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• Understanding PTS and DTS in video frames

  - by theateist

  I had fps issues when transcoding from avi to mp4(x264). Eventually the problem was in PTS and DTS values, so lines 12-15 where added before av_interleaved_write_frame function: 1. AVFormatContext* outContainer = NULL; 2. avformat_alloc_output_context2(&outContainer, NULL, "mp4", "c:\\test.mp4"; 3. AVCodec *encoder = avcodec_find_encoder(AV_CODEC_ID_H264); 4. AVStream *outStream = avformat_new_stream(outContainer, encoder); 5. // outStream->codec initiation 6. // ... 7. avformat_write_header(outContainer, NULL); 8. // reading and decoding packet 9. // ... 10. avcodec_encode_video2(outStream->codec, &encodedPacket, decodedFrame, &got_frame) 11. 12. if (encodedPacket.pts != AV_NOPTS_VALUE) 13. encodedPacket.pts = av_rescale_q(encodedPacket.pts, outStream->codec->time_base, outStream->time_base); 14. if (encodedPacket.dts != AV_NOPTS_VALUE) 15. encodedPacket.dts = av_rescale_q(encodedPacket.dts, outStream->codec->time_base, outStream->time_base); 16. 17. av_interleaved_write_frame(outContainer, &encodedPacket) After reading many posts I still do not understand: outStream->codec->time_base = 1/25 and outStream->time_base = 1/12800. The 1st one was set by me but I cannot figure out why and who set 12800? I noticed that before line (7) outStream->time_base = 1/90000 and right after it it changes to 1/12800, why? When I transcode from avi to avi, meaning changing the line (2) to avformat_alloc_output_context2(&outContainer, NULL, "avi", "c:\\test.avi"; , so before and after line (7) outStream->time_base remains always 1/25 and not like in mp4 case, why? What is the difference between time_base of outStream->codec and outStream? To calc the pts av_rescale_q does: takes 2 time_base, multiplies their fractions in cross and then compute the pts. Why it does this in this way? As I debugged, the encodedPacket.pts has value incremental by 1, so why changing it if it does has value? At the beginning the dts value is -2 and after each rescaling it still has negative number, but despite this the video played correctly! Shouldn't it be positive?

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• reCaptcha issue with Spring MVC

  - by skip

  Hi I've been trying to integrate reCaptcha with my application built on Spring framework, but I am getting this error: org.springframework.web.bind.MissingServletRequestParameterException: Required String parameter 'recaptcha_challenge_field' is not present Could someone help me understand that why am I getting this error. I've got both recaptcha_challenge_field and recaptcha_response_field parameters bound to the User domain object. Could anybody help me understand what am I missing? Thanks Here is the code of the controller I am using, all I am trying to do is register a user with reCaptcha functionality but what I am getting is a http status 400 with the error org.springframework.web.bind.MissingServletRequestParameterException: Required String parameter 'recaptcha_challenge_field' is not present: UserManagementController.java @Controller public class UserManagementController { private static final String RECAPTCHA_HTML = "reCaptchaHtml"; @Autowired private UserService userService; @Autowired private ReCaptcha reCaptcha; @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET, value="/addNewUser.do") public ModelAndView addNewUser() { User user = new User(); String html = reCaptcha.createRecaptchaHtml(null, null); ModelMap modelMap = new ModelMap(); modelMap.put("user", user); modelMap.put(RECAPTCHA_HTML, html); return new ModelAndView("/addNewUser", modelMap); } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST, value="/addNewUser.do") public String addNewUser(@Valid User user, BindingResult result, @RequestParam("recaptcha_challenge_field") String challenge, @RequestParam("recaptcha_response_field") String response, HttpServletRequest request, Model model) { verifyBinding(result); String remoteAddr = request.getRemoteAddr(); ReCaptchaResponse reCaptchaResponse = reCaptcha.checkAnswer(remoteAddr, challenge, response); if (!reCaptchaResponse.isValid()) { result.rejectValue("captcha", "errors.badCaptcha"); } model.addAttribute("user", user); if (result.hasErrors()) { result.reject("form.problems"); return "addNewUser"; } return "redirect:showContent.do"; } @InitBinder public void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) { binder.setAllowedFields(new String[] { "firstName", "lastName", "email", "username", "password", "recaptcha_challenge_field", "recaptcha_response_field" }); } private void verifyBinding(BindingResult result) { String[] suppressedFields = result.getSuppressedFields(); if (suppressedFields.length > 0) { throw new RuntimeException("You've attempted to bind fields that haven't been allowed in initBinder(): " + StringUtils.join(suppressedFields, ", ")); } } } Here is the addNewUser.jsp element on the form page for the above controller: <tr> <td>Please prove you're a person</td> <td>${reCaptchaHtml}</td> <td><form:errors path="captcha" cssStyle="color:red"></form:errors></td> </tr> Could you help me understand what am I missing here? Thanks for reply.

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• XML Return from an Oracle Stored Procedure

  - by Tequila Jinx

  Unfortunately most of my DB experience has been with MSSQL which tends to hold your hand a lot more than Oracle. What I'm trying to do is fairly trivial in tSQL, however, pl/sql is giving me a headache. I have the following procedure: CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE USPX_GetUserbyID (USERID USERS.USERID%TYPE, USERRECORD OUT XMLTYPE) AS BEGIN SELECT XMLELEMENT("user" , XMLATTRIBUTES(u.USERID AS "userid", u.companyid as "companyid", u.usertype as "usertype", u.status as "status", u.personid as "personid") , XMLFOREST( p.FIRSTNAME AS "firstname" , p.LASTNAME AS "lastname" , p.EMAIL AS "email" , p.PHONE AS "phone" , p.PHONEEXTENSION AS "extension") , XMLELEMENT("roles", (SELECT XMLAGG(XMLELEMENT("role", r.ROLETYPE)) FROM USER_ROLES r WHERE r.USERID = USERID AND r.ISACTIVE = 1 ) ) , XMLELEMENT("watches", (SELECT XMLAGG( XMLELEMENT("watch", XMLATTRIBUTES(w.WATCHID AS "id", w.TICKETID AS "ticket") ) ) FROM USER_WATCHES w WHERE w.USERID = USERID AND w.ISACTIVE = 1 ) ) ) AS "RESULT" INTO USERRECORD FROM USERS u LEFT JOIN PEOPLE p ON p.PERSONID = u.PERSONID WHERE u.USERID = USERID; END USPX_GetUserbyID; When executed, it should return an XML document with the following structure: <user userid="" companyid="" usertype="" status="" personid=""> <firstname /> <lastname /> <email /> <phone /> <extension /> <roles> <role /> </roles> <watches> <watch id="" ticket="" /> </watches> </user> When I execute the query itself, replacing the USERID parameter with a string and removing the "into" clause, the query runs fine and returns the expected structure. However, when the procedure attempts to execute the query, passing the results of the XMLELEMENT function into the USERRECORD output parameter, I get the following exception: Error report: ORA-01422: exact fetch returns more than requested number of rows ORA-06512: at "USPX_GETUSERBYID", line 4 ORA-06512: at line 3 01422. 00000 - "exact fetch returns more than requested number of rows" *Cause: The number specified in exact fetch is less than the rows returned. *Action: Rewrite the query or change number of rows requested I'm baffled trying to nail this down, and unfortunately my google-fu hasn't helped. I've found plenty of Oracle SQL|XML examples, but none that deal with XML returns from a procedure. Note: I know that an alternate method of retrieving XML using DBMS methods exists, however, it's my understanding that that functionality is deprecated in favor of SQL|XML.

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• Form data sent to Node via Post is undefined

  - by user185812

  I know this has been asked countless times on here, however I tried all the solutions and am still having the issue. Most people say to set the content-type (which I did) and to name the inputs that I wish to Post to node. I have done both of these things, yet still get "undefined" when trying to send data from an HTML form to node. JADE Templating HTML Code (Sorry I can't seem to get the indenting to show up here, however I think I should leave the code intact when posting here instead of converting it to normal HTML so that if the error is in here, you are still able to help) Form(action="/registration", method="post", enctype="application/x-www-form-urlencoded") div(class="control-group-Username") label(class="control-group", for="username") Username: div.controls input#Username(id="Username", type="text", placeholder="Username Here", maxlength="23", name="username") //Other divs and stuff here button.btn#submit_button(type="submit") Submit app.js code /** * Module dependencies. */ express = require('express') , routes = require('./routes') , user = require('./routes/user') , http = require('http') , path = require('path'); app = express(); // all environments app.set('port', process.env.PORT || 3000); app.set('views', __dirname + '/views'); app.set('view engine','jade'); app.use(express.favicon()); app.use(express.logger('dev')); app.use(express.bodyParser()); app.use(express.methodOverride()); app.use(express.cookieParser('your secret here')); app.use(express.session()); app.use(app.router); app.use(require('less-middleware')({ src: __dirname + '/public' })); app.use(express.static(path.join(__dirname, 'public'))); // development only if ('development' == app.get('env')) { app.use(express.errorHandler()); } app.use(express.static(__dirname + '/public')); app.get('/', routes.index); app.get('/users', user.list); app.get('/register', routes.register); http.createServer(app).listen(app.get('port'), function(){ console.log('Express server listening on port ' + app.get('port')); }); require('./Register.js'); register.js code app.post('/registration', function(req, res) { var Email=req.body.username console.log(username); });

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• One entityManger finds entity , the other does not.

  - by Pitelk

  Hi all, I have a very strange behavior in my program. I have 2 classes (class LogIn and CreateGame) where i have injected an EntityManager in each using the annotation @PersistenceContext(unitName="myUnitPU") EntityManager entitymanger; In some point i remove an object called "user" from the database using entitymanger.remove(user) from a method in LogIn class. The business logic is that a user can host and join games ( in the same time) so removing the user all the entries in database about the games the user has created are removed and all the entries showing in which games the user has joined are removed also. After that, i call another function which checks if the user exists using a method in the LogIn class entitymanager.find(user) which surprisingly enough, finds the user. After that I call a method in CreateGame class which tries to find the user by using again entitymanger.find(user) the entitymanger in that class fails to find the user (which is the expected result as the user is removed and it's not in the database) So the question is : Why the entitymanager in one class finds the user (which is wrong) where the other doesn't find it? Does anyone has ever the same problem? PS : This "bug" occurs when the user has hosted a game which is joined by another user (lets call him Buser) and the Buser has made a game which is joined by the current user. GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game1 | user | userB game2 | userB | user where in this case by removing the user, the game1 is deleted and the user is removed from game2 so the result is GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game2 | userB | PS2 : The Beans are EJB3.0. The methods are called from a delegate class. The beans in the delegate class are instantiated using the InitialContext.lookup() method. Note that for logging in ,creating , joining games the appropriate delegate class calls the correspondent EJB which does the transactions. In the case of logOut, the delegate calls an EJB to logout the user but becuase other stuff must be done (as said above) this EJB calls other EJB (again using lookup() ) which has methods like removegame(), removeUserFromGame() etc. After those methods are executed the user is then logged out. Maybe it has something to do with the fact the the first entity manager is called by a delegate but the second from inside an EJb and thats why the one entitymanger can see the non-existent user while the other cannot? Also all the methods have TRANSACTIONTYPE.REQUIRED Thank you in advance

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• Lazy loading the addthis script? (or lazy loading external js content dependent on already fired eve

  - by Keith Bentrup

  I want to have the addthis widget available for my users, but I want to lazy load it so that my page loads as quickly as possible. However, after trying it via a script tag and then via my lazy loading method, it appears to only work via the script tag. In the obfuscated code, I see something that looks like it's dependent on the DOMContentLoaded event (at least for firefox). Since the DOMContentLoaded event has already fired, the widget doesn't render properly. What to do? I could just use a script tag (slower)... or could I fire (in a cross browser way) the DOMContentLoaded (or equivalent) event? I have a feeling this may not be possible b/c I believe that (like jQuery) there are multiple tests of the content ready event, and so multiple simulated events would have to occur. Nonetheless, this is an interesting problem b/c I have seen a couple widgets now assume that you are including their stuff via static script tags. It would be nice if they wrote code that was more useful to developers concerned about speed, but until then, is there a work around?? And/or are any of my assumptions wrong? Edit: Because the 1st answer to the question seemed to miss the point of my problem, I wanted to clarify the situation. This is about a specific problem. I'm not looking for yet another lazy load script or check if some dependencies are loaded script. Specifically this problem deals with external widgets that you do not have control over and may or may not be obfuscated delaying the load of the external widgets until they are needed or at least, til substantially after everything else has been loaded including other deferred elements b/c of the how the widget was written, precludes existing, typical lazy loading paradigms While it's esoteric, I have seen it happen with a couple widgets - where the widget developers assume that you're just willing to throw in another script tag at the bottom of the page. I'm looking to save those 500-1000 ms** though as numerous studies by yahoo, google, and amazon show it to be important to your user's experience. **My testing with hammerhead and personal experience indicates that this will be my savings in this case.

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• How does MySQL's ORDER BY RAND() work?

  - by Eugene

  Hi, I've been doing some research and testing on how to do fast random selection in MySQL. In the process I've faced some unexpected results and now I am not fully sure I know how ORDER BY RAND() really works. I always thought that when you do ORDER BY RAND() on the table, MySQL adds a new column to the table which is filled with random values, then it sorts data by that column and then e.g. you take the above value which got there randomly. I've done lots of googling and testing and finally found that the query Jay offers in his blog is indeed the fastest solution: SELECT * FROM Table T JOIN (SELECT CEIL(MAX(ID)*RAND()) AS ID FROM Table) AS x ON T.ID >= x.ID LIMIT 1; While common ORDER BY RAND() takes 30-40 seconds on my test table, his query does the work in 0.1 seconds. He explains how this functions in the blog so I'll just skip this and finally move to the odd thing. My table is a common table with a PRIMARY KEY id and other non-indexed stuff like username, age, etc. Here's the thing I am struggling to explain SELECT * FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; /*30-40 seconds*/ SELECT id FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; /*0.25 seconds*/ SELECT id, username FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; /*90 seconds*/ I was sort of expecting to see approximately the same time for all three queries since I am always sorting on a single column. But for some reason this didn't happen. Please let me know if you any ideas about this. I have a project where I need to do fast ORDER BY RAND() and personally I would prefer to use SELECT id FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; SELECT * FROM table WHERE id=ID_FROM_PREVIOUS_QUERY LIMIT 1; which, yes, is slower than Jay's method, however it is smaller and easier to understand. My queries are rather big ones with several JOINs and with WHERE clause and while Jay's method still works, the query grows really big and complex because I need to use all the JOINs and WHERE in the JOINed (called x in his query) sub request. Thanks for your time!

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• FluentNhibernate many-to-many mapping - resolving record is not inserted

  - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak

  Hi, I have a many-to-many mapping defined (only relevant fields included): // MODEL: public class User : IPersistentObject { public User() { Permissions = new HashedSet<Permission>(); } public virtual int Id { get; protected set; } public virtual ISet<Permission> Permissions { get; set; } } public class Permission : IPersistentObject { public Permission() { } public virtual int Id { get; set; } } // MAPPING: public class UserMap : ClassMap<User> { public UserMap() { Id(x => x.Id); HasManyToMany(x => x.Permissions).Cascade.All().AsSet(); } } public class PermissionMap : ClassMap<Permission> { public PermissionMap() { Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.Description); } } The following test fails as there is no record inserted into User_Permission table: [Test] public void AddingANewUserPrivilegeShouldSaveIt() { var p1 = new Permission { Id = 123, Description = "p1" }; Session.Save(p1); var u = new User { Email = "[email protected]" }; u.Permissions.Add(p1); Session.Save(u); var userId = u.Id; Session.Evict(u); Session.Get<User>(userId).Permissions.Should().Not.Be.Empty(); } The SQL executed is (SQLite): INSERT INTO "Permission" (Description, Id) VALUES (@p0, @p1);@p0 = 'p1', @p1 = 1 INSERT INTO "User" (Email) VALUES (@p0); select last_insert_rowid();@p0 = '[email protected]' SELECT user0_.Id as Id2_0_, user0_.Email as Email2_0_ FROM "User" user0_ WHERE user0_.Id=@p0;@p0 = 1 SELECT permission0_.UserId as UserId1_, permission0_.PermissionId as Permissi2_1_, permission1_.Id as Id4_0_, permission1_.Description as Descript2_4_0_ FROM User_Permissions permission0_ left outer join "Permission" permission1_ on permission0_.PermissionId=permission1_.Id WHERE permission0_.UserId=@p0;@p0 = 1 We can clearly see that there is no record inserted into the User_Permissions table where it should be. Not sure what I am doing wrong and need an advice. So can you please help me to pass this test. Thanks, Dmitriy.

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• Unique element ID, even if element doesn't have one

  - by Robert J. Walker

  I'm writing a GreaseMonkey script where I'm iterating through a bunch of elements. For each element, I need a string ID that I can use to reference that element later. The element itself doesn't have an id attribute, and I can't modify the original document to give it one (although I can make DOM changes in my script). I can't store the references in my script because when I need them, the GreaseMonkey script itself will have gone out of scope. Is there some way to get at an "internal" ID that the browser uses, for example? A Firefox-only solution is fine; a cross-browser solution that could be applied in other scenarios would be awesome. Edit: If the GreaseMonkey script is out of scope, how are you referencing the elements later? They GreaseMonkey script is adding events to DOM objects. I can't store the references in an array or some other similar mechanism because when the event fires, the array will be gone because the GreaseMonkey script will have gone out of scope. So the event needs some way to know about the element reference that the script had when the event was attached. And the element in question is not the one to which it is attached. Can't you just use a custom property on the element? Yes, but the problem is on the lookup. I'd have to resort to iterating through all the elements looking for the one that has that custom property set to the desired id. That would work, sure, but in large documents it could be very time consuming. I'm looking for something where the browser can do the lookup grunt work. Wait, can you or can you not modify the document? I can't modify the source document, but I can make DOM changes in the script. I'll clarify in the question. Can you not use closures? Closuses did turn out to work, although I initially thought they wouldn't. See my later post. It sounds like the answer to the question: "Is there some internal browser ID I could use?" is "No."

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• Rails Joins and include columns from joins table

  - by seth.vargo

  I don't understand how to get the columns I want from rails. I have two models - A User and a Profile. A User :has_many Profile (because users can revert back to an earlier version of their profile): > DESCRIBE users; +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | username | varchar(255) | NO | UNI | NULL | | | password | varchar(255) | NO | | NULL | | | last_login | datetime | YES | | NULL | | +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+   > DESCRIBE profiles; +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | user_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | NULL | | | first_name | varchar(255) | NO | | NULL | | | last_name | varchar(255) | NO | | NULL | | | . . . . . . | | . . . . . . | | . . . . . . | +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ In SQL, I can run the query: > SELECT * FROM profiles JOIN users ON profiles.user_id = users.id LIMIT 1; +----+-----------+----------+---------------------+---------+---------------+-----+ | id | username | password | last_login | user_id | first_name | ... | +----+-----------+----------+---------------------+---------+---------------+-----+ | 1 | john | ****** | 2010-12-30 18:04:28 | 1 | John | ... | +----+-----------+----------+---------------------+---------+---------------+-----+ See how I get all the columns for BOTH tables JOINED together? However, when I run this same query in Rails, I don't get all the columns I want - I only get those from Profile: # in rails console >> p = Profile.joins(:user).limit(1) >> [#<Profile ...>] >> p.first_name >> NoMethodError: undefined method `first_name' for #<ActiveRecord::Relation:0x102b521d0> from /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-3.0.1/lib/active_record/relation.rb:373:in `method_missing' from (irb):8 # I do NOT want to do this (AKA I do NOT want to use "includes") >> p.user >> NoMethodError: undefined method `user' for #<ActiveRecord::Relation:0x102b521d0> from /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-3.0.1/lib/active_record/relation.rb:373:in method_missing' from (irb):9 I want to (efficiently) return an object that has all the properties of Profile and User together. I don't want to :include the user because it doesn't make sense. The user should always be part of the most recent profile as if they were fields within the Profile model. How do I accomplish this?

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• OneToOne JPA / Hibernate eager loading cause N+1 select

  - by Alexandre Lavoie

  I created a method to have multilingual text on different objects without creating field for each languages or tables for each objects types. Now the only problem I've got is N+1 select queries when doing a simple loading. Tables schema : CREATE TABLE `testentities` ( `keyTestEntity` int(11) NOT NULL, `keyMultilingualText` int(11) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`keyTestEntity`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=0 DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; CREATE TABLE `common_multilingualtexts` ( `keyMultilingualText` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`keyMultilingualText`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=0 DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; CREATE TABLE `common_multilingualtexts_values` ( `languageCode` varchar(5) NOT NULL, `keyMultilingualText` int(11) NOT NULL, `value` text, PRIMARY KEY (`languageCode`,`keyMultilingualText`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; MultilingualText.java @Entity @Table(name = "common_multilingualtexts") public class MultilingualText implements Serializable { private Integer m_iKeyMultilingualText; private Map<String, String> m_lValues = new HashMap<String, String>(); public void setKeyMultilingualText(Integer p_iKeyMultilingualText) { m_iKeyMultilingualText = p_iKeyMultilingualText; } @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name = "keyMultilingualText") public Integer getKeyMultilingualText() { return m_iKeyMultilingualText; } public void setValues(Map<String, String> p_lValues) { m_lValues = p_lValues; } @ElementCollection(fetch = FetchType.EAGER) @CollectionTable(name = "common_multilingualtexts_values", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "keyMultilingualText")) @MapKeyColumn(name = "languageCode") @Column(name = "value") public Map<String, String> getValues() { return m_lValues; } public void put(String p_sLanguageCode, String p_sValue) { m_lValues.put(p_sLanguageCode,p_sValue); } public String get(String p_sLanguageCode) { if(m_lValues.containsKey(p_sLanguageCode)) { return m_lValues.get(p_sLanguageCode); } return null; } } And it is used like this on a object (having a foreign key to the multilingual text) : @Entity @Table(name = "testentities") public class TestEntity implements Serializable { private Integer m_iKeyEntity; private MultilingualText m_oText; public void setKeyEntity(Integer p_iKeyEntity) { m_iKeyEntity = p_iKeyEntity; } @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name = "keyEntity") public Integer getKeyEntity() { return m_iKeyEntity; } public void setText(MultilingualText p_oText) { m_oText = p_oText; } @OneToOne(cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name = "keyText") public MultilingualText getText() { return m_oText; } } Now, when doing a simple HQL query : from TestEntity, I get a query selecting TestEntity's and one query for each MultilingualText that need to be loaded on each TestEntity. I've searched a lot and found absolutely no solutions. I have tested : @Fetch(FetchType.JOIN) optional = false @ManyToOne instead of @OneToOne Now I am out of idea!

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• PHP and MySQL problem?

  - by TaG

  When my code is stored and saved and out putted I keep getting these slashes \\\\\ in my output text. how can I get rid of these slashes? Here is the PHP code. if (isset($_POST['submitted'])) { // Handle the form. require_once '../../htmlpurifier/library/HTMLPurifier.auto.php'; $config = HTMLPurifier_Config::createDefault(); $config->set('Core.Encoding', 'UTF-8'); // replace with your encoding $config->set('HTML.Doctype', 'XHTML 1.0 Strict'); // replace with your doctype $purifier = new HTMLPurifier($config); $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"SELECT users.*, profile.* FROM users INNER JOIN contact_info ON contact_info.user_id = users.user_id WHERE users.user_id=3"); $about_me = mysqli_real_escape_string($mysqli, $purifier->purify($_POST['about_me'])); $interests = mysqli_real_escape_string($mysqli, $purifier->purify($_POST['interests'])); if (mysqli_num_rows($dbc) == 0) { $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"INSERT INTO profile (user_id, about_me, interests) VALUES ('$user_id', '$about_me', '$interests')"); } if ($dbc == TRUE) { $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"UPDATE profile SET about_me = '$about_me', interests = '$interests' WHERE user_id = '$user_id'"); echo '<p class="changes-saved">Your changes have been saved!</p>'; } if (!$dbc) { // There was an error...do something about it here... print mysqli_error($mysqli); return; } } Here is the XHTML code. <form method="post" action="index.php"> <fieldset> <ul> <li><label for="about_me">About Me: </label> <textarea rows="8" cols="60" name="about_me" id="about_me"><?php if (isset($_POST['about_me'])) { echo mysqli_real_escape_string($mysqli, $_POST['about_me']); } else if(!empty($about_me)) { echo mysqli_real_escape_string($mysqli, $about_me); } ?></textarea></li> <li><label for="my-interests">My Interests: </label> <textarea rows="8" cols="60" name="interests" id="interests"><?php if (isset($_POST['interests'])) { echo mysqli_real_escape_string($mysqli, $_POST['interests']); } else if(!empty($interests)) { echo mysqli_real_escape_string($mysqli, $interests); } ?></textarea></li> <li><input type="submit" name="submit" value="Save Changes" class="save-button" /> <input type="hidden" name="submitted" value="true" /> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Preview Changes" class="preview-changes-button" /></li> </ul> </fieldset> </form>

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• Best Practices / Patterns for Enterprise Protection/Remediation of SSNs (Social Security Numbers)

  - by Erik Neu

  I am interested in hearing about enterprise solutions for SSN handling. (I looked pretty hard for any pre-existing post on SO, including reviewing the terriffic SO automated "Related Questions" list, and did not find anything, so hopefully this is not a repeat.) First, I think it is important to enumerate the reasons systems/databases use SSNs: (note—these are reasons for de facto current state—I understand that many of them are not good reasons) Required for Interaction with External Entities. This is the most valid case—where external entities your system interfaces with require an SSN. This would typically be government, tax and financial. SSN is used to ensure system-wide uniqueness. SSN has become the default foreign key used internally within the enterprise, to perform cross-system joins. SSN is used for user authentication (e.g., log-on) The enterprise solution that seems optimum to me is to create a single SSN repository that is accessed by all applications needing to look up SSN info. This repository substitutes a globally unique, random 9-digit number (ASN) for the true SSN. I see many benefits to this approach. First of all, it is obviously highly backwards-compatible—all your systems "just" have to go through a major, synchronized, one-time data-cleansing exercise, where they replace the real SSN with the alternate ASN. Also, it is centralized, so it minimizes the scope for inspection and compliance. (Obviously, as a negative, it also creates a single point of failure.) This approach would solve issues 2 and 3, without ever requiring lookups to get the real SSN. For issue #1, authorized systems could provide an ASN, and be returned the real SSN. This would of course be done over secure connections, and the requesting systems would never persist the full SSN. Also, if the requesting system only needs the last 4 digits of the SSN, then that is all that would ever be passed. Issue #4 could be handled the same way as issue #1, though obviously the best thing would be to move away from having users supply an SSN for log-on. There are a couple of papers on this: UC Berkely: http://bit.ly/bdZPjQ Oracle Vault: bit.ly/cikbi1

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• Can anyone explain me the source code of python "import this"?

  - by byterussian

  If you open a Python interpreter, and type "import this", as you know, it prints: The Zen of Python, by Tim Peters Beautiful is better than ugly. Explicit is better than implicit. Simple is better than complex. Complex is better than complicated. Flat is better than nested. Sparse is better than dense. Readability counts. Special cases aren't special enough to break the rules. Although practicality beats purity. Errors should never pass silently. Unless explicitly silenced. In the face of ambiguity, refuse the temptation to guess. There should be one-- and preferably only one --obvious way to do it. Although that way may not be obvious at first unless you're Dutch. Now is better than never. Although never is often better than *right* now. If the implementation is hard to explain, it's a bad idea. If the implementation is easy to explain, it may be a good idea. Namespaces are one honking great idea -- let's do more of those! In the python source(Lib/this.py) this text is generated by a curios piece of code: s = """Gur Mra bs Clguba, ol Gvz Crgref Ornhgvshy vf orggre guna htyl. Rkcyvpvg vf orggre guna vzcyvpvg. Fvzcyr vf orggre guna pbzcyrk. Pbzcyrk vf orggre guna pbzcyvpngrq. Syng vf orggre guna arfgrq. Fcnefr vf orggre guna qrafr. Ernqnovyvgl pbhagf. Fcrpvny pnfrf nera'g fcrpvny rabhtu gb oernx gur ehyrf. Nygubhtu cenpgvpnyvgl orngf chevgl. Reebef fubhyq arire cnff fvyragyl. Hayrff rkcyvpvgyl fvyraprq. Va gur snpr bs nzovthvgl, ershfr gur grzcgngvba gb thrff. Gurer fubhyq or bar-- naq cersrenoyl bayl bar --boivbhf jnl gb qb vg. Nygubhtu gung jnl znl abg or boivbhf ng svefg hayrff lbh'er Qhgpu. Abj vf orggre guna arire. Nygubhtu arire vf bsgra orggre guna *evtug* abj. Vs gur vzcyrzragngvba vf uneq gb rkcynva, vg'f n onq vqrn. Vs gur vzcyrzragngvba vf rnfl gb rkcynva, vg znl or n tbbq vqrn. Anzrfcnprf ner bar ubaxvat terng vqrn -- yrg'f qb zber bs gubfr!""" d = {} for c in (65, 97): for i in range(26): d[chr(i+c)] = chr((i+13) % 26 + c) print "".join([d.get(c, c) for c in s])

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• Understanding CLR 2.0 Memory Model

  - by Eloff

  Joe Duffy, gives 6 rules that describe the CLR 2.0+ memory model (it's actual implementation, not any ECMA standard) I'm writing down my attempt at figuring this out, mostly as a way of rubber ducking, but if I make a mistake in my logic, at least someone here will be able to catch it before it causes me grief. Rule 1: Data dependence among loads and stores is never violated. Rule 2: All stores have release semantics, i.e. no load or store may move after one. Rule 3: All volatile loads are acquire, i.e. no load or store may move before one. Rule 4: No loads and stores may ever cross a full-barrier (e.g. Thread.MemoryBarrier, lock acquire, Interlocked.Exchange, Interlocked.CompareExchange, etc.). Rule 5: Loads and stores to the heap may never be introduced. Rule 6: Loads and stores may only be deleted when coalescing adjacent loads and stores from/to the same location. I'm attempting to understand these rules. x = y y = 0 // Cannot move before the previous line according to Rule 1. x = y z = 0 // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load 0 store z Looking at this, it appears that the load 0 can be moved up to before load y, but the stores may not be re-ordered at all. Therefore, if a thread sees z == 0, then it also will see x == y. If y was volatile, then load 0 could not move before load y, otherwise it may. Volatile stores don't seem to have any special properties, no stores can be re-ordered with respect to each other (which is a very strong guarantee!) Full barriers are like a line in the sand which loads and stores can not be moved over. No idea what rule 5 means. I guess rule 6 means if you do: x = y x = z Then it is possible for the CLR to delete both the load to y and the first store to x. x = y z = y // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load y store z // could be re-ordered like this load y load y store x store z // rule 6 applied means this is possible? load y store x // but don't pop y from stack (or first duplicate item on top of stack) store z What if y was volatile? I don't see anything in the rules that prohibits the above optimization from being carried out. This does not violate double-checked locking, because the lock() between the two identical conditions prevents the loads from being moved into adjacent positions, and according to rule 6, that's the only time they can be eliminated. So I think I understand all but rule 5, here. Anyone want to enlighten me (or correct me or add something to any of the above?)

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• How do I pass a variable number of parameters along with a callback function?

  - by Bungle

  I'm using a function to lazy-load the Sizzle selector engine (used by jQuery): var sizzle_loaded; // load the Sizzle script function load_sizzle(module_name) { var script; // load Sizzle script and set up 'onload' and 'onreadystatechange' event // handlers to ensure that external script is loaded before dependent // code is executed script = document.createElement('script'); script.src = 'sizzle.min.js'; script.onload = function() { sizzle_loaded = true; gather_content(module_name); }; script.onreadystatechange = function() { if ((script.readyState === 'loaded' || script.readyState === 'complete') && !sizzle_loaded) { sizzle_loaded = true; gather_content(module_name); } }; // append script to the document document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(script); } I set the onload and onreadystatechange event handlers, as well as the sizzle_loaded flag to call another function (gather_content()) as soon as Sizzle has loaded. All of this is needed to do this in a cross-browser way. Until now, my project only had to lazy-load Sizzle at one point in the script, so I was able to just hard-code the gather_content() function call into the load_sizzle() function. However, I now need to lazy-load Sizzle at two different points in the script, and call a different function either time once it's loaded. My first instinct was to modify the function to accept a callback function: var sizzle_loaded; // load the Sizzle script function load_sizzle(module_name, callback) { var script; // load Sizzle script and set up 'onload' and 'onreadystatechange' event // handlers to ensure that external script is loaded before dependent // code is executed script = document.createElement('script'); script.src = 'sizzle.min.js'; script.onload = function() { sizzle_loaded = true; callback(module_name); }; script.onreadystatechange = function() { if ((script.readyState === 'loaded' || script.readyState === 'complete') && !sizzle_loaded) { sizzle_loaded = true; callback(module_name); } }; // append script to the document document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(script); } Then, I could just call it like this: load_sizzle(module_name, gather_content); However, the other callback function that I need to use takes more parameters than gather_content() does. How can I modify my function so that I can specify a variable number of parameters, to be passed with the callback function? Or, am I going about this the wrong way? Ultimately, I just want to load Sizzle, then call any function that I need to (with any arguments that it needs) once it's done loading. Thanks for any help!

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• Grouping geographical shapes

  - by grenade

  I am using Dundas Maps and attempting to draw a map of the world where countries are grouped into regions that are specific to a business implementation. I have shape data (points and segments) for each country in the world. I can combine countries into regions by adding all points and segments for countries within a region to a new region shape. foreach(var region in GetAllRegions()){ var regionShape = new Shape { Name = region.Name }; foreach(var country in GetCountriesInRegion(region.Id)){ var countryShape = GetCountryShape(country.Id); regionShape.AddSegments(countryShape.ShapeData.Points, countryShape.ShapeData.Segments); } map.Shapes.Add(regionShape); } The problem is that the country border lines still show up within a region and I want to remove them so that only regional borders show up. Dundas polygons must start and end at the same point. This is the case for all the country shapes. Now I need an algorithm that can: Determine where country borders intersect at a regional border, so that I can join the regional border segments. Determine which country borders are not regional borders so that I can discard them. Sort the resulting regional points so that they sequentialy describe the shape boundaries. Below is where I have gotten to so far with the map. You can see that the country borders still need to be removed. For example, the border between Mongolia and China should be discarded whereas the border between Mongolia and Russia should be retained. The reason I need to retain a regional border is that the region colors will be significant in conveying information but adjacent regions may be the same color. The regions can change to include or exclude countries and this is why the regional shaping must be dynamic. EDIT: I now know that I what I am looking for is a UNION of polygons. David Lean explains how to do it using the spatial functions in SQL Server 2008 which might be an option but my efforts have come to a halt because the resulting polygon union is so complex that SQL truncates it at 43,680 characters. I'm now trying to either find a workaround for that or find a way of doing the union in code.

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• JavaScript: How to get text from all descendents of an element, disregarding scripts?

  - by Bungle

  My current project involves gathering text content from an element and all of its descendents, based on a provided selector. For example, when supplied the selector #content and run against this HTML: <div id="content"> <p>This is some text.</p> <script type="text/javascript"> var test = true; </script> <p>This is some more text.</p> </div> my script would return (after a little whitespace cleanup): This is some text. var test = true; This is some more text. However, I need to disregard text nodes that occur within <script> elements. This is an excerpt of my current code: // get text content of all matching elements for (x = 0; x < selectors.length; x++) { matches = Sizzle(selectors[x], document); for (y = 0; y < matches.length; y++) { match = matches[y]; if (match.innerText) { // IE content += match.innerText + ' '; } else if (match.textContent) { // other browsers content += match.textContent + ' '; } } } It's a bit overly simplistic in that it just returns all text nodes within the element (and its descendants) that matches the provided selector. The solution I'm looking for would return all text nodes except for those that fall within script elements. It doesn't need to be especially high-performance, but I do need it to ultimately be cross-browser compatible. I'm assuming that I'll need to somehow loop through all children of the element that matches the selector and accumulate all text nodes other than ones within <script> elements; it doesn't look like there's any way to identify JavaScript once it's already rolled into the string accumulated from all of the text nodes. I can't use jQuery (for performance/bandwidth reasons), although you may have noticed that I do use its Sizzle selector engine, so jQuery's selector logic is available. Thanks in advance for any help!

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• Rails / ActiveRecord Modeling Help

  - by JM

  I’m trying to model a relationship in ActiveRecord and I think it’s a little beyond my skill level. Here’s the background. This is a horse racing project and I’m trying to model a horses Connections over time. Connections are defined as the Horse’s Current: Owner, Trainer and Jockey. Over time, a horse’s connections can change for a lot of different reasons: The owner sells the horse in a private sale The horse is claimed (purchase in a public sale) The Trainer switches jockeys The owner switches trainers In my first attempt at modeling this, I created the following tables: Horses, Owners, Trainers, Jockeys and Connections. Essentially, the Connections table was the has-many-through join table and was structured as follows: Connections Table 1 Id Horse_id Owner_id Trainer_id Jockey_id Status_Code Status_Date Change_Code The Horse, Owner, Trainer and Jockey foreign keys are self explanatory. The status code is 1 or 0 (1 active, 0 inactive) and the status date is the date the status changed. Change_code is and integer or string value that represent the reason for the change (private sale, claim, jockey change, etc) The key benefit of this approach is that the Connection is represented as one record in the connections table. The downside is that I have to have a table for Owner (1), Trainer (2) and Jockey (3) when one table could due. In my second attempt at modeling this I created the following tables: Horses, Connections, Entities The Entities tables has the following structure Entities Table id First_name Last_name Role where Role represents if the entity is a Owner, Trainer or Jockey. Under this approach, my Connections table has the following structure Connections Table 2 id Horse_id Entity_id Role Status_Code Status_Date Change_Code 1 1 1 1 1 1/1/2010 2 1 4 2 1 1/1/2010 3 1 10 3 1 1/1/2010 This approach has the benefit of eliminating two tables, but on the other hand the Connection is now comprised of three different records as opposed to one in the first approach. What believe I’m looking for is an approach that allows me to capture the Connection in one record, but also uses an Entities table with roles instead of the Owner, Trainer and Jockey tables. I’m new to ActiveRecord and rails so any and all input would be greatly appreciated. Perhaps there are other ways that would even be better. Thanks!

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• How Can I Populate Default Form Data with a ManyToMany Field?

  - by b14ck

  Ok, I've been crawling google and Django documentation for over 2 hours now (as well as the IRC channel on freenode), and haven't been able to figure this one out. Basically, I have a model called Room, which is displayed below: class Room(models.Model): """ A `Partyline` room. Rooms on the `Partyline`s are like mini-chatrooms. Each room has a variable amount of `Caller`s, and usually a moderator of some sort. Each `Partyline` has many rooms, and it is common for `Caller`s to join multiple rooms over the duration of their call. """ LIVE = 0 PRIVATE = 1 ONE_ON_ONE = 2 UNCENSORED = 3 BULLETIN_BOARD = 4 CHILL = 5 PHONE_BOOTH = 6 TYPE_CHOICES = ( ('LR', 'Live Room'), ('PR', 'Private Room'), ('UR', 'Uncensored Room'), ) type = models.CharField('Room Type', max_length=2, choices=TYPE_CHOICES) number = models.IntegerField('Room Number') partyline = models.ForeignKey(Partyline) owner = models.ForeignKey(User, blank=True, null=True) bans = models.ManyToManyField(Caller, blank=True, null=True) def __unicode__(self): return "%s - %s %d" % (self.partyline.name, self.type, self.number) I've also got a forms.py which has the following ModelForm to represent my Room model: from django.forms import ModelForm from partyline_portal.rooms.models import Room class RoomForm(ModelForm): class Meta: model = Room I'm creating a view which allows administrators to edit a given Room object. Here's my view (so far): def edit_room(request, id=None): """ Edit various attributes of a specific `Room`. Room owners do not have access to this page. They cannot edit the attributes of the `Room`(s) that they control. """ room = get_object_or_404(Room, id=id) if not room.is_owner(request.user): return HttpResponseForbidden('Forbidden.') if is_user_type(request.user, ['admin']): form_type = RoomForm elif is_user_type(request.user, ['lm']): form_type = LineManagerEditRoomForm elif is_user_type(request.user, ['lo']): form_type = LineOwnerEditRoomForm if request.method == 'POST': form = form_type(request.POST, instance=room) if form.is_valid(): if 'owner' in form.cleaned_data: room.owner = form.cleaned_data['owner'] room.save() else: defaults = {'type': room.type, 'number': room.number, 'partyline': room.partyline.id} if room.owner: defaults['owner'] = room.owner.id if room.bans: defaults['bans'] = room.bans.all() ### this does not work properly! form = form_type(defaults, instance=room) variables = RequestContext(request, {'form': form, 'room': room}) return render_to_response('portal/rooms/edit.html', variables) Now, this view works fine when I view the page. It shows all of the form attributes, and all of the default values are filled in (when users do a GET)... EXCEPT for the default values for the ManyToMany field 'bans'. Basically, if an admins clicks on a Room object to edit, the page they go to will show all of the Rooms default values except for the 'bans'. No matter what I do, I can't find a way to get Django to display the currently 'banned users' for the Room object. Here is the line of code that needs to be changed (from the view): defaults = {'type': room.type, 'number': room.number, 'partyline': room.partyline.id} if room.owner: defaults['owner'] = room.owner.id if room.bans: defaults['bans'] = room.bans.all() ### this does not work properly! There must be some other syntax I have to use to specify the default value for the 'bans' field. I've really been pulling my hair out on this one, and would definitely appreciate some help. Thanks!

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• CLR 4.0 inlining policy? (maybe bug with MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)

  - by ControlFlow

  I've testing some new CLR 4.0 behavior in method inlining (cross-assembly inlining) and found some strage results: Assembly ClassLib.dll: using System.Diagnostics; using System; using System.Reflection; using System.Security; using System.Runtime.CompilerServices; namespace ClassLib { public static class A { static readonly MethodInfo GetExecuting = typeof(Assembly).GetMethod("GetExecutingAssembly"); public static Assembly Foo(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // explicit call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } public static Assembly Bar(out StackTrace stack) // 25 bytes { // reflection call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return (Assembly) GetExecuting.Invoke(null, null); } public static Assembly Baz(out StackTrace stack) // 9 bytes { stack = new StackTrace(); return null; } public static Assembly Bob(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // call of non-inlinable method! return SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out stack); } [SecurityCritical, MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] static Assembly SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out StackTrace stack) { stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } } } Assembly ConsoleApp.exe using System; using ClassLib; using System.Diagnostics; class Program { static void Main() { Console.WriteLine("runtime: {0}", Environment.Version); StackTrace stack; Console.WriteLine("Foo: {0}\n{1}", A.Foo(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bar: {0}\n{1}", A.Bar(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Baz: {0}\n{1}", A.Baz(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bob: {0}\n{1}", A.Bob(out stack), stack); } } Results: runtime: 4.0.30128.1 Foo: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Foo(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Bar: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Bar(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Baz: at Program.Main() Bob: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at Program.Main() So questions are: Why JIT does not inlined Foo and Bar calls as Baz does? They are lower than 32 bytes of IL and are good candidates for inlining. Why JIT inlined call of Bob and inner call of SomeSecurityCriticalMethod that is marked with the [MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] attribute? Why GetExecutingAssembly returns a valid assembly when is called by inlined Baz and SomeSecurityCriticalMethod methods? I've expect that it performs the stack walk to detect the executing assembly, but stack will contains only Program.Main() call and no methods of ClassLib assenbly, to ConsoleApp should be returned.

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• PHP & MySQL deleting multiple rows script problem.

  - by oReiLLy

  I'm trying to delete two tables rows from two different tables at once when a user clicks the delete button, but for some reason I cant get the table rows to delete can some one help me figure out what is wrong with my script? Thanks Here is the MySQL tables. CREATE TABLE cases ( id INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, file VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, case VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, name VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ); CREATE TABLE users_cases ( id INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, cases_id INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, user_id INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ); Here is the PHP & MySQL script. if(isset($_POST['delete_case'])) { $cases_ids = array(); $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"SELECT cases.*, users_cases.* FROM cases INNER JOIN users_cases ON users_cases.cases_id = cases.id WHERE users_cases.user_id='$user_id'"); if (!$dbc) { print mysqli_error($mysqli); } else { while($row = mysqli_fetch_array($dbc)){ $cases_ids[] = $row["cases_id"]; } } foreach($_POST['delete_id'] as $di) { if(in_array($di, $cases_ids)) { $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"DELETE FROM users_cases WHERE cases_id = '$delete_id'"); $dbc2 = mysqli_query($mysqli,"DELETE FROM cases WHERE id = '$delete_id'"); } } } Here is the XHTML. <li> <input type="text" name="file[]" size="25" /> <input type="text" name="case[]" size="25" /> <input type="text" name="name[]" size="25" /> <input type="hidden" name="delete_id" value="' . $row['cases_id'] . '" /> </li> <li> <input type="text" name="file[]" size="25" /> <input type="text" name="case[]" size="25" /> <input type="text" name="name[]" size="25" /> <input type="hidden" name="delete_id" value="' . $row['cases_id'] . '" /> </li> <li> <input type="text" name="file[]" size="25" /> <input type="text" name="case[]" size="25" /> <input type="text" name="name[]" size="25" /> <input type="hidden" name="delete_id" value="' . $row['cases_id'] . '" /> </li>

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• How to order a HasMany collection by a child property with Fluent NHibernate mapping

  - by Geoff Hardy

  I am using Fluent NHibernate to map the following classes: public abstract class DomainObject { public virtual int Id { get; protected internal set; } } public class Attribute { public virtual string Name { get; set; } } public class AttributeRule { public virtual Attribute Attribute { get; set; } public virtual Station Station { get; set; } public virtual RuleTypeId RuleTypeId { get; set; } } public class Station : DomainObject { public virtual IList<AttributeRule> AttributeRules { get; set; } public Station() { AttributeRules = new List<AttributeRule>(); } } My Fluent NHibernate mappings look like this: public class AttributeMap : ClassMap<Attribute> { public AttributeMap() { Id(o => o.Id); Map(o => o.Name); } } public class AttributeRuleMap : ClassMap<AttributeRule> { public AttributeRuleMap() { Id(o => o.Id); Map(o => o.RuleTypeId); References(o => o.Attribute).Fetch.Join(); References(o => o.Station); } } public class StationMap : ClassMap<Station> { public StationMap() { Id(o => o.Id); HasMany(o => o.AttributeRules).Inverse(); } } I would like to order the AttributeRules list on Station by the Attribute.Name property, but doing the following does not work: HasMany(o => o.AttributeRules).Inverse().OrderBy("Attribute.Name"); I have not found a way to do this yet in the mappings. I could create a IQuery or ICriteria to do this for me, but ideally I would just like to have the AttributeRules list sorted when I ask for it. Any advice on how to do this mapping?

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• Can I create a custom class that inherits from a strongly typed DataRow?

  - by Calvin Fisher

  I'm working on a huge, old project with a lot of brittle code, some of which has been around since the .NET 1.0 era, and it has been and will be worked on by other people... so I'd like to change as little as possible. I have one project in my solution that contains DataSet.xsd. This project compiles to a separate assembly (Data.dll). The database schema includes several tables arranged more or less hierarchically, but the only way the tables are actually linked together is through joins. I can get, e.g. DepartmentRow and EmployeeRow objects from the autogenerated code. EmployeeRow contains information from the employee's corresponding DepartmentRow through a join. I'm making a new report to view multiple departments and all their employees. If I use the existing data access scheme, all I will be able to get is a spreadsheet-like output where each employee is represented on one line, with department information repeated over and over in its appropriate columns. E.g.: Department1...Employee1... Department1...Employee2... Department2...Employee3... But what the customer would like is to have each department render like a heading, with a list of employees beneath each. E.g.: - Department1... Employee1... Employee2... + Department2... I'm trying to do this by inheriting hierarchical objects from the autogenerated Row objects. E.g.: public class Department : DataSet.DepartmentRow { public List<Employee> Employees; } That way I could nest the data in the report by using a collection of Department objects as the DataSource, each of which will put its list of Employees in a subreport. The problem is that this gives me a The type Data.DataSet.DepartmentRow has no constructors defined error. And when I try to make a constructor, e.g. public class Department : DataSet.DepartmentRow { private Department() { } public List<Employee> Employees; } I get a 'Data.DataSet.DepartmentRow(System.Data.DataRowBuilder)' is inaccessible due to its protection level. error in addition to the first one. Is there a way to accomplish what I'm trying to do? Or is there something else I should be trying entirely?

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• Recommendations for a free GIS library supporting raster images

  - by gspr

  Hi. I'm quite new to the whole field of GIS, and I'm about to make a small program that essentially overlays GPS tracks on a map together with some other annotations. I primarily need to allow scanned (thus raster) maps (although it would be nice to support proper map formats and something like OpenStreetmap in the long run). My first exploratory program uses Qt's graphics view framework and overlays the GPS points by simply projecting them onto the tangent plane to the WGS84 ellipsoid at a calibration point. This gives half-decent accuracy, and actually looks good. But then I started wondering. To get the accuracy I need (i.e. remove the "half" in "half-decent"), I have to correct for the map projection. While the math is not a problem in itself, supporting many map projection feels like needless work. Even though a few projections would probably be enough, I started thinking about just using something like the PROJ.4 library to do my projections. But then, why not take it all the way? Perhaps I might aswell use a full-blown map library such as Mapnik (edit: Quantum GIS also looks very nice), which will probably pay off when I start to want even more fancy annotations or some other symptom of featuritis. So, finally, to the question: What would you do? Would you use a full-blown map library? If so, which one? Again, it's important that it supports using (and zooming in and out with) raster maps and has pretty overlay features. Or would you just keep it simple, and go with Qt's own graphics view framework together with something like PROJ.4 to handle the map projections? I appreciate any feedback! Some technicalities: I'm writing in C++ with a Qt-based GUI, so I'd prefer something that plays relatively nicely with those. Also, the library must be free software (as in FOSS), and at least decently cross-platform (GNU/Linux, Windows and Mac, at least). Edit: OK, it seems I didn't do quite enough research before asking this question. Both Quantum GIS and Mapnik seem very well suited for my purpose. The former especially so since it's based on Qt.

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