Search Results

Search found 10242 results on 410 pages for 'stored proc'.

Page 357/410 | < Previous Page | 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364  | Next Page >

  • How can I speed up a 1800-line PHP include? It's slowing my pageload down to 10sec/view

    - by somerandomguy
    I designed my code to put all important functions in a single PHP file that's now 1800 lines long. I call it in other PHP files--AJAX processors, for example--with a simple "require_once("codeBank.php")". I'm discovering that it takes about 10 seconds to load up all those functions, even though I have nothing more than a few global arrays and a bunch of other functions involved. The main AJAX processor code, for example, is taking 8 seconds just to do a simple syntax verification (whose operational function is stored in codeBank.php). When I comment out the require_once, my AJAX response time speeds up from 10sec to 40ms, so it's pretty clear that PHP's trying to do something with those 1800 lines of functions. That's even with APC installed, which is surprising. What should I do to get my code speed back to the sub-100ms level? Am I failing to get the cache's benefit somehow? Do I need to cut that single function bank file into different pieces? Are there other subtle things that I could be doing to screw up my response time? Or barring all that, what are some tools to dig further into which PHP operations are hitting speed bumps?

    Read the article

  • ASP ListView - Eval() as formatted number, Bind() as unformatted?

    - by chucknelson
    I have an ASP ListView, and have a very simple requirement to display numbers as formatted w/ a comma (12,123), while they need to bind to the database without formatting (12123). I am using a standard setup - ListView with a datasource attached, using Bind(). I converted from some older code, so I'm not using ASP.NET controls, just form inputs...but I don't think it matters for this: <asp:SqlDataSource ID="MySqlDataSource" runat="server" ConnectionString='<%$ ConnectionStrings:ConnectionString1 %>' SelectCommand="SELECT NUMSTR FROM MY_TABLE WHERE ID = @ID" UpdateCommand= "UPDATE MY_TABLE SET NUMSTR = @NUMSTR WHERE ID = @ID"> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:ListView ID="MyListView" runat="server" DataSourceID="MySqlDataSource"> <LayoutTemplate> <div id="itemplaceholder" runat="server"></div> </LayoutTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <input type="text" name="NUMSTR" ID="NUMSTR" runat="server" value='<%#Bind("NUMSTR")%>' /> <asp:Button ID="UpdateButton" runat="server" Text="Update" Commandname="Update" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:ListView> In the example above, NUMSTR is a number, but stored as a string in a SqlServer 2008 database. I'm also using the ItemTemplate as read and edit templates, to save on duplicate HTML. In the example, I only get the unformatted number. If I convert the field to an integer (via the SELECT) and use a format string like Bind("NUMSTR", "{0:###,###}"), it writes the formatted number to the database, and then fails when it tries to read it again (can't convert with the comma in there). Is there any elegant/simple solution to this? It's so easy to get the two-way binding going, and I would think there has to be a way to easily format things as well... Oh, and I'm trying to avoid the standard ItemTemplate and EditItemTemplate approach, just for sheer amount of markup required for that. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to deal with a Java serialized object whose package changed?

    - by Alex
    I have a Java class that is stored in an HttpSession object that's serialized and transfered between servers in a cluster environment. For the purpose of this explanation, lets call this class "Person". While in the process of improving the code, this class was moved from "com.acme.Person" to "com.acme.entity.Person". Internally, the class remains exactly the same (same fields, same methods, same everything). The problem is that we have two sets of servers running the old code and the new code at the same time. The servers with the old code have serialized HttpSession object and when the new code unserializes it, it throws a ClassNotFoundException because it can't find the old reference to com.acme.Person. At this point, it's easy to deal with this because we can just recreate the object using the new package. The problem then becomes that the HttpSession in the new servers, will serialize the object with the new reference to com.acme.entity.Person, and when this is unserialized in the servers running the old code, another exception will be thrown. At this point, we can't deal with this exception anymore. What's the best strategy to follow for this kind of cases? Is there a way to tell the new servers to serialize the object with the reference to the old package and unserialize references to the old package to the new one? How would we transition to using the new package and forgetting about the old one once all servers run the new code?

    Read the article

  • Clean solution to this ruby iterator trickiness?

    - by mstksg
    k = [1,2,3,4,5] for n in k puts n if n == 2 k.delete(n) end end puts k.join(",") # Result: # 1 # 2 # 4 # 5 # [1,3,4,5] # Desired: # 1 # 2 # 3 # 4 # 5 # [1,3,4,5] This same effect happens with the other array iterator, k.each: k = [1,2,3,4,5] k.each do |n| puts n if n == 2 k.delete(n) end end puts k.join(",") has the same output. The reason this is happening is pretty clear...Ruby doesn't actually iterate through the objects stored in the array, but rather just turns it into a pretty array index iterator, starting at index 0 and each time increasing the index until it's over. But when you delete an item, it still increments the index, so it doesn't evaluate the same index twice, which I want it to. This might not be what's happening, but it's the best I can think of. Is there a clean way to do this? Is there already a built-in iterator that can do this? Or will I have to dirty it up and do an array index iterator, and not increment when the item is deleted?

    Read the article

  • how to decrease queries in php/mysql array selection loop

    - by Mac Taylor
    hey guys i need to show stories details and tags' names in my php/mysql project . for every story row, there is a filed named : tags that save tags id as an array Table name: stories table filed : tags example of tags filed : 1 5 6 space between them and i have a tag table that looks like this Table name : bt_tags Table fileds : tid,tag now problem : when using while loop to fetch all fields in story table , the page uses 1 query to show every stories' detail but for showing tag's names , i should query another table to find names , we have ids stored in story table now i used for loop between while loop to show tag names but im sure there is a better way to decrease page queries $result = $db->sql_query("SELECT * FROM ".STORY_TABLE." "); while ($row = $db->sql_fetchrow($result)) { //fetching other $vars ---- $tags_id = explode(" ",$row['tags']); $c = count($tags_id); for($i=1;$i<$c-1;$i++){ list($tag_name,$slug) = $db->sql_fetchrow($db->sql_query( 'SELECT `tag`,`slug` FROM `bt_tags` WHERE `tid` = "'.tags_id[$i].'" LIMIT 1' )); $sow_tags = '$tag_name,'; } im not allowed to change anything in database table how can i improve this script and show tag's names without using *for loop ?*

    Read the article

  • Changing the href attribute on hover with jQuery

    - by AverageJoe
    Ok, I have an html page that is loaded into another html page via PHP (ok so its a PHP page, whatever). The page that is loaded is a list of hyperlinks. I need to change the href attribute to make the hyperlinks relative to the location of the stored images they refer too. When i load the page containing the hyperlinks the links are relative to the web host server, not the server that the page is actually hosted from. Somthing like this: <div #screenshots) <p><a href="image1.htm">Image1</a></p> <p><a href="image2.htm">Image2</a></p> <p><a href="image3.htm">Image3</a></p> <p><a href="image4.htm">Image4</a></p> <p><a href="image5.htm">Image5</a></p> </div> When I mouse over the links, the status bar shows the reference as "http://webHostServer.com/image1.htm". If I click it I get a 404 error. I need the href to change to something like this when I mouse over it: "http://www.actualImageHostServerIPaddress/image1.htm" I looked at this for assitance and came out with the following jQuery code, but for some reason none of it works: $(document).ready(function(){ $("button").click(function() { $("#screenshots a").addClass('ss'); }); $(".ss").each(function() { $(this).data("oldHref", $(this).attr("href")); orig = $(this).attr("href"); over = "http://208.167.244.33/208.167.244.33/"; $(this).hover(function() { $(this).attr("href", $(this).attr("href").replace(orig, over+orig)); }, function() { $(this).attr("href", $(this).data("oldHref")); }); }); When I click the button it dosen't add the class to the anchor tags, so when I hover over them nothing changes. Any help here would be great.

    Read the article

  • Portable Eclipse

    - by Jeach
    I'm trying to port my entire 'workspace' to a USB key (including the Eclipse executable) so that I can carry my work anywhere with me and work off the key directly. My directory hierarchy is similar to this: /workspace/eclipse - Where my current eclipse binary is stored /workspace/codebase - Where I keep the root of all my eclipse projects /workspace/resources - Where I keep all project files (images, docs, libs, etc.) It all works perfectly fine on one system. But when I change over to another system, the USB key gets mounted on another drive. For example, on my laptop, I get 'E:\', on my PC, I get 'K:\' and at work I get 'F:\', etc, etc. This means that because Eclipse (for 'some' reason) seems to only use full path names (including driver letters) in every single one of its configuration files (such as .classpath), nothing ever works when I want to work on another system. I put a 'libs' directory in the base of every project and populate it with its dependent JAR files. Why doesn't it use relative names instead, so that I could specify something like "../../libs/log4j.jar"? Anyone know how to fix this problem? Does anyone know of a workaround for this? For some reason, I really doubt I'm the first developer to do this! Thanks for your help and any suggestions.

    Read the article

  • Point covering problem

    - by Sean
    I recently had this problem on a test: given a set of points m (all on the x-axis) and a set n of lines with endpoints [l, r] (again on the x-axis), find the minimum subset of n such that all points are covered by a line. Prove that your solution always finds the minimum subset. The algorithm I wrote for it was something to the effect of: (say lines are stored as arrays with the left endpoint in position 0 and the right in position 1) algorithm coverPoints(set[] m, set[][] n): chosenLines = [] while m is not empty: minX = min(m) bestLine = n[0] for i=1 to length of n: if n[i][0] <= m and n[i][1] > bestLine[1] then bestLine = n[i] add bestLine to chosenLines for i=0 to length of m: if m <= bestLine[1] then delete m[i] from m return chosenLines I'm just not sure if this always finds the minimum solution. It's a simple greedy algorithm so my gut tells me it won't, but one of my friends who is much better than me at this says that for this problem a greedy algorithm like this always finds the minimal solution. For proving mine always finds the minimal solution I did a very hand wavy proof by contradiction where I made an assumption that probably isn't true at all. I forget exactly what I did. If this isn't a minimal solution, is there a way to do it in less than something like O(n!) time? Thanks

    Read the article

  • avoiding code duplication in Rails 3 models

    - by Dustin Frazier
    I'm working on a Rails 3.1 application where there are a number of different enum-like models that are stored in the database. There is a lot of identical code in these models, as well as in the associated controllers and views. I've solved the code duplication for the controllers and views via a shared parent controller class and the new view/layout inheritance that's part of Rails 3. Now I'm trying to solve the code duplication in the models, and I'm stuck. An example of one of my enum models is as follows: class Format < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :videos attr_accessible :name validates :name, presence: true, length: { maximum: 20 } before_destroy :verify_no_linked_videos def verify_no_linked_videos unless self.videos.empty? self.errors[:base] << "Couldn't delete format with associated videos." raise ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid.new self end end end I have four or five other classes with nearly identical code (the association declaration being the only difference). I've tried creating a module with the shared code that they all include (which seems like the Ruby Way), but much of the duplicate code relies on ActiveRecord, so the methods I'm trying to use in the module (validate, attr_accessible, etc.) aren't available. I know about ActiveModel, but that doesn't get me all the way there. I've also tried creating a common, non-persistent parent class that subclasses ActiveRecord::Base, but all of the code I've seen to accomplish this assumes that you won't have subclasses of your non-persistent class that do persist. Any suggestions for how best to avoid duplicating these identical lines of code across many different enum models?

    Read the article

  • Regex Replacing only whole matches

    - by Leen Balsters
    I am trying to replace a bunch of strings in files. The strings are stored in a datatable along with the new string value. string contents = File.ReadAllText(file); foreach (DataRow dr in FolderRenames.Rows) { contents = Regex.Replace(contents, dr["find"].ToString(), dr["replace"].ToString()); File.SetAttributes(file, FileAttributes.Normal); File.WriteAllText(file, contents); } The strings look like this _-uUa, -_uU, _-Ha etc. The problem that I am having is when for example this string "_uU" will also overwrite "_-uUa" so the replacement would look like "newvaluea" Is there a way to tell regex to look at the next character after the found string and make sure it is not an alphanumeric character? I hope it is clear what I am trying to do here. Here is some sample data: private function _-0iX(arg1:flash.events.Event):void { if (arg1.type == flash.events.Event.RESIZE) { if (this._-2GU) { this._-yu(this._-2GU); } } return; } The next characters could be ;, (, ), dot, comma, space, :, etc.

    Read the article

  • Where can I view rountrip information in my ASP.NET application?

    - by ajax81
    Hi All, I'm playing around with storing application settings in my database, but I think I may have created a situation where superfluous roundtrips are being made. Is there an easy way to view roundtrips made to an MS Access (I know, I know) backend? I guess while I'm here, I should ask for advice on the best way to handle this project. I'm building an app that generates links based on file names (files are numbered ints, 0-5000). The files are stored on network shares, arranged by name, and the paths change frequently as files are bulk transfered to create space, etc. Example: Files 1000 - 2000 go to /path/1000s Files 2001 - 3000 go to /path/2000s Files 3001 - 4000 go to /path/3000s etc I'm sure by now you can see where I'm going with this. Ultimately, I'm trying to avoid making a roundtrip to get the paths for every single file as they are displayed in a gridview. I'm open to the notion that I've gone about this all wrong and that my idea might be rubbish. I've toyed around with the notion of just creating a flat file, but if I do that, do I still run into the problem of having that file opened and closed for every file displayed in a gridview?

    Read the article

  • Re-usable Obj-C classes with custom values: The right way

    - by Prairiedogg
    I'm trying to reuse a group of Obj-C clases between iPhone applications. The values that differ from app to app have been isolated and I'm trying to figure out the best way to apply these custom values to the classes on an app-to-app basis. Should I hold them in code? // I might have 10 customizable values for each class, that's a long signature! CarController *controller = [[CarController alloc] initWithFontName:@"Vroom" engine:@"Diesel" color:@"Red" number:11]; Should I store them in a big settings.plist? // Wasteful! I sometimes only use 2-3 of 50 settings! AllMyAppSettings *settings = [[AllMyAppSettings alloc] initFromDisk:@"settings.plist"]; MyCustomController *controller = [[MyCustomController alloc] initWithSettings:settings]; [settings release]; Should I have little, optional n_settings.plists for each class? // Sometimes I customize CarControllerSettings *carSettings = [[CarControllerSettings alloc] initFromDisk:@"car_settings.plist"]; CarController *controller = [[CarController alloc] initWithSettings:carSettings]; [carSettings release]; // Sometimes I don't, and CarController falls back to internally stored, reasonable defaults. CarController *controller = [[CarController alloc] initWithSettings:nil]; Or is there an OO solution that I'm not thinking of at all that would be better?

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails login using legacy user database

    - by ricsmania
    Hello, I have a Rails application that connects to a legacy database (Oracle) and displays some information from a particular user. Right now the user is passed as a URL parameter, but this has obvious security issues because users should only be able to see their own data. To solve that, I want to implement a user login, and I did some research and came across 2 components for that, restful_authentication and authlogic. The problem is that I need to use an existing user/password database instead of creating a new one, which is the common way to use those components. The password is encrypted by a custom Oracle package, but let's assume it is stored as plain text to make things simpler. I only need very basic functionality, which is login a user and keep them logged in forever until logout. No changes to the database will be made by this application, so there's no need for sign up, e-mail activation, reset password, etc. Can someone point me in the right direction on how to do that? Is any of those 2 components a good solution? If not, what would be recommended? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Cast base class object to derived class

    - by Popgalop
    Lets say I have two classes, animal and dog like this. class Animal { }; class Dog : public Animal { }; And I have an animal object named animal, that is actually an instance of dog, how would I cast it back to dog? This may seem like an odd question, but I need it because I am writing a programming language interpreter, and on the stack everything is stored as a BaseObject, and all the other datatypes extend BaseObject. How would I cast the base object from the stack, to a specific data type? I have tried something like this Dog dog = static_cast<Dog>(animal); But it gives me an error 1>------ Build started: Project: StackTests, Configuration: Debug Win32 ------ 1> StackTests.cpp 1>c:\users\owner\documents\visual studio 2012\projects\stacktests\stacktests\stacktests.cpp(173): error C2440: 'static_cast' : cannot convert from 'Animal' to 'Dog' 1> No constructor could take the source type, or constructor overload resolution was ambiguous 1>c:\users\owner\documents\visual studio 2012\projects\stacktests\stacktests\stacktests.cpp(173): error C2512: 'Dog' : no appropriate default constructor available ========== Build: 0 succeeded, 1 failed, 0 up-to-date, 0 skipped ==========

    Read the article

  • jquery how to access the an xml node by index?

    - by DS
    Hi, say I've an xml returned from server like this: <persons> <person> <firstname>Jon</firstname> </person> <person> <firstname>Jack</firstname> </person> <person> <firstname>James</firstname> </person> </persons> If I want to access the 3rd firstname node (passed dynamically and stored in i, assumed to be 3 here), how do I do that? My weird attempt follows: var i=3; $(xml).find('firstname').each(function(idx){ if (idx==i) alert($(this).text()); }); It does fetch me the right content... but it just feels wrong to me especially the looping part. Basically I'm looping through the whole tree using .each()! Is there any better approach than this? Something that'd take me to the nth node directly like: alert( $(xml).find('firstname')[idx].text() ); // where idx=n I'm new to jquery so please excuse my jquery coding approach.

    Read the article

  • Codeigniter Inputting session data from model for a simple authentication system

    - by user1616244
    Trying to put together a simple login authentication. Been at this for quite sometime, and I can't find where I'm going wrong. Pretty new to Codeigniter and OOP PHP. I know there are authentication libraries out there, but I'm not interested in using those. Model: function login($username, $password){ if ($this->db->table_exists($username)){ $this->db->where('username', $username); $this->db->where('password', $password); $query = $this->db->get($username); if($query->num_rows >= 1) { return true; $data = array( 'username' => $this->input->post('username'), 'login' => true ); $this->session->set_userdata($data); } } } Controller function __construct(){ parent::__construct(); $this->logincheck(); } public function logincheck(){ if ($this->session->userdata('login')){ redirect('/members'); } } If I just echo from the controller: $this-session-all_userdata(); I get an empty array. So the problem seems to be that the $data array in the model isn't being stored in the session.

    Read the article

  • Do I lose the benefits of macro recording if I develop Excel apps in Visual Studio?

    - by DanM
    I've written lots of Excel macros in the past using the following development process: Record a macro. Open the VBA editor. Edit the macro. I'm now experimenting with a Visual Studio 2008 "Excel 2007 Add-In" project (C#), and I'm wondering if I will have to give up this development process. Questions: I know I can still record macros using Excel, but is there any way to access the resulting code in Visual Studio? Or do I just have to copy and paste then C#-ize it? What happens with my "Personal Macro Workbook"? Can I use the macros I have stored in there within C#? Or is there some way to convert them to C#? If there is some support for opening and editing VBA macros in Visual Studio, can you provide a very brief summary of how it works or point me to a good reference? Do you have any other tips for transitioning from writing macros in VBA using Excel's built-in editor to writing them in C# with Visual Studio?

    Read the article

  • Looping through NSArray while subtracting values from each object? [on hold]

    - by Julian
    I have NSNumber objects stored in an NSMutableArray. I am attempting to perform a calculation on each object in the array. What I want to do is: 1) Take a random higher number variable and keep subtracting a smaller number variable in increments until the value of the variable is equal to the value in the array. For example: NSMutableArray object is equal to 2.50. I have an outside variable of 25 that is not in the array. I want to subtract 0.25 multiple times from the variable until I reach less than or equal to 2.50. I also need a parameter so if the number does not divide evenly and goes below the array value, it resorts to the original array value of 2.50. Lastly, for each iteration, I want to print the values as they are counting down as a string. I was going to provide code, but I don't want to make this more confusing than it has to be. So my output would be: VALUE IS: 24.75 VALUE IS: 24.50 VALUE IS: 24.25 … VALUE IS: 2.50 END

    Read the article

  • How to access web.config connection string in C#?

    - by salvationishere
    I have a 32-bit XP running VS 2008 and I am trying to decrypt my connection string from my web.config file in my C# ASPX file. Even though there are no errors returned, my current connection string doesn't display contents of my selected AdventureWorks stored procedure. I entered it: C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\VC>Aspnet_regiis.exe -pe "connectionStrings" -app "/AddFileToSQL2" Then it said "Succeeded". And my web.config section looks like: <connectionStrings> <add name="Master" connectionString="server=MSSQLSERVER;database=Master; Integrated Security=SSPI" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> <add name="AdventureWorksConnectionString" connectionString="Data Source=SIDEKICK;Initial Catalog=AdventureWorks;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> <add name="AdventureWorksConnectionString2" connectionString="Data Source=SIDEKICK;Initial Catalog=AdventureWorks;Persist Security Info=true; " providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> And my C# code behind looks like: string connString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["AdventureWorksConnectionString2"].ConnectionString; Is there something wrong with the connection string in the web.config or C# code behind file?

    Read the article

  • Performance of inter-database query (between linked servers)

    - by Swoosh
    I have an import between 2 linked servers. I basically got to get the data from a multiple join into a table on my side. The current query is something like this: select a.* from db1.dbo.tbl1 a inner join db1.dbo.tbl2 on ... inner join db1.dbo.tbl3 on ... inner join db1.dbo.tbl4 on ... inner join db2.dbo.myside on ... db1 = linked server db2 = my own database After this one, I am using an insert into + select to add this data in my table which is located in db2. (usually few hundred records - this import running once a minute) My question is related to performance. The tables on the linked server (tbl1, tbl2, tbl3, tbl4) are huge tables, with millions of records, and it is slowing down the import process. I was told that, if I do the join on the "other" side (db1 - linked server) for example in a stored procedure, than, even if the query looks the same, it would run faster. Is that right? This is kinda hard to test. Note that the join contains a table from my database too. Also. are there other "tricks" I could use in order to make this run faster? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Find telephonenumbers - finding number with and without an phone extension

    - by nWorx
    Hello there I've a table with about 130 000 records with telephonenumbers. The numbers are all formated like this +4311234567. The numbers always include international country code, local area code and then the phonenumber and sometimes an extension. There is a webservice which checks for the caller's number in the table. That service works already. But now the client wants that also if someone calls from a company which number is already in the database but not his extension, that the service will return some result. Example for table. **id** | **telephonenumber** | **name** | 1 | +431234567 | company A | 2 | +431234567890 | employee in company A | 3 | +4398765432 | company b now if somebody from company A calls with a different extension for example +43123456777, than it should return id1. But the problem is, that I don't know how many digits the extensions have. It could have 3,4 or more digits. Are there any patterns for string kind of matchings? The data is stored in a sql2005 database. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Create Dynamically table at runtime & save it in database

    - by user1548245
    I have written a code for creating table. It displays table structure on GUI form, but what I want is, when I enter values into table it should be stored in database table too. My code: <?php function display($column,$rows) { echo "<table border='1' align='center'>"; for ($iii = 0;$iii <$_POST['column'];$iii++) { echo "<tr>".$jjj."</tr>"; //display no. of <tr> for ($jjj = 0; $jjj <$_POST['rows'];$jjj++) { echo "<td>" ."<input type=\"text\" name='$iii'>"."</td>"; } } echo "</table>"; } ?>

    Read the article

  • Getting setting cookies on different domains, with javascript or other

    - by Luca Matteis
    Haven't been able to find anything particular to this situation online so here i go... I need to set/get the cookies stored at "first.com" while browsing "second.com", I have full access of "first.com" but i only have javascript access (can manipulate the DOM as i want) on "second.com". My first approach was to create an iframe on second.com (with js) that loaded a page like "first.com/doAjax?setCookie=xxx" and that did an ajax call to say "first.com/setCookie?cookieData=xxx" which would set the cookie on "first.com" with the data we passed around. That pretty much worked fine for setting the cookie on first.com from second.com - for getting a cookie I basically followed the same procedure, created the iframe that loaded "first.com/doAjax?getCookie" and that would do an ajax call to say "first.com/getCookie" which would read the cookie info on first.com and return it as a JSON object. The problem is that I'm unable to bring that JSON cookie object back to "second.com" so I can read it, well maybe i could just bring it when the Ajax call is complete using "window.top" but there's timing issues because its not relative to when the iframe has been loaded. I hope i am clear and was wondering if there's an easier solution rather than this crazy iframe-ajax crap, also seems like this wont even work for getting cookies in SAFARI.

    Read the article

  • Copy a LinkedList that has a Random Pointer in it

    - by Bragaadeesh
    Hi, First of all this is not a homework, this is an interview question that I got from a company I attended today. You have a singly linked list with the Node structure as the following class Node{ int data; Node next; Node random; } You have a typical singly linked list of length n. The random pointer in each node in the linkedlist randomly points to some Node within the linked list. The Question is to create a copy of the linked list efficiently into a different LinkedList. I said that I will first calculate the Random pointer's position in the linked list and store it in an array. Then create a new linked list normally. Then iterate through the linked list by setting the random pointer where they belong by reading the values stored from the array. I know its a very brute force technique and the interviewer asked me to come up with a better solution but I couldnt. Please can someone answer this? I can explain if the question is not clear.

    Read the article

  • Does this query fetch unnecessary information? Should I change the query?

    - by Camran
    I have this classifieds website, and I have about 7 tables in MySql where all data is stored. I have one main table, called "classifieds". In the classifieds table, there is a column called classified_id. This is not the PK, or a key whatsoever. It is just a number which is used for me to JOIN table records together. Ex: classifieds table: fordon table: id => 33 id => 12 classified_id => 10 classified_id => 10 ad_id => 'bmw_m3_92923' This above is linked together by the classified_id column. Now to the Q, I use this method to fetch all records WHERE the column ad_id matches any of the values inside an array, called in this case $ad_arr: SELECT mt.*, fordon.*, boende.*, elektronik.*, business.*, hem_inredning.*, hobby.* FROM classified mt LEFT JOIN fordon ON fordon.classified_id = mt.classified_id LEFT JOIN boende ON boende.classified_id = mt.classified_id LEFT JOIN elektronik ON elektronik.classified_id = mt.classified_id LEFT JOIN business ON business.classified_id = mt.classified_id LEFT JOIN hem_inredning ON hem_inredning.classified_id = mt.classified_id LEFT JOIN hobby ON hobby.classified_id = mt.classified_id WHERE mt.ad_id IN ('$ad_arr')"; Is this good or would this actually fetch unnecessary information? Check out this Q I posted couple of days ago. In the comments HLGEM is commenting that it is wrong etc etc. What do you think? http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2782275/another-rookie-question-how-to-implement-count-here Thanks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364  | Next Page >