Search Results

Search found 9928 results on 398 pages for 'facebook authentication'.

Page 361/398 | < Previous Page | 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368  | Next Page >

• Api/plugins for open source libraries?

  - by fayer

  whenever i use a open source library eg. Doctrine i always ending up coding a class (so called Facade) to use the Doctrine library. so next time i want to create a user i just type: $fields = array('name' => 'peter', 'email' => '[email protected]'); Doctrine_Facade::create_entity($entity, $fields); then it creates an entity with the provided information. so i guess, all coders will create their own "Facade". i wonder how usual it is with open source Facades to download and interact with the open source libraries? is this rare cause i haven't seen any of these. in some frameworks i have seen them called plugins, eg. plugins for twitter api or facebook api. so whenever you download a library, should you search for plugins/facades on the net, or is it better to just try coding your own? i just thought it would be great for everyone not to reinvent the wheel. thanks.

  Read the article

• Dual usage of asp.net mvc and php under same domain

  - by jim

  Hello all, I've got a scenario where we have a customer who has a linux hosted php app (joomla) that they wish to integrate with some back-end asp.net mvc functionality that was created for a 'sister' site. Basically, the mvc site has prices and stock availability methods which (in the sister site) populates dropdown lists and other 'order' style info on the pages. I've been tasked with looking at the integration options to allow the php site to use this info as a 'service'. (as ever, these guys are looking at cost of ownership, maintenence etc, so this is their preferred route) Has anyone done anything similar with success?? I'd imagine (much like the sister site) liberal doses of ajax will be employed in order to populate portions of the page on demand. So this may have a bearing on any suggestions that you may have. Also, the methods that are being called ultimately end up populating the same database, so there are no issues with correlating the ID's across the different platforms. I don't really want to go down any 'iframe' type route if at all possible, tho' reality may dictate this as being an option. I'm possibly (naively) imagining that i could simply invoke the mvc functions directly from the php app with some sort of 'session' variable being passed for authentication. pretty tall order or pretty straightfwd?? cheers jim

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

  - by Jimmo

  I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

  Read the article

• Alternatives to the Entity Framework for Serving/Consuming an OData Interface

  - by Egahn

  I'm researching how to set up an OData interface to our database. I would like to be able to pull/query data from our DB into Excel, as a start. Eventually I would like to have Excel run queries and pull data over HTTP from a remote client, including authentication, etc. I've set up a working (rickety) prototype so far, using the ADO.NET Entity Data Model wizard in Visual Studio, and VSTO to create a test Excel worksheet with a button to pull from that ADO.NET interface. This works OK so far, and I can query the DB using Linq through the entities/objects that are created by the ADO.NET EDM wizard. However, I have started to run into some problems with this approach. I've been finding the Entity Framework difficult to work with (and in fact, also difficult to research solutions to, as there's a lot of chaff out there regarding it and older versions of it). An example of this is my being unable to figure out how to set the SQL command timeout (as opposed to the HTTP request timeout) on the DataServiceContext object that the wizard generates for my schema, but that's not the point of my question. The real question I have is, if I want to use OData as my interface standard, am I stuck with the Entity Framework? Are there any other solutions out there (preferably open source) which can set up, serve and consume an OData interface, and are easier to work with and less bloated than the Entity Framework? I have seen mention of NHibernate as an alternative, but most of the comparison threads I've seen are a few years old. Are there any other alternatives out there now? Thanks very much!

  Read the article

• Should we deploy a Webkit browser for our intranet applications?

  - by Jeff Meatball Yang

  At my place of employment, we are increasingly finding it difficult to develop for IE, which was historically the easiest browser to target, from an intranet-app point of view. It was already deployed. It already understood NTLM authentication, thus well integrated with our domain-level security. It had neat, albeit non-standard features such as XMLDOM and XmlHTTP. Now, we are increasingly irritated by issues presented by IE: There are several versions: IE 7, 8, and soon 9 beta, which all have slightly different issues related to performance, functionality (especially re:security and zones), and aesthetics. IE 7 and 8 are slower than Webkit-based browsers. Period. There are technology limitations such as missing canvas element, CSS bugs, etc. that make it hard to use 3rd party packages or even consistently write code across IE versions. Users are increasingly using Firefox or Chrome, even for intranet use. Does anyone have experience with making a transition? Any advice would be welcome.

  Read the article

• On Render Callback For G+ Button

  - by Michael Robinson

  How might I go about performing an action only when a G+ button has finished rendering? Facebook allows one to do this using the following: FB.XFBML.parse(document, function() { alert('rendering done'); }); I've perused Google's documentation, but didn't see anything helpful. Currently my workaround is to monitor the G+ element until certain elements have been added, then perform my action: (function() { var po = document.createElement('script'); po.type = 'text/javascript'; po.async = true; po.src = 'https://apis.google.com/js/plusone.js'; po.onload = function() { var awaitRender = function(element) { if (element.firstChild && element.firstChild.firstChild && element.firstChild.firstChild.tagName.toUpperCase() === 'IFRAME') { alert('rendered!'); } else { window.setTimeout(function() { awaitRender(element) }, 100); } }; var buttons = document.getElementsByClassName('googleplus-button'); for(var i = 0; i < buttons.length; i++) { awaitRender(buttons[i]); } } var s = document.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; s.parentNode.insertBefore(po, s); })(); I'd like to know please, if there is either: A correct way one should do this for G+ buttons A better implementation that what I've hacked together above

  Read the article

• The rules to connect a web service trough the SSL and Certificates

  - by blgnklc

  There is a web service running on tomcat on a server. It is built on Java Servlet. It is listening others to call itself on a SSL enabled http port. so its web service adreess looks like: https://172.29.12.12/axis/services/XYZClient?wsdl On the other hand I want to connect the web service above from a windows application which is built on .NET frame work. Finally, when I want to connect the web service from my computer; I get some specific erros; Firstly I get; Proxy authentication error; then I added some new line to my code; Dim cr As System.Net.NetworkCredential = New System.Net.NetworkCredential("xname", "xsurname", "xdomainname") Dim myProxy As New WebProxy("http://mar.xxxyyy.com", True) myProxy.Credentials = cr Secondly, after this modifications It says that bad request. I did not get over this error. Moreover I did try to connect the web server on the same computer. I copied my executable program to the computer where the web service runs. The error was like; The underlying connection was closed: Could not establish trust relationship for SSL/TLS secure channel PS: When I try to connect to web service by using Internet Explorer; I see firstly some warnings about accepting an unknown certificate and I click take me to web service an I get there clearly. I want to know what are the basic elements to connect a web service, could you please tell me the requirements that I have to use on my windows project. regards bk

  Read the article

• Tricky MySQL Query for messaging system in Rails - Please Help

  - by ole_berlin

  Hi, I'm writing a facebook style messaging system for a Rails App and I'm having trouble selecting the Messages for the inbox (with will_paginate). The messages are organized in threads, in the inbox the most recent message of a thread will appear with a link to it's thread. The thread is organized via a parent_id 1-n relationship with itself. So far I'm using something like this: class Message < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :sender, :class_name => 'User', :foreign_key => "sender_id" belongs_to :recipient, :class_name => 'User', :foreign_key => "recipient_id" has_many :children, :class_name => "Message", :foreign_key => "parent_id" belongs_to :thread, :class_name => "Message", :foreign_key => "parent_id" end class MessagesController < ApplicationController def inbox @messages = current_user.received_messages.paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 10, :order => "created_at DESC" end end That gives me all the messages, but for one thread the thread itself and the most recent message will appear (and not only the most recent message). I can also not use the GROUP BY clause, because for the thread itself (the parent so to say) the parent_id = nil of course. Anyone got an idea on how to solve this in an elegant way? I already thought about adding the parent_id to the parent itself and then group by parent_id, but I'm not sure if that works. Thanks

  Read the article

• How spoof referrer using curl

  - by golu molu

  I am using curl code below to spoof referrer , it works fine but there is error on every page - Curl error: $url = somesite.com function doMagic($url) { $curl = curl_init(); $header[0] = "Accept: text/xml,application/xml,application/xhtml+xml,"; $header[0] .= "text/html;q=0.9,text/plain;q=0.8,image/png,*/*;q=0.5"; $header[] = "Cache-Control: max-age=0"; $header[] = "Connection: keep-alive"; $header[] = "Keep-Alive: 300"; $header[] = "Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7"; $header[] = "Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5"; $header[] = "Pragma: "; curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 6.1; WOW64; rv:7.0.1) Gecko/20100101 Firefox/7.0.12011-10-16 20:23:00"); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $header); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_REFERER, "http://www.facebook.com"); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_ENCODING, "gzip,deflate"); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_AUTOREFERER, true); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 30); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION,true); $html = curl_exec($curl); echo 'Curl error: '. curl_error($curl); curl_close($curl); return $html; } $text = doMagic($url); print("$text"); what i'm doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Parallel.Foreach loop creating multiple db connections throws connection errors?

  - by shawn.mek

  Login failed. The login is from an untrusted domain and cannot be used with Windows authentication I wanted to get my code running in parallel, so I changed my foreach loop to a parallel foreach loop. It seemed simple enough. Each loop connects to the database, looks up some stuff, performs some logic, adds some stuff, closes the connection. But I get the above error? I'm using my local sql server and entity framework (each loop uses it's own context). Is there some problem with connecting multiple times using the same local login or something? How did I get around this? I have (before trying to covert to a parallel.foreach loop) split my list of objects that I am foreach looping through into four groups (separate csv files) and run four concurrent instances of my program (which ran faster overall than just one, thus the idea for parallel). So it seems connecting to the db shouldn't be a problem? Any ideas? EDIT: Here's before var gtgGenerator = new CustomGtgGenerator(); var connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BioEntities"].ConnectionString; var allAccessionsFromObs = _GetAccessionListFromDataFiles(collectionId); ForEach(cloneIdAndAccessions in allAccessionsFromObs) DoWork(gtgGenerator, taxonId, organismId, cloneIdAndAccessions, connectionString)); after var gtgGenerator = new CustomGtgGenerator(); var connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BioEntities"].ConnectionString; var allAccessionsFromObs = _GetAccessionListFromDataFiles(collectionId); Parallel.ForEach(allAccessionsFromObs, cloneIdAndAccessions => DoWork(gtgGenerator, taxonId, organismId, cloneIdAndAccessions, connectionString)); Inside the DoWork I use the BioEntities using (var bioEntities = new BioEntities(connectionString)) {...}

  Read the article

• How to handle authenticated user access to resources in document oriented system?

  - by Jeremy Raymond

  I'm developing a document oriented application and need to manage user access to the documents. I have a module that handles user authentication, and another module that handles document CRUD operations on the data store. Once a user is authenticated I need to enforce what operations the user can and cannot perform to documents based upon the user's permissions. The best option I could think of to integrate these two pieces together would be to create another module that duplicates the data API but that also takes the authenticated user as a parameter. The module would delegate the authorization check to the auth module and delegate the document operation to the data access module. Something like: -module(auth_data_access). % User is authenticated (logged into the system) % save_doc validates if user is allowed to save the given document and if so % saves it returning ok, else returns {error, permission_denied} save_doc(Doc, User) -> case auth:save_allowed(Doc, User) of ok -> data_access:save_doc(Doc); denied -> {error, permission_denied} end end. Is there a better way I can handle this?

  Read the article

• "NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON" error in Windows 7 (ASP.NET & Web Service)

  - by Tony_Henrich

  I have an asp.net web app which works fine in Windows XP machine in a domain. I am porting it to a Windows 7 stand alone machine. The app uses a web service which makes a call to sql server. The web server (IIS 7.5) and SQL Server are on the same stand alone machine. I enabled Windows authentication for the website and web service. The web service uses a trusted connection connection string. The web service credentials uses System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials. I noticed username, password and domainname are blank after the call! The webservice and web site use an application pool with identity "Network Service". I am getting an exception "NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON" in the database call in the web service. I am assuming it's related to the blank credentials. I am expecting ASPNET user to be the security token to the database. Why is this not happening? (Usually this happens when sql server and web server are on two different machines in a domain, delegation & double hopping, but in my case everything is on a dev box)

  Read the article

• Set HttpContext.Current.User from Thread.CurrentPrincipal

  - by Argons

  I have a security manager in my application that works for both windows and web, the process is simple, just takes the user and pwd and authenticates them against a database then sets the Thread.CurrentPrincipal with a custom principal. For windows applications this works fine, but I have problems with web applications. After the process of authentication, when I'm trying to set the Current.User to the custom principal from Thread.CurrentPrincipal this last one contains a GenericPrincipal. Am I doing something wrong? This is my code: Login.aspx protected void btnAuthenticate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Authenticate("user","pwd"); FormsAuthenticationTicket authenticationTicket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, "user", DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(30), false, ""); string ticket = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(authenticationTicket); HttpCookie authenticationCookie = new HttpCookie(FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, ticket); Response.Cookies.Add(authenticationCookie); Response.Redirect(FormsAuthentication.GetRedirectUrl("user", false)); } Global.asax (This is where the problem appears) protected void Application_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { HttpCookie authCookie = Context.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; if (authCookie == null) return; if (HttpContext.Current.User != null && HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated && HttpContext.Current.User.Identity is FormsIdentity) { HttpContext.Current.User = System.Threading.Thread.CurrentPrincipal; //Here the value is GenericPrincipal } Thanks in advance for any help. }

  Read the article

• SQL Server 2008 - db mail issue

  - by Chris

  Hello. I have two instances of SQL Server 2008. One was upgraded from SQL Server 2000 and one was a clean, new install. SQL Mail operates perfectly on both instances. DB Mail operates perfectly on the newly installed instance. On the upgraded instance, DB Mail does not send any mail. Of course, I am not positive that the fact this instance is upgraded has anything to do with the issue, but it might. The configuration of my db mail profile and account looks identical to my functioning instance. In the configuration of the 'alerts' tab in the SQL Agent properties i have tried selecting both DB Mail and SQL Mail to no avail. Both instances use the same SMTP server with the same authentication (domain with db engine account). All messages sent via sp_send_db mail and those sent via the 'test email' option are visible in the sysmail_allitems queue and remain there as 'unsent'. The send_status eventually changes to 'failed'. The only messages in the sysmail_event_log are 'mail queue stopped by login domain\myuser', 'mail queue started by login domain/myuser' and 'activiation successful.'. selecting from the externalmailqueue has the same number of rows as sysmail_allitems. i have tried bouncing the agent, the entire instance and moving the other functioning instance to the other node in the cluster. any thoughts? thx.

  Read the article

• Choosing a method for a webservice

  - by Wrikken

  I'm asked to set up a new webservice which should be easily usable in whatever language (php, .NET, Java, etc.) possible. Of course rolling my own can be done, accepting different content-types (xml / x-www-form-urlencoded (normal post) / json / etc.), but an existing method or mechanism would of course be prefered, cutting down time spent on development for the consumers of the service. The webservice does accept modifications / sets (it is not only simply data retrieval), but those will most likely be quite a lot less then gets (we estimate about 2.5% sets, 97.5 gets). The term webservice here indicates the protocol should go over HTTP, not being able to implement it totally client sided (javascript in the end-users browser etc.), as it needs specific user authentication. Both gets and sets are pretty light on the parameter count (usually 1 to 4). Methods like REST (which I'd prefer for only gets), XML-RPC & SOAP (might be a bit overkill, but has the advantage of explicitly defined methods and returns) are the usual suspects. What in your opinion / experience is the most widely 'spoken' and most easily implementable protocol in different languages (seen from the consumers' viewpoint) which could fullfill this need?

  Read the article

• How to make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method

  - by johnrock

  I have a Spring Security (form based authentication) web app running CXF JAX-RS webservices and I am trying to connect to this webservice from an Android app that can be authenticated on a per user basis. Currently, when I add an @Secured annotation to my webservice method all requests to this method are denied. I have tried to pass in credentials of a valid user/password (that currently exists in the Spring Security based web app and can log in to the web app successfully) from the android call but the request still fails to enter this method when the @Secured annotation is present. The SecurityContext parameter returns null when calling getUserPrincipal(). How can I make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method? Here is the code I am working with at the moment: Android call: httpclient.getCredentialsProvider().setCredentials( //new AuthScope("192.168.1.101", 80), new AuthScope(null, -1), new UsernamePasswordCredentials("joeuser", "mypassword")); String userAgent = "Android/" + getVersion(); HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(MY_URI); httpget.setHeader("User-Agent", userAgent); httpget.setHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml"); HttpResponse response; try { response = httpclient.execute(httpget); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); ... parse xml Webservice Method: @GET @Path("/payload") @Produces("application/XML") @Secured({"ROLE_USER","ROLE_ADMIN","ROLE_GUEST"}) public Response makePayload(@Context Request request, @Context SecurityContext securityContext){ Payload payload = new Payload(); payload.setUsersOnline(new Long(200)); if (payload == null) { return Response.noContent().build(); } else{ return Response.ok().entity(payload).build(); } }

  Read the article

• Twitter O-Auth Callback url

  - by jtymann

  I am having a problem with Twitter's oauth authentication and using a callback url. I am coding in php and using the sample code referenced by the twitter wiki, http://github.com/abraham/twitteroauth I got that code, and tried a simple test and it worked nicely. However I want to programatically specify the callback url, and the example did not support that. So I quickly modified the getRequestToken() method to take in a parameter and now it looks like this: function getRequestToken($params = array()) { $r = $this->oAuthRequest($this->requestTokenURL(), $params); $token = $this->oAuthParseResponse($r); $this->token = new OAuthConsumer($token['oauth_token'], $token['oauth_token_secret']); return $token; } and my call looks like this $tok = $to->getRequestToken(array('oauth_callback' => 'http://127.0.0.1/twitter_prompt/index.php')); This is the only change I made, and the redirect works like a charm, however I am getting an error when I then try and use my newly granted access to try and make a call. I get a "Could not authenticate you" error. Also the application never actually gets added to the users authorized connections. Now I read the specs and I thought all I had to do was specify the parameter when getting the request token. Could someone a little more seasoned in oauth and twitter possibly give me a hand? Thank You

  Read the article

• DotNetOpenAuth / WebSecurity Basic Info Exchange

  - by Jammer

  I've gotten a good number of OAuth logins working on my site now. My implementation is based on the WebSecurity classes with amends to the code to suit my needs (I pulled the WebSecurity source into mine). However I'm now facing a new set of problems. In my application I have opted to make the user email address the login identifier of choice. It's naturally unique and suits this use case. However, the OAuth "standards" strikes again. Some providers will return your email address as "username" (Google) some will return the display name (Facebook). As it stands I see to options given my particular scenario: Option 1 Pull even more framework source code into my solution until I can chase down where the OpenIdRelyingParty class is actually interacted with (via the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet facade) and make addition information requests from the OpenID Providers. Option 2 When a user first logs in using an OpenID provider I can display a kind of "complete registration" form that requests missing info based on the provider selected.* Option 2 is the most immediate and probably the quickest to implement but also includes some code smells through having to do something different based on the provider selected. Option 1 will take longer but will ultimately make things more future proof. I will need to perform richer interactions down the line so this also has an edge in that regard. The more I get into the code it does seem that the WebSecurity class itself is actually very limiting as it hides lots of useful DotNetOpenAuth functionality in the name of making integration easier. Andrew (the author of DNOA) has said that the Attribute Exchange stuff happens in the OpenIdRelyingParty class but I cannot see from the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet source code where this class is used so I'm unsure of what source would need to be pulled into my code in order to enable the functionality I need. Has anyone completely something similar?

  Read the article

• QueryHistory against a codeplex project hangs indefinitely

  - by Robaticus

  I'm working on a TFS utility that gets the changesets for a particular project in TFS. I've got a home TFS 2010 server which I primarily use for testing, but I decided to give it a try against a codeplex project to which I contribute. That way, I can test functionality against a larger number of changesets than I have locally. While it works fine in my environment, heading out over the wire to codeplex has left me stumped. My application queries the history, but then, when trying to iterate through the history (which is when it lazy-loads the IEnumerable), my application hangs. Looking at Intellitrace, I see a couple of "first chance" exceptions that the "item doesn't exist at the specified version"-- which is patently not true, as I'm trying to get history for "$/" at VersionSpec.Latest. I also see two or three consecutive server 500 errors being returned to me after forcing debugging to pause. Other operations (like GetItems() ) work fine, so I'm pretty sure authentication isn't an issue. Any thoughts? Here's the code: IEnumerable items = vcs.QueryHistory("$/", VersionSpec.Latest, 1, RecursionType.None, null, null, null, 5, true, false); List<ChangesetItem> returnList = new List<ChangesetItem>(); foreach (Changeset cs in items) //hangs here on first iteraiton { ChangesetItem newItem = new ChangesetItem() { ChangesetId = cs.ChangesetId, //ChangesetNote = cs.CheckinNote.Values[0].Value, Comment = cs.Comment, Committer = cs.Committer, CreationDate = cs.CreationDate }; returnList.Add(newItem); }

  Read the article

• How to get rid of the 'progress' cursor?

  - by Ivan

  I have an interval that launches an AJAX call to check if there is any update for the page (I imagine that it's similar to the mechanism used by Facebook or StackExchange to check for new notifications). The problem is that this call changes the cursor to the 'progress' or 'busy' cursor (visual problem) and disables to option to click on links (functional problem). I suppose both problems are related. How can get rid of this effect or at least minimize the consequences? Some code: setInterval(function() { try { var mid = $($("ul#alert-messages li.regular")[0]).attr('ref'); call_ajax('/load_alerts', {num:0, id:mid}, function (data) { if (data.ok) { for (var i=0; i<data.result.length; i++) { // .... } // ... } }, function() {}, // Do not show any error for this!! false); // Do not change cursor! } catch (e) {} }, 15000); function call_ajax(url, data, fnSuccess, fnError) { $.ajax({ 'url': url, 'type': 'POST', 'data': data, 'dataType': "json", 'success' : function(data) { if (fnSuccess) { fnSuccess(data); } else { if (typeof data.msg != 'undefined') { topBar(data.msg, typeof data.ok != 'undefined' && data.ok? 'message' : 'error'); } } }, error : function (jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown) { console.log(errorThrown); if (fnError) { fnError(STR_ERROR_AJAX + textStatus); } else { topBar(STR_ERROR_AJAX + textStatus, 'error'); } } }); }

  Read the article

• .Net 2.0 ServiceController.GetServices()

  - by Miles

  I've got a website that has windows authentication enable on it. From a page in the website, the users have the ability to start a service that does some stuff with the database. It works fine for me to start the service because I'm a local admin on the server. But I just had a user test it and they can't get the service started. My question is: Does anyone know of a way to get a list of services on a specified computer by name using a different windows account than the one they are currently logged in with? I really don't want to add all the users that need to start the service into a windows group and set them all to a local admin on my IIS server..... Here's some of the code I've got: public static ServiceControllerStatus FindService() { ServiceControllerStatus status = ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped; try { string machineName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceMachineName"]; ServiceController[] services = ServiceController.GetServices(machineName); string serviceName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceName"].ToLower(); foreach (ServiceController service in services) { if (service.ServiceName.ToLower() == serviceName) { status = service.Status; break; } } } catch(Exception ex) { status = ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped; SaveError(ex, "Utilities - FindService()"); } return status; } My exception comes from the second line in the try block. Here's the error: System.InvalidOperationException: Cannot open Service Control Manager on computer 'server.domain.com'. This operation might require other privileges. --- System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception: Access is denied --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.ServiceProcess.ServiceController.GetDataBaseHandleWithAccess(String machineName, Int32 serviceControlManaqerAccess) at System.ServiceProcess.ServiceController.GetServicesOfType(String machineName, Int32 serviceType) at TelemarketingWebSite.Utilities.StartService() Thanks for the help/info

  Read the article

• How to tell what account my webservice is running under in Visual Studio 2005

  - by John Galt

  I'm going a little nuts trying to understand the doc on impersonation and delegation and the question has come up what account my webservice is running under. I am logged as myDomainName\johna on my development workstation called JOHNXP. From Vstudio2005 I start my webservice via Debug and the wsdl page comes up in my browser. From Task Manager, I see the following while sitting at a breakpoint in my .asmx code: aspnet_wp.exe pid=1316 UserName=ASPNET devenv.exe pid=3304 UserName=johna The IIS Directory Security tab for the Virtual Directory that hosts my ws.asmx code has "Enable Anonymous access" UNCHECKED and has "Integrated Windows Authentication" CHECKED. So when the MSDN people state "you must configure the user account under which the server process runs", what would they be refering to in the case of my little webservice described above? I am quoting from: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa302400.aspx Ultimately, I want this webservice of mine to impersonate whatever authenticated domain user browses through to an invoke of my webservice. My webservice in turn consumes another ASMX webservice on a different server (but same domain). I need this remote webservice to use the impersonated domain user credentials (not those of my webservice on JOHNXP). So its getting a little snarly for me to understand this and I see I am unclear about the account my web service uses. I think it is ASPNET in IIS 5.1 on WinXP but not sure.

  Read the article

• Can't decrypt after encrypting with blowfish Java

  - by user2030599

  Hello i'm new to Java and i have the following problem: i'm trying to encrypt the password of a user using the blowfish algorithm, but when i try to decrypt it back to check the authentication it fails to decrypt it for some reason. public static String encryptBlowFish(String to_encrypt, String salt){ String dbpassword = null; try{ SecretKeySpec skeySpec = new SecretKeySpec( salt.getBytes(), "Blowfish" ); // Instantiate the cipher. Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("Blowfish/CBC/PKCS5Padding"); cipher.init(Cipher.ENCRYPT_MODE, skeySpec); //byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( URLEncoder.encode(data).getBytes() ); byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( to_encrypt.getBytes() ); dbpassword = new String(encrypted); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception while encrypting"); e.printStackTrace(); dbpassword = null; } finally { return dbpassword; } } public static String decryptBlowFish(String to_decrypt, String salt){ String dbpassword = null; try{ SecretKeySpec skeySpec = new SecretKeySpec( salt.getBytes(), "Blowfish" ); // Instantiate the cipher. Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("Blowfish/CBC/PKCS5Padding"); cipher.init(Cipher.DECRYPT_MODE, skeySpec); //byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( URLEncoder.encode(data).getBytes() ); byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( to_decrypt.getBytes() ); dbpassword = new String(encrypted); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception while decrypting"); e.printStackTrace(); dbpassword = null; } finally { return dbpassword; } } When i call the decrypt function it gives me the following error: java.security.InvalidKeyException: Parameters missing Any ideas? Thank you

  Read the article

• Applying fine-grained security to an existing application

  - by Mark

  I've inherited a reasonably large and complex ASP.NET MVC3 web application using EF Code First on SQL Server. It uses ASP.NET Membership roles with database authentication. The controller actions are secured with attributes derived from AuthorizeAttribute that map roles to actions. There are extension methods for the finer points, such as showing a particular widget to particular roles. This is works great and I have a good understanding of the current security model. I've been asked to provide finer grained security at the data level. For example a 'Customer' user can only see data (throughout the database) associated with themselves and not other Customers. The problem is that 'Customer' is only 1 of 5 different types with their own specific restrictions (each of the 9 roles is one of these 5 types). The best thing I can think of is to go through all the data repositories and extend each and every LINQ statements/query with a filter for every user type. Even if I had time for that it doesn't seem like the most elegant way. Any suggestions? I really don't know where to start with this so anything could be helpful. Many thanks.

  Read the article

• ASP can't connect to SQL Server database

  - by birdus

  I'm trying to get a classic ASP application to connect to a local SQL Server 2008 database. The app and database were built by someone else. I'm just trying to get them installed and running on my machine (Windows 7). I'm getting the following error when when the ASP app tries to connect to the database: Could not connect to database: Error Number: -2147467259 Error Message: [ConnectionOpen (Connect()).] does not exist or access denied. I don't see any messages in the Windows Event Viewer. I'm looking at: Event Viewer-Windows Logs-Application. It's a fresh database install using a simple restore. The SQL Server install uses the default instance. SQL Server and Windows authentication are both allowed. I left the existing connection string (in the ASP code) in tact and just tried adding that to my SQL Server installation. Here's the connection string: strConn = "PROVIDER=SQLOLEDB;SERVER=localhost;UID=TheUser;PWD=ThePassword;DATABASE=TheDatabase;" To add that user to SQL Server, I went to Security/Logins in SSMS and added the user and the password. I selected the database in question as the Default database. I thought that might do the trick, but it didn't. Then, I went into TheDatabase, then went into Security there. I added a new user there, referencing the new user I had already added in server Security. Under Owned Schemas, I clicked db_owner and under Role Members I checked db_accessadmin and db_owner. None of this gave the ASP application access to the database. The sid values match in sys.database_principals and sys.server_principals for the login in question. I am able to login to SSMS using this login. The app needs to execute selects against the database like this: oConn.Execute('select * from someTable') I'm not a DBA and am sort of grasping at straws here. How do I get this thing connected? Thanks, Jay

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368  | Next Page >