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  • C# Detect Localhost Port Usage

    - by ThaKidd
    In advance, thank you for your advice. I am currently working on a program which uses Putty to create a SSH connection with a server that uses local port forwarding to enable a client, running my software, to access the service behind the SSH server via localhost. IE: client:20100 - Internet - Remote SSH server exposed via router/firewall - Local Intranet - Intranet Web POP3 Server:110. Cmd Line: "putty -ssh -2 -P 22 -C -L 20100:intranteIP:110 -pw sshpassword sshusername@sshserver" Client would use putty to create a SSH connection with the SSH server specifying in the connection string that it would like to tie port 110 of the Intranet POP3 Server to port 20100 on the client system. Therefore the client would be able to open up a mail client to localhost:20100 and interact with the Internal POP3 server over the SSH tunnel. The above is a general description. I already know what I am trying to do will work without a problem so am not looking for debate on the above. The question is this...How can I ensure the local port (I cannot use dynamic ports, so it must be static) on localhost is not being used or listened to by any other application? I am currently executing this code in my C# app: private bool checkPort(int port) { try { //Create a socket on the current IPv4 address Socket TestSocket = new Socket(AddressFamily.InterNetwork, SocketType.Stream, ProtocolType.Tcp); // Create an IP end point IPEndPoint localIP = new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Parse("127.0.0.1"), port); // Bind that port TestSocket.Bind(localIP); // Cleanup TestSocket.Close(); return false; } catch (Exception e) { // Exception occurred. Port is already bound. return true; } } I am currently calling this function starting with a specific port in a for loop to get the 'false' return at the first available port. The first port I try is actually being listened to by uTorrent. The above code does not catch this and my connection fails. What is the best method to ensure a port is truly free? I do understand some other program may grab the port during/after I have tested it. I just need to find something that will ensure it is not currently in use AT ALL when the test is executed. If there is a way to truly reserve the localhost port during the test, I would love to hear about it.

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  • Override Linq-to-Sql Datetime.ToString() Default Convert Values

    - by snmcdonald
    Is it possible to override the default CONVERT style? I would like the default CONVERT function to always return ISO8601 style 126. Steps To Reproduce: DROP TABLE DATES; CREATE TABLE DATES ( ID INT IDENTITY(1,1) PRIMARY KEY, MYDATE DATETIME DEFAULT(GETUTCDATE()) ); INSERT INTO DATES DEFAULT VALUES; INSERT INTO DATES DEFAULT VALUES; INSERT INTO DATES DEFAULT VALUES; INSERT INTO DATES DEFAULT VALUES; SELECT CONVERT(NVARCHAR,MYDATE) AS CONVERTED, CONVERT(NVARCHAR(4000),MYDATE,126) AS ISO, MYDATE FROM DATES WHERE MYDATE LIKE'Feb%' Output: CONVERTED ISO MYDATE --------------------------- ---------------------------- ----------------------- Feb 8 2011 12:17AM 2011-02-08T00:17:03.040 2011-02-08 00:17:03.040 Feb 8 2011 12:17AM 2011-02-08T00:17:03.040 2011-02-08 00:17:03.040 Feb 8 2011 12:17AM 2011-02-08T00:17:03.040 2011-02-08 00:17:03.040 Feb 8 2011 12:17AM 2011-02-08T00:17:03.040 2011-02-08 00:17:03.040 Linq-to-Sql calls CONVERT(NVARCHAR,@p) when I cast ToString(). However, I am displaying all my data in the ISO8601 format. I would like to override the database default if possible to CONVERT(NVARCHAR,@p,126). I am using Dynamic Linq-to-Sql as demoed by ScottGu to process my data. PropertyInfo piField = typeof(T).GetProperty(rule.field); if (piField != null) { Type typeField = piField.PropertyType; if (typeField.IsGenericType && typeField.GetGenericTypeDefinition().Equals(typeof(Nullable<>))) { filter = filter .Select(x => x) .Where(string.Format("{0} != null", rule.field)) .Where(string.Format("{0}.Value.ToString().Contains(\"{1}\")", rule.field, rule.data)); } else { filter = filter .Select(x => x) .Where(string.Format("{0} != null", rule.field)) .Where(string.Format("{0}.ToString().Contains(\"{1}\")", rule.field, rule.data)); } } I was hoping my property would convert the expression from CONVERT(NVARCHAR,@p) to CONVERT(NVARCHAR,@p,126), however I get a NotSupportedException: ... has no supported translation to SQL. public string IsoDate { get { if (SUBMIT_DATE.HasValue) { return SUBMIT_DATE.Value.ToString("o"); } else { return string.Empty; } } }

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  • How to add JSTL to Maven?

    - by La Chamelle
    I'm working on a JSF 2.0 project using Mojarra, PrimeFaces and Tomcat 6.x. I need to use c:forEach for some primefaces component like dynamic number of p:tab but i have problem with the c:forEach. All the other tag of JSTL work nice. I have the following error : java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: javax/servlet/jsp/jstl/core/LoopTagStatus I use the following xmlns:c="http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/core", i tried to replace with xmlns:c="http://java.sun.com/jstl/core" but nothing display with the second. This is the exact version of lib: <dependency> <groupId>javax.faces</groupId> <artifactId>jsf-api</artifactId> <version>2.0.2-FCS</version> </dependency> <dependency> <groupId>com.sun.faces</groupId> <artifactId>jsf-impl</artifactId> <version>2.0.4-b03</version> </dependency> <dependency> <groupId>org.primefaces</groupId> <artifactId>primefaces</artifactId> <version>2.2.1</version> </dependency> <dependency> <groupId>javax.el</groupId> <artifactId>el-api</artifactId> <version>2.2</version> </dependency> <dependency> <groupId>org.glassfish.web</groupId> <artifactId>el-impl</artifactId> <version>2.2</version> </dependency> How i can fix it ? I can give more specific information if needed.

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  • Cpp some basic problems

    - by DevAno1
    Hello. My task was as follows : Create class Person with char*name and int age. Implement contructor using dynamic allocation of memory for variables, destructor, function init and friend function show. Then transform this class to header and cpp file and implement in other program. Ok so I've almost finished my Person class, but I get error after destructor. First question is how to write this properly ? #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Person { char* name; int age; public: int * take_age(); Person(){ int size=0; cout << "Give length of char*" << endl; cin >> size; name = new char[size]; age = 0; } ~Person(){ cout << "Destroying resources" << endl; delete *[] name; delete * take_age(); } friend void(Person &p); int * Person::take_age(){ return age; } void init(char* n, int a) { name = n; age = a; } void show(Person &p){ cout << "Name: " << p.name << "," << "age: " << p.age << endl; } }; int main(void) { Person *p = new Person; p->init("Mary", 25); p.show(); system("PAUSE"); return 0; } And now with header/implementation part : - do I need to introduce constructor in header/implementation files ? If yes - how? - my show() function is a friendly function. Should I take it into account somehow ? I already failed to return this task on my exam, but still I'd like to know how to implement it.

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  • User created Validator wont call Client side validation Javascript on 'complex' user control.

    Hi All, I have created a user control (from System.Web.UI.UserControl), and created my own validator for the user control (from System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseValidator). Everything works ok until I try to get the user control to do client side validation. While trying to debug this issue I have set 'Control to Validate' to a text box instead of the custom user control, and the client side script works fine! It appears to me that it has an a issue with my composite user control I have created. Has anyone encountered this issue before? Has anyone else seen client side validation fail on custom user controls? Some extra info : The composite control is a drop down list and 'loader image', as it is a ajax enabled drop down list (using ICallbackEventHandler). I know that the client side javascript is being written to the page, and have placed an alert('random message') as the first line in the validator function that only appears if it is validating a text box (i.e. not when it is validating my custom control) Language : C# (ASP.NET 2.0) and jQuery 1.2.6 in aspx file : <rms:UserDDL ID="ddlUserTypes" runat="server" PreLoad="true" /> <rms:DDLValidator ID="userTypesVal" ControlToValidate="ddlUserTypes" ErrorMessage="You have not selected a UserType" runat="server" Text="You have not selected a UserType" Display="Dynamic" EnableClientScript="true" /> in validator code behind protected string ScriptBlock { get { string nl = System.Environment.NewLine; return "<script type=\"text/javascript\">" + nl + " function " + ScriptBlockFunctionName + "(ctrl)" + nl + " {" + nl + " alert('Random message'); " + nl + " var selVal = $('#' + ctrl.controltovalidate).val(); " + nl + " alert(selVal);" + nl + " if (selVal === '-1') return false; " + nl + " return false; " + nl + " }" + nl + "</script>"; } } protected override void OnPreRender(EventArgs e) { if (this.DetermineRenderUplevel() && this.EnableClientScript) { Page.ClientScript.RegisterExpandoAttribute(this.ClientID, "evaluationfunction", this.ScriptBlockFunctionName); Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(GetType(), this.ScriptBlockKey, this.ScriptBlock); } base.OnPreRender(e); } I know my ControlPropertiesValid() and EvaluateIsValid() work ok. I appreciate any help on this issue. Noel.

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  • Symfony2: validate an object that is not an entity

    - by Marronsuisse
    I am using CraueFormFlowBundle to have a multiple page form, and am trying to do some validation on some of the fields but can't figure out how to do this. The object that needs to be validated isn't an Entity, which is causing me trouble. I tried adding a collectionConstraint in the getDefaultOption function of my form type class, but this doesn't work as I get the "Expected argument of type array or Traversable and ArrayAccess" error. I tried with annotations in my object class, but they don't seem to be taken into account. Are annotations taken into account if the class isn't an entity? (i set enable_annotations to true) Anyway, what is the proper way to do this? Basically, I just want to validate that "age" is an integer... class PoemDataCollectorFormType extends AbstractType { public function buildForm(FormBuilder $builder, array $options) { switch ($options['flowStep']) { case 6: $builder->add('msgCategory', 'hidden', array( )); $builder->add('msgFIB','text', array( 'required' => false, )); $builder->add('age', 'integer', array( 'required' => false, )); break; } } public function getDefaultOptions(array $options) { $options = parent::getDefaultOptions($options); $options['flowStep'] = 1; $options['data_class'] = 'YOP\YourOwnPoetBundle\PoemBuilder\PoemDataCollector'; $options['intention'] = 'my_secret_key'; return $options; } } EDIT: add code, handle validation with annotations As Cyprian, I was pretty sure that using annotations should work, however it doesn't... Here is how I try: In my Controller: public function collectPoemDataAction() { $collector = $this->get('yop.poem.datacollector'); $flow = $this->get('yop.form.flow.poemDataCollector'); $flow->bind($collector); $form = $flow->createForm($collector); if ($flow->isValid($form)) { .... } } In my PoemDataCollector class, which is my data class (service yop.poem.datacollector): class PoemDataCollector { /** * @Assert\Type(type="integer", message="Age should be a number") */ private $age; } EDIT2: Here is the services implementation: The data class (PoemDataCollector) seems to be linked to the flow class and not to the form.. Is that why there is no validation? <service id="yop.poem.datacollector" class="YOP\YourOwnPoetBundle\PoemBuilder\PoemDataCollector"> </service> <service id="yop.form.poemDataCollector" class="YOP\YourOwnPoetBundle\Form\Type\PoemDataCollectorFormType"> <tag name="form.type" alias="poemDataCollector" /> </service> <service id="yop.form.flow.poemDataCollector" class="YOP\YourOwnPoetBundle\Form\PoemDataCollectorFlow" parent="craue.form.flow" scope="request"> <call method="setFormType"> <argument type="service" id="yop.form.poemDataCollector" /> </call> </service> How can I do the validation while respecting the craueFormFlowBundle guidelines? The guidelines state: Validation groups To validate the form data class a step-based validation group is passed to the form type. By default, if getName() of the form type returns registerUser, such a group is named flow_registerUser_step1 for the first step. Where should I state my constraint to use those validation groups..? I tried: YOP\YourOwnPoetBundle\PoemBuilder\Form\Type\PoemDataCollectorFormType: properties: name: - MinLength: { limit: 5, message: "Your name must have at least {{ limit }} characters.", groups: [flow_poemDataCollector_step1] } sex: - Type: type: integer message: Please input a number groups: [flow_poemDataCollector_step6] But it is not taken into acount.

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  • How do I integrate a new MVC C# Project with an existing Web Forms VB.NET Web Application Project?

    - by Jordan Rieger
    We have a corporate website with a large amount of dynamic business application pages (e.g. Shopping Cart, Helpdesk, Product/Service management, Reporting, etc.) The site was built as an ASP.Net Web Application Project (WAP). Our systems have evolved over the years to use .NET 4.5 and various custom business logic DLLs (written in a mix of C# and VB.NET). However, the site itself is still using VB.NET Web Forms. We now have done a few side projects in MVC 4 using Razor/C#, and we want to use this framework for new pages on the main corporate site going forward. What would be the easiest way to achieve this? I found this nice list of steps to integrate MVC 4 into an existing Web Forms app. The problem is that because our existing app is a VB.NET WAP, it compiles into a single DLL, and .NET allows only one language per DLL. The site is way too big for us to contemplate converting it to C# all at once (yes, I've looked at the conversion tools, and they're good, but even 99% accuracy would leave us a huge amount of cleanup work.) I thought about converting the existing WAP into a Web Site Project (WSP) which does allow mixing languages and then following the steps above, but after a few pages of Google results, I couldn't find any steps for converting a WAP to WSP. (Plenty of sites offer the reverse steps: converting a WSP to a WAP.) Another idea I had was to create a completely separate MVC project, and then somehow squish them together into the same folder structure, where they would share the bin folder but compile to separate DLL's. I have no idea if this is possible, because certain files would collide (e.g. Global.asax, web.config, etc.) Finally, I can imagine a compromise solution where we keep all the MVC stuff in its own separate application under a subfolder of the main solution. We already use our own custom session state solution, so it wouldn't be difficult to pass data between the old site to the new pages. Which of the ideas above do you think makes the most sense for us? Is there another solution that I'm missing?

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  • Correct table layout generation with CSS: unexpected cells shift

    - by MrG
    I'm trying to generate a dynamic table using CSS: <html> <head> <style> div.el1, div.el2 { color:white; width:70px;height:70px; border:0px; padding:0px; font-size: 10px; font-family: "Courier"; } div.el1 { background-color: green; } div.el2 { background-color: orange; } div.tablediv { display: table; border:0px; border-spacing:0px; border-collapse:separate; } div.celldiv { display: table-cell; } div.rowdiv { display: table-row; width:auto; } </style> </head> <body> <div class="tablediv"> <div class="rowdiv"> <div class="celldiv"> <div class="el1" id="x1y1">ABC</div> </div> <div class="celldiv"> <div class="el2" id="x1y2"></div> </div> </div> <div class="rowdiv"> <div class="celldiv"> <div class="el1" id="x2y1"></div> </div> <div class="celldiv"> <div class="el1" id="x2y2"></div> </div> </div> </div> </body> </html> The content of body is dynamically generated and should be displayed as a table. Unfortunately, each cell shifts down if it contains data: expected reality --- --- --- --- | | | | | | --- --- |ABC|--- | | | | | | --- --- --- --- | | | --- --- I'm grateful for any help. Many thanks!

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  • Alternative to Page_Load in ASP.NET (and a good WTF story)

    - by Jason
    Woo, I have a doozy of a problem (might even be one for the Daily WTF) and I'm hoping there's a solution. (My apologies for the long post...) I have been working on a website that I inherited about a month ago. One of the parts I have been working on is fixing one of the controls (essentially a dynamic header bar) so that it displays additional information as requested by my users. As part of doing this project, I created a Site.master file so that I wouldn't have to recode the header bar into every single page. When I first started doing this, it seemingly worked very well. All the pages I had developed looked great and the bar updated as it should displaying the information as it should. Well, when I dropped the Site.master (and this control) into older site pages (ones I did not specifically develop) I noticed that it looked bad on some of them, but not all of them. When I say it looked bad, basically, the control would left-align itself to the page rather than center as it should. I spent a couple hours debugging to no avail - CSS looked correct, the HTML appeared to be okay, I didn't see anything in the Javascript (although, I did miss something as I'll point out in a second), and even the old code looked correct (to the best that it could - it's not very well written). Another coworker took a look at the site and couldn't find anything at first, either. It wasn't until I just thought to look at the rendered source code of the page (I had been working in the developer view up to this point in IE8) that it became clear what was wrong. The original developer performs searches on many of the pages. To accomplish this, he queries the database for ALL the data and then loads them into Javascript arrays within the page so he can get access to them. This in itself is a huge problem because we're talking about thousands of items, and it obviously isn't scalable (and, yes, the site is slow). However, it finally clicked what was screwing up the Site.master - when he loads the data into the Javascript arrays, he writes out the data to the HTML upon Page_Load using numerous Response.Write(string) calls. The WTF (and what was messing me up) is that he inserts the Javascript before the DOCTYPE causing IE to go into quirks mode! So, because I need to at least get this release out (I'll fix the real problem later), I was wondering: is there a way I can force this Javascript to be inserted elsewhere into the HTML—after the DOCTYPE at the very least? Right now, all the Response.Write() calls are being done in the Page_Load method. I just need them to be inserted later.

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  • Why is the this-pointer needed to access inherited attributes?

    - by Shadow
    Hi, assume the following class is given: class Base{ public: Base() {} Base( const Base& b) : base_attr(b.base_attr) {} void someBaseFunction() { .... } protected: SomeType base_attr; }; When I want a class to inherit from this one and include a new attribute for the derived class, I would write: class Derived: public Base { public: Derived() {} Derived( const Derived& d ) : derived_attr(d.derived_attr) { this->base_attr = d.base_attr; } void SomeDerivedFunction() { .... } private: SomeOtherType derived_attr; }; This works for me (let's ignore eventually missing semicolons or such please). However, when I remove the "this-" in the copy constructor of the derived class, the compiler complains that "'base_attr' was not declared in this scope". I thought that, when inheriting from a class, the protected attributes would then also be accessible directly. I did not know that the "this-" pointer was needed. I am now confused if it is actually correct what I am doing there, especially the copy-constructor of the Derived-class. Because each Derived object is supposed to have a base_attr and a derived_attr and they obviously need to be initialized/set correctly. And because Derived is inheriting from Base, I don't want to explicitly include an attribute named "base_attr" in the Derived-class. IMHO doing so would generally destroy the idea behind inheritance, as everything would have to be defined again. EDIT Thank you all for the quick answers. I completely forgot the fact that the classes actually are templates. Please, see the new examples below, which are actually compiling when including "this-" and are failing when omiting "this-" in the copy-constructor of the Derived-class: Base-class: #include <iostream> template<class T> class Base{ public: Base() : base_attr(0) {} Base( const Base& b) : base_attr(b.base_attr) {} void baseIncrement() { ++base_attr; } void printAttr() { std::cout << "Base Attribute: " << base_attr << std::endl; } protected: T base_attr; }; Derived-class: #include "base.hpp" template< class T > class Derived: public Base<T>{ public: Derived() : derived_attr(1) {} Derived( const Derived& d) : derived_attr(d.derived_attr) { this->base_attr = d.base_attr; } void derivedIncrement() { ++derived_attr; } protected: T derived_attr; }; and for completeness also the main function: #include "derived.hpp" int main() { Derived<int> d; d.printAttr(); d.baseIncrement(); d.printAttr(); Derived<int> d2(d); d2.printAttr(); return 0; }; I am using g++-4.3.4. Although I understood now that it seems to come from the fact that I use template-class definitions, I did not quite understand what is causing the problem when using templates and why it works when not using templates. Could someone please further clarify this?

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  • Broadcast receiver, check status, turning off connection with F8

    - by yoann
    I am using eclipse with android sdk 3.2 I have some problems to make my broadcast receiver working when the connection is lost. first I have checked the type of network to make sure I understand well : ConnectivityManager manager = (ConnectivityManager) getSystemService(CONNECTIVITY_SERVICE); boolean is3g = manager.getNetworkInfo( ConnectivityManager.TYPE_MOBILE) .isConnectedOrConnecting(); boolean isWifi = manager.getNetworkInfo( ConnectivityManager.TYPE_WIFI) .isConnectedOrConnecting(); NetworkInfo info = manager.getActiveNetworkInfo(); if (info != null) Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), info.getTypeName(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); else Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Pas de connexion", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); if (!is3g) Log.i("Network Listener", "DISCONNECTED"); else Log.i("Network Listener", "CONNECTED"); == this is a mobile network, I'm connected Then I press F8 or I make : telnet localhost 5554 gsm data off to stop the connection Here is my dynamic broadcast receiver in an activity : public class ActivityA extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.query); this.registerReceiver(this.networkStateReceiver, new IntentFilter( ConnectivityManager.CONNECTIVITY_ACTION)); } BroadcastReceiver networkStateReceiver = new BroadcastReceiver() { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { ConnectivityManager connMgr = (ConnectivityManager) context .getSystemService(Context.CONNECTIVITY_SERVICE); NetworkInfo networkInfo = connMgr.getActiveNetworkInfo(); //i have tried several things : State networkState = networkInfo.getState(); // if (networkState.compareTo(State.DISCONNECTED) == 0) ... if (networkInfo != null && networkInfo.isConnected()) { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "CONNECTED", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); Log.i("Network Listener", "Connected"); } else { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "DISCONNECTED", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); Log.i("Network Listener", "Network Type Changed"); Intent offline = new Intent(AccountInfoActivity.this, OfflineWorkService.class); startService(offline); } }; My manifest : <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_NETWORK_STATE"/> The problem is : when the activityA is launched, my broadcast receive something and it displays "Connected"(Log) and my toast. When I turn off the connection manually, nothing happend. My service is not started, log message are not displayed, only toast messages work ... And even better, when I turn on the connection again (by pressing F8), I test again the type of connection, Toast messages are shown but this time Log messages don't work. Problems happend when I press F8. Anyway, I think I miss something with broadcast receivers, it's not totally clear. Please help me.

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  • How to have combobox take data from a child datasource

    - by SkollSunman
    I am trying to have a datagridview with two comboboxes, a company name and a supplier account number. When a company name is selected the relevant supplier account numbers (a company can have more than one supplier account) should be filtered for that company in that row. I have a datagridview with two bindingsources: supplierBindingSource and companyBindingSource and the Supplier account combobox uses the supplierBindingSource for its datasource and company name uses the companyBindingSource for its datasource. A company can have a supplier and/or customer account so the supplierBindingSource is a child or a companyBindingSource. The supplier accounts correctly filter based on the selected company name however when another company name is selected in another row all the supplier accounts are filtered for that company. Saving still works properly, regardless of what the combo box show but currently it is very confusing for a user to select a supplier account when the labels don't show what is being saved. Is it possible to have only the selected row to filter based on the company name rather than every row? EDIT: Thanks to the answer from http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/windows/en-US/b23d9e8f-a00a-49ba-adf5-52d87c1b2890/parent-child-comboboxes-in-datagridview I have been able to make some progress. The supplier account gets filtered when the drop down box is selected and restored to the full list when selection is finished. However now I am trying to have the company selected (and not filtered) when a supplier account is selected. The issue I've run into now is that I can get the companyID (which is the valuemember for the company combobox) but I cannot select the appropriate company without just setting the value of the combobox to the companyID which displays the companyID instead of the company name. Is there a way to select the company using the companyID while preserving the displaymember/valuemember dynamic? EDIT 2: The wall of text may be off putting. Some code to help elucidate my issue DataGridViewComboBoxCell dgcb2 = (DataGridViewComboBoxCell)sdgvSalesOrderLines[cmbSupplierName.Index, e.RowIndex]; var companyID = col.FirstOrDefault(c => c.AccountID == Convert.ToInt32(dgcb.Value)).CompanyID; dgcb2.Value = companyID.toString(); The second line gets the companyID and that works just fine, the final line sets the combobox to display the companyID whereas I would like it to set the valuemember value to companyID so that it would display the corresponding company name. I can set the second line to give me the company name instead but if the value of the combobox isn't the companyID then the supplier account cannot filter based on the company selected.

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  • Facebook PHP SDK - will not logout properly

    - by garethdn
    I've been searching for hours for the solution to this problem but can't find one that works for me. When i click "Logout" on my site the user information is still visible and the logout button is still displayed. Here is the code: require 'facebook-php-sdk/src/facebook.php'; $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'xxxx', 'secret' => 'xxxx', )); // Get User ID $user = $facebook->getUser(); var_dump($user); if ($user) { try { // Proceed knowing you have a logged in user who's authenticated. $user_profile = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); $user = null; } } // Login or logout url will be needed depending on current user state. if ($_GET['logout'] == "yes") { setcookie('fbs_'.$facebook->getAppId(), '', time()-100, '/', 'http://gno.....ment/index.php'); session_destroy(); header("Location: ".$_SERVER['PHP_SELF'].""); } if ($user_profile) { $logoutUrl = $facebook->getLogoutUrl; } else { $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl(array('scope' => 'email,publish_stream,user_status', 'canvas' => 1, 'fbconnect' => 0, 'redirect_uri' => 'http://gno.....ment/index.php')); } ..... ..... <?php if ($user): ?> <h3>You</h3> <img src="https://graph.facebook.com/<?php echo $user; ?>/picture"> <h3>Your User Object (/me)</h3> <pre><?php print_r($user_profile); ?></pre> <?php else: ?> <strong><em>You are not Connected.</em></strong> <?php endif ?> <?php if ($user): ?> <a href="<?php echo $logoutUrl; ?>">Logout of FB</a> <?php else: ?> <div> Login using OAuth 2.0 handled by the PHP SDK: <a href="<?php echo $loginUrl; ?>">Login with Facebook</a> </div> <?php endif ?> It seems that if ($_GET['logout'] == "yes") might be the answer for me but i can't get it working. I don't know where logout is gotten from or where it is defined? This seems to be a common issue but i can't figure it out. I'd really appreciate some help.

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  • Facebook Invalid OAuth access token signature trying to post an attachment to group wall from PHP

    - by Volodymyr B
    I am an administrator (manager role) of a Facebook Group. I created an app, and stored its id and secret. I want my app to be able to post something on the Facebook group's feed. But when I attempt to post, I get the error 190 Invalid OAuth access token signature, even though I able to successfully obtain the access_token with publish_stream and offline_access scopes. It has the form of NNNNNNNNNNNNNNN|XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX, where N is a number (15) and X is a letter or a number (27). What should I do more to get this accomplished? Here is the code I am using: public static function postToFB($message, $image, $link) { //Get App Token $token = self::getFacebookToken(); // Create FB Object Instance $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => self::fb_appid, 'secret' => self::fb_secret, 'cookie' => true )); //$token = $facebook->getAccessToken(); //Try to Publish on wall or catch the Facebook exception try { $attachment = array('access_token' => $token, 'message' => $message, 'picture' => $image, 'link' => $link, //'name' => '', //'caption' => '', 'description' => 'More...', //'actions' => array(array('name' => 'Action Text', 'link' => 'http://apps.facebook.com/xxxxxx/')) ); $result = $facebook->api('/'.self::fb_groupid.'/feed/', 'post', $attachment); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { //If the post is not published, print error details echo '<pre>'; print_r($e); echo '</pre>'; } } Code which returns the token //Function to Get Access Token public static function getFacebookToken($appid = self::fb_appid, $appsecret = self::fb_secret) { $args = array( 'grant_type' => 'client_credentials', 'client_id' => $appid, 'client_secret' => $appsecret, 'redirect_uri' => 'https://www.facebook.com/connect/login_success.html', 'scope' => 'publish_stream,offline_access' ); $ch = curl_init(); $url = 'https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token'; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $args); try { $data = curl_exec($ch); } catch (Exception $exc) { error_log($exc->getMessage()); } return json_encode($data); } If I uncomment $token = $facebook->getAccessToken(); in the posting code, it gives me yet another error (#200) The user hasn't authorized the application to perform this action. The token I get using developers.facebook.com/tools/explorer/ is of another form, much longer and with it I am able to post to the group page feed. How do I do it without copy/paste from Graph API Explorer and how do I post as a group instead of posting as a user? Thanks.

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  • mounting ext4 fs with block size of 65536

    - by seaquest
    I am doing some benchmarking on EXT4 performance on Compact Flash media. I have created an ext4 fs with block size of 65536. however I can not mount it on ubuntu-10.10-netbook-i386. (it is already mounting ext4 fs with 4096 bytes of block sizes) According to my readings on ext4 it should allow such big block sized fs. I want to hear your comments. root@ubuntu:~# mkfs.ext4 -b 65536 /dev/sda3 Warning: blocksize 65536 not usable on most systems. mke2fs 1.41.12 (17-May-2010) mkfs.ext4: 65536-byte blocks too big for system (max 4096) Proceed anyway? (y,n) y Warning: 65536-byte blocks too big for system (max 4096), forced to continue Filesystem label= OS type: Linux Block size=65536 (log=6) Fragment size=65536 (log=6) Stride=0 blocks, Stripe width=0 blocks 19968 inodes, 19830 blocks 991 blocks (5.00%) reserved for the super user First data block=0 1 block group 65528 blocks per group, 65528 fragments per group 19968 inodes per group Writing inode tables: done Creating journal (1024 blocks): done Writing superblocks and filesystem accounting information: done This filesystem will be automatically checked every 37 mounts or 180 days, whichever comes first. Use tune2fs -c or -i to override. root@ubuntu:~# tune2fs -l /dev/sda3 tune2fs 1.41.12 (17-May-2010) Filesystem volume name: <none> Last mounted on: <not available> Filesystem UUID: 4cf3f507-e7b4-463c-be11-5b408097099b Filesystem magic number: 0xEF53 Filesystem revision #: 1 (dynamic) Filesystem features: has_journal ext_attr resize_inode dir_index filetype extent flex_bg sparse_super large_file huge_file uninit_bg dir_nlink extra_isize Filesystem flags: signed_directory_hash Default mount options: (none) Filesystem state: clean Errors behavior: Continue Filesystem OS type: Linux Inode count: 19968 Block count: 19830 Reserved block count: 991 Free blocks: 18720 Free inodes: 19957 First block: 0 Block size: 65536 Fragment size: 65536 Blocks per group: 65528 Fragments per group: 65528 Inodes per group: 19968 Inode blocks per group: 78 Flex block group size: 16 Filesystem created: Sat Feb 5 14:39:55 2011 Last mount time: n/a Last write time: Sat Feb 5 14:40:02 2011 Mount count: 0 Maximum mount count: 37 Last checked: Sat Feb 5 14:39:55 2011 Check interval: 15552000 (6 months) Next check after: Thu Aug 4 14:39:55 2011 Lifetime writes: 70 MB Reserved blocks uid: 0 (user root) Reserved blocks gid: 0 (group root) First inode: 11 Inode size: 256 Required extra isize: 28 Desired extra isize: 28 Journal inode: 8 Default directory hash: half_md4 Directory Hash Seed: afb5b570-9d47-4786-bad2-4aacb3b73516 Journal backup: inode blocks root@ubuntu:~# mount -t ext4 /dev/sda3 /mnt/ mount: wrong fs type, bad option, bad superblock on /dev/sda3, missing codepage or helper program, or other error In some cases useful info is found in syslog - try dmesg | tail or so

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  • Large number of UPDATE queries slowing down page

    - by Bryan Lewis
    I am reading and validating large fixed-width text files (range from 10-50K lines) that are submitted via our ASP.net website (coded in VB.Net). I do an initial scan of the file to check for basic issues (line length, etc). Then I import each row into a MS SQL table. Each DB rows basically consists of a record_ID (Primary, auto-incrementing) and about 50 varchar fields. After the insert is done, I run a validation function on the file that checks each field in each row based on a bunch of criteria (trimmed length, isnumeric, range checks, etc). If it finds an error in any field, it inserts a record into the Errors table, which has an error_ID, the record_ID and an error message. In addition, if the field fails in a particular way, I have to do a "reset" on that field. A reset might consist of blanking the entire field, or simply replacing the value with another value (e.g. replacing the string with a new one that has all illegals chars taken out). I have a 5,000 line test file. The upload, initial check, and import takes about 5-6 seconds. The detailed error check and insert into the Errors table takes about 5-8 seconds (this file has about 1200 errors in it). However, the "resets" part takes about 40-45 seconds for 750 fields that need to be reset. When I comment out the resets function (returning immediately without actually calling the UPDATE stored proc), the process is very fast. With the resets turned on, the pages take 50 seconds to return. My UPDATE stored proc is using some recommended code from http://sommarskog.se/dynamic_sql.html, whereby it uses CASE instead of dynamic SQL: UPDATE dbo.Records SET dbo.Records.file_ID = CASE @field_name WHEN 'file_ID' THEN @field_value ELSE file_ID END, . . (all 50 varchar field CASE statements here) . WHERE dbo.Records.record_ID = @record_ID Is there any way I can help my performance here. Can I somehow group all of these UPDATE calls into a single transaction? Should I be reworking the UPDATE query somehow? Or is it just sheer quantity of 750+ UPDATEs and things are just slow (it's a quad proc server with 8GB ram). Any suggestions appreciated.

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  • Flash caroussel xml parse html link

    - by Marvin
    Hello I am trying to modify a carousel script I have in flash. Its normal function is making some icons rotate and when clicked they zoom in, fade all others and display a little text. On that text I would like to have a link like a "read more". If I use CDATA it wont display a thing, if I use alt char like &#60;a href=&#34;www.google.com&#34;&#62; Read more + &#60;/a&#62; It just displays the text as: <a href="www.google.com"> Read more + </a>. The flash dynamic text box wont render it as html. I dont enough as2 to figure out how to add this. My code: var xml:XML = new XML(); xml.ignoreWhite = true; //definições do xml xml.onLoad = function() { var nodes = this.firstChild.childNodes; numOfItems = nodes.length; for(var i=0;i<numOfItems;i++) { var t = home.attachMovie("item","item"+i,i+1); t.angle = i * ((Math.PI*2)/numOfItems); t.onEnterFrame = mover; t.toolText = nodes[i].attributes.tooltip; t.content = nodes[i].attributes.content; t.icon.inner.loadMovie(nodes[i].attributes.image); t.r.inner.loadMovie(nodes[i].attributes.image); t.icon.onRollOver = over; t.icon.onRollOut = out; t.icon.onRelease = released; } } And the xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <icons> <icon image="images/product.swf" tooltip="Product" content="Hello this is some random text &#60;a href=&#34;www.google.com&#34;&#62; Read More + &#60;/a&#62; "/> </icons> Any suggestions? Thanks.

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  • Modular GWT design concerns

    - by GlGuru
    Hi, I have a couple of questions regarding a modular GWT based application framework. I have some ideas about them but being new to the field of web development I feel they are far from ideal. I'd appreciate a few comments and suggestions in this regard. Here are my questions: I am developing a framework which will allow third parties to embed GWT applications into our website and do some communication with them using simple iFrame postMessage. All these third party modules are going to use our SDK which is also GWT based. The problem arises that even though all the modules will be using the same codebase there is going to be a massive overheard in the amount of duplicate Javascript code (i.e. our common SDK code base which is quite large) being downloaded on the client's machine. This is highly redundant and problematic, not only due to the sheer size of duplicate code but, also due to the fact that subsequent updates of the SDK would require the modules to be recompiled which is going to create a DLL hell kind of scenario in the long run. What is the best way of doing this kind of thing? Is there a way where I can have some static GWT code (i.e. the SDK) and the dynamic GWT module refers to it (even if lies on a different domain) and it all work happily? The other part of the problem lies in providing robust scripting front end to the SDK. At first it appears to be trivial since Javascript itself is a scripting language. However, I do not know how to load and call a piece of pure Javascript code at runtime? I am willing to put restrictions on the target Javascript (i.e. having a function main and unique namespace or something). Furthermore the Javascript will come as a string from a database and not as a full URL. If its doable in Javascript how does one get this right in GWT i.e. forcing the compiler to emit a certain function in the generated Javascript? This I believe can be lesser of a problem by having a stub Javascript with all the right requirements which just loads up a GWT generated Javascript. Is any of this possible at all? I generally hate to be this verbose but I hope to find a quick solution to the problem as its holding up my progress. I'd highly appreciate any comments, suggestions and experiences.

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  • Suggestions on how to map from Domain (ORM) objects to Data Transfer Objects (DTO)

    - by FryHard
    The current system that I am working on makes use of Castle Activerecord to provide ORM (Object Relational Mapping) between the Domain objects and the database. This is all well and good and at most times actually works well! The problem comes about with Castle Activerecords support for asynchronous execution, well, more specifically the SessionScope that manages the session that objects belong to. Long story short, bad stuff happens! We are therefore looking for a way to easily convert (think automagically) from the Domain objects (who know that a DB exists and care) to the DTO object (who know nothing about the DB and care not for sessions, mapping attributes or all thing ORM). Does anyone have suggestions on doing this. For the start I am looking for a basic One to One mapping of object. Domain object Person will be mapped to say PersonDTO. I do not want to do this manually since it is a waste. Obviously reflection comes to mind, but I am hoping with some of the better IT knowledge floating around this site that "cooler" will be suggested. Oh, I am working in C#, the ORM objects as said before a mapped with Castle ActiveRecord. Example code: By @ajmastrean's request I have linked to an example that I have (badly) mocked together. The example has a capture form, capture form controller, domain objects, activerecord repository and an async helper. It is slightly big (3MB) because I included the ActiveRecored dll's needed to get it running. You will need to create a database called ActiveRecordAsync on your local machine or just change the .config file. Basic details of example: The Capture Form The capture form has a reference to the contoller private CompanyCaptureController MyController { get; set; } On initialise of the form it calls MyController.Load() private void InitForm () { MyController = new CompanyCaptureController(this); MyController.Load(); } This will return back to a method called LoadComplete() public void LoadCompleted (Company loadCompany) { _context.Post(delegate { CurrentItem = loadCompany; bindingSource.DataSource = CurrentItem; bindingSource.ResetCurrentItem(); //TOTO: This line will thow the exception since the session scope used to fetch loadCompany is now gone. grdEmployees.DataSource = loadCompany.Employees; }, null); } } this is where the "bad stuff" occurs, since we are using the child list of Company that is set as Lazy load. The Controller The controller has a Load method that was called from the form, it then calls the Asyc helper to asynchronously call the LoadCompany method and then return to the Capture form's LoadComplete method. public void Load () { new AsyncListLoad<Company>().BeginLoad(LoadCompany, Form.LoadCompleted); } The LoadCompany() method simply makes use of the Repository to find a know company. public Company LoadCompany() { return ActiveRecordRepository<Company>.Find(Setup.company.Identifier); } The rest of the example is rather generic, it has two domain classes which inherit from a base class, a setup file to instert some data and the repository to provide the ActiveRecordMediator abilities.

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  • Google Chrome Frame and Facebook Javascript SDK - Cannot login

    - by Giannis Savvakis
    On the example below i have an html page with the javascript code needed to login to facebook. On the i have the Google Chrome Frame meta tag that makes the page run with google chrome frame. If you open this page with any browser the finish() callback runs normally. If you open it with Google Chrome Frame it never fires. So this means that every Facebook App that tries to login to gather user data cannot login. This happens if the page is opened with google frame. But even if i remove the meta tag so that the page can open with IE8 the page opens again with google chrome frame because Facebook opens google chrome frame by default. So because this is a Facebook app that runs inside an inside facebook.com it is forced to open with Google Chrome Frame! SERIOUS BUG! I have seen other people reporting it, someone has made a test facebook app also here: http://apps.facebook.com/gcftest/ appID and channelUrl are dummy in the example below. <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:fb="http://www.facebook.com/2008/fbml"> <head> <meta name="generator" content= "HTML Tidy for Linux/x86 (vers 11 February 2007), see www.w3.org" /> <meta charset="utf-8" /> <meta http-equiv="Cache-Control" content="no-cache, no-store, must-revalidate" /> <meta http-equiv="Pragma" content="no-cache" /> <meta http-equiv="Expires" content="0" /> <meta http-equiv="X-UA-Compatible" content="IE=Edge,chrome=IE8" /> <title>Facebook Login</title> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ // Load the SDK Asynchronously (function(d){ var js, id = 'facebook-jssdk', ref = d.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) { return; } js = d.createElement('script'); js.id = id; js.async = true; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"; ref.parentNode.insertBefore(js, ref); }(document)); var appID = '0000000000000'; var channelUrl = '//myhost/channel.html'; // Init the SDK upon load window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({ appId : appID, // App ID channelUrl : channelUrl, status : true, // check login status cookie : true, // enable cookies to allow the server to access the session xfbml : true // parse XFBML }); FB.Event.subscribe('auth.statusChange', function(response) { if(!response.authResponse) FB.login(finish, {scope: 'publish_actions,publish_stream'}); else finish(response); }); FB.getLoginStatus(finish); } function finish(response) { alert("Hello "+response.name); } //]]> </script> </head> <body> <h1>Facebook login</h1> <p>Do NOT close this window.</p> <p>please wait...</p> </body> </html>

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  • Trying to integrate CakePHP and jQuery

    - by user198003
    Trying to integrate CakePHP and jQuery, using next example http://bakery.cakephp.org/articles/view/dynamic-select-boxes-with-ajax-jquery What I want is to when user change first option element, to automaticly fill second select option box with proper values. But, nothing happens, if you can help me why. So, there is a Invoice add form (add.ctp), with next code... <?php echo $form->create('Invoice');?> <?php echo $javascript->link('jquery.js'); $category = array('1' => 'First', '4' => 'Fourth', '7' => 'Seventh'); echo $form->input('client_id', array('options' => $category, 'empty' => 'Choose:')); echo $form->select('clientBank_id', array("Choose category first"), null, null, false); ?> <script> $("#InvoiceClientId").change(function () { $.post('/invoices/listTitleByCategory/' + $(this).val(), function(data) { $("#InvoiceClientBankId").empty().append(data); }, 'html'); }) </script> Also, there is controller (invoices_controller.php): <?php var $name = 'Invoices'; var $helpers = array('Html', 'Form', 'Time', 'Number', 'Javascript'); var $paginate = array('order' => array('Invoice.pinned DESC', 'Invoice.invoiceNumber')); var $components = array('RequestHandler'); function beforeRender(){ // prevent useless warnings for Ajax if($this->RequestHandler->isAjax()){ Configure::write('debug', 0); } } // etc... function listTitleByCategory($category = "") { $this->layout = 'ajax'; $this->beforeRender(); $this->autoRender = false; $data = $this->Invoice->Client->find('list'); echo "<option value=0>just for testing...</option>"; foreach($data as $key => $val) { echo "<option value=$key>$val</option>"; } } ?> Please, if you can help me solving this. Thank you in advance!

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  • set/unset checkboxes in JSF

    - by mykola
    Hello, i've got one problem with checkboxes in JSF. I want them to behave dependently on each other, e.g., when i check a box which belongs to some object that has children then all checkboxes that belong to these children components must be checked either. And also when i uncheck one of child's checkbox the parent should be unchecked too. It's pretty simple with plain HTML/javascript, but i can't do anything with this under JSF. For some reason i can't set ID's for them because all checkboxes are rendered dynamically in a treetable and it prevents me from setting my own ID's, i.e. whatever i set in ID property only constant part will apply, all dynamic data that i pass is ignored. I tried to do it through valueChangeListener or validator but in both cases after i set needed values something sets them back! I don't know who does it and i can't do anything with this. Here's some code (i use OpenFaces treeTable): <o:treeTable id="instTreeTable" var="inst" ...> <...> <o:column id="isGranted" width="10%"> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputText value="#{msg.access_granted}" /> </f:facet> <h:selectBooleanCheckbox value="#{inst.assignedToUser}" styleClass="treeTableText" valueChangeListener="#{MbUserInstitutions.onAccessGrantedChanged}" > <a4j:support event="onchange" reRender="instTreeTable"/> </h:selectBooleanCheckbox> </o:column> <...> </o:treeTable> MbUserInstitutions: public void onAccessGrantedChanged(ValueChangeEvent event) { Boolean granted = (Boolean) event.getNewValue(); Institution inst = getInstitution(); if (granted.booleanValue() && inst.hasChildren()) { setChildrenInsts(inst); } else if (!granted.booleanValue() && inst.getParentId() != null){ unsetParentInst(inst); } } private Institution getInstitution() { return (Institution) Faces.var("inst"); } private void setChildrenInsts(Institution parent) { for (Institution child: parent.getChildren()) { child.setAssignedToUser(true); if (child.hasChildren()) { setChildrenInsts(child); } } } private void unsetParentInst(Institution child) { child.setAssignedToUser(false); for (Institution inst: coreInsts) { if (inst.getId().equals(child.getParentId())) { unsetParentInst(inst); break; } } }

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  • Working with friends. Poor career choice?

    - by a_person
    Hi all, Hope you can help me solve somewhat of a moral dilemma. Some time ago, after just a few years of living in U.S. and having to take any job I could get my hands on a friend of mine submitted recommended me for an open position at the company that he was working for. I could have not been happier. I do not have a degree of any sort, however, by being passionate about CS and with constant drive for self education I've became a somewhat of a strong generalist. Every place I worked for recognized me for that quality and used me on various projects where set of technology in hand had no overlap with set of knowledge of the team members. Rapidly I've advanced to Sr. Programmer position and the trend of me following a friend from one place to another have started and continued on for a few years. My friend's goal always been to become an IT Director, mine is to become the best programmer I can be. To my knowledge I've accommodated his goals as much as I could by taking a back seat, and letting him take the lead. Fast forward to today. He's a manager, and I am on his team. I am unhappy and I in considerable amount of suffering. I am not being utilized to my potential, it's almost exact opposite, I am being micromanaged to an unhealthy extent, my decisions, and suggestions are constantly met with negative connotation. Last week I had to hear about how my friend is a better programmer than I am. My ego was ecstatic about this one /s. In addition to that working in the field of BI have exhausted itself for most parts. The only pleasure of my work is being derived from making everything as dynamic and parameter driven as possible. This is the only area where a friend of mine does not feel competent enough to actually micromanage. Because of my situation I feel a fair amount of guilt and ever growing resentment. I need your advice, maybe you've dealt with this expression of ego before, needs of self vs the needs of your friend. Is working with a friend a poor choice? Thank you for reading in.

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  • Destroying a record via RJS TemplateError (Called ID for nil...)

    - by bgadoci
    I am trying to destroy a record in my table via RJS and having some trouble. I have successfully implemented this before so can't quite understand what is not working here. Here is the setup: I am trying to allow a user of my app to select an answer from another user as the 'winning' answer to their question. Much like StackOverflow does. I am calling this selected answer 'winner'. class Winner < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :site belongs_to :user belongs_to :question validates_uniqueness_of :user_id, :scope => [:question_id] end I'll spare you the reverse has_many associations but I believe they are correct (I am using has_many with the validation as I might want to allow for multiple later). Also, think of site like an answer to the question. My link calling the destroy action of the WinnersController is located in the /views/winners/_winner.html.erb and has the following code: <% div_for winner do %> Selected <br/> <%=link_to_remote "Destroy", :url => winner, :method => :delete %> <% end %> This partial is being called by another partial `/views/sites/_site.html.erb and is located in this code block: <% if site.winners.blank? %> <% remote_form_for [site, Winner.new] do |f| %> <%= f.hidden_field :question_id, :value => @question.id %> <%= f.hidden_field :winner, :value => "1" %> <%= submit_tag "Select This Answer" %> Make sure you unselect any previously selected answers. <% end %> <% else %> <div id="winner_<%= site.id %>" class="votes"> <%= render :partial => site.winners%> </div> <% end %> <div id="winner_<%= site.id %>" class="votes"> </div> And the /views/sites/_site.html.erb partial is being called in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file. My WinnersController#destroy action is the following: def destroy @winner = Winner.find(params[:id]) @winner.destroy respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to Question.find(params[:post_id]) } format.js end end And my /views/winners/destroy.js.rjs code is the following: page[dom_id(@winner)].visual_effect :fade I am getting the following error and not really sure where I am going wrong: Processing WinnersController#destroy (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-30 16:05:48) [DELETE] Parameters: {"authenticity_token"=>"nn1Wwr2PZiS2jLgCZQDLidkntwbGzayEoHWwR087AfE=", "id"=>"24", "_"=>""} Rendering winners/destroy ActionView::TemplateError (Called id for nil, which would mistakenly be 4 -- if you really wanted the id of nil, use object_id) on line #1 of app/views/winners/destroy.js.rjs: 1: page[dom_id(@winner)].visual_effect :fade app/views/winners/destroy.js.rjs:1:in `_run_rjs_app47views47winners47destroy46js46rjs' app/views/winners/destroy.js.rjs:1:in `_run_rjs_app47views47winners47destroy46js46rjs' Rendered rescues/_trace (137.1ms) Rendered rescues/_request_and_response (0.3ms) Rendering rescues/layout (internal_server_error)

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  • 404 with spring 3

    - by markjason72
    hi I am going through my first lessons with spring 3.I created a dynamic web app in eclipse with the following structure. spring3mvc \src\my.spring.HelloWorldController.java \WebContent | |-----WEB-INF\jsp\hello.jsp |-----index.jsp |-----web.xml |-----WEB-INF\spring-servlet.xml |-----WEB-INF\lib\...*.jar files I created the spring-servlet.xml as below <context:component-scan base-package="my.spring" /> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.UrlBasedViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView" /> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/jsp/" /> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp" /> </bean> and coded the controller package my.spring; import org.springframework.stereotype.Controller; import org.springframework.web.bind.annotation.RequestMapping; import org.springframework.web.servlet.ModelAndView; @Controller public class HelloWorldController { @RequestMapping("/hello") public ModelAndView helloWorld() { String message = "Hello World, Spring 3.0!"; return new ModelAndView("hello", "message", message); } } index.jsp has a link to hello view <html> <body> <a href="hello.html">Say Hello</a> </body> </html> finally in hello.jsp I have put <html> <body> ${message} </body> </html> My web.xml has <display-name>Spring3MVC</display-name> <welcome-file-list> <welcome-file>index.jsp</welcome-file> </welcome-file-list> <servlet> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <servlet-class> org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet </servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <url-pattern>*.html</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> When I run the app on Tomcat6 server( thru eclipse),I can see the index page at http://localhost:8080/Spring3MVC/ .It displays the link to hello page.When I click on it(http://localhost:8080/Spring3MVC/hello.html),I get a 404 error. message /Spring3MVC/hello.html description The requested resource (/Spring3MVC/hello.html) is not available. Any idea how I can solve this? thanks mark.

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