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• Problems with GData Request Token

  - by Dan Delgado

  We have successfully used GData libraries to access a user's Google Docs. But we encountered problems when many users log in to our site and authorize our web app at the same time or successively. Here's what happens: First user successful logs in, authorizes our web app via OAuth and is able to add rubric (or google spreadsheet). Second user, immediately after first user adds a rubric, successfully logs in then webapp fails on authorize (Token not given. I tried to log it.) Third user fails on login. Fourth user was able to log in, authorize via OAuth, and create rubrics successfully. Fifth user was able to log in but like the second user, gets an invalid token on authorize (Token not given.) And the list goes on. Results were unpredicatable. Below is an excerpt of the stack trace we get when the fail scenario happens: Nested in org.springframework.web.util.NestedServletException: Request processing failed; nested exception is java.lang.NullPointerException: java.lang.NullPointerException at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthUtil.normalizeParameters(OAuthUtil.java:158) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthUtil.getSignatureBaseString(OAuthUtil.java:81) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthHelper.addCommonRequestParameters(OAuthHelper.java:649) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthHelper.getOAuthUrl(OAuthHelper.java:592) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthHelper.getUnauthorizedRequestToken(OAuthHelper.java:276) at com.projectrix.controller.OAuthController.authorize(OAuthController.java:59) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:40) Help!

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• GWT serialization issue

  - by Eddy

  I am having a heck of a time returning an ArrayList of objects that implement IsSerializable via RPC. The IsSerializable pojo contains one variable, a String, and has a 0 parameter constructor. I have removed the .gwt.rpc file from my war and still I get: com.google.gwt.user.client.rpc.SerializationException: Type 'com.test.myApp.client.model.Test' was not included in the set of types which can be serialized by this SerializationPolicy or its Class object could not be loaded. For security purposes, this type will not be serialized.: instance = com.test.myApp.client.model.Test@17a9692 at com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.impl.ServerSerializationStreamWriter.serialize(ServerSerializationStreamWriter.java:610) I am using GWT 2.0.2 with jdk 1.6.0_18. Any ideas on what might be going on or what I am doing wrong? Here is the code for the Test class and the remote method is returning ArrayList. I even modified the code for it to just return one instance of Test with the same result: the exception above. package com.test.myApp.client.model; import com.google.gwt.user.client.rpc.IsSerializable; public class Test implements IsSerializable{ private String s; public Test() {} public Test(String s) { this.s = s; } public String getS() { return s; } public void setS(String s) { this.s = s; } } Greatly appreciate the help! Eddy

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• Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

  - by Russ

  [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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• Problem mapping HttpHandler --> HTTP Error 404 Not Found

  - by JohnIdol

  I am having problems trying to map an HttpHandler in the web.config. This is the relevant config bit: <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*.hndlr" type="MyAssembly.MyHandler, MyAssembly" validate="false" /> </httpHandlers> When I navigate to http://localhost/myApp/whatever.hndlr I am getting a server error 404 (not found). It's the 1st time I am hooking up an HttpHandler so I might be missing something - any help appreciated! UPDATE: I managed to get it working using both answers so far - who's able to exaplin why it works gets the answer marked! This is my config (won't work if Don't have both - I am running IIS7 in classic mode) System.web: <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*MyHandler.hndlr" type="MyAssembly.MyAssemblyHandler, MyAssembly" validate="false"/> </httpHandlers> System.webserver: <handlers> <add name="MyHandler" verb="*" path="*MyHandler.hndlr" type="MyAssembly.MyAssemblyHandler, MyAssembly" validate="false"/> </handlers>

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• Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

  - by Russ

  [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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• Creating an Admin directory in Rails

  - by matsko

  I've been developing the CMS backend for a website for a few weeks now. The idea is to craft everything in the backend first so that it can manage the database and information that will be displayed on the main website. As of now, I currently have all my code setup in the normal rails MVC structure. So the users admin is /users and videos is /videos. My plans are to take the code for this and move it to a /admin directory. So the two controllers above would need to be accessed by /admin/users and /admin/videos. I'm not sure how todo the ruote (adding the /admin as a prefix) nor am I sure about how to manage the logic. What I'm thinking of doing is setting up an additional 'middle' controller that somehow gets nested between the ApplicationControler and the targetted controller when the /admin directory is accessed. This way, any additional flags and overloaded methods can be spawned for the /admin section only (I believe I could use a filter too for this). If that were to work, then the next issue would be separating the views logic (but that would just be renaming folders and so on). Either I do it that way or I have two rails instances that share the MVC code between them (and I guess the database too), but I fear that would cause lots of duplication errors. Any ideas as to how I should go about doing this? Many thanks!

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• mysql prevent displaying a row ONE which has reference in another row TWO but no reference in row THREE

  - by Jayapal Chandran

  I have a table like the following id | name | pid 1 | sam | NULL 2 | sams ref | 1 3 | pam | NULL For the first time the first row gets inserted which will have pid as null I insert a row which is related to the first row and then i insert a row which is new and which may be referred by another row in future. now i want only the third row to be displayed and not the first and second row as the second row contains the reference of first row. so if any row has a reference to another row then both the rows should not be displayed. Only rows which is not having any reference should be displayed. BESIDES, IS IT A GOOD PRACTICE? PLEASE ADVICE ON THIS. Edited When i updated in server the query is always giving empty result. here is what i have and this one When pid is NULL then that row should appear but when another entry in the same table with pid as its parent id or any other rows id appears then both the rows should not appear. so if any pid has been referred then both the rows should not appear. here only one row will refer another row and not more than that. in my localhost i have mysql version 5.0.1 or something like that but when i installed xampp in another system it had 5.5 and in the live server it was 5.3 so in version around 5.0 the query is returning rows but in higher versions it is returning empty rows. so now i this case how to make a query?

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• Android - Dealing with a Dialog on Screen Orientation change

  - by Donal Rafferty

  I am overriding the onCreateDialog and onPrepareDialog methods or the Dialog class. I have followed the example from Reto Meier's Professional Android Application Development book, Chapter 5 to pull some XML data and then use a dialog to display the info. I have basically followed it exactly but changed the variables to suit my own XML schema as follows: @Override public Dialog onCreateDialog(int id) { switch(id) { case (SETTINGS_DIALOG) : LayoutInflater li = LayoutInflater.from(this); View settingsDetailsView = li.inflate(R.layout.details, null); AlertDialog.Builder settingsDialog = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); settingsDialog.setTitle("Provisioned Settings"); settingsDialog.setView(settingsDetailsView); return settingsDialog.create(); } return null; } @Override public void onPrepareDialog(int id, Dialog dialog) { switch(id) { case (SETTINGS_DIALOG) : String afpunText = " "; if(setting.getAddForPublicUserNames() == 1){ afpunText = "Yes"; } else{ afpunText = "No"; } String Text = "Login Settings: " + "\n" + "Password: " + setting.getPassword() + "\n" + "Server: " + setting.getServerAddress() + "\n"; AlertDialog settingsDialog = (AlertDialog)dialog; settingsDialog.setTitle(setting.getUserName()); tv = (TextView)settingsDialog.findViewById(R.id.detailsTextView); if (tv != null) tv.setText(Text); break; } } It works fine until I try changing the screen orientation, When I do this onPrepareDialog gets call but I get null pointer exceptions on all my variables. The error still occurs even when I tell my activity to ignore screen orientation in the manifest. So I presume something has been left out of the example in the book do I need to override another method to save my variables in or something?

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• Display a input type=file over another input type=file

  - by Kevin Sedgley

  WARNING: Lengthy description coming up! I have written an uploader based upon APC progress uploader for PHP. This works fine and dandy, but the script as a whole (apc etc) is intended to be used only for those with Javascript. To achieve this, I have searched for any input type=file, and replaced these with an absolutely positioned form that appears over the original area where the old file input area was. The reasons for this are so the new uploader can submit to a hidden in page IFrame has to be in a seperate <form> in order to submit to the APC reciever to display the progress upload bar. allows it to be used within any form with an input type=file throughout the site I have used JQuery to do this, with the following code: Original HTML form code: <div><input type="file" name="media" id="media" /></div> Find position of div block code: // get the parent div, and properties thereof parentDiv = $(this).closest('div'); w = $(parentDiv).width(); h = $(parentDiv).height(); loc = $(parentDiv).offset(); Locate new block over old block: $('#_sender').appendTo('body').css({left:loc.left,top:loc.top,position:'absolute',zIndex:400,height:h,width:w}).show(); This works fine, and shows over the old block OK. The problem: When other elements in the DOM before or above it change (in this case a "tree view" selector is pushing the old block down) the new upload form gets moved over other elements. Is there a JQuery (or JS) method for changing this upon DOM change? Some kind of .onchange for the page?! Or an .onmove for the original block? Thanks in advance you lovely people Before DOM change: . After: .

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• Jquery ajaxStart doesnt get triggered

  - by gnomixa

  This code $("#loading").ajaxStart(function() { alert("start"); $(this).show(); }); in my mark-up <div style="text-align:center;"><img id="loading" src="../images/common/loading.gif" alt="" /></div> Here is the full ajax request: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://localhost/WebServices/Service.asmx/GetResults", data: jsonText, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(response) { var results = (typeof response.d) == 'string' ? eval('(' + response.d + ')') : response.d; PopulateTree(results); }, error: function(xhr, status, error) { var msg = JSON.parse(xhr.responseText); alert(msg.Message); } }); $("#loading").ajaxStart(function() { alert("start"); $(this).show(); }); $("#loading").ajaxStop(function() { alert("stop"); $(this).hide(); $("#st-tree-container").show(); }); never fires alert "start" even though the gif is shown to rotate. AjaxStop gets triggered as expected. Any ideas why?

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• Squid handling of concurrent cache misses

  - by Oliver H-H

  We're using a Squid cache to off-load traffic from our web servers, ie. it's setup as a reverse-proxy responding to inbound requests before they hit our web servers. When we get blitzed with concurrent requests for the same request that's not in the cache, Squid proxies all the requests through to our web ("origin") servers. For us, this behavior isn't ideal: our origin servers gets bogged down trying to fulfill N identical requests concurrently. Instead, we'd like the first request to proxy through to the origin server, the rest of the requests to queue at the Squid layer, and then all be fulfilled by Squid when the origin server has responded to that first request. Does anyone know how to configure Squid to do this? We've read through the documentation multiple times and thoroughly web-searched the topic, but can't figure out how to do it. We use Akamai too and, interestingly, this is its default behavior. (However, Akamai has so many nodes that we still see lots of concurrent requests in certain traffic spike scenarios, even with Akamai's super-node feature enabled.) This behavior is clearly configurable for some other caches, eg. the Ehcache documentation offers the option "Concurrent Cache Misses: A cache miss will cause the filter chain, upstream of the caching filter to be processed. To avoid threads requesting the same key to do useless duplicate work, these threads block behind the first thread." Some folks call this behavior a "blocking cache," since the subsequent concurrent requests block behind the first request until it's fulfilled or timed-out. Thx for looking over my noob question! Oliver

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• Json HTTP Module stream issue

  - by Justin

  Hey, I have an HTTP Module that I use to clean up the JSON returned by my web service (see http://www.codeproject.com/KB/webservices/ASPNET_JSONP.aspx?msg=3400287#xx3400287xx for an example of this.) Basically it relates to calling cross-domain JSON web services from javascript. There is this JsonHttpModule which uses a JsonResponseFilter Stream class to write out the JSON and the overloaded Write method is supposed to wrap the name of the callback function around the JSON, otherwise the JSON errors out as needing a label. However, if the JSON is really long, the Write method in the Stream class is called multiple times, causing the callback function to incorrectly get inserted midway through the JSON. Is there a way in the Stream class to wrap the callback function around the stream at the end or to specify that it write all of the JSON in 1 Write method instead of in chunks?? Here's where it calls the JsonResponseFilter in the JsonHttpModule: public void OnReleaseRequestState(object sender, EventArgs e) { HttpApplication app = (HttpApplication)sender; if (!_Apply(app.Context.Request)) return; // apply response filter to conform to JSONP app.Context.Response.Filter = new JsonResponseFilter(app.Context.Response.Filter, app.Context); } Here's the Write method in the JsonResponseFilter Stream class that gets called multiple times: public override void Write(byte[] buffer, int offset, int count) { var b1 = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(_context.Request.Params["callback"] + "("); _responseStream.Write(b1, 0, b1.Length); _responseStream.Write(buffer, offset, count); var b2 = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(");"); _responseStream.Write(b2, 0, b2.Length); } Thanks for any help! Justin

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• GridView: How can I get rid of extra space from my GirdView object?

  - by Lajos Arpad

  Hello, I'm writing an application for Android phones for Human vs. Human chess play over the internet. I was looking at some tutorials, to learn how to develop Android applications and found a very nice example of making galleries (it was a GridView usage example for making a gallery about dogs) and the idea came to draw the chess table using a GridView, because the example project also handled the point & click event and I intended to use the same event in the same way, but for a different purpose. The game works well (currently it's a hotseat version), however, I'm really frustrated by the fact that whenever I rotate the screen of the phone, my GridView gets hysterical and puts some empty space in my chess table between the columns. I realized that the cause of this is that the GridView's width is the same as its parent's and the GridView tries to fill its parent in with, but there should (and probably is) be a simple solution to get rid of this problem. However, after a full day of researching, I haven't found any clue to help me to make a perfect drawing about my chess table without a negative side effect in functionality. The chess table looks fine if the phone is in Portrait mode, but in Landscape mode it's far from nice. This is how I can decide whether we are in Portrait or Landscape mode: ((((MainActivity)mContext).getWindow().getWindowManager().getDefaultDisplay().getWidth()) < ((MainActivity)mContext).getWindow().getWindowManager().getDefaultDisplay().getHeight()) In the main.xml file the GridView is defined in the following way: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" > <GridView xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/gridview" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:numColumns="8" android:verticalSpacing="0dp" android:horizontalSpacing="0dp" android:stretchMode="columnWidth" android:gravity="center" > </GridView> ... </LinearLayout> I appreciate any help with the problem and thank you for reading this.

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• PocketPC c++ windows message processing recursion problem

  - by user197350

  Hello, I am having a problem in a large scale application that seems related to windows messaging on the Pocket PC. What I have is a PocketPC application written in c++. It has only one standard message loop. while (GetMessage (&msg, NULL, 0, 0)) { { TranslateMessage (&msg); DispatchMessage (&msg); } } We also have standard dlgProc's. In the switch of the dlgProc, we will call a proprietary 3rd party API. This API uses a socket connection to communicate with another process. The problem I am seeing is this: whenever two of the same messages come in quickly (from the user clicking the screen twice too fast and shouldn't be) it seems as though recursion is created. Windows begins processing the first message, gets the api into a thread safe state, and then jumps to process the next (identical ui) message. Well since the second message also makes the API call, the call fails because it is locked. Because of the design of this legacy system, the API will be locked until the recursion comes back out (which also is triggered by the user; so it could be locked the entire working day). I am struggling to figure out exactly why this is happening and what I can do about it. Is this because windows recognizes the socket communication will take time and preempts it? Is there a way I can force this API call to complete before preemption? Is there a way I can slow down the message processing or re-queue the message to ensure the first will execute (capturing it and doing a PostMessage back to itself didnt work). We don't want to lock the ui down while the first call completes. Any insight is greatly appreciated! Thanks!!

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• MySql Query lag time / deadlock?

  - by Click Upvote

  When there are multiple PHP scripts running in parallel, each making an UPDATE query to the same record in the same table repeatedly, is it possible for there to be a 'lag time' before the table is updated with each query? I have basically 5-6 instances of a PHP script running in parallel, having been launched via cron. Each script gets all the records in the items table, and then loops through them and processes them. However, to avoid processing the same item more than once, I store the id of the last item being processed in a seperate table. So this is how my code works: function getCurrentItem() { $sql = "SELECT currentItemId from settings"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); return $result->get('currentItemId'); } function setCurrentItem($id) { $sql = "UPDATE settings SET currentItemId='$id'"; $this->db->query($sql); } $currentItem = $this->getCurrentItem(); $sql = "SELECT * FROM items WHERE status='pending' AND id > $currentItem'"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); $items = $result->getAll(); foreach ($items as $i) { //Check if $i has been processed by a different instance of the script, and if so, //leave it untouched. if ($this->getCurrentItem() > $i->id) continue; $this->setCurrentItem($i->id); // Process the item here } But despite of all the precautions, most items are being processed more than once. Which makes me think that there is some lag time between the update queries being run by the PHP script, and when the database actually updates the record. Is it true? And if so, what other mechanism should I use to ensure that the PHP scripts always get only the latest currentItemId even when there are multiple scripts running in parrallel? Would using a text file instead of the db help?

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• JQuery printfunction: no content, no view

  - by Joris

  I got a JQuery printfunction: function doPrintPage() { myWindow = window.open('', '', 'titlebar=yes,menubar=yes,status=yes,scrollbars=yes,width=800,height=600'); myWindow.document.open(); myWindow.document.write(document.getElementById("studentnummer").value); myWindow.document.write(document.getElementById("Voornaam").value + " " + document.getElementById("Tussenvoegsel").value + " " + document.getElementById("Achternaam").value); myWindow.document.write("</br>"); myWindow.document.write("Result"); myWindow.document.write(document.getElementById('tab1').innerHTML); myWindow.document.write("</br>"); myWindow.document.write("Tree"); myWindow.document.write(document.getElementById('tab2').innerHTML); myWindow.document.write("</br>"); myWindow.document.write("Open"); myWindow.document.write(document.getElementById('tab3').innerHTML); myWindow.document.write("</br>"); myWindow.document.write("Free"); myWindow.document.write(document.getElementById('tab4').innerHTML); myWindow.document.close(); myWindow.focus(); } There are 3 gridviews (elements in "tab#"), and on the page that is generated by this script, eacht gridview gets a header (Results, Tree, Open, Free). It is possible that there is no gridview for "Tree". It would be nice if the "tree" header wouldn't be shown either. EDIT: I tried this: if ($('tab4')[0]) {myWindow.document.write("Free"); myWindow.document.write(document.getElementById('tab4').innerHTML); but it seems not to work either... Anyone knows the solution?

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• MySql scoping problem with correlated subqueries

  - by Rolf

  Hi, I'm having this Mysql query, It works: SELECT nom ,prenom ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(category_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT category_en FROM categories c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT category_id FROM m3allems_to_categories m2c WHERE m3allem_id = 37) ) cS ) categories ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(area_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT area_en FROM areas c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT area_id FROM m3allems_to_areas m2a WHERE m3allem_id = 37) ) aSq ) areas FROM m3allems m WHERE m.id = 37 The result is: nom prenom categories areas Man Multi Carpentry,Paint,Walls Beirut,Baalbak,Saida It works correclty, but only when i hardcode into the query the id that I want (37). I want it to work for all entries in the m3allem table, so I try this: SELECT nom ,prenom ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(category_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT category_en FROM categories c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT category_id FROM m3allems_to_categories m2c WHERE m3allem_id = m.id) ) cS ) categories ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(area_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT area_en FROM areas c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT area_id FROM m3allems_to_areas m2a WHERE m3allem_id = m.id) ) aSq ) areas FROM m3allems m And I get an error: Unknown column 'm.id' in 'where clause' Why? From the MySql manual: 13.2.8.7. Correlated Subqueries [...] Scoping rule: MySQL evaluates from inside to outside. So... do this not work when the subquery is in a SELECT section? I did not read anything about that. Does anyone know? What should I do? It took me a long time to build this query... I know it's a monster query but it gets what I want in a single query, and I am so close to getting it to work! Can anyone help?

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• iphone localization

  - by hardik

  hello all when i run the command to generate Localizable.string file from my terminal it says me bad entry in to the classes file the file gets generated but it has no entry in it infact it should have entry in it. Here is what i am running in my terminal but somehow it is not happening please guide me need to solve this Last login: Mon Jun 7 18:02:09 on ttys000 comp10:~ admin$ cd .. comp10:Users admin$ cd .. comp10:/ admin$ cd /Users/admin/Desktop/localisationwithcode comp10:localisationwithcode admin$ sudo usage: sudo -K | -L | -V | -h | -k | -l | -v usage: sudo [-HPSb] [-p prompt] [-u username|#uid] { -e file [...] | -i | -s | <command> } comp10:localisationwithcode admin$ genstrings Classes/*.m Bad entry in file Classes/localisationwithcodeViewController.m (line = 35): Argument is not a literal string. Bad entry in file Classes/localisationwithcodeViewController.m (line = 36): Argument is not a literal string. Bad entry in file Classes/localisationwithcodeViewController.m (line = 37): Argument is not a literal string. Bad entry in file Classes/localisationwithcodeViewController.m (line = 38): Argument is not a literal string. 2010-06-07 18:04:45.047 genstrings[3851:10b] _CFGetHostUUIDString: unable to determine UUID for host. Error: 35 comp10:localisationwithcode admin$

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• How to get a UIScrollView embedded within a UITableCellView to scroll?

  - by Zan

  I have a scroll view containing several images embedded within a custom cell view, it sometimes scrolls horizontally if I keep holding the cell for a while. I tried a lot of things and it doesn't seem to work, please help? Here's part of the CustomCell : UITableViewCell code: -(void) layoutSubviews { CGRect scrollViewFrame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 200); self.scrollView.frame = scrollViewFrame; self.scrollView.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; self.scrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake((320*3), 200); self.scrollView.scrollEnabled = YES; self.scrollView.clipsToBounds = YES; self.scrollView.pagingEnabled = YES; self.scrollView.showsHorizontalScrollIndicator = NO; self.scrollView.showsVerticalScrollIndicator = NO; self.scrollView.scrollsToTop = NO; self.scrollView.delegate = self; self.scrollView.userInteractionEnabled = YES; // add 3 images to subview here pageControl.backgroundColor = [UIColor colorWithRed:0 green:0 blue:0 alpha:0.7]; pageControl.frame = CGRectMake(0, 170, 320, 30); pageControl.numberOfPages = 8;} I tested the code on a UIViewController and it works just fine, I'm guessing that this is caused by cell selection and I tried returning nil when the cell gets selected and that didn't work. I also tried passing touches to the scrollview and that didn't work either, please help?

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• Core Data - How to check if a managed object's properties have been deallocated?

  - by georryan

  I've created a program that uses core data and it works beautifully. I've since attempted to move all my core data methods calls and fetch routines into a class that is self contained. My main program then instantiates that class and makes some basic method calls into that class, and the class then does all the core data stuff behind the scenes. What I'm running into, is that sometimes I'll find that when I grab a managed object from the context, I'll have a valid object, but its properties have been deallocated, and I'll cause a crash. I've played with the zombies and looked for memory leaks, and what I have gathered is it seems that the run loop is probably responsible for deallocating the memory, but I'm not sure. Is there a way to determine if that memory has been deallocated and force the core data to get it back if I need to access it? My managedObjectContext never gets deallocated, and the fetchedResultsController never does, either. I thought maybe I needed to use the [managedObjectContext refreshObject:mergeData:] method, or the [managedObjectContext setRetainsRegisteredObjects:] method. Although, I'm under the impression that last one may not be the best bet since it will be more memory intensive (from what I understand). These errors only popped up when I moved the core data calls into another class file, and they are random when they show up. Any insight would be appreciated. -Ryan

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• Multhreading in Java

  - by Vijay Selvaraj

  I'm working with core java and IBM Websphere MQ 6.0. We have a standalone module say DBcomponent that hits the database and fetches a resultset based on the runtime query. The query is passed to the application via MQ messaging medium. We have a trigger configured for the queue which invokes the DBComponent whenever a message is available in the queue. The DBComponent consumes the message, constructs the query and returns the resultset to another queue. In this overall process we use log4j to log statements on a log file for auditing. The connection is pooled to the database using Apache pool. I am trying to check whether the log messages are logged correctly using a sample program. The program places the input message to the queue and checks for the logs in the log file. Its expected for the trigger method invocation to complete before i try to check for the message in log file, but every time my program to check for log message gets executed first leading my check to failure. Even if i introduce a Thread.sleep(time) doesn't solves the case. How can i make it to keep my method execution waiting until the trigger operation completes? Any suggestion will be helpful.

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• How to properly logout of facebook

  - by Gublooo

  hey guys This is a repeated question and I have followed both the suggestions provided in these links: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1386557/how-to-log-out-users-using-facebook-connect-in-php-and-zend/1386749#1386749 http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1546277/trouble-logging-out-of-a-facebook-connect-site-and-destroying-sessions The issue is - the code works 90% of the time. Thats the weird part. Out of the 100 times I've logged in and out - I've experienced this problem 5-6 times and 2 of my beta test users have reported the same issue. So when it works- if u click the logout link - u get the facebook popup saying - you being logged out - when it does'nt work - absolutely nothing happens - the page does not refresh - it just sits on that page doing nothing. This is the javascript code that gets called on clicking logout function logout() { FB.Connect.get_status().waitUntilReady(function(status) { switch(status) { case FB.ConnectState.connected: FB.Connect.logoutAndRedirect("http://www.example.com/login/logout"); break; case FB.ConnectState.userNotLoggedIn: window.location = "http://www.example.com/login/logout"; break; } }); return false; } This is the php code: $this-_auth-clearIdentity(); $face = Zend_Registry::get('facebook'); $fb = new Facebook($face['appapikey'], $face['appsecret']); //$fb-clear_cookie_state(); $fb-expire_session(); Anyone experienced such sporadic issues. Thanks

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• file upload working in one and not the other help

  - by rod

  Hi All, I have a web application which has 2 different versions deployed. 1 is a ASP.Net web forms version and the other is an ASP.Net MVC version I have a File Upload page which dynamically creates a directory folder for the target location of the file to be uploaded to. The application is using Forms Authentication for outside users and Integrated Windows Authentication for inside the network users. I have an issue where a user can upload a file in the ASP.Net Web Forms version fine. But when the same user tries to upload the file in the MVC version the user gets a File.IO permission error. Here's a kicker: I can upload the same file in both versions. The user is in a remote location but I believe they're still inside the network because they can work on the other parts of the application just fine. Possible clues: In the event log there's an info that says Event code:4005 Forms authentication failed for the request. Reason: Ticket supplied was invalid. What would be your initial thoughts on why this is happening? Thanks, Rod.

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• Using WCF to expose underlying process

  - by Steven

  I think I must be a little dull because I'm having so much difficulty with this. I use WCF for pretty much everything in-house, it's the most appropriate technology. I have a new Silverlight 3 app that is connecting to the WCF service and that's working fine. Where the problem begins is: Because of the expense in creating the objects within this service and the high correlation of individual objects being shared between clients I want to have a console application that basically gathers/calculates/caches all the data for the service 24/7 and the service basically connects to the console app (or whatever it is) and gets the pre-processed data. eg, think of it in terms of a stock reporting app (which it is). Person A has a portfolio of x, y z Person B has a portfolio of x, q, z, r The service needs to provide updated metrics on how their portfolio is performing. So instead of every 1 second processing person A, then person B, the app independently gathers the stock price and persons position information into memory and the service just queries the in memory result. Thanks for your help, I really am feeling dumb right now.

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• PayPal return URL

  - by Sam

  Here's the code for my Paypal button: <form action="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_xclick"> <input type="hidden" name="business" value="[email protected]"> <input type="hidden" name="lc" value="GB"> <input type="hidden" name="button_subtype" value="products"> <input type="hidden" name="no_note" value="1"> <input type="hidden" name="no_shipping" value="1"> <input type="hidden" name="rm" value="0"> <input type="hidden" name="return" value="http://www.example.com"> <input type="hidden" name="item_name" value="My Item"> <input type="hidden" name="amount" value="25.00"> <input type="hidden" name="currency_code" value="GBP"> <input type="hidden" name="bn" value="PP-BuyNowBF:proceed_btn.gif:NonHosted"> <input type="hidden" name="item_number" value="4BD9569402CDE"> <input type="image" src="http://www.example.com/image.gif" border="0" name="submit" alt="PayPal - The safer, easier way to pay online."> <img alt="" border="0" src="https://www.paypal.com/en_GB/i/scr/pixel.gif" width="1" height="1"> </form> Is it possible to add the item_number to the return URL? For example, after completing the payment within PayPal the user gets sent back to http://www.example.com?item_number=4BD9569402CDE

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