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• javascript pausing consistently. How do I find what is causing it to pause?

  - by pedalpete

  I've got a fairly ajax heavy site and I'm trying to tune the performance. I have a function that runs between 20 & 200 times, depending on the user. I'm outputting the time the function takes to execute via console.time in firefox. The function takes about 4-6ms to complete. The strange thing is that on my larger test with 200 or runs through that function, it runs through the first 31, then seems to pause for almost a second before completing the last 170 or so. However, that 'pause' doesn't show up in the console.time logs, and I'm not running any other functions, and the object that gets passed to the function looks the same as all other objects that get passed in. The function is called like this for (var s in thisGroup.events){ showEvent(thisGroup.events[s]) } so, I don't see how or why it would suddenly pause near the beginning. but only pause once and then continue through. The pause ALWAYS happens on the 31st time through the function. I've taken a close look at the 'thisGroup.events[s]' that it is being run through, and it looks like this for #31 "eventId":"5106", "sid":"68", "gid":"29", "uid":"70","type":"event", "startDate":"2010-03-22","startTime":"6:00 PM","endDate":"2010-03-22","endTime":"11:00 PM","durationLength":"5", "durationTime":"5:00", "note":"", "desc":"event" The event immediately after the pause, #32 looks like this "eventId":"5111", "sid":"68", "gid":"29", "uid":"71","type":"event", "startDate":"2010-03-22","startTime":"6:00 PM","endDate":"2010-03-22","endTime":"11:00 PM","durationLength":"5", "durationTime":"5:00", "note":"", "desc":"event" another event that runs through no problem looks like this "eventId":"5113", "sid":"68", "gid":"29", "uid":"72","type":"event", "startDate":"2010-03-22","startTime":"4:30 PM","endDate":"2010-03-22","endTime":"11:00 PM","durationLength":"6.5", "durationTime":"6:30", "note":"", "desc":"event" From the console outputs, it doesn't appear as there is anything hanging or taking up time in the function itself, as the console.time for each event including #31,32 is 4ms. Another strange thing here is that the total time running the for loop across the entire object is coming out as 1014ms which is right for 200 events at 4-6ms each. Any suggestions on how to find this 'pause'? I find it very interesting that it is consistently happening between #31 & #32 only!

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• Generate an ID via COM interop

  - by Erik van Brakel

  At the moment, we've got an unmaintanable ball of code which offers an interface to a third party application. The third party application has a COM assembly which MUST be used to create new entries. This process involves two steps: generate a new object (basically an ID), and update that object with new field values. Because COM interop is so slow, we only use that to generate the ID (and related objects) in the database. The actual update is done using a regular SQL query. What I am trying to figure out if it's possible to use NHibernate to do some of the heavy lifting for us, without bypassing the COM assembly. Here's the code for saving something to the database as I envision it: using(var s = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using(var t = s.BeginTransaction()) { MyEntity entity = new MyEntity(); s.Save(entity); t.Commit(); } Regular NH code I'd say. Now, this is where it gets tricky. I think I have to supply my own implementation of NHibernate.Id.IIdentifierGenerator which calls the COM assembly in the Generate method. That's not a problem. What IS a problem is that the COM assembly requires initialisation, which does take a bit of time. It also doesn't like multiple instances in the same process, for some reason. What I would like to know is if there's a way to properly access an external service in the generator code. I'm free to use any technique I want, so if it involves something like an IoC container that's no problem. The thing I am looking for is where exactly to hook-up my code so I can access the things I need in my generator, without having to resort to using singletons or other nasty stuff.

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• How to access a superclass's class attributes in Python?

  - by Brecht Machiels

  Have a look at the following code: class A(object): defaults = {'a': 1} def __getattr__(self, name): print('A.__getattr__') return self.get_default(name) @classmethod def get_default(cls, name): # some debug output print('A.get_default({}) - {}'.format(name, cls)) try: print(super(cls, cls).defaults) # as expected except AttributeError: #except for the base object class, of course pass # the actual function body try: return cls.defaults[name] except KeyError: return super(cls, cls).get_default(name) # infinite recursion #return cls.__mro__[1].get_default(name) # this works, though class B(A): defaults = {'b': 2} class C(B): defaults = {'c': 3} c = C() print('c.a =', c.a) I have a hierarchy of classes each with its own dictionary containing some default values. If an instance of a class doesn't have a particular attribute, a default value for it should be returned instead. If no default value for the attribute is contained in the current class's defaults dictionary, the superclass's defaults dictionary should be searched. I'm trying to implement this using the recursive class method get_default. The program gets stuck in an infinite recursion, unfortunately. My understanding of super() is obviously lacking. By accessing __mro__, I can get it to work properly though, but I'm not sure this is a proper solution. I have the feeling the answer is somewhere in this article, but I haven't been able to find it yet. Perhaps I need to resort to using a metaclass?

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• How do I populate these fields from existing data?

  - by dmanexe

  I'm not sure how to make a few parts of my form to populate from data from an array I'm passing from the database. First is this <select> object. The key estimate_lead_id in the database holds the value, and I want the dropdown to auto-select based on the value from the database. <select name="estimate_lead_id"> <? foreach($leads->result() as $lead) { ?> <option value="<?=$lead->id?>"><?=$lead->lead_name?></option> <? } ?> </select> Second (this is a little more complex), I have created a script that loops through and gets all of the items from each respective category. What I can't get it to do though is loop through these items and only display the items in the estimate, and then fill the fields with the respective values from the database. <?php foreach ($items['items_poolconcretedecking']->result() as $item) { ?> <input type="checkbox" name="measure[<?=$item->id?>][checkmark]" value="<?=$item->id?>"> <input class="item_mult" value="" type="text" name="measure[<?=$item->id?>][quantity]" /> <?php } ?>

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• ajax to php to curl and back..

  - by pfunc

  I am trying to make an ajax call to a php script. The php script calls an rss feed using curl, gets the data, and returns the data to the funciton. I keep getting an error "Warning: Wrong parameter count for curl_error() in" .... Here is my php code:1 $ch = curl_init() or die(curl_error()); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $feed); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $data1 = curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); echo $data1; and the ajax call: $.ajax({ url: "getSingleFeed.php", type: "POST", data: "feedURL=" + window.feedURL, success: function(feed){ alert(feed); }}); I tested all the variables, they are being passed correctly, I can echo them out. But this line: $data1 = curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); is what is giving me the error. I am doing the same thing with curl on other pages, just without ajax, and it is working fine. Is there anything special I need to do with ajax to do this?

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• Problem with load testing Web Service - VSTS 2008

  - by Carlos

  Hello, I have a webtest with makes a simple call to a WebService which looks like that: MyWebService webService = new MyWebService(); webService.Timeout = 180000; webService.myMethod(); I am not using ThinkTimes, also the Run Duration is set to 5 minutes. When I ran this test simulating only 1 user, I check the counters and I found something like that: Tests Total: 4500 Network Interface\Bytes sent (agent machine): 35,500 Then I ran the same tests, but this time simulating 2 users and I got something like that: Tests Total: 2225 Network Interface\Bytes sent (agent machine): 30,500 So when I increased the numbers of users the tests/sec was half than when I use only 1 user and the bytes sent by the agent was also lower. I think it is strange, because it doesn't seems I have a bottleneck in my agent machine since CPU is never higher than 30% and I have over 1.5GB of RAM free, also my network utilization is like 0.5% of its capacity. In order to troubleshot this I ran a test using Step Pattern, the simulated users went from 20 to 800 users. When I check the requests/sec it is practically constant through the whole test, so it is clear there is something in my test or my environment which is preventing the number of requests from gets higher. It would be a expected behavior if the "response time" was getting higher because it would tell me the requests wasn't been processed properly, but the strange thing is the response time is practically constant all the time and it is pretty low actually. I have no idea why my agent can't send more requests when I increase the numbers of users, any help/tip/guess would be really appreciate.

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• Difference in F# and Clojure when calling redefined functions

  - by Michiel Borkent

  In F#: > let f x = x + 2;; val f : int -> int > let g x = f x;; val g : int -> int > g 10;; val it : int = 12 > let f x = x + 3;; val f : int -> int > g 10;; val it : int = 12 In Clojure: 1:1 user=> (defn f [x] (+ x 2)) #'user/f 1:2 user=> (defn g [x] (f x)) #'user/g 1:3 user=> (g 10) 12 1:4 user=> (defn f [x] (+ x 3)) #'user/f 1:5 user=> (g 10) 13 Note that in Clojure the most recent version of f gets called in the last line. In F# however still the old version of f is called. Why is this and how does this work?

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• Readonly SiteMapNodes in ASP.Net MVC?

  - by BenN

  I'm using MVCSiteMap as a SiteMapProvider for my MVC site. I have a node set up like so.... <mvcSiteMapNode key="1" title="Product" controller="Product" action="Display" isDynamic="true" dynamicParameters="id"> <mvcSiteMapNode key="11" title="More Details" controller="Product" action="MoreDetails" isDynamic="true" dynamicParameters="id" /> </mvcSiteMapNode> ...Which means I can go to ~/Product/Display/12 and get a correct sitemap node for product id 12 (in this case just Product. And I can go to ~/Product/MoreDetails/12 and get the sitemap path for the MoreDetails (Product - More Details). The problem is that the link back to Product in this sitemap doesn't work - it skips the id off the end, instead linking to ~/Product/Display/. Which sucks. I've discovered I can edit the Title of a node using SiteMap.CurrentNode.Title = "My New Title"; But... SiteMap.CurrentNode.ParentNode.Url = "http://www.google.com"; Doesn't set the Url for the parent node; it gets the default link described before. Any ideas how I can set the URL of a SiteMapNode?

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• C# Windows Service doesn't seem to like privatePath

  - by SauerC

  I wrote a C# Windows Service to handle task scheduling for our application. I'm trying to move the "business rules" assemblies into a bin subdirectory of the scheduling application to make it easier for us to do updates (stop service, delete all files in bin folder, replace with new ones, start service). I added <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="bin;"/> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> to the service's app config and it works fine if the service is run as a console application. Problem is when the service is run as a windows service it doesn't work. It appears that when windows runs the service the app config file gets read properly but then the service is executed as if it was in c:\windows\system32 and not the actually EXE location and that gums up the works. We've got a lot of assemblies so I really don't want to use the GAC or <codeBase>. Is it possible to have the EXE change it's base directory back to where it should be when it's run as a service?

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• iPhone/iPad : Check for invalid characters in a textbox made for Integers only

  - by JustinXXVII

  I noticed that the iPhone OS is pretty good about picking out Integer values when asked to. Specifically, if you use NSString *stringName = @"6("; int number = [stringName intValue]; the iPhone OS will pick out the 6 and turn the variable number into 6. However, in more complex mistypes, this also makes the int variable 6: NSString *stringName = @"6(5"; int number = [stringName intValue]; The iPhone OS misses the other digit, when what could have possibly been the user trying to enter the number 65, the OS only gets the number 6 out of it. I need a solution to check a string for invalid characters and return NO if there is anything other than an unsigned integer in a textbox. This is for iPad, and currently there is no numeric keyboard like the iPhone has, and I'm instead limited to the standard 123 keyboard. I was thinking that I need to use NSRange and somehow loop through the entire string in the textbox, and checking to see if the current character in the iteration is a number. I'm lost as far as that goes. I can think of testing it against zero, but zero is a valid integer. Can anyone help?

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• Mocking Autofac's "Resolve" extension method with TypeMock

  - by Lockshopr

  I'm trying to mock an Autofac resolve, such as: using System; using Autofac; using TypeMock.ArrangeActAssert; class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var inst = Isolate.Fake.Instance<IContainer>(); Isolate.Fake.StaticMethods(typeof(ResolutionExtensions), Members.ReturnNulls); Isolate.WhenCalled(() => inst.Resolve<IRubber>()).WillReturn(new BubbleGum()); Console.Out.WriteLine(inst.Resolve<IRubber>()); } } public interface IRubber {} public class BubbleGum : IRubber {} Coming from Moq, the syntax and exceptions from TypeMock confuse me a great deal. Having initially run this in a TestMethod, I kept getting an exception resembling "WhenCalled cannot be run without a complementing behavior". I tried defining behaviors for everyone and their mothers, but to no avail. Then I debug stepped through the test run, and saw that an actual exception was fired from Autofac: IRubber has not been registered. So it's obvious that the static Resolve function isn't being faked, and I can't get it to be faked, no matter how I go about hooking it up. Isolate.WhenCalled(() => ResolutionExtensions.Resolve<IRubber>(null)).WillReturn(new BubbleGum()); ... throws an exception from Autofac complaining that the IComponentContext cannot be null. Feeding it the presumably faked IContainer (or faking an IComponentContext instead) gets me back to the "IRubber not registered" error.

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• Using bitwise operators on > 32 bit integers

  - by dqhendricks

  I am using bitwise operations in order to represent many access control flags within one integer. ADMIN_ACCESS = 1; EDIT_ACCOUNT_ACCESS = 2; EDIT_ORDER_ACCESS = 4; var myAccess = 3; // ie: ( ADMIN_ACCESS | EDIT_ACCOUNT_ACCESS ) if ( myAccess & EDIT_ACCOUNT_ACCESS ) { // check for correct access // allow for editing of account } Most of this is occurring on the PHP side of my project. There is one piece however where Javascript is used to join several access flags using | when saving someone's access level. This works fine to a point. I have found that once an integer (flag) gets too large ( 32bit), it no longer works correctly with bitwise operators in Javascript. For instance: alert( 4294967296 | 1 ); // equals 1, but should equal 4294967297 I am trying to find a workaround for this so that I do not have to limit my number of access control flags to 32. Each access control flag is two times the previous control flag so that each control flag will not interfere with other control flags. dec(4) = bin(100) dec(8) = bin(1000) dec(16) = bin(10000) I have noticed that when adding two of these flags together with a simple +, it seems to come out with the same answer as a bitwise or operation, but am having trouble wrapping my head around whether this is a simple substitution, or if there might be problems with doing this. Can anyone comment on the validity of this workaround? Example: (4294967296 | 262144 | 524288) == (4294967296 + 262144 + 524288)

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• Custom rowsetClass does not return values

  - by Wesley

  Hi, I'm quite new to Zend and the database classes from it. I'm having problems mapping a Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract to my rows. The problem is that whenever I try to map it to a class (Job) that extends the Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract class, the database data is not receivable anymore. I'm not getting any errors, trying to get data simply returns null. Here is my code so far: Jobs: class Jobs extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'jobs'; protected $_rowsetClass = "Job"; public function getActiveJobs() { $select = $this->select()->where('jobs.jobDateOpen < UNIX_TIMESTAMP()')->limit(15,0); $rows = $this->fetchAll($select); return $rows; } } Job: class Job extends Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract { public function getCompanyName() { //Gets the companyName } } Controller: $oJobs = new Jobs(); $aActiveJobs = $oJobs->getActiveJobs(); foreach ($aActiveJobs as $value) { var_dump($value->jobTitle); } When I remove the "protected $_rowsetClass = "Job";" line, so that the table row is not mapped to my own class, I get all the jobTitles perfectly. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks in advance, Wesley

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• Javascript Mouseover bubbling from children

  - by Nicky De Maeyer

  Ive got the following html setup: <div id="div1"> <div id="content1">blaat</div> <div id="content1">blaat2</div> </div> it is styled so you can NOT hover div1 without hovering one of the other 2 divs. Now i've got a mouseout on div1. The problem is that my div1.mouseout gets triggered when i move from content1 to content2, because their mouseouts are bubbling. and the event's target, currentTarget or relatedTarget properties are never div1, since it is never hovered directly... I've been searching mad for this, but I can only find articles and solutions for problems who are the reverse of what I need. It seems trivial but I can't get it to work... The mouseout of div1 should ONLY get triggered when the mouse leaves div1. One of the possibilities would be to set some data on mouse enter and mouseleave, but I'm convinced this should work out of the box, since it is just a mouseout... EDIT: bar.mouseleave(function(e) { if ($(e.currentTarget).attr('id') == bar.attr('id')) { bar.css('top', '-'+contentOuterHeight+'px'); $('#floatable-bar #floatable-bar-tabs span').removeClass('active'); } }); changed the mouseout to mouseleave and the code worked...

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• Zend_Form using subforms getValues() problem

  - by wiseguydigital

  Hi all, I am building a form in Zend Framework 1.9 using subforms as well as Zend_JQuery being enabled on those forms. The form itself is fine and all the error checking etc is working as normal. But the issue I am having is that when I'm trying to retrieve the values in my controller, I'm receiving just the form entry for the last subform e.g. My master form class (abbreviated for speed): Master_Form extends Zend_Form { public function init() { ZendX_JQuery::enableForm($this); $this->setAction('actioninhere') ... ->setAttrib('id', 'mainForm') $sub_one = new Form_One(); $sub_one->setDecorators(... in here I add the jQuery as per the docs); $this->addSubForm($sub_one, 'form-one'); $sub_two = new Form_Two(); $sub_two->setDecorators(... in here I add the jQuery as per the docs); $this->addSubForm($sub_two, 'form-two'); } } So that all works as it should in the display and when I submit without filling in the required values, the correct errors are returned. However, in my controller I have this: class My_Controller extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function createAction() { $request = $this->getRequest(); $form = new Master_Form(); if ($request->isPost()) { if ($form->isValid($request->getPost()) { // This is where I am having the problems print_r($form->getValues()); } } } } When I submit this and it gets past isValid(), the $form-getValues() is only returning the elements from the second subform, not the entire form.

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• Help making userscript work in chrome

  - by Vishal Shah

  I've written a userscript for Gmail Pimp.my.Gmail & i'd like it to be compatible with Google Chrome too. Now i have tried a couple of things, to the best of my Javascript knowledge (which is very weak) & have been successful up-to a certain extent, though im not sure if it's the right way. Here's what i tried, to make it work in Chrome: The very first thing i found is that contentWindow.document doesn't work in chrome, so i tried contentDocument, which works. BUT i noticed one thing, checking the console messages in Firefox and Chrome, i saw that the script gets executed multiple times in Firefox whereas in Chrome it just executes once! So i had to abandon the window.addEventListener('load', init, false); line and replace it with window.setTimeout(init, 5000); and i'm not sure if this is a good idea. The other thing i tried is keeping the window.addEventListener('load', init, false); line and using window.setTimeout(init, 1000); inside init() in case the canvasframe is not found. So please do lemme know what would be the best way to make this script cross-browser compatible. Oh and im all ears for making this script better/efficient code wise (which is sure there is)

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• Where'd my sounds go?

  - by Dane Man

  In my Row class I have the initWithCoder method and everything restored in that method works fine, but only within the method. After the method is called I loose an array of sounds that is in my Row class. The sounds class also has the initWithCoder method, and the sound plays fine but only in the Row class initWithCoder method. After decoding the Row object, the sound array disappears completely and is unable to be called. Here's my source for the initWithCoder: - (id) initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)coder { ... soundArray = [coder decodeObjectForKey:@"soundArray"]; NSLog(@"%d",[soundArray count]); return self; } the log shows the count as 8 like it should (this is while unarchiving). Then the row object I create gets assigned. And the resulting row object no longer has a soundArray. [NSKeyedArchiver archiveRootObject:row toFile:@"DefaultRow"]; ... row = [NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:@"DefaultRow"]; So now whenever I call the soundArray it crashes. //ERROR IS HERE NSLog(@"%d",[[row soundArray] count]); Help please (soundArray is an NSMutableArray).

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• Scale image to fit text boxes around borders

  - by nispio

  I have the following plot in Matlab: The image size may vary, and so may the length of the text boxes at the top and left. I dynamically determine the strings that go in these text boxes and then create them with: [M,N] = size(img); imagesc((1:N)-0.5,(1:M)-0.5, img > 0.5); axis image; grid on; colormap([1 1 1; 0.5 0.5 0.5]); set(gca,'XColor','k','YColor','k','TickDir','out') set(gca,'XTick',1:N,'XTickLabel',cell(1,N)) set(gca,'YTick',1:N,'YTickLabel',cell(1,N)) for iter = 1:M text(-0.5, iter-0.5, sprintf(strL, br{iter,:}), ... 'FontSize',16, ... 'HorizontalAlignment','right', ... 'VerticalAlignment','middle', ... 'Interpreter','latex' ); end for iter = 1:N text(iter-0.5, -0.5, {bc{:,iter}}, ... 'FontSize',16, ... 'HorizontalAlignment','center', ... 'VerticalAlignment','bottom', ... 'Interpreter','latex' ); end where br and bc are cell arrays containing the appropriate numbers for the labels. The problem is that most of the time, the text gets clipped by the edges of the figure. I am using this as a workaround: set(gca,'Position',[0.25 0.25 0.5 0.5]); As you can see, I am simply adding a larger border around the plot so that there is more room for the text. While this scaling works for one zoom level, if I maximize my plot window I get way too much empty space, and if I shrink my plot window, I get clipping again. Is there a more intelligent way to add these labels to use the minimum amount of space while making sure that the text does not get clipped?

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• Java split giving opposite order of arabic characters

  - by MuhammadA

  I am splitting the following string using \\| in java (android) using the IntelliJ 12 IDE. Everything is fine except the last part, somehow the split picks them up in the opposite order : As you can see the real positioning 34,35,36 is correct and according to the string, but when it gets picked out into split part no 5 its in the wrong order, 36,35,34 ... Any way I can get them to be in the right order? My Code: public ArrayList<Book> getBooksFromDatFile(Context context, String fileName) { ArrayList<Book> books = new ArrayList<Book>(); try { // load csv from assets InputStream is = context.getAssets().open(fileName); try { BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(is)); String line; while ((line = reader.readLine()) != null) { String[] RowData = line.split("\\|"); books.add(new Book(RowData[0], RowData[1], RowData[2], RowData[3], RowData[4], RowData[5])); } } catch (IOException ex) { Log.e(TAG, "Error parsing csv file!"); } finally { try { is.close(); } catch (IOException e) { Log.e(TAG, "Error closing input stream!"); } } } catch (IOException ex) { Log.e(TAG, "Error reading .dat file from assets!"); } return books; }

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• What am I missing in the following buttons code?

  - by Ayush Goyal

  I am trying to increment and decrement the middle textview via buttons on the sides. The application starts up finely but by the time I click on any of the buttons it gets closed with following error. Error: process <package> has stopped unexpectedly. My main.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Button android:id="@+id/button1" android:layout_width="50dp" android:layout_height="250dp" android:text="+" android:textSize="40dp" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/tv1" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="0" android:textSize="80dp" android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/button1" android:layout_marginTop="75dp" android:layout_marginLeft="80dp" /> <Button android:id="@+id/button2" android:layout_width="50dp" android:layout_height="250dp" android:layout_alignParentRight="true" android:text="-" android:textSize="40dp" /> My java file: public class IncrementDecrementActivity extends Activity { int counter; Button add, sub; TextView tv; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); add = (Button) findViewById(R.id.button1); sub = (Button) findViewById(R.id.button2); tv = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.tv1); add.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { counter++; tv.setText(counter); } }); sub.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { counter--; tv.setText(counter); } }); } }

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• Adding Control to Container Control that is in User Control - How to properly initialize?

  - by DougJones

  Let's say I have a user control MyUserControl, which has a container control (it's a server control, but it could just be a Panel) and a dropdownlist. The dropdownlist is not in the container control initially. In it's code-behind, I am overriding OnInit and creating the user control, which includes populating a dropdownlist and adding that dropdownlist to my container control. I have a public property Year, which is an int. Based on the value of Year, I want to populate the dropdownlist. The problem is that in OnInit, year is always 0. On the page Init, I am setting year, but that doesn't run until AFTER the control's Init runs. If I try to set the value on PreInit on the page, the page hasn't initialized the control and I get invalid null reference when setting a value to the control. My question is: How can I properly initialize the control? How can I set the value on the page, before the control actually gets initialized? If I move the control's code to OnLoad, it'll work until I have to do a postback. In this case I need to, though!

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• Has form post behavior changed in modern browsers? (or How are double clicks handled by the browser)

  - by Alex Czarto

  Background: We are in the process of writing a registration/payment page, and our philosophy was to code all validation and error checking on the server side first, and then add client side validation as a second step (un-obstructive jQuery). We wanted to disable double clicks server side, so we wrote some locking, thread-safe code to handle simultaneous posts/race conditions. When we tried to test this, we realized that we could not cause a simultaneous post or race condition to occur. I thought that (in older browsers anyway) double clicking a submit button worked as follows: User double clicks submit button. Browser sends a post on the first click On the second click, browser cancels/ignores initial post, and initiates a second post (before the first post has returned with a response). Browser waits for second post to return, ignoring initial post response. I thought that from the server side it looked like this: Server gets two simultaneous post requests, executes and responds to them both (unaware that no one is listening to the first response). From our testing (FireFox 3.0, IE 8.0) this is what actually happens: User double clicks submit button Browser sends a post for the first click Browser queues up second click, but waits for the response from the first click. Response returns from first click (response is ignored?). Browser sends a post for the second click. So from a server side: Server receives a single post which it executes and responds to. Then, server receives a second request wich it executes and responds to. My question is, has this always worked this way (and I'm losing my mind)? Or is this a new feature in modern browsers that prevents simultaneous posts to be sent to the server? It seems that for server side double click prevention, we don't have to worry about simultaneous posts or race conditions. Only need to worry about queued up posts. Thanks in advance for any feedback / comments. Alex

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• How to properly log out of facebook

  - by Gublooo

  This is a repeated question and I have followed both the suggestions provided in these StackOverflow links: How to log-out users using FaceBook connect in php and zend Trouble logging out of a FaceBook connect site and destroying sessions The issue is - the code works 90% of the time. Thats the weird part. Out of the 100 times I've logged in and out - I've experienced this problem 5-6 times and 2 of my beta test users have reported the same issue. So when it works- if u click the logout link - u get the facebook popup saying - you being logged out - when it does'nt work - absolutely nothing happens - the page does not refresh - it just sits on that page doing nothing. This is the javascript code that gets called on clicking logout function logout() { FB.Connect.get_status().waitUntilReady(function(status) { switch(status) { case FB.ConnectState.connected: FB.Connect.logoutAndRedirect("http://www.example.com/login/logout"); break; case FB.ConnectState.userNotLoggedIn: window.location = "http://www.example.com/login/logout"; break; } }); return false; } This is the php code: $this-_auth-clearIdentity(); $face = Zend_Registry::get('facebook'); $fb = new Facebook($face['appapikey'], $face['appsecret']); //$fb-clear_cookie_state(); $fb-expire_session(); Anyone experienced such sporadic issues. Thanks

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• Disposing underlying object from finalizer in an immutable object

  - by Juan Luis Soldi

  I'm trying to wrap around Awesomium and make it look to the rest of my code as close as possible to NET's WebBrowser since this is for an existing application that already uses the WebBrowser. In this library, there is a class called JSObject which represents a javascript object. You can get one of this, for instance, by calling the ExecuteJavascriptWithResult method of the WebView class. If you'd call it like myWebView.ExecuteJavascriptWithResult("document", string.Empty).ToObject(), then you'd get a JSObject that represents the document. I'm writing an immutable class (it's only field is a readonly JSObject object) called JSObjectWrap that wraps around JSObject which I want to use as base class for other classes that would emulate .NET classes such as HtmlElement and HtmlDocument. Now, these classes don't implement Dispose, but JSObject does. What I first thought was to call the underlying JSObject's Dispose method in my JSObjectWrap's finalizer (instead of having JSObjectWrap implement Dispose) so that the rest of my code can stay the way it is (instead of having to add using's everywhere and make sure every JSObjectWrap is being properly disposed). But I just realized if more than two JSObjectWrap's have the same underlying JSObject and one of them gets finalized this will mess up the other JSObjectWrap. So now I'm thinking maybe I should keep a static Dictionary of JSObjects and keep count of how many of each of them are being referenced by a JSObjectWrap but this sounds messy and I think could cause major performance issues. Since this sounds to me like a common pattern I wonder if anyone else has a better idea.

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• Script to add user to MediaWiki

  - by Marquis Wang

  I'm trying to write a script that will create a user in MediaWiki, so that I can run a batch job to import a series of users. I'm using mediawiki-1.12.0. I got this code from a forum, but it doesn't look like it works with 1.12 (it's for 1.13) $name = 'Username'; #Username (MUST start with a capital letter) $pass = 'password'; #Password (plaintext, will be hashed later down) $email = 'email'; #Email (automatically gets confirmed after the creation process) $path = "/path/to/mediawiki"; putenv( "MW_INSTALL_PATH={$path}" ); require_once( "{$path}/includes/WebStart.php" ); $pass = User::crypt( $pass ); $user = User::createNew( $name, array( 'password' => $pass, 'email' => $email ) ); $user->confirmEmail(); $user->saveSettings(); $ssUpdate = new SiteStatsUpdate( 0, 0, 0, 0, 1 ); $ssUpdate->doUpdate(); Thanks!

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