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  • Modify post data with a custom MVC extension?

    - by Jaxidian
    So I'm looking into writing some custom MVC extensions and the first one I'm attempting to tackle is a FormattedTextBox to handle things such as currency, dates, and times. I have the rendering of it working perfectly, formatting it, working with strong types and everything all golden. However, the problem I'm now running into is cleaning up the formatted stuff when the page posts the data back. Take for example, a currency format. Let's use USD for these examples. When an object has a property as a decimal, the value would be 79.95. Your edit view would be something like: <%= Html.FormattedTextBox(model => Model.Person.HourlyWage, "{0:C}") %> This is all well and good for the GET request, but upon POST, the value is going to be $79.95, which when you assign to that decimal, gets unhappy very quickly and ends up shoving a 0 in there. So my question is, how do I get code working somewhere to work with that value before the MVC Framework goes and starts shoving it back into my ViewModel? I'd much rather this be done server-side than client-side. Thanks!!

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  • svnsync loses revision properties although hook installed

    - by roesslerj
    Hello all! I have a pretty weird problem. We have setup an SVN-Mirror via cronjob (because it needs to go from inside to outside of a firewall, so no post-commit-hook possible) and svnsync. We installed a pre-revprop-hook just as told. Everything seems to work fine, except that it doesn't. E.g. when manually executing the script. # svnsync --non-interactive sync file://<path-to-mirror> --source-username <usr> --source-password <pwd> Committed revision 19817. Copied properties for revision 19817. No error, no complaints. But if checking for the revision properties it says: # svnlook info <path-to-mirror> 0 # svn info -r HEAD file://<path-to-mirror> 2>&1 Path: <root-of-mirror> URL: file://<path-to-mirror> Repository Root: file://<path-to-mirror> Repository UUID: <uid> Revision: 19817 Node Kind: directory Last Changed Rev: 19817 So somehow the author and timestamp information gets lost. But we need that information for our internal processes. Since no error or warning is produced I have absolutely no idea even where to start to look. Everything is local (except for the remote master), so there are no server-logs to look at. I also tried to manually recopy via svnsync copy-revprops (http://chestofbooks.com/computers/revision-control/subversion-svn/svnsync-Copy-revprops-Ref-svnsync-C-Copy-revprops.html). It says Copied properties for revision 19885. But when I query them, it's just the same. Any ideas how I could approach that problem, or even better -- how to solve it? Any ideas appreciated.

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  • jquery: set variable based on one class from an element that has more than one class

    - by John
    Hi I'm trying to make a table who's columns and rows highlight on hover (I realise there are jquery plugins out there that will do this, but I'm trying to learn, so thought I'd have a stab at doing it for myself.) Here's what I've got so far: $('th:not(.features), td:not(.features)').hover(highlight); function highlight(){ $('th.highlightCol, td.highlightCol').removeClass('highlightCol'); var col = $(this).attr('class'); $('.' + col).addClass('highlightCol'); }; $('tr').hover(highlightRowOn, highlightRowOff); function highlightRowOn(){ $(this).children('td:not(.highlightCol)').addClass('highlightRow'); }; function highlightRowOff(){ $(this).children('td:not(.highlightCol)').removeClass('highlightRow'); }; This works fine apart from one problem: Each 'td' has a class specific to it's column (package1, package2, package3, package4). It is this that gets passed to the variable (col) to add the class 'highlightCol' to a column when one of its 'td's are hovered on. However, If you move the cursor to a new column along a highlighted row, the 'td' you land on has two classes (highlightedRow and package* ). These both get passed to the variable and as a result the new column does not receive the correct class to highlight. Is there a way for me to target just the 'package* ' class and pass that to the variable while ignoring the 'highlightedRow' class? I hope that's not too jumbled for someone to make sense of and many thanks for any help offered.

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  • Declare module name of classes for logging

    - by Space_C0wb0y
    I currently am adding some features to our logging-library. One of these is the possibility to declare a module-name for a class that automatically gets preprended to any log-messages writing from within that class. However, if no module-name is provided, nothing is prepended. Currently I am using a trait-class that has a static function that returns the name. template< class T > struct ModuleNameTrait { static std::string Value() { return ""; } }; template< > struct ModuleNameTrait< Foo > { static std::string Value() { return "Foo"; } }; This class can be defined using a helper-macro. The drawback is, that the module-name has to be declared outside of the class. I would like this to be possible within the class. Also, I want to be able to remove all logging-code using a preprocessor directive. I know that using SFINAE one can check if a template argument has a certain member, but since other people, that are not as friendly with templates as I am, will have to maintain the code, I am looking for a much simpler solution. If there is none, I will stick with the traits approach. Thanks in advance!

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  • C# StackOverflowException

    - by KSwift87
    Problem: I am trying to update a List. If a certain item's ID already exists in the List, I want to add onto that item's quantity. If not, then I want to add another item to the list. cart = (List<OrderItem>)Session["cart"]; for(int counter = cart.Count-1; counter >= 0; counter--) { if (cart[counter].productId == item.productId) { cart[counter].productQuantity += item.productQuantity; } else if (counter == 0) { cart.Add(item); } } "cart[counter]" and "item" represent an instance(s) of a custom object of mine. Currently when I finally find a matching ID, everything APPEARS as though it should work, but I get a StackOverflowException thrown in my custom object class. public int productQuantity { get { return _productQuantity; } set { productQuantity = value; } } It gets thrown right at the open-bracket of the "set". Could somebody please tell me what the heck is wrong because I've been going at this for the past 2+ hours to no avail. Thank you in advance.

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  • A way to enable a LaunchDaemon to output sound?

    - by Varun Mehta
    I have a small Foundation application that checks a website and plays a sound if it sees a certain value. This application successfully plays a sound when I run it as my user from the Terminal. I've configured this app to run as a LaunchDaemon, with the following plist: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE plist PUBLIC "-//Apple//DTD PLIST 1.0//EN" "http://www.apple.com/DTDs/PropertyList-1.0.dtd"> <plist version="1.0"> <dict> <key>Label</key> <string>org.myorg.appidentifier</string> <key>ProgramArguments</key> <array> <string>/Users/varunm/path/to/cli/application</string> </array> <key>KeepAlive</key> <true/> <key>RunAtLoad</key> <true/> </dict> </plist> When I have this service launched I can see it successfully read in and log values from the website, but it never generates any sound. The sound files are located in the same directory as the binary, and I use the following code: NSSound *soundToPlay = [[NSSound alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:@"sound.wav" byReference:NO]; [soundToPlay setDelegate:stopper]; [soundToPlay play]; while (g_keepRunning) { [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] runUntilDate:[NSDate dateWithTimeIntervalSinceNow:1.0]]; } [soundToPlay setCurrentTime:0.0]; Is there any way to get my LaunchDaemon application to play sound? This machine gets run by different people, and sometimes has no one logged in, which is why I have to configure it as a LaunchDaemon.

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  • django - variable declared in base project does not appear in app

    - by unsorted
    I have a variable called STATIC_URL, declared in settings.py in my base project: STATIC_URL = '/site_media/static/' This is used, for example, in my site_base.html, which links to CSS files as follows: <link rel="stylesheet" href="{{ STATIC_URL }}css/site_tabs.css" /> I have a bunch of templates related to different apps which extend site_base.html, and when I look at them in my browser the CSS is linked correctly as <link rel="stylesheet" href="/site_media/static/css/site_tabs.css" /> (These came with a default pinax distribution.) I created a new app called 'courses' which lives in the ...../apps/courses folder. I have a view for one of the pages in courses called courseinstance.html which extends site_base.html just like the other ones. However, when this one renders in my browser it comes out as <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/site_tabs.css" /> as if STATIC_URL were equal to "" for this app. Do I have to make some sort of declaration to get my app to take on the same variable values as the project? I don't have a settings.py file for the app. by the way, the app is listed in my list of INSTALLED_APPS and it gets served up fine, just without the link to the CSS file (so the page looks funny). Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • Running Solr on VPS problems

    - by Camran
    I have a VPS with Ubuntu OS. I run solr om my local machine (windows xp laptop) just fine. I have configured Jetty, and Solr just the same way as on my computer, but on the server. I have also downloaded the JRE and installed it on the server. However, whenever I try to run the start.jar file, the PuTTY terminal shows a bunch of text but gets stuck. I could pase the text here but it is very long, so unless somebody wants to see it I wont. Also, I cant view the solr admin page at all. Does anybody have experience in this kind of problem? Maybe java isn't correctly installed? It is a VPS so maybe installation is different. Thanks UPDATE: These are the last lines from the terminal, in other words, this is where it stops every time: INFO: [] webapp=null path=null params={event=firstSearcher&q=static+firstSearcher+warming+query+from+solrconfig.xml} hits=0 status=0 QTime=9 May 28, 2010 8:58:42 PM org.apache.solr.core.QuerySenderListener newSearcher INFO: QuerySenderListener done. May 28, 2010 8:58:42 PM org.apache.solr.handler.component.SpellCheckComponent$SpellCheckerListener newSearcher INFO: Loading spell index for spellchecker: default May 28, 2010 8:58:42 PM org.apache.solr.core.SolrCore registerSearcher INFO: [] Registered new searcher Searcher@63a721 main

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  • Need advice on comparing the performance of 2 equivalent linq to sql queries

    - by uvita
    I am working on tool to optimize linq to sql queries. Basically it intercepts the linq execution pipeline and makes some optimizations like for example removing a redundant join from a query. Of course, there is an overhead in the execution time before the query gets executed in the dbms, but then, the query should be processed faster. I don't want to use a sql profiler because I know that the generated query will be perform better in the dbms than the original one, I am looking for a correct way of measuring the global time between the creation of the query in linq and the end of its execution. Currently, I am using the Stopwatch class and my code looks something like this: var sw = new Stopwatch(); sw.Start(); const int amount = 100; for (var i = 0; i < amount; i++) { ExecuteNonOptimizedQuery(); } sw.Stop(); Console.Writeline("Executing the query {2} times took: {0}ms. On average, each query took: {1}ms", sw.ElapsedMilliseconds, sw.ElapsedMilliseconds / amount, amount); Basically the ExecutenNonOptimizedQuery() method creates a new DataContext, creates a query and then iterates over the results. I did this for both versions of the query, the normal one and the optimized one. I took the idea from this post from Frans Bouma. Is there any other approach/considerations I should take? Thanks in advance!

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  • how to parametrize an import in a View?

    - by Gianluca Colucci
    Hello everybody, I am looking for some help and I hope that some good soul out there will be able to give me a hint :) In the app I am building, I have a View. When an instance of this View gets created, it "imports" (MEF) the corresponding ViewModel. Here some code: public partial class ContractEditorView : Window { public ContractEditorView () { InitializeComponent(); CompositionInitializer.SatisfyImports(this); } [Import(ViewModelTypes.ContractEditorViewModel)] public object ViewModel { set { DataContext = value; } } } and here is the export for the ViewModel: [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] [Export(ViewModelTypes.ContractEditorViewModel)] public class ContractEditorViewModel: ViewModelBase { public ContractEditorViewModel() { _contract = new Models.Contract(); } } Now, this works if I want to open a new window to create a new contract... But it does not if I want to use the same window to edit an existing contract... In other words, I would like to add a second construct both in the View and in the ViewModel: the original constructor would accept no parameters and therefore it would create a new contract; the new construct - the one I'd like to add - I'd like to pass an ID so that I can load a given entity... What I don't understand is how to pass this ID to the ViewModel import... Thanks in advance, Cheers, Gianluca.

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  • Vertical Image Border Changes Alignment when Screen is not maximized

    - by Randy
    I have some pretty straightforward HTML code with a few tables to organize various items of text or images. All works fine except that I need to place a vertical border on both the left and right sides of the screen. I am able to do this with a 2x2 pixel image that I stretch out. When the user has their screen maximized, everything looks great. But when the user hits "Restore Down", then the borders stay in place, but the tables get shoved down so that they start below where the borders end, which is off screen. in other words, the relational alignment between the borders and the tables gets all screwed up. Does anybody know how to make this alignment stay consistent on a restore down? I'm pretty much a newbie with html and asp, so speak slowly. If there is a better method to accomplish this, I'm all ears. Thanks. Here is the relevant section of code: <%@ Master Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="MasterPage.master.cs" Inherits="MasterPage" % <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Image ID="LeftBorder" src="../Images/Border_Blue.jpg" runat="server" WIDTH="15" HEIGHT="1000" BORDER="0" alt="Image Missing" align="left"/> <asp:Image ID="RightBorder" src="../Images/Border_Blue.jpg" runat="server" WIDTH="15" HEIGHT="1000" BORDER="0" alt="Image Missing" align="right" /> <table id="BannerTable" style="height: 100px"> <tr> <td width="934px"> <img src="../Images/Header.jpg" alt="Image Missing" id="ImgBanner" align="left"/></td> </tr> </table>

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  • ASP.NET MVC Map String Url To A Route Value Object

    - by mwgriffiths
    I am creating a modular ASP.NET MVC application using areas. In short, I have created a greedy route that captures all routes beginning with {application}/{*catchAll}. Here is the action: // get /application/index public ActionResult Index(string application, object catchAll) { // forward to partial request to return partial view ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(catchAll); // this gets called in the view page and uses a partial request class to return a partial view } Example: The Url "/Application/Accounts/LogOn" will then cause the Index action to pass "/Accounts/LogOn" into the PartialRequest, but as a string value. // partial request constructor public PartialRequest(object routeValues) { RouteValueDictionary = new RouteValueDictionary(routeValues); } In this case, the route value dictionary will not return any values for the routeData, whereas if I specify a route in the Index Action: ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }); It works, and the routeData values contains a "controller" key and an "action" key; whereas before, the keys are empty, and therefore the rest of the class wont work. So my question is, how can I convert the "/Accounts/LogOn" in the catchAll to "new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }"?? If this is not clear, I will explain more! :) Matt This is the "closest" I have got, but it obviously wont work for complex routes: // split values into array var routeParts = catchAll.ToString().Split(new char[] { '/' }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries); // feels like a hack catchAll = new { controller = routeParts[0], action = routeParts[1] };

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  • Making Vim auto-indent PHP/HTML using alternative syntax

    - by njbair
    I edit PHP in Vim and have enjoyed the auto-indenting, but PHP's alternative syntax doesn't auto-indent how I would like. For instance, in an HTML template, Vim doesn't recognize the open control structure in the same way it does when using braces. Example: <html> <body> <p> <?php if (1==1): ?> This line should be indented. <?php endif; ?> </p> </body> </html> I want Vim to recognize the open control structure and indent the HTML within it. Another example which uses pure PHP: <?php if (1==1): echo "This line gets indented"; echo "This one doesn't"; endif; ?> The indentation is terminated by the semicolon, even though the control structure is still open. Does anybody know how to get Vim to work in these situations? Thanks.

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  • PDO prepare silently fails

    - by Wabbitseason
    I'm experimenting with PHP's session_set_save_handler and I'd like to use a PDO connection to store session data. I have this function as a callback for write actions: function _write($id, $data) { logger('_WRITE ' . $id . ' ' . $data); try { $access = time(); $sql = 'REPLACE INTO sessions SET id=:id, access=:access, data=:data'; logger('This is the last line in this function that appears in the log.'); $stmt = $GLOBALS['db']->prepare($sql); logger('This never gets logged! :('); $stmt->bindParam(':id', $id, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(':access', $access, PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindParam(':data', $data, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->closeCursor(); return true; } catch (PDOException $e) { logger('This is never executed.'); logger($e->getTraceAsString()); } } The first two log messages always show up, but the third one right after $stmt = $GLOBALS['db']->prepare($sql) never makes it to the log file and there's no trace of an exception either. The sessions db table remains empty. The log message from the _close callback is always present. Here's how I connect to the database: $db = new PDO('mysql:host=' . DBHOST . ';dbname=' . DBNAME, DBUSER, DBPASS); $db->setAttribute(PDO::ATTR_ERRMODE, PDO::ERRMODE_EXCEPTION); I have PHP 5.2.10. I tried to simply run $GLOBALS['db']->exec($sql) with a "manually prepared" $sql content, but it still failed silently. The query itself is all right I was able to execute it via the db console.

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  • acts_as_xapian jobs table

    - by Grnbeagle
    Hi, Can someone explain to me the inner workings of acts_as_xapian_jobs table? I ran into an issue with the acts_as_xapian plugin recently, where I kept getting the following error when it creates an object with xapian indexed fields: Mysql::Error: Duplicate entry 'String-2147483647' for key 2: INSERT INTO `acts_as_xapian_jobs` (`action`, `model`, `model_id`) VALUES ('update', 'String', 23730251831560) It turns out the model_id exceeded the max int value of 2147483647. The workaround was to update model_id to use bigint. Why would the model_id be so huge? By looking at content of acts_as_xapian_jobs, it seems it creates a row for every field that is being indexed.. Understanding how a job gets created in the table would help a great deal. Here's a sampling of the table: mysql> select * from acts_as_xapian_jobs limit 5\G *************************** 1. row *************************** id: 19 model: String model_id: 23804037900560 action: update *************************** 2. row *************************** id: 49 model: String model_id: 23804037191200 action: update *************************** 3. row *************************** id: 79 model: String model_id: 23804037932180 action: update *************************** 4. row *************************** id: 109 model: String model_id: 23804037101700 action: update *************************** 5. row *************************** id: 139 model: String model_id: 23804037722160 action: update Thanks in advance, Amie

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  • Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

    - by Mathias Koch
    Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

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  • Winsock tcp/ip Socket listening but connection refused, race condition?

    - by Wayne
    Hello folks. This involves two automated unit tests which each start up a tcp/ip server that creates a non-blocking socket then bind()s and listen()s in a loop on select() for a client that connects and downloads some data. The catch is that they work perfectly when run separately but when run as a test suite, the second test client will fail to connect with WSACONNREFUSED... UNLESS there is a Thread.Sleep() of several seconds between them??!!! Interestingly, there is retry loop every 1 second for connecting after any failure. So the second test loops for a while until timeout after 10 minutes. During that time, netstat -na shows the correct port number is in the LISTEN state for the server socket. So if it is in the listen state? Why won't it accept the connection? In the code, there are log messages that show the select NEVER even gets a socket ready to read (which means ready to accept a connection when it applies to a listening socket). Obviously the problem must be related to some race condition between finishing one test which means close() and shutdown() on each end of the socket, and the start up of the next. This wouldn't be so bad if the retry logic allowed it to connect eventually after a couple of seconds. However it seems to get "gummed up" and won't even retry. However, for some strange reason the listening socket SAYS it's in the LISTEN state even through keeps refusing connections. So that means it's the Windoze O/S which is actually catching the SYN packet and returning a RST packet (which means "Connection Refused"). The only other time I ever saw this error was when the code had a problem that caused hundreds of sockets to get stuck in TIME_WAIT state. But that's not the case here. netstat shows only about a dozen sockets with only 1 or 2 in TIME_WAIT at any given moment. Please help.

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  • How do I DYNAMICALLY cast in C# and return for a property

    - by ken-forslund
    I've already read threads on the topic, but can't find a solution that fits. I'm working on a drop-down list that takes an enum and uses that to populate itself. i found a VB.NET one. During the porting process, I discovered that it uses DirectCast() to set the type as it returns the SelectedValue. See the original VB here: http://jeffhandley.com/archive/2008/01/27/enum-list-dropdown-control.aspx the gist is, the control has Type _enumType; //gets set when the datasource is set and is the type of the specific enum The SelectedValue property kind of looks like (remember, it doesn't work): public Enum SelectedValue //Shadows Property { get { // Get the value from the request to allow for disabled viewstate string RequestValue = this.Page.Request.Params[this.UniqueID]; return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; } set { base.SelectedValue = value.ToString(); } } Now this touches on a core point that I think was missed in the other discussions. In darn near every example, folks argued that DirectCast wasn't needed, because in every example, they statically defined the type. That's not the case here. As the programmer of the control, I don't know the type. Therefore, I can't cast it. Additionally, the following examples of lines won't compile because c# casting doesn't accept a variable. Whereas VB's CType and DirectCast can accept Type T as a function parameter: return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true); or return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; or return (_enumType)Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) ; or return Convert.ChangeType(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true), _enumType); or return CastTo<_enumType>(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true)); So, any ideas on a solution? What's the .NET 3.5 best way to resolve this?

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  • Parsing back to 'messy' API strcuture

    - by Eric Fail
    I'm fetching data from an online database (REDcap) via API and the data gets delivered in as comma separated string like this, RAW.API <- structure("id,event_arm,name,dob,pushed_text,pushed_calc,complete\n\"01\",\"event_1_arm_1\",\"John\",\"1979-05-01\",\"\",\"\",2\n\"01\",\"event_2_arm_1\",\"John\",\"2012-09-02\",\"abc\",\"123\",1\n\"01\",\"event_3_arm_1\",\"John\",\"2012-09-10\",\"\",\"\",2\n\"02\",\"event_1_arm_1\",\"Mary\",\"1951-09-10\",\"def\",\"456\",2\n\"02\",\"event_2_arm_1\",\"Mary\",\"1978-09-12\",\"\",\"\",2\n", "`Content-Type`" = structure(c("text/html", "utf-8"), .Names = c("", "charset"))) I have this script that nicely parses it into a data frame, (df <- read.table(file = textConnection(RAW.API), header = TRUE, sep = ",", na.strings = "", stringsAsFactors = FALSE)) id event_arm name dob pushed_text pushed_calc complete 1 1 event_1_arm_1 John 1979-05-01 <NA> NA 2 2 1 event_2_arm_1 John 2012-09-02 abc 123 1 3 1 event_3_arm_1 John 2012-09-10 <NA> NA 2 4 2 event_1_arm_1 Mary 1951-09-10 def 456 2 5 2 event_2_arm_1 Mary 1978-09-12 <NA> NA 2 I then do some calculations and write them to pushed_text and pushed_calc whereafter I need to format the data back to the messy comma separated structure it came in. I imagine something like this, API.back <- `some magic command`(df, ...) identical(RAW.API, API.back) [1] TRUE Some command that can format my data from the data frame I made, df, back to the structure that the raw API-object came in, RAW.API. Any help would be very appreciated.

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  • Entity Framework - Insert/Update new entity with child-entities

    - by Christina Mayers
    I have found many questions here on SO and articles all over the internet but none really tackled my problem. My model looks like this (I striped all non essential Properties): Everyday or so "Play" gets updated (via a XML-file containing the information). internal Play ParsePlayInfo(XDocument doc) { Play play = (from p in doc.Descendants("Play") select new Play { Theatre = new Theatre() { //Properties }, //Properties LastUpdate = DateTime.Now }).SingleOrDefault(); var actors = (from a in doc.XPathSelectElement(".//Play//Actors").Nodes() select new Lecturer() { //Properties }); var parts = (from p in doc.XPathSelectElement(".//Play//Parts").Nodes() select new Part() { //Properties }).ToList(); foreach (var item in parts) { play.Parts.Add(item); } var reviews = (from r in doc.XPathSelectElement(".//Play//Reviews").Nodes() select new Review { //Properties }).ToList(); for (int i = 0; i < reviews.Count(); i++) { PlayReviews pR = new PlayReviews() { Review = reviews[i], Play = play, //Properties }; play.PlayReviews.Add(pR); } return play; } If I add this "play" via Add() every Childobject of Play will be inserted - regardless if some exist already. Since I need to update existing entries I have to do something about that. As far as I can tell I have the following options: add/update the child entities in my PlayRepositories Add-Method restructure and rewrite ParsePlayInfo() so that get all the child entities first, add or update them and then create a new Play. The only problem I have here is that I wanted ParsePlayInfo() to be persistence ignorant, I could work around this by creating multiple parse methods (eg ParseActors() ) and assign them to play in my controller (I'm using ASP.net MVC) after everything was parsed and added Currently I am implementing option 1 - but it feels wrong. I'd appreciate it if someone could guide me in the right direction on this one.

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  • jQuery - how to repeat a function within itself to include nested files

    - by brandonjp
    I'm not sure what to call this question, since it involves a variety of things, but we'll start with the first issue... I've been trying to write a simple to use jQuery for includes (similar to php or ssi) on static html sites. Whenever it finds div.jqinclude it gets attr('title') (which is my external html file), then uses load() to include the external html file. Afterwards it changes the class of the div to jqincluded So my main index.html might contain several lines like so: <div class="jqinclude" title="menu.html"></div> However, within menu.html there might be other includes nested. So it needs to make the first level of includes, then perform the same action on the newly included content. So far it works fine, but it's very verbose and only goes a couple levels deep. How would I make the following repeated function to continually loop until no more class="jqinclude" elements are left on the page? I've tried arguments.callee and some other convoluted wacky attempts to no avail. I'm also interested to know if there's another completely different way I should be doing this. $('div.jqinclude').each(function() { // begin repeat here var file = $(this).attr('title'); $(this).load(file, function() { $(this).removeClass('jqinclude').addClass('jqincluded'); $(this).find('div.jqinclude').each(function() { // end repeat here var file = $(this).attr('title'); $(this).load(file, function() { $(this).removeClass('jqinclude').addClass('jqincluded'); $(this).find('div.jqinclude').each(function() { var file = $(this).attr('title'); $(this).load(file, function() { $(this).removeClass('jqinclude').addClass('jqincluded'); }); }); }); }); }); });

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  • Refreshing Facebook session from an iframe application

    - by zombat
    I've got a Facebook iframe application that is completely external. By this I mean that once a user accesses the canvas URL to load the application, all the links in the iframe app go to my servers, and the canvas page never gets refreshed unless the user navigates to somewhere else on Facebook and comes back (or does a browser refresh). On the initial load of the app where Facebook creates the iframe, I get passed all the usual parameters like fb_sig_user which allows me to create an internal app session based on the facebook user. This app session (which is not the Facebook session, it's my own app session) is all I need to allow the user to work with the app. The problem comes an hour later. If the user leaves the computer, or uses the app for more than an hour, the Facebook session expires. There are some app pages which require fetching friend information, and once the FB session has expired, these pages break, throwing out errors such as "Error: Session key invalid or no longer valid". My question is whether there is a way to refresh the user's Facebook session from within an iframe application to keep it from expiring an hour later. Do any of the API calls do this? Is there a Facebook Connect trick to ping something? Is there any definitive method to keep it alive? I haven't been able to find any examples that specifically address this.

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  • SSIS - How do I use a resultset as input in a SQL task and get data types right?

    - by thursdaysgeek
    I am trying to merge records from an Oracle database table to my local SQL table. I have a variable for the package that is an Object, called OWell. I have a data flow task that gets the Oracle data as a SQL statment (select well_id, well_name from OWell order by Well_ID), and then a conversion task to convert well_id from a DT_STR of length 15 to a DT_WSTR; and convert well_name from a DT_STR of length 15 to DT_WSTR of length 50. That is then stored in the recordset OWell. The reason for the conversions is the table that I want to add records to has an identity field: SSIS shows well_id as a DT_WSTR of length 15, well_name a DT_WSTR of length 50. I then have a SQL task that connects to the local database and attempts to add records that are not there yet. I've tried various things: using the OWell as a result set and referring to it in my SQL statement. Currently, I have the ResultSet set to None, and the following SQL statment: Insert into WELL (WELL_ID, WELL_NAME) Select OWELL_ID, OWELL_NAME from OWell where OWELL_ID not in (select WELL.WELL_ID from WELL) For Parameter Mapping, I have Paramater 0, called OWell_ID, from my variable User::OWell. Parameter 1, called OWell_Name is from the same variable. Both are set to VARCHAR, although I've also tried NVARCHAR. I do not have a Result set. I am getting the following error: Error: 0xC002F210 at Insert records to FLEDG, Execute SQL Task: Executing the query "Insert into WELL (WELL_ID, WELL_NAME) Select OWELL..." failed with the following error: "An error occurred while extracting the result into a variable of type (DBTYPE_STR)". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. I don't think it's a data type issue, but rather that I somehow am not using the resultset properly. How, exactly, am I supposed to refer to that recordset in my SQL task, so that I can use the two recordset fields and add records that are missing?

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  • Which apache worker to use with passenger and how?

    - by Millisami
    I've this config in my apache2.conf <IfModule mpm_prefork_module> StartServers 5 MinSpareServers 5 MaxSpareServers 10 MaxClients 150 MaxRequestsPerChild 0 </IfModule> # worker MPM # StartServers: initial number of server processes to start # MaxClients: maximum number of simultaneous client connections # MinSpareThreads: minimum number of worker threads which are kept spare # MaxSpareThreads: maximum number of worker threads which are kept spare # ThreadsPerChild: constant number of worker threads in each server process # MaxRequestsPerChild: maximum number of requests a server process serves <IfModule mpm_worker_module> StartServers 2 MaxClients 15 MinSpareThreads 4 MaxSpareThreads 5 ThreadsPerChild 15 MaxRequestsPerChild 50000 </IfModule> Now I'm confused here. Which module gets loaded on which conditions? The phusion guys have suggested to use the worker module. Since both are present in apache conf file, do I have to comment the mpm_prefork_module or leave it as it is? Following is my passenger conf file for apache: LoadModule passenger_module /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.4/ext/apache2/mod_passenger.so PassengerRoot /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.4 PassengerRuby /usr/bin/ruby1.8 PassengerMaxPoolSize 3 PassengerPoolIdleTime 999999 RailsFrameworkSpawnerIdleTime 0 RailsAppSpawnerIdleTime 0 I'm running just a single Rails 2.3.2 app on 256MB slice at slicehost. I'm not quite satisfied with the performance yet. Are the settings above are any good??

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  • How to take advantage of an auto-property when refactoring this .Net 1.1 sample?

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    I see a lot of legacy .Net 1.1-style code at work like in example below, which I would like to shrink with the help of an auto-property. This will help many classes shrink by 30-40%, which I think would be good. public int MyIntThingy { get { return _myIntThingy; } set { _myIntThingy = value; } } private int _myIntThingy = -1; This would become: public int MyIntThingy { get; set; } And the only question is - where do I set MyIntThingy = -1;? If I wrote the class from the start, then I would have a better idea, but I did not. An obvious answer would be: put it in the constructor. Trouble is: there are many constructors in this class. Watching the initialization to -1 in the debugger, I see it happen (I believe) before the constructor gets called. It is almost as if I need to use a static constructor as described here: http://www.c-sharpcorner.com/uploadfile/cupadhyay/staticconstructors11092005061428am/staticconstructors.aspx except that my variables are not static. Java's static initializer comes to mind, but again - my variables are not static. http://www.glenmccl.com/tip_003.htm I want to make stylistic but not functional changes to this class. As crappy as it is, it has been tested and working for a few years now. breaking the functionality would be bad. So ... I am looking for shorter, sweeter, cuter, and yet EQUIVALENT code. Let me know if you have questions.

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