Search Results

Search found 10719 results on 429 pages for 'temp tables'.

Page 365/429 | < Previous Page | 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372  | Next Page >

  • Is there a way to effect user defined data types in MySQL?

    - by Dancrumb
    I have a database which stores (among other things), the following pieces of information: Hardware IDs BIGINTs Storage Capacities BIGINTs Hardware Names VARCHARs World Wide Port Names VARCHARs I'd like to be able to capture a more refined definition of these datatypes. For instance, the hardware IDs have no numerical significance, so I don't care how they are formatted when displayed. The Storage Capacities, however, are cardinal numbers and, at a user's request, I'd like to present them with thousands and decimal separators, e.g. 123,456.789. Thus, I'd like to refine BIGINT into, say ID_NUMBER and CARDINAL. The same with Hardware Names, which are simple text and WWPNs, which are hexstrings, e.g. 24:68:AC:E0. Thus, I'd like to refine VARCHAR into ENGLISH_WORD and HEXSTRING. The specific datatypes I made up are just for illustrative purposes. I'd like to keep all this information in one place and I'm wondering if anybody knows of a good way to hold this all in my MySQL table definitions. I could use the Comment field of the table definition, but that smells fishy to me. One approach would be to define the data structure elsewhere and use that definition to generate my CREATE TABLEs, but that would be a major rework of the code that I currently have, so I'm looking for alternatives. Any suggestions? The application language in use is Perl, if that helps.

    Read the article

  • MySQL & PHP - select/option lists and showing data to users that still allows me to generate queries

    - by Andrew Heath
    Sorry for the unclear title, an example will clear things up: TABLE: Scenario_victories ID scenid timestamp userid side playdate 1 RtBr001 2010-03-15 17:13:36 7 1 2010-03-10 2 RtBr001 2010-03-15 17:13:36 7 1 2010-03-10 3 RtBr001 2010-03-15 17:13:51 7 2 2010-03-10 ID and timestamp are auto-insertions by the database when the other 4 fields are added. The first thing to note is that a user can record multiple playings of the same scenario (scenid) on the same date (playdate) possibly with the same outcome (side = winner). Hence the need for the unique ID and timestamps for good measure. Now, on their user page, I'm displaying their recorded play history in a <select><option>... list form with 2 buttons at the end - Delete Record and Go to Scenario My script takes the scenid and after hitting a few other tables returns with something more user-friendly like: (playdate) (from scenid) (from side) ######################################################### # 2010-03-10 Road to Berlin #1 -- Germany, Hungary won # # 2010-03-10 Road to Berlin #1 -- Germany, Hungary won # # 2010-03-10 Road to Berlin #1 -- Soviet Union won # ######################################################### [Delete Record] [Go To Scenario] in HTML: <select name="history" size=3> <option>2010-03-10 Road to Berlin #1 -- Germany, Hungary won</option> <option>2010-03-10 Road to Berlin #1 -- Germany, Hungary won</option> <option>2010-03-10 Road to Berlin #1 -- Soviet Union won</option> </select> Now, if you were to highlight the first record and click Go to Scenario there is enough information there for me to parse it and produce the exact scenario you want to see. However, if you were to select Delete Record there is not - I have the playdate and I can parse the scenid and side from what's listed, but in this example all three records would have the same result. I appear to have painted myself into a corner. Does anyone have a suggestion as to how I can get some unique identifying data (ID and/or timestamp) to ride along on this form without showing it to the user? PHP-only please, I must be NoScript compliant!

    Read the article

  • Full text index requires dropping and recreating - why?

    - by Amjid Qureshi
    Hi all, So I've got a web app running on .net 3.5 connected to a SQL 2005 box. We do scheduled releases every 2 weeks. About 14 tables out of 250 are full text indexed. After not every release, but a few too many, the indexes crap out. They seem to have data in there, but when we try to search them from the front end or SQL enterprise we get timeouts/hangs. We have a script that disables the indexes, drops them, deletes the catalog and then re creates the indexes. This fixes the problem 99 times out of 100. and the one other time, we run the script again and it all works We have tried just rebuilding the fulltext index but that doesn't fix the issue. My question is why do we have to do this ? what can we do to sort the index out? Here is a bit of the script, IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.fulltext_indexes fti WHERE fti.object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[Address]')) ALTER FULLTEXT INDEX ON [dbo].[Address] DISABLE GO IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.fulltext_indexes fti WHERE fti.object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[Address]')) DROP FULLTEXT INDEX ON [dbo].[Address] GO IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sysfulltextcatalogs ftc WHERE ftc.name = N'DbName.FullTextCatalog') DROP FULLTEXT CATALOG [DbName.FullTextCatalog] GO -- may need this line if we get an error BACKUP LOG SMS2 WITH TRUNCATE_ONLY CREATE FULLTEXT CATALOG [DbName.FullTextCatalog] ON FILEGROUP [FullTextCatalogs] IN PATH N'F:\Data' AS DEFAULT AUTHORIZATION [dbo] CREATE FULLTEXT INDEX ON [Address](CommonPlace LANGUAGE 'ENGLISH') KEY INDEX PK_Address ON [DbName.FullTextCatalog] WITH CHANGE_TRACKING AUTO go

    Read the article

  • Strange error when filling a data adapter.

    - by Tim C
    I am receiving the following error in my code (c#, .Net 3.5, VS2008) when I try to connect to an Excel sheet and fill a OleDbDataAdapter with the results of a query. First the error: Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt. And here is the code, which is honestly pretty simple: var excelFileName = string.Format("c:/Metadata_Tool.xlsm"); var connectionString = string.Format("Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0; Data Source={0}; Extended Properties=Excel 12.0;HDR=YES;", excelFileName); var adapter = new OleDbDataAdapter("Select * FROM [Video Tagging XML]", connectionString); var ds = new DataSet(); adapter.Fill(ds, "VTX"); DataTable data = ds.Tables["VTX"]; foreach (DataRow myRow in data.Rows) { foreach (DataColumn myColumn in data.Columns) { Console.Write("\t{0}", myRow[myColumn]); } Console.WriteLine(); } Console.ReadLine(); I get the error on the line adapter.Fill(ds,"VTX");. I did find a microsoft forum post saying to turn on JIT optimization in VS2008 from the Tools/Options/Debug/General menu, but this did not seem to help. Any help would be greatly appreciated thanks!

    Read the article

  • Delphi 2009 dbExpress and Interbase: Unicode migration steps and risks?

    - by mjustin
    Currently, our database uses Win1252 as the only character encoding. We will have to support Unicode in the database tables soon, which means we have to perform this migration for four databases and around 80 Delphi applications which run in-house in a 24/7 environment. Are there recommendations for database migrations to UTF-8 (or UNICODE_FSS) for Delphi applications? Some questions listed below. Many thanks in advance for your answers! are there tools which help with the migration of the existing databases (sizes between 250 MB and 2 GB, no Blob fields), by dumping the data, recreating the database with UNICODE_FSS or UTF-8, and loading the data back? are there known problems with Delphi 2009, dbExpress and Interbase 7.5 related to Unicode character sets? would you recommend to upgrade the databases to Interbase 2009 first? (This upgrade is planned but does not have a high priority) can we simply migrate the database and Delphi will handle the Unicode character sets automatically, or will we have to change all character field types in every Datamodule (dfm and source code) too? which strategy would you recommend to work on the migration in parallel with the normal development and maintenance of the existing application? The application runs in-house so development and database administration is done internally. Update: one problem I found now is that there are two different persistent field types for Unicode and non Unicode character fields. For the existing database, dbExpress creates TStringField objects. For the Unicode database fields, dbExpress creates (or expects!) TWideStringField objects. This looks like a lot of work lies ahead. While we could try to avoid persistent fields (and add calculated fields at run time), Of course we would prefer a solution which does not require so many changes in existing units and DFM files.

    Read the article

  • How to assign .net membership roles to individual database records

    - by mdresser
    I'm developing a system where we want to restrict the availability of information displayed to users based on their roles. e.g. I have a tabled called EventType (ID, EventTypeDescription) which contains the following records: 1, 'Basic Event' 2, 'Intermediate Event' 3, 'Admin Event' What I need to achieve is to filter the records returned based on the username (and hence role) of the logged-in user. e.g if an advanced user is logged in they will see all the event types, if the standard user is logged in they will only see the basic event type etc. Ideally id like to do this in a way which can be easily extended to other tables as necessary. So I'd like to avoid simply adding a 'Roles' field to each table where the data is user context sensitive. One idea I'm thinking of is to create some kind of permissions table like: PermissionsTable ( ID, Aspnet_RoleId, TableName, PrimaryKeyValue ) this has the drawback of using this is obviously having to use the table name to switch which table to join onto. Edit: In the absence of any better suggestions, I'm going to go with the last idea I mentioned, but instead of having a TableName field, I'm going to normalise the TableName out to it's own table as follows: TableNames ( ID, TableName ) UserPermissionsTable ( ID, Aspnet_UserId, TableID, PrimaryKeyValue )

    Read the article

  • Hibernate bit array to entity mapping

    - by teabot
    I am trying to map a normalized Java model to a legacy database schema using Hibernate 3.5. One particular table encodes a foreign keys in a one-to-many relationship as a bit array column. Consider tables 'person' and 'clubs' that describes people's affiliations to clubs: person .----.------. club: .----.---------.---------------------------. | id | name | | id | name | members | binary(members) | |----+------| |----+---------|---------+-----------------| | 1 | Bob | | 10 | Cricket | 0 | 000 | | 2 | Joe | | 11 | Tennis | 5 | 101 | | 3 | Sue | | 12 | Cooking | 7 | 111 | '----'------' | 13 | Golf | 3 | 100 | '----'---------'---------'-----------------' So hopefully it is clear that person.id is used as the bit index in the bit array club.members. In this example the members column tells us that: no one is a member of Cricket, Bob/Sue - Tennis, Bob/Sue/Joe - Cooking and Sue - Golf. In my Java domain I'd like to declare this with entities like so: class Person { private int id; private String name; ... } class Club { private Set<Person> members; private int id; private String name; ... } I am assuming that I must use a UserType implementation but have been unable to find any examples where the items described by the user type are references to entities - not literal field values - or composites thereof. Additionally I am aware that I'll have to consider how the person entities are fetched when a club instance is loaded. Can anyone tell me how I can tame this legacy schema with Hibernate?

    Read the article

  • Postgres update rule returning number of rows affected

    - by Lithium
    I have a view table which is a union of two seperate tables (say Table _A and Table _B). I need to be able to update a row in the view table, and it seems the way to do this was through a 'view rule'. All entries in the view table have seperate id's, so an id that exists in table _A won't exist in table _B. I created the following rule: CREATE OR REPLACE RULE view_update AS ON UPDATE TO viewtable DO INSTEAD ( UPDATE _A SET foo = false WHERE old.id = _A.id; UPDATE _B SET foo = false WHERE old.id = _B.id; ); If I do an update on table _B it returns the correct number of rows affected (1). However if I update table _A it returns (0) rows affected even though the data was changed. If I swap out the order of the updates then the same thing happens, but in reverse. How can I solve this problem so that it returns the correct number of rows affected. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Rails - Logic for finding info from a :has_many :through needed!

    - by Jty.tan
    I have 3 relevant tables. User, Orders, and Viewables The idea is that each User has got many Orders, but at the same time, each User can View specific other Orders that belong to other Users. So Viewables has the attributes of user_id and order_id. Orders has a :has_many :Users, :through => :viewables Is it possible to do a find through an Order's view? So something like @viewable_orders = Orders.find(:all, :conditions = ["Viewable.user_id=?",1]) To get a list of Orders which are viewable by user_id=1. (This doesn't work, else I won't be asking. :( ) The idea being that I can do something like a sidebar where the current user (the logged-in one) can view a list of other people's orders that he can view. For example Three other Users who have some Orders that he can view should be eventually displayed like this: Jack (2) Basic Order (registry_id: 1) New Order (registry_id: 29) Amy (4) Short Order (registry_id: 12) Jill (5) Hardware Order (14) Pink Order (17) Software Order (76) (The number in brackets are the respective user_id or registry_id) So to find the list of all of the orders that the current user can find (assuming user_id of the current user is 1), would be found by doing @viewable_orders = Viewable.find(:all, :conditions => ["user_id=?", 1]) And that would give me the collection of the above 6 registries. Now, the easiest way to do this, is for me to just have a list of + Jill's Hardware Order + Jill's Pink Order + Amy's Short Order + etc But that gets ugly for long lists. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • asp.net Membership : Extending Role membership?

    - by mark smith
    Hi there, I am been taking a look at asp.net membership and it seems to provide everything that i need but i need some kind of custom Role functionality. Currently i can add user to a role, great. But i also need to be able to add Permissions to Roles.. i.e. Role: Editor Permissions: Can View Editor Menu, Can Write to Editors Table, Can Delete Entries in Editors Table. Currently it doesn't support this, The idea behind this is to create a admin option in my program to create a role and then assign permissions to a role to say "allow the user to view a certain part of the application", "allow the user to open a menu item" Any ideas how i would implement soemthing like this? I presume a custom ROLE provider but i was wondering if some kind of framework extension existed already without rolling my own? Or anybody knows a good tutorial of how to tackle this issue? I am quite happy with what asp.net SQL provider has created in terms of tables etc... but i think i need to extend this by adding another table called RolesPermissions and then I presume :-) adding some kind of enumeration into the table for each valid permission?? THanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Setting database-agnostic default column timestamp using Hibernate

    - by unsquared
    I'm working on a java project full of Hibernate (3.3.1) mapping files that have the following sort of declaration for most domain objects. <property name="dateCreated" generated="insert"> <column name="date_created" default="getdate()" /> </property> The problem here is that getdate() is an MSSQL specific function, and when I'm using something like H2 to test subsections of the project, H2 screams that getdate() isn't a recognized function. It's own timestamping function is current_timestamp(). I'd like to be able to keep working with H2 for testing, and wanted to know whether there was a way of telling Hibernate "use this database's own mechanism for retrieving the current timestamp". With H2, I've come up with the following solution. CREATE ALIAS getdate AS $$ java.util.Date now() { return new java.util.Date(); } $$; CALL getdate(); It works, but is obviously H2 specific. I've tried extending H2Dialect and registering the function getdate(), but that doesn't seem to be invoked when Hibernate is creating tables. Is it possible to abstract the idea of a default timestamp away from the specific database engine?

    Read the article

  • How to read a database record with a DataReader and add it to a DataTable

    - by Olga
    Hello I have some data in a Oracle database table(around 4 million records) which i want to transform and store in a MSSQL database using ADO.NET. So far i used (for much smaller tables) a DataAdapter to read the data out of the Oracle DataBase and add the DataTable to a DataSet for further processing. When i tried this with my huge table, there was a outofmemory exception thrown. ( I assume this is because i cannot load the whole table into my memory) :) Now i am looking for a good way to perform this extract/transfer/load, without storing the whole table in the memory. I would like to use a DataReader and read the single dataRecords in a DataTable. If there are about 100k rows in it, I would like to process them and clear the DataTable afterwards(to have free memory again). Now i would like to know how to add a single datarecord as a row to a dataTable with ado.net and how to completly clear the dataTable out of memory: My code so far: Dim dt As New DataTable Dim count As Int32 count = 0 ' reads data records from oracle database table' While rdr.Read() 'read n records and add them to a dataTable' While count < 10000 dt.Rows.Add(????) count = count + 1 End While 'transform data in the dataTable, and insert it to the destination' ' flush the dataTable after insertion' count = 0 End While Thank you very much for your response!

    Read the article

  • How update DB table with DataSet

    - by Paul
    I am begginer with ADO.NET , I try update table with DataSet. O client side I have dataset with one table. I send this dataset on service side (it is ASP.NET Web Service). On Service side I try update table in database, but it dont 't work. public bool Update(DataSet ds) { SqlConnection conn = null; SqlDataAdapter da = null; SqlCommand cmd = null; try { string sql = "UPDATE * FROM Tab1"; string connStr = WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["Employees"].ConnectionString; conn = new SqlConnection(connStr); conn.Open(); cmd=new SqlCommand(sql,conn); da = new SqlDataAdapter(sql, conn); da.UpdateCommand = cmd; da.Update(ds.Tables[0]); return true; } catch (Exception ex) { throw ex; } finally { if (conn != null) conn.Close(); if (da != null) da.Dispose(); } } Where can be problem?

    Read the article

  • Sharepoint BDC Error: The title property of entity tblStaff is set to an invalid value

    - by Christopher Rathermel
    I am just starting to create our Business Data Catalog(s) for our practice management system and I am running into an issue w/ our staff table. Background: I am using Business Data Catalog Definition Editor to create my ADF. I am using the RevertToSelf Authentication Mode. I have tried a few other tables and they seem to work just fine thus far.. only issue is w/ the staff table. If I removed all the columns for the staff entity except the ID and a few columns for the name it actually works. So it has a problem w/ one of my columns in tblStaff. I receive this error even when I set up an ADF w/ just this one entity. So w/ no associations.. When attempting to view the record: http://servername/ssp/admin/Content/tblstaff.aspx?StaffID={0} w/ {0} replaced w/ an actual staff ID I get the following error: The title property of entity tblStaff is set to an invalid value. Things I have tried: I noticed that I do have a column in my staff table called "Title" and removed it from ADF w/ no luck... Same error.. I tried to use bdc meta man to create my ADF and I got the same error... Any ideas? Chris

    Read the article

  • Optimize an SQL statement

    - by kovshenin
    Hey, I'm running WordPress, the database diagram could be found here: http://codex.wordpress.org/Database_Description After doing tonnes of filters and applying some hooks to the core, I'm left with the following query: SELECT SQL_CALC_FOUND_ROWS wp_posts.* FROM wp_posts JOIN wp_postmeta ppmeta_beds ON (ppmeta_beds.post_id = wp_posts.ID AND ppmeta_beds.meta_key = 'pp-general-beds' AND ppmeta_beds.meta_value >= 2) JOIN wp_postmeta ppmeta_baths ON (ppmeta_baths.post_id = wp_posts.ID AND ppmeta_baths.meta_key = 'pp-general-baths' AND ppmeta_baths.meta_value >= 3) JOIN wp_postmeta ppmeta_furnished ON (ppmeta_furnished.post_id = wp_posts.ID AND ppmeta_furnished.meta_key = 'pp-general-furnished' AND ppmeta_furnished.meta_value = 'yes') JOIN wp_postmeta ppmeta_pool ON (ppmeta_pool.post_id = wp_posts.ID AND ppmeta_pool.meta_key = 'pp-facilities-pool' AND ppmeta_pool.meta_value = 'yes') JOIN wp_postmeta ppmeta_pool_type ON (ppmeta_pool_type.post_id = wp_posts.ID AND ppmeta_pool_type.meta_key = 'pp-facilities-pool-type' AND ppmeta_pool_type.meta_value IN ('tennis', 'voleyball', 'basketball', 'fitness')) JOIN wp_postmeta ppmeta_sport ON (ppmeta_sport.post_id = wp_posts.ID AND ppmeta_sport.meta_key = 'pp-facilities-sport' AND ppmeta_sport.meta_value = 'yes') JOIN wp_postmeta ppmeta_sport_type ON (ppmeta_sport_type.post_id = wp_posts.ID AND ppmeta_sport_type.meta_key = 'pp-facilities-sport-type' AND ppmeta_sport_type.meta_value IN ('tennis', 'voleyball', 'basketball', 'fitness')) JOIN wp_postmeta ppmeta_parking ON (ppmeta_parking.post_id = wp_posts.ID AND ppmeta_parking.meta_key = 'pp-facilities-parking' AND ppmeta_parking.meta_value = 'yes') JOIN wp_postmeta ppmeta_parking_type ON (ppmeta_parking_type.post_id = wp_posts.ID AND ppmeta_parking_type.meta_key = 'pp-facilities-parking-type' AND ppmeta_parking_type.meta_value IN ('street', 'off-street', 'garage')) JOIN wp_postmeta ppmeta_garden ON (ppmeta_garden.post_id = wp_posts.ID AND ppmeta_garden.meta_key = 'pp-facilities-garden' AND ppmeta_garden.meta_value = 'yes') JOIN wp_postmeta ppmeta_garden_type ON (ppmeta_garden_type.post_id = wp_posts.ID AND ppmeta_garden_type.meta_key = 'pp-facilities-garden-type' AND ppmeta_garden_type.meta_value IN ('private', 'communal')) JOIN wp_postmeta ppmeta_type ON (ppmeta_type.post_id = wp_posts.ID AND ppmeta_type.meta_key = 'pp-general-type' AND ppmeta_type.meta_value IN ('villa', 'apartment', 'penthouse')) JOIN wp_postmeta ppmeta_status ON (ppmeta_status.post_id = wp_posts.ID AND ppmeta_status.meta_key = 'pp-general-status' AND ppmeta_status.meta_value IN ('off-plan', 'resale')) JOIN wp_postmeta ppmeta_location_type ON (ppmeta_location_type.post_id = wp_posts.ID AND ppmeta_location_type.meta_key = 'pp-location-type' AND ppmeta_location_type.meta_value IN ('beachfront', 'countryside', 'town-center', 'near-the-sea', 'hillside', 'private-resort')) JOIN wp_postmeta ppmeta_price_range ON (ppmeta_price_range.post_id = wp_posts.ID AND ppmeta_price_range.meta_key = 'pp-general-price' AND ppmeta_price_range.meta_value BETWEEN 10000 AND 50000) JOIN wp_postmeta ppmeta_area_range ON (ppmeta_area_range.post_id = wp_posts.ID AND ppmeta_area_range.meta_key = 'pp-general-area' AND ppmeta_area_range.meta_value BETWEEN 50 AND 150) WHERE 1=1 AND (((wp_posts.post_title LIKE '%fdsfsad%') OR (wp_posts.post_content LIKE '%fdsfsad%'))) AND wp_posts.post_type = 'property' AND (wp_posts.post_status = 'publish' OR wp_posts.post_status = 'private') ORDER BY wp_posts.post_date DESC LIMIT 0, 10 It's way too big. Could anybody please show me a way of optimizing all those joins into fewer statements? As you can see they all use the same tables but under different names. I'm not an SQL guru but I think there should be a way, because this is insane ;) Thanks! Update Here's what explain returns: http://twitpic.com/1cd36p

    Read the article

  • Mysqli query only works on localhost, not webserver

    - by whamo
    Hello. I have changed some of my old queries to the Mysqli framework to improve performance. Everything works fine on localhost but when i upload it to the webserver it outputs nothing. After connecting I check for errors and there are none. I also checked the php modules installed and mysqli is enabled. I am certain that it creates a connection to the database as no errors are displayed. (when i changed the database name string it gave the error) There is no output from the query on the webserver, which looks like this: $mysqli = new mysqli("server", "user", "password"); if (mysqli_connect_errno()) { printf("Can't connect Errorcode: %s\n", mysqli_connect_error()); exit; } // Query used $query = "SELECT name FROM users WHERE id = ?"; if ($stmt = $mysqli->prepare("$query")) { // Specify parameters to replace '?' $stmt->bind_param("d", $id); $stmt->execute(); // bind variables to prepared statement $stmt->bind_result($_userName); while ($stmt->fetch()) { echo $_userName; } $stmt-close(); } } //close connection $mysqli-close(); As I said this code works perfectly on my localserver just not online. Checked the error logs and there is nothing so everything points to a good connection. All the tables exists as well etc. Anyone any ideas because this one has me stuck! Also, if i get this working, will all my other queries still work? Or will i need to make them use the mysqli framework as well? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How do you deal with denormalization / secondary indexes in database sharding?

    - by Continuation
    Say I have a "message" table with 2 secondary indexes: "recipient_id" "sender_id" I want to shard the "message" table by "recipient_id". That way to retrieve all messages sent to a certain recipient I only need to query one shard. But at the same time, I want to be able to make a query that ask for all messages sent by a certain sender. Now I don't want to send that query to every single shard of the "message" table. One way to do this is to duplicate the data and have a "message_by_sender" table sharded by "sender_id". The problem with that approach is that every time a message has been sent, I need to insert the message into both "message" and "message_by_sender" tables. But what if after inserting into "message" the insertion into "message_by_sender" fail? In that case the message exists in "message" but not in "message_by_sender". How do I make sure that if a message exists in "message" then it also exists in "message_by_sender" without resorting to 2 phase commit? This must be a very common issue for anyone who shards their databases. How do you deal woth it?

    Read the article

  • Converting table columns to key value pairs

    - by TomD1
    I am writing a PL/SQL procedure that loads some data from Schema A into Schema B. They are both very different schemas and I can't change the structure of Schema B. Columns in various tables in Schema A (joined together in a view) need to be inserted into Schema B as key=value pairs in 2 columns in a table, each on a separate row. For example, an employee's first name might be present as employee.firstname in Schema A, but would need to be entered in Schema B as: id=>1, key=>'A123', value=>'Smith' There are almost 100 keys, with the potential for more to be added in future. This means I don't really want to hardcode any of these keys. Sample code: create table schema_a_employees ( emp_id number(8,0), firstname varchar2(50), surname varchar2(50) ); insert into schema_a_employees values ( 1, 'James', 'Smith' ); insert into schema_a_employees values ( 2, 'Fred', 'Jones' ); create table schema_b_values ( emp_id number(8,0), the_key varchar2(5), the_value varchar2(200) ); I thought an elegant solution would most likely involve a lookup table to determine what value to insert for each key, and doesn't involve effectively hardcoding dozens of similar statements like.... insert into schema_b_values ( 1, 'A123', v_firstname ); insert into schema_b_values ( 1, 'B123', v_surname ); What I'd like to be able to do is have a local lookup table in Schema A that lists all the keys from Schema B, along with a column that gives the name of the column in the table in Schema A that should be used to populate, e.g. key "A123" in Schema B should be populated with the value of the column "firstname" in Schema A, e.g. create table schema_a_lookup ( the_key varchar2(5), the_local_field_name varchar2(50) ); insert into schema_a_lookup values ( 'A123', 'firstname' ); insert into schema_a_lookup values ( 'B123', 'surname' ); But I'm not sure how I could dynamically use values from the lookup table to tell Oracle which columns to use. So my question is, is there an elegant solution to populate schema_b_values table with the data from schema_a_employees without hardcoding for every possible key (i.e. A123, B123, etc)? Cheers.

    Read the article

  • Understanding evaluation of expressions containing '++' and '->' operators in C.

    - by Leif Ericson
    Consider this example: struct { int num; } s, *ps; s.num = 0; ps = &s; ++ps->num; printf("%d", s.num); /* Prints 1 */ It prints 1. So I understand that it is because according to operators precedence, -> is higher than ++, so the value ps->num (which is 0) is firstly fetched and then the ++ operator operates on it, so it increments it to 1. struct { int num; } s, *ps; s.num = 0; ps = &s; ps++->num; printf("%d", s.num); /* Prints 0 */ In this example I get 0 and I don't understand why; the explanation of the first example should be the same for this example. But it seems that this expression is evaluated as follows: At first, the operator ++ operates, and it operates on ps, so it increments it to the next struct. Only then -> operates and it does nothing because it just fetches the num field of the next struct and does nothing with it. But it contradicts the precedence of operators, which says that -> have higher precedence than ++. Can someone explain this behavior? Edit: After reading two answers which refer to a C++ precedence tables which indicate that a prefix ++/-- operators have lower precedence than ->, I did some googling and came up with this link that states that this rule applies also to C itself. It fits exactly and fully explains this behavior, but I must add that the table in this link contradicts a table in my own copy of K&R ANSI C. So if you have suggestions as to which source is correct I would like to know. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Continue overflow:auto behavior when page is resized smaller, instead of shifting to the side?

    - by danielle
    Sorry if the title was confusing; I've included some screen shots to more clearly explain my problem. I have a page that has a side navigation menu on the left, and a main div (with the tables) on the right: When the page is resized to be smaller, the "overflow-x:auto" property of the "main" div brings up a horizontal scrollbar: However, when the window becomes narrow to the point that the "main" div reaches the border of the side navigation menu (with the title "Contents"), the "main" div ceases to continue producing the horizontal scrollbar and instead meshes with the menu: Here is the CSS for the "main" div: #main { height: 100%; width: 65%; min-width: 10%; float:right; overflow-y: auto; overflow-x: auto; padding: 0 20px 20px;} and the left side menu: #sidenav{ margin-left: 20px; float: left; overflow-x:auto; overflow-y:auto;} Both of those divs are encapsulated together in "container": .container { bottom: 20px; left: 0; position: absolute; right: 0; top: 50px; } How can I rewrite my code in such a way that the "main" div will continue to use its horizontal scrollbar, and never cross the boundary of the side navigation menu? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET OleDbConnection Problem

    - by Matt
    I'm working on an ASP.NET website where I am using an asp:repeater with paging done through a VB.NET code-behind file. I'm having trouble with the database connection though. As far as I can tell, the paging is working, but I can't get the data to be certain. The database is a Microsoft Access database. The function that should be accessing the database is: Dim pagedData As New PagedDataSource Sub Page_Load(ByVal obj As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) doPaging() End Sub Function getTheData() As DataTable Dim DS As New DataSet() Dim strConnect As New OleDbConnection("Provider = Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=App_Data/ArtDatabase.mdb") Dim objOleDBAdapter As New OleDbDataAdapter("SELECT ArtID, FileLocation, Title, UserName, ArtDate FROM Art ORDER BY Art.ArtDate DESC", strConnect) objOleDBAdapter.Fill(DS, "Art") Return DS.Tables("Art").Copy End Function Sub doPaging() pagedData.DataSource = getTheData().DefaultView pagedData.AllowPaging = True pagedData.PageSize = 2 Try pagedData.CurrentPageIndex = Int32.Parse(Request.QueryString("Page")).ToString() Catch ex As Exception pagedData.CurrentPageIndex = 0 End Try btnPrev.Visible = (Not pagedData.IsFirstPage) btnNext.Visible = (Not pagedData.IsLastPage) pageNumber.Text = (pagedData.CurrentPageIndex + 1) & " of " & pagedData.PageCount ArtRepeater.DataSource = pagedData ArtRepeater.DataBind() End Sub The ASP.NET is: <asp:Repeater ID="ArtRepeater" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate> <h2>Items in Selected Category:</h2> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <li> <asp:HyperLink runat="server" ID="HyperLink" NavigateUrl='<%# Eval("ArtID", "ArtPiece.aspx?ArtID={0}") %>'> <img src="<%# Eval("FileLocation") %>" alt="<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "Title") %>t"/> <br /> <%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "Title") %> </asp:HyperLink> </li> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater>

    Read the article

  • Execute SQL on CSV files via JDBC

    - by Markos Fragkakis
    Dear all, I need to apply an SQL query to CSV files (comma-separated text files). My SQL is predefined from another tool, and is not eligible to change. It may contain embedded selects and table aliases in the FROM part. For my task I have found two open-source (this is a project requirement) libraries that provide JDBC drivers: CsvJdbc XlSQL JBoss Teiid Create an Apache Derby DB, load all CSVs as tables and execute the query. These are the problems I encountered: it does not accept the syntax of the SQL (it uses internal selects and table aliases). Furthermore, it has not been maintained since 2004. I could not get it to work, as it has as dependency a SAX Parser that causes exception when parsing other documents. Similarly, no change since 2004. Have not checked if it supports the syntax, but seems like an overhead. It needs several entities defines (Virtual Databases, Bindings). From the mailing list they told me that last release supports runtime creation of required objects. Has anyone used it for such simple task (normally it can connect to several types of data, like CSV, XML or other DBS and create a virtual, unified one)? Can this even be done easily? From the 4 things I considered/tried, only 3 and 4 seem to me viable. Any advice on these, or any other way in which I can query my CSV files? Cheers

    Read the article

  • Why is iPdb not displaying STOUT after my input?

    - by BryanWheelock
    I can't figure out why ipdb is not displaying stout properly. I'm trying to debug why a test is failing and so I attempt to use ipdb debugger. For some reason my Input seems to be accepted, but the STOUT is not displayed until I (c)ontinue. Is this something broken in ipdb? It makes it very difficult to debug a program. Below is an example ipdb session, notice how I attempt to display the values of the attributes with: user.is_authenticated() user_profile.reputation user.is_superuser The results are not displayed until 'begin captured stdout ' In [13]: !python manage.py test Creating test database... < SNIP remove loading tables nosetests ...E.. /Users/Bryan/work/APP/forum/auth.py(93)can_retag_questions() 92 import ipdb; ipdb.set_trace() ---> 93 return user.is_authenticated() and ( 94 RETAG_OTHER_QUESTIONS <= user_profile.reputation < EDIT_OTHER_POSTS or user.is_authenticated() user_profile.reputation user.is_superuser c F /Users/Bryan/work/APP/forum/auth.py(93)can_retag_questions() 92 import ipdb; ipdb.set_trace() ---> 93 return user.is_authenticated() and ( 94 RETAG_OTHER_QUESTIONS <= user_profile.reputation < EDIT_OTHER_POSTS or c .....EE...... FAIL: test_can_retag_questions (APP.forum.tests.test_views.AuthorizationFunctionsTestCase) Traceback (most recent call last): File "/Users/Bryan/work/APP/../APP/forum/tests/test_views.py", line 71, in test_can_retag_questions self.assertTrue(auth.can_retag_questions(user)) AssertionError: -------------------- begin captured stdout << --------------------- ipdb True ipdb 4001 ipdb False ipdb --------------------- end captured stdout << ---------------------- Ran 20 tests in 78.032s FAILED (errors=3, failures=1) Destroying test database... In [14]: Here is the actual test I'm trying to run: def can_retag_questions(user): """Determines if a User can retag Questions.""" user_profile = user.get_profile() import ipdb; ipdb.set_trace() return user.is_authenticated() and ( RETAG_OTHER_QUESTIONS <= user_profile.reputation < EDIT_OTHER_POSTS or user.is_superuser) I've also tried to use pdb, but that doesn't display anything. I see my test progress .... , and then nothing and not responsive to keyboard input. Is this a problem with readline?

    Read the article

  • Corrupted mysql table, cause crash in mysql.h (c++)

    - by Francesco
    i've created a very simple mysql class in c+, but when happen that mysql crash , indexes of tables become corrupted, and all my c++ programs crash too because seems that are unable to recognize corrupted table and allowing me to handle the issue .. Q_RES = mysql_real_query(MY_mysql, tmp_query.c_str(), (unsigned int) tmp_query.size()); if (Q_RES != 0) { if (Q_RES == CR_COMMANDS_OUT_OF_SYNC) cout << "errorquery : CR_COMMANDS_OUT_OF_SYNC " << endl; if (Q_RES == CR_SERVER_GONE_ERROR) cout << "errorquery : CR_SERVER_GONE_ERROR " << endl; if (Q_RES == CR_SERVER_LOST) cout << "errorquery : CR_SERVER_LOST " << endl; LAST_ERROR = mysql_error(MY_mysql); if (n_retrycount < n_retry_limit) { // RETRY! n_retrycount++; sleep(1); cout << "SLEEP - query retry! " << endl; ping(); return select_sql(tmp_query); } return false; } MY_result = mysql_store_result(MY_mysql); B_stored_results = true; cout << "b8" << endl; LAST_affected_rows = (mysql_num_rows(MY_result) + 1); // coult return -1 cout << "b8-1" << endl; the program terminate with a "segmentation fault" after doing the "b8" and before the "b8-1" , Q_RES have no issue even if the table is corrupted.. i would like to know if there is a way to recognize that the table have problems and so then i can run a mysql repair or mysql check .. thanks, Francesco

    Read the article

  • How to avoid chaotic ASP.NET web application deployment?

    - by emzero
    Ok, so here's the thing. I'm developing an existing (it started being an ASP classic app, so you can imagine :P) web application under ASP.NET 4.0 and SQLServer 2005. We are 4 developers using local instances of SQL Server 2005 Express, having the source-code and the Visual Studio database project This webapp has several "universes" (that's how we call it). Every universe has its own database (currently on the same server) but they all share the same schema (tables, sprocs, etc) and the same source/site code. So manually deploying is really annoying, because I have to deploy the source code and then run the sql scripts manually on each database. I know that manual deploying can cause problems, so I'm looking for a way of automating it. We've recently created a Visual Studio Database Project to manage the schema and generate the diff-schema scripts with different targets. I don't have idea how to put the pieces together I would like to: Have a way to make a "sync" deploy to a target server (thanksfully I have full RDC access to the servers so I can install things if required). With "sync" deploy I mean that I don't want to fully deploy the whole application, because it has lots of files and I just want to deploy those new or changed. Generate diff-sql update scripts for every database target and combine it to just 1 script. For this I should have some list of the databases names somewhere. Copy the site files and executing the generated sql script in an easy and automated way. I've read about MSBuild, MS WebDeploy, NAnt, etc. But I don't really know where to start and I really want to get rid of this manual deploy. If there is a better and easier way of doing it than what I enumerated, I'll be pleased to read your option. I know this is not a very specific question but I've googled a lot about it and it seems I cannot figure out how to do it. I've never used any automation tool to deploy. Any help will be really appreciated, Thank you all, Regards

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372  | Next Page >