do this, what are the best ways to callback from a static library when a async method is finished? should i do this with delegates (is this possible), notifications, key/value observers. I really want to know how you guys have solved this, and what you regard as the best practices. Im going to have 20-25 different calls so i want the static library header file to be as simple as possible preferable only with a list of the 20-25 functions. UPDATE: My question is not how to use delegate pattern, but witch way is the best to do callbacks from static librarys. I would like to use delegates but i dont want to have 20-25 protocol declarations in the public header file. I would prefer to have only one function for each request. Thanks in advance. Best regards Morten

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  • Weird margin in a list

    - by kevin
    I'm trying to style a menu, but I keep running into this weird margin that's appearing in both FF4 and IE. This is the only affecting css: #header ul { display: inline; } #header ul li { list-style-type: none; background: #000; display: inline; margin: 0; padding: 0; } #header ul li a { color: #fff; text-decoration: none; display: inline-block; width: 100px; text-align: center; } And this is the HTML: <div id="header"> <ul id="toplinks"> <li><a href="#">Hello</a></li> <li><a href="#">Herp</a></li> <li><a href="#">Derp</a></li> </ul> </div> As you can see, there's a margin appearing on both sides, and I'd like it so it would have no margin (or maybe 1px would be okay)...

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  • Ajax response takes time and status is 503

    - by Suresh S
    guys, i have a html page where onclick of a button a ajax request is sent to server , the request calls a jsp page which runs an oracle procedure.The procedure runs the logic and places it in a temp table . once procedure is completed , the values are returned to the client by selecting values from tmp table. as the response is too late . the data is not received at the client side. solution: i tried to run the procedure in a separate thread using a ajax call. when the procedure is completed a global flag is set to indicate that the data is generated. if the response is 500 , a second ajax call invoked by timeout function after 10000 ms . the second call checks the global flag ,if true then reads from table and sends the response. if not again a timeout is set at the client side. this solution is not mature enough. , as the procedure may take long time to respond. please let me know a good solution for this problenm?

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  • What's the correct way to pass parameters from VBScript to COM interface implemented in C#?

    - by nopopem
    I'm trying to expose a fairly simple C# class to COM which should be usable from VBScript (among others). Some objects need to be created via COM calls and will be used in furter calls later on. The definition of the exposed classes and interfaces looks like this: namespace Test { [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IComInterface { IFoo CreateFoo(); void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public sealed class CComInterface : IComInterface { public CComInterface() {} public IFoo CreateFoo() { return new Foo(); } public void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f) { f.Bar(); } } [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IFoo { void Bar(); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class Foo : IFoo { internal Foo() {} public void Bar() {} } } The simplest thinkable COM client in VBScript does this: Dim ci Set ci = WScript.CreateObject("Test.CComInterface") Dim foo Set foo = ci.CreateFoo foo.Bar ci.UseFoo 0, foo While the call to Bar succeeds, calling UseFoo fails with "Error 5: invalid procedure call or invalid argument" The generated IDL seems ok to me: dispinterface IComInterface { properties: methods: [id(0x60020003)] IFoo* CreateFoo(); [id(0x60020004)] void UseFoo( [in] long x, [in] IFoo* f); }; The vbs call succeeds when I wrap the second parameter in parentheses like this: ci.UseFoo 0, (foo) As far as I understand (I'm no VBScript expert however) this forces the reference to foo to be passed by value, i.e. a copy of the reference is being made. How can I change the interface so that it can be called with the foo reference directly? Since this will be a public interface used by customers I don't like the idea of having to explain why all the objects created need to be passed back in an extra pair of parentheses...

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  • How to write a JOIN statement to combine data from disparate tables

    - by Amarundo
    I have the following 2 procedures that I use as my source for a report. As of now, I'm presenting 2 different tables in my SQL Server Reporting Services 2008 R2 report, because it doesn't let me put them together as they belong to 2 different data sets. I want to present them in a single table, but I have not been successful trying to use JOIN here. How do I do that? NOTE: cName in IAgentQueueStats corresponds to UserId in AgentActivityLog. /*** Aggregate values for Call Center Agents for calls, talk and hold time ***/ /*** The detail/row values is per 30-minute interval ***/ ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_IAgentQueueStats_OnlyCalls_Grouped] @p_StartDate datetime, @p_EndDate datetime, @p_Agents varchar(8000) AS SELECT [cName] ,sum([nAnswered]) SumNAnswered ,sum([nAnsweredAcd]) SumNAnsweredAcd ,sum([tTalkAcd]) SumTTalkAcd ,sum([nHoldAcd]) SumNHoldAcd ,sum([tHoldAcd]) SumTHoldAcd ,sum([tAcw]) SumTAcw FROM [I3_IC].[dbo].[IAgentQueueStats] WHERE dIntervalStart between @p_StartDate and DATEADD(s, 86400-1, @p_EndDate) AND CHARINDEX ( cName ,@p_Agents)> 0 AND cReportGroup <> '*' AND cHKey3 = '*' and cHKey4 ='*' AND nEnteredAcd > 0 AND cReportGroup <> 'CCFax Email' GROUP BY cName And here is the second one: /*** Aggregate values for Call Center Agents for status/activity time ***/ /*** The detail/row values is per start-time/end-time ***/ ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_AgentActivity_Grouped] @p_StartDate datetime, @p_EndDate datetime, @p_Agents varchar(8000) AS SELECT [UserId],[StatusCategory],SUM([StateDuration]) [StatusDuration] FROM ( SELECT [UserId] ,[StatusGroup] ,[StatusKey] , CASE [StatusKey] WHEN 'Available' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Follow Up' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Campaign Call' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Awaiting Callback' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'In a Meeting' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'Project Work' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'At a Training Session'THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'System Issues' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'Test' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'At Lunch' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, Forward' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, Follow-Me' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'At Play' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'AcdAgentNotAnswering' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Do Not Disturb' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, No ACD' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Away from desk' THEN 'Non Productive' ELSE [StatusKey] END StatusCategory ,stateduration FROM [I3_IC].[dbo].[AgentActivityLog] WHERE [StatusDateTime] between @p_StartDate and DATEADD(s, 86400-1, @p_EndDate) AND CHARINDEX ( [UserId] ,@p_Agents)> 0 AND [StatusKey] not in ('Gone Home','Out of the Office','On Vacation','Out of Town') ) a GROUP BY [UserId],[StatusCategory] ORDER BY [UserId], [StatusCategory] desc BTW, if I take some time to comment/reply on your posts, it's not lack of interest, but of understanding...

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  • incorrect height in Chrome when "-webkit-appearance: none" and value="" on <input> tag

    - by Avi Steiner
    In Chrome v17.0.963.79 on Windows 7, I seem to be having an inexplicable problem when applying the -webkit-appearance: none style to an <input> tag. The problem is as follows: I have a stylesheet, let's call it potatofoot.css, which consists of the code .tbl { display: table; } .tblRow { display: table-row; } .tblCell { display: table-cell; } input { -webkit-appearance: none; }? and I have an html file, let's call it blech.html, which contains the code <div class="tbl"> <div class="tblRow"> <label class="tblCell">Name</label> <input type="text" class="tblCell" value="I'M NOT EMPTY! OH, YEAH!"> </div><!--end tblRow--> </div><!--end tbl--> This displays fine (see this jsfiddle). But when I empty the value attribute, as in this jsfiddle, the entire table grows from a height of 26px to a height of 31px, the label moves to the bottom, and the input stays at the top. However, if I remove -webkit-appearance: none;, everything shows up the same with and without out the value attribute being filled. What's going on?

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  • Glassfish complaining about JSF component IDs

    - by Brian
    Hello All I am very new to JSF (v2.0) and I am attempting to learn it at places like netbeans.org and coreservlets.com. I am working on a very simple "add/subtract/multiply/divide" Java webapp and I have run into a problem. When I first started out, the application was enter two numbers and hit a '+' key and they would be automatically added together. Now that I have added more complexity I am having trouble getting the operation to the managed bean. This is what I had when it was just "add": <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number01" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number01}" /> <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number02" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number02}" /> <h:commandButton id="add" action="answer" value="+" /> For the "answer" page, I display the answer like this: <h:outputText value="#{Calculator.answer}" /> I had the proper getters and setters in the Calculator.java managed bean and the operation worked perfectly. Now I have added the other three operations and I am having trouble visualizing how to get the operation parameter to the bean so that I can switch around it. I tried this: <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="+" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="-" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="*" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="/" /> However, Glassfish complained that I have already used "operation" once and I am trying to use it four times here. Any adivce/tips on how to get multiple operations to the managed bean so that it can preform the desired operation? Thank you for taking the time to read.

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  • RMagick transparent_color deprecated? What's the alternative?

    - by user315975
    I'm developing an app that does a fair amount of generating transparent pngs on the fly. These are used as overlays, to show areas of interest in a graphic, so they have to have transparent backgrounds. I am developing in Ruby on Rails, deploying on Heroku. What works fine in development is not working in production. I get this error when I call a drawing routine using RMagick: NotImplementedError (the `transparent_color=' method is not supported by ImageMagick 6.2.4): /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rmagick-1.15.17/lib/RMagick.rb:1691:in `transparent_color=' I'm using RMagick version 2.12.1 on the development machine, but I'm not exactly certain how to discover the version of ImageMagick that it's running, so I'm not sure if this is a case of my local code being behind or ahead. I'm hoping behind, because perhaps then there'll be a replacement for this call. Does anyone know what the fix is here? What's required to generate a transparent background, if not the call I'm using? I can't find this in the documentation: in fact, it was on a third-party site that I found mention of this capability.

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  • EF4 + STE: Reattaching via a WCF Service? Using a new objectcontext each and every time?

    - by Martin
    Hi there, I am planning to use WCF (not ria) in conjunction with Entity Framework 4 and STE (Self tracking entitites). If i understnad this correctly my WCF should return an entity or collection of entities (using LIST for example and not IQueryable) to the client (in my case silverlight) The client then can change the entity or update it. At this point i believe it is self tracking???? This is where i sort of get a bit confused as there are a lot of reported problems with STEs not tracking.. Anyway... Then to update i just need to send back the entity to my WCF service on another method to do the update. I should be creating a new OBJECTCONTEXT everytime? In every method? If i am creaitng a new objectcontext everytime in everymethod on my WCF then don't i need to re-attach the STE to the objectcontext? So basically this alone wouldn't work?? using(var ctx = new MyContext()) { ctx.Orders.ApplyChanges(order); ctx.SaveChanges(); } Or should i be creating the object context once in the constructor of the WCF service so that 1 call and every additional call using the same wcf instance uses the same objectcontext? I could create and destroy the wcf service in each method call from the client - hence creating in effect a new objectcontext each time. I understand that it isn't a good idea to keep the objectcontext alive for very long. Any insight or information would be gratefully appreciated thanks

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  • Server side aggregation using Spring MVC Controllers

    - by Venu
    Hi! We have a web site with multiple pages each with lot of AJAX calls. All the Ajax calls go to a data proxy layer written in Spring 3 MVC application. In order to reduce the load on the server we are planning to aggregate calls on the client and send to the proxy layer. For ex: we have two calls /controller1/action1 and /controller2/action2 in different controllers. I want to write an aggregate controller and call it from the client instead of making two calls to the individual controllers. Something like /aggregatecontroller/aggregate (and we will post the information regarding which calls are being aggregated and required parameters). Is there any way we can call another controller/action from a controller/action and get output? The flow will be something like this: a. Call /aggregatecontroller/aggregate with info regd call1 and call2 b. aggregate action understands that it needs to aggregate call1 and call2 c. it calls /controller1/action1 and gets the response d. it calls /controller2/action2 and gets the response e. it merges both in a json response and sends it back to browser. Please let me know if you have any suggestion regd how to do this or if you think there is a better approach to do the server side aggregation. Thanks for your time.

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  • How do you use glFrustrum in OpenGL ES1 on iPhone

    - by Paul
    So I am using Xcode 3.2.1 and am trying to make an iPhone OpenGL ES1 project. The default template for an opengl project is ok, but I have been trying to split the code up so not everything is done per frame on the drawView() call. I have a seperate setupRC method that sets the lighting, turns on depth test, turns on culling and sets the clear color. This is called on the init of the EAGLView and this works just fine. I have took the glViewport() and glFrustrum() calls and put them at the end of the resizeFromLayer() method in the ES1Renderer.m file. This gets hit when the app starts and when the app gets resized as it should. Now the problem is the frustrum's far seems to be messed up, as in all my objects get cut / clipped off. I tried adjusting the camera position and angle and it still all objects are cut / clipped. I increased the far from 1000.0f to 30000.0f and still get the same result. What is crazy is that if i call both the glViewport() and glFrustrum() calls in the drawView() every frame everything looks right. Nothing is clipped and looks like i want it. From everything I've been reading the frustrum and viewport calls only need to be called when the window / gets made and resizes, but If I don't call it every frame in my project it doesn't work. Any ideas? Thanks In Advance

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

    - by user251660
    We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • Socket select() Handling Abrupt Disconnections

    - by Genesis
    I am currently trying to fix a bug in a proxy server I have written relating to the socket select() call. I am using the Poco C++ libraries (using SocketReactor) and the issue is actually in the Poco code which may be a bug but I have yet to receive any confirmation of this from them. What is happening is whenever a connection abruptly terminates the socket select() call is returning immediately which is what I believe it is meant to do? Anyway, it returns all of the disconnected sockets within the readable set of file descriptors but the problem is that an exception "Socket is not connected" is thrown when Poco tries to fire the onReadable event handler which is where I would be putting the code to deal with this. Given that the exception is silently caught and the onReadable event is never fired, the select() call keeps returning immediately resulting in an infinite loop in the SocketReactor. I was considering modifying the Poco code so that rather than catching the exception silently it fires a new event called onDisconnected or something like that so that a cleanup can be performed. My question is, are there any elegant ways of determining whether a socket has closed abnormally using select() calls? I was thinking of using the exception message to determine when this has occured but this seems dirty to me.

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  • how do I get the program to Know which annotation is selected and be able to access properties of it

    - by kevin Mendoza
    So far my program can display a database of custom annotation views. Eventually I want my program to be able to display extra information after a button on the annotation bubble is clicked. Each element in the database has a unique entry Number, so I thought it would be a good idea to add this entry number as a property of the custom annotation. The problem I am having is that after the button is clicked and the program switches to a new view I am unable to retrieve the entry number of the annotation I selected. Below is the code that assigns the entry Number property to the annotation: for (id mine in mines) { workingCoordinate.latitude = [[mine latitudeInitial] doubleValue]; workingCoordinate.longitude = [[mine longitudeInitial] doubleValue]; iProspectAnnotation *tempMine = [[iProspectAnnotation alloc] initWithCoordinate:workingCoordinate]; [tempMine setTitle:[mine mineName]]; [tempMine setAnnotationEntryNumber:[mine entryNumber]]; } [mines dealloc]; When the button on an annotation is selected, this is the code that initializes the new view: - (void)mapView:(MKMapView *)mapView annotationView:(MKAnnotationView *)view calloutAccessoryControlTapped:(UIControl *)control { mineInformationController *controller = [[mineInformationController alloc] initWithNibName:@"mineInformationController" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCrossDissolve; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } and lastly is my attempt at retrieving the entryNumber property from the new view so that I can compare it to the mines database and retrieve more information on the array element. iProspectFresno_LiteAppDelegate *appDelegate = (iProspectFresno_LiteAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSMutableArray* mines = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithArray:(NSMutableArray *)appDelegate.mines]; for(id mine in mines) { if ([[mine entryNumber] isEqualToNumber: /*the entry Number of the selected annotation*/]) { /* display the information in the mine object */ } } So how do I access this entry number property in this new view controller?

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