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  • Form iteration function not working properly

    - by Moses
    My function is supposed to iterate all forms in the document, and bind an onclick function to each 'calculate' element int he form. The problem is, the function that executes on any of the click events executes in the context of the the last i in the loop. Here is the JavaScript that I'm using: window.onload = function(){ calculateSavings(); } function calculateSavings(){ for (i = 0; i < document.forms.length; i++) { var e = document.forms[i]; e.calculate.onclick = function() { var hours = e.hours.value; var rate = e.rate.value; alert(hours * rate); } } } And here is the HTML it is attached to: <!doctype html> <html> <body> <form> <label for="hours">Hours: </label><input type="text" id="hours" name="hours"> <label for="rate">Rate: </label><input type="text" id="rate" name="rate"> <input type="button" name="calculate" value="Calculate"> <div id="savings"></div> </form> <form> <label for="hours">Hours: </label><input type="text" id="hours" name="hours"> <label for="rate">Rate: </label><input type="text" id="rate" name="rate"> <input type="button" name="calculate" value="Calculate"> <div id="savings"></div> </form> </body> </html> I'm sure this is a really basic question but the solution is completely eluding me at this point.

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  • Stacked up with web service configuration

    - by Allan Chua
    I'm currently stacked with the web service that im creating right now. when Testing it in local it all works fine but when I try to deploy it to the web server it throws me the following error An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI '...my web service URI here....'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. here is my web config. <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <configSections> </configSections> <system.webServer> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> </modules> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false" /> <security> <requestFiltering> <requestLimits maxAllowedContentLength="2000000000" /> </requestFiltering> </security> </system.webServer> <connectionStrings> <add name="........" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> <appSettings> <!-- Testing --> <add key="DataConnectionString" value="..........." /> </appSettings> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0"> <buildProviders> <add extension=".rdlc" type="Microsoft.Reporting.RdlBuildProvider, Microsoft.ReportViewer.WebForms, Version=10.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" /> </buildProviders> </compilation> <httpRuntime executionTimeout="1200" maxRequestLength="2000000" /> </system.web> <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" multipleSiteBindingsEnabled="true" /> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="Service1"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="2000000000" /> </behavior> <behavior name=""> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false" /> </behavior> <behavior name="nextSPOTServiceBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpsGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="2000000000" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="SecureBasic" closeTimeout="00:10:00" openTimeout="00:10:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:10:00" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="Transport" /> <readerQuotas maxArrayLength="2000000" maxStringContentLength="2000000"/> </binding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_IDownloadManagerService" closeTimeout="00:10:00" openTimeout="00:10:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:10:00" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="Transport" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="nextSPOTServiceBehavior" name="NextSPOTDownloadManagerWebServiceTester.Web.WebServices.DownloadManagerService"> <endpoint binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="SecureBasic" name="basicHttpSecure" contract="NextSPOTDownloadManagerWebServiceTester.Web.WebServices.IDownloadManagerService" /> <!--<endpoint binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="" name="basicHttp" contract="NextSPOTDownloadManagerWebServiceTester.Web.WebServices.IDownloadManagerService" />--> <!--<endpoint address="" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_IDownloadManagerService" contract="NextSPOTDownloadManagerWebServiceTester.Web.WebServices.IDownloadManagerService" /> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpsBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" />--> </service> </services > </system.serviceModel> </configuration>

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  • Searching for empty methods

    - by Brian McCord
    I am currently working on a security audit/code review of our system. This requires me to check all pages in the system and make sure that the code behind contains two methods that are used to check security. Sometimes the code in these methods get commented out to make testing easier. So, my question is does anyone know an easy way to search code, make sure the methods are present, and to determine which ones have no code or have all the code commented out. It would make my job much easier if I can get a list instead of having to look at every file... I'm sure I could write this myself, but I thought someone may know of something that already exists. Thanks!

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  • is concatenating the only way to 'import' one JS lib from another?

    - by Nikita
    Disclaimer: JS novice I have a JS widget that depends on JQuery. The widget's going to be embedded in a 3rd party site but I figure out how to avoid declaring dependency on jquery on the widget-hosting page: 3rd party's page: <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://mydomain/mywidget.js"></script> </head> mywidget.js jQuery(document).ready(function() { //do stuff }); I'd rather not include jquery.js in the 3d party page but express the dependency inside mywidget.js (so i can change this dependency or add/remove others w/o having to update the widget-hosting page) I tried adding: var script = document.createElement('script'); script.src = 'http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.js'; script.type = 'text/javascript'; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(script); to the top of mywidget.js but that didn't work - jquery.js did load on page load but "jQuery" was not recognized. What did work was concatenating jquery.js and mywidget.js into a single .js file. But that seems kind of lame - is there no equivalent to? import com.jquery.*; thanks!

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  • Script says Undefined

    - by user1058887
    I have this script that would let the user input a text and it would get translated into something else. It works only when the word has only 1 letter. When there is more than 1 letter it says Undefined. Here is the script : function copyit(theField) { var tempval=eval("document."+theField) tempval.focus() tempval.select() therange=tempval.createTextRange() therange.execCommand("Copy") } function results() { var behavior="form"; var text=document.csrAlpha.csrresult2.value; var ff22=text.toLowerCase(); var Words=new Array ; Words["b"]="Dadada"; Words["bob"]="Robert"; Words["flower"]="Banana"; Words["brad"]="Chair"; var trans=""; var regExp=/[\!@#$%^&*(),=";:\/]/; var stringCheck=regExp.exec(ff22); if(!stringCheck) { if(ff22.length > 0) { for(var i=0;i < ff22.length;i++) { var thisChar=ff22.charAt(i); trans += Words[thisChar] + " "; } } else { trans +="Please write something."; } } else { trans +="You entered invalid characters. Remove them and try again."; } document.csrAlpha.csrresult.value=trans; } Please insert your text below:

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  • How can I prevent double file uploading with Amazon S3?

    - by Tony
    I decided to use Amazon S3 for document storage for an app I am creating. One issue I run into is while I need to upload the files to S3, I need to create a document object in my app so my users can perform CRUD actions. One solution is to allow for a double upload. A user uploads a document to the server my Rails app lives on. I validate and create the object, then pass it on to S3. One issue with this is progress indicators become more complicated. Using most out-of-the-box plugins would show the client that file has finished uploading because it is on my server, but then there would be a decent delay when the file was going from my server to S3. This also introduces unnecessary bandwidth (at least it does not seem necessary) The other solution I am thinking about is to upload the file directly to S3 with one AJAX request, and when that is successful, make a second AJAX request to store the object in my database. One issue here is that I would have to validate the file after it is uploaded which means I have to run some clean up code in S3 if the validation fails. Both seem equally messy. Does anyone have something more elegant working that they would not mind sharing? I would imagine this is a common situation with "cloud storage" being quite popular today. Maybe I am looking at this wrong.

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  • "javascript:" on browser won't change the type.

    - by raj
    look at this code, <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <script> function change() { document.getElementById("myInput").type="text"; } </script> </head> <body onload="setTimeout('change()',2000);"> <input type = "button" id="myInput"> </body> </html> now, my button becomes text box after 2 seconds.. Iam happy! Why not the same happens when i try to do from the browser (i tested in IE6 & Chrome) using javascript:document.getElementById("myInput").type="text" different browsers behave in different way... when i tried javascript:document.getElementById("myInput").value="myNewValue", IE6 changes the value, but chrome doesn't.. Why is this "javascript:" behaving like this ?

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  • Lucene.Net: How can I add a date filter to my search results?

    - by rockinthesixstring
    I've got my searcher working really well, however it does tend to return results that are obsolete. My site is much like NerdDinner whereby events in the past become irrelevant. I'm currently indexing like this Public Function AddIndex(ByVal searchableEvent As [Event]) As Boolean Implements ILuceneService.AddIndex Dim writer As New IndexWriter(luceneDirectory, New StandardAnalyzer(), False) Dim doc As Document = New Document doc.Add(New Field("id", searchableEvent.ID, Field.Store.YES, Field.Index.UN_TOKENIZED)) doc.Add(New Field("fullText", FullTextBuilder(searchableEvent), Field.Store.YES, Field.Index.TOKENIZED)) doc.Add(New Field("user", If(searchableEvent.User.UserName = Nothing, "User" & searchableEvent.User.ID, searchableEvent.User.UserName), Field.Store.YES, Field.Index.TOKENIZED)) doc.Add(New Field("title", searchableEvent.Title, Field.Store.YES, Field.Index.TOKENIZED)) doc.Add(New Field("location", searchableEvent.Location.Name, Field.Store.YES, Field.Index.TOKENIZED)) doc.Add(New Field("date", searchableEvent.EventDate, Field.Store.YES, Field.Index.UN_TOKENIZED)) writer.AddDocument(doc) writer.Optimize() writer.Close() Return True End Function Notice how I have a "date" index that stores the event date. My search then looks like this ''# code omitted Dim reader As IndexReader = IndexReader.Open(luceneDirectory) Dim searcher As IndexSearcher = New IndexSearcher(reader) Dim parser As QueryParser = New QueryParser("fullText", New StandardAnalyzer()) Dim query As Query = parser.Parse(q.ToLower) ''# We're using 10,000 as the maximum number of results to return ''# because I have a feeling that we'll never reach that full amount ''# anyways. And if we do, who in their right mind is going to page ''# through all of the results? Dim topDocs As TopDocs = searcher.Search(query, Nothing, 10000) Dim doc As Document = Nothing ''# loop through the topDocs and grab the appropriate 10 results based ''# on the submitted page number While i <= last AndAlso i < topDocs.totalHits doc = searcher.Doc(topDocs.scoreDocs(i).doc) IDList.Add(doc.[Get]("id")) i += 1 End While ''# code omitted I did try the following, but it was to no avail (threw a NullReferenceException). While i <= last AndAlso i < topDocs.totalHits If Date.Parse(doc.[Get]("date")) >= Date.Today Then doc = searcher.Doc(topDocs.scoreDocs(i).doc) IDList.Add(doc.[Get]("id")) i += 1 End If End While I also found the following documentation, but I can't make heads or tails of it http://lucene.apache.org/java/1_4_3/api/org/apache/lucene/search/DateFilter.html

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  • Updating UI objects in windows forms

    - by P a u l
    Pre .net I was using MFC, ON_UPDATE_COMMAND_UI, and the CCmdUI class to update the state of my windows UI. From the older MFC/Win32 reference: Typically, menu items and toolbar buttons have more than one state. For example, a menu item is grayed (dimmed) if it is unavailable in the present context. Menu items can also be checked or unchecked. A toolbar button can also be disabled if unavailable, or it can be checked. Who updates the state of these items as program conditions change? Logically, if a menu item generates a command that is handled by, say, a document, it makes sense to have the document update the menu item. The document probably contains the information on which the update is based. If a command has multiple user-interface objects (perhaps a menu item and a toolbar button), both are routed to the same handler function. This encapsulates your user-interface update code for all of the equivalent user-interface objects in a single place. The framework provides a convenient interface for automatically updating user-interface objects. You can choose to do the updating in some other way, but the interface provided is efficient and easy to use. What is the guidance for .net Windows Forms? I am using an Application.Idle handler in the main form but am not sure this is the best way to do this. About the time I put all my UI updates in the Idle event handler my app started to show some performance problems, and I don't have the metrics to track this down yet. Not sure if it's related.

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  • Calling C# from ColdFusion

    - by stomcavage
    I've written a .dll in C# to change the permissions on a folder. I also wrote an .exe to test the .dll and it successfully changes the permissions. Now I'm trying to call the .dll from ColdFusion, but I'm getting an error about System/Security/IPermission not being found. I'm assuming this is an interface in C# that ColdFusion can't find in any of the available assemblies on my system. I've added the System.Security assembly to my References in the C# project. Is there something else I need to do to make sure ColdFusion can find the interface? Here's how I'm using the .dll: <cfobject type="dotnet" name="permObj" assembly="#pathToDLLs#CoursePortal.dll" class="CoursePortal.Permissions"> <cfset permObj.revokePermissions(dir, username)>

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  • How To Call Javascript In Ajax Response? IE: Close a form div upon success...

    - by B.Gordon
    I have a form that when you submit it, it sends the data for validation to another php script via ajax. Validation errors are echo'd back in a div in my form. A success message also is returned if validation passes. The problem is that the form is still displayed after submit and successful validation. I want to hid the div after success. So, I wrote this simple CSS method which works fine when called from the page the form is displayed on. The problem is that I cannot seem to call the hide script via returned code. I can return html like echo "<p>Thanks, your form passed validation and is being sent</p>"; So I assumed I could simply echo another line after that echo "window.onload=displayDiv()"; inside script tags (which I cannot get to display here)... and that it would hide the form div. It does not work. I am assuming that the problem is that the javascript is being returned incorrectly and not being interpreted by the browser... How can I invoke my 'hide' script on the page via returned data from my validation script? I can echo back text but the script call is ineffective. Thanks! This is the script on the page with the form... I can call it to show/hide with something like onclick="displayDiv()" while on the form but I don't want the user to invoke this... it has be called as the result of a successful validation when I write the results back to the div... function displayDiv() { var divstyle = new String(); divstyle = document.getElementById("myForm").style.display; if(divstyle.toLowerCase()=="block" || divstyle == "") { document.getElementById("myForm").style.display = "none"; } else { document.getElementById("myForm").style.display = "block"; } } PS: I am using the mootools.js library for the form validation if this matters for the syntax..

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  • Display one div if nothing is selected

    - by Levani
    I use this javascript to display different div classes upon selection. I need to display one div class if nothing is selected, for example when page is loaded, and that replace it with one of the divs according to the selection... <script type="text/javascript"><!-- var lastDiv = ""; function showDiv(divName) { // hide last div if (lastDiv) { document.getElementById(lastDiv).className = "hiddenDiv"; } //if value of the box is not nothing and an object with that name exists, then change the class if (divName && document.getElementById(divName)) { document.getElementById(divName).className = "visibleDiv"; lastDiv = divName; } } //--> </script> css: <style type="text/css" media="screen"><!-- .hiddenDiv { display: none; } .visibleDiv { display: block; border: 1px grey solid; } --></style> HTML: <form id="FormName" action="blah.php" method="get" name="FormName"> <select name="selectName" size="1" onChange="showDiv(this.value);"> <option value="">Choose One...</option> <option value="one">first</option> <option value="two">second</option> <option value="three">third</option> </select> </form> <p id="one" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 1.</p> <p id="two" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 2.</p> <p id="three" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 3.</p> Can anyone please help?

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  • EntityFramwork System.OutOfMemoryException on 100MB upload

    - by Win
    Upload works fine for 62MB file. However, it throws exception if it is 100MB. I found few questions in stackoverflow, but none is very specific about datatype. Appreciate your help! ASP.Net 4, IIS7, EntityFramework 4.1, Visual Studio 2010 SP1, SQL 2008 DataType is varbinary(max) applicationHost.config <section name="requestFiltering" overrideModeDefault="Allow" /> web.config <httpRuntime maxRequestLength="1148576" executionTimeout="3600"/> <security > <requestFiltering> <requestLimits maxAllowedContentLength="112400000" /> </requestFiltering> </security>

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  • jquery append() method on empty XML element

    - by Anthony
    This could just be a syntax error, but I'm trying to create a Document object from scratch, starting with document.implementation.createDocument() and then using jquery's append() method to add the elements. But it's not appending: var myDoc = document.implementation.createDocument("", 'stuff', null); $("stuff",myDoc).attr("test","tested"); $("stuff",myDoc).append("<test>A</test>"); $("<test>B</test>").appendTo("stuff",soapEnv); var s = new XMLSerializer(); alert(s.serializeToString(soapEnv)); This should output: <stuff test="tested"> <test>A</test> <test>B</test> </stuff> But instead it outputs: <stuff test="tested" /> So the selector seems to be working, just not the method. My only guess is the method doesn't account for the fact that elements are empty (<stuff />) until they have children. But that's just a guess.

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  • Javascript Cookie problems IE

    - by blakey87
    Hi guys, been bagging my head over some Javascript, please help, I cant see why it simply wont find my cookie in IE 7 or 8 I am setting the cookie true through another event, but I just want to see IE pick up the cookie which I initially set. Works in firefox too, thanks in advance. var t=setTimeout("doAlert()",8000); var doAlertVar = true; document.cookie = "closed=0;expires=0;path="; function readCookie(name) { var nameEQ = name + "="; var ca = document.cookie; alert(ca); ca = ca.replace(/^\s*|\s*$/g,''); ca = document.cookie.split(';'); for(var i=0;i < ca.length;i++) { var c = ca[i]; while (c.charAt(0)==' ') c = c.substring(1,c.length); if (c.indexOf(nameEQ) == 0) return c.substring(nameEQ.length,c.length); } return null; } function doAlert(){ if(readCookie('closed')==1){ doAlertVar = false; } if(readCookie('closed')==0){ alert("unlicensed demo version\nbuy online at"); } t=setTimeout("doAlert()",5000); }

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  • jQuery .load from another page that contains Javascript

    - by Dave
    I've been using jQuery .load() to load content into a div. The content being .loaded occasionally has a document.ready() function which is called, and works, correctly (i.e. the ready() function is called). However, when I use an element ID in the .load(), such as: .load ("test.php #content"), the Javascript is no longer executed even if I put the script tag inside of the element that is being loaded. Does anyone have a solution to this other than to not use the element ID in the .load()? Thanks in advance. Here is the dynamic content (loadDialogTest.php): <div id="test"> <div> Hello, World! </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function () { alert ("ready"); }); </script> </div> and here is the page (where the element ID is NOT specified) that loads it (shortened as much as possible while maintaining the form: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function () { $("#openDialog").click (function () { $("<div></div>") .load ("loadDialogTest.php") .appendTo ($("#containingDiv")) .dialog ({ autoOpen: 'false', title: 'Test This!', close: function () { $(this).dialog ('destroy').remove (); } }); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <a href="#" id="openDialog">Open it</a> <div id="containingDiv"> </div> </body> If I put #test after the .php file as the div to load, the jQuery ready() function is no longer called.

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  • ASP.Net mysterious behaviour

    - by kalan
    Does anyone have any idea why this works (expression in the if-clause) if (!(childNode.Roles != null && !Helper.HasEqualElements((string[])childNode.Roles, System.Web.Security.Roles.GetRolesForUser()))) AddNode(childNode, parentNode); And this doesn't if (childNode.Roles == null || Helper.HasEqualElements((string[])childNode.Roles, System.Web.Security.Roles.GetRolesForUser())) AddNode(childNode, parentNode); The problem is that the second if-clause sometimes doesn't work. Though it always works in debug mode, but it sometimes fails while running. And the strange thing is that these two pieces of code seems absolutely equal for me.

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  • Can phper give me some code snippet to consume the .net wcf service

    - by Vincent
    Hi, I can successfully make a call to wcf from php without WCF message security enabled. I search the whole forum and cannot find any clue. I'd like to know how can I pass the credential ? My WCF service use the basichttpbinding on SSL with Message security enabled. Here is my code snippet to call my wcf from .NET ServiceReference1.TestClient sc = new TestClient(); sc.ClientCredentials.UserName.UserName = "[email protected]"; sc.ClientCredentials.UserName.Password = "ABC123"; Console.WriteLine(sc.GetProfiledSchemas(412));

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  • Problem with function calls [javascript]

    - by Samuel
    <script language="javascript"> function toggle(id) { alert('call'); if (document.getElementById(id).style.display == "none") { alert('now visible'); document.getElementById(id).style.display = ""; } else { alert('now invisible'); document.getElementById(id).style.display = "none"; } } </script> </head> <body onload="toggle('image1');alert('test_body');toggle('image2')"> <script language="javascript"> alert('test_pre_function'); toggle('image1'); alert('test_after_function'); toggle('image2'); </script> Looks like a lot of code but it's pretty simple so i think most of you won't have troubles with it. toggle() should toggle the display status of divs containing images. When the user enters the site the divs should hide, when everything is loaded the divs should show up. (onload) Strangely enough, the funtion in the body (not in the body tag) only work half, i get and alert 'test_pre_function' and i get an alert 'call' (out of the function), but that's it. The code in the body tag runs just fine. I find this weird because it's supposed to do exactly the same twice and one time it runs, another time not, so i guess i must have made some stupid mistake. Thanks for any help!

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  • JavaScript audio not playing outside of jQuery function

    - by user1814016
    I know the question title doesn't make much sense, but I can't think of a better way to put it. I am a newbie to jQuery and I'm using this code to fade in a <div> and play a sound: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#speech').fadeIn('medium', function() { play('msg_appear'); var sptx = $('<p class="stext">').text('There is nothing here.'); $('#speech').append(sptx); $('.stext').typeOut({marker: '', delay: 22}); }); }); This code runs fine however the sound plays after the fade-in is complete. I wanted it to play while it was fading in, so I tried placing the play() call outside of the fade-in function like this: $(document).ready(function(){ play('msg_appear'); $('#speech').fadeIn('medium', function() { However, now it's not playing at all. There's no errors on the JavaScript console so I'm unsure if it's a syntax error, and probably something obvious, but I don't know what. play() is a function I found to play audio, here it is if it matters at all. I placed it in the same file the above code is; right above the $(document).ready(). function play(sound) { if (window.HTMLAudioElement) { var snd = new Audio(''); if(snd.canPlayType('audio/ogg')) { snd = new Audio(sound + '.ogg'); } else if(snd.canPlayType('audio/mp3')) { snd = new Audio(sound + '.mp3'); } snd.play(); } else { alert('HTML5 Audio is not supported by your browser!'); } }

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  • PHP Form multiple buttons

    - by Ken
    I have a form with 2 buttons, that depending on which is selected will either be deleted or edited from the database. Those are each individual pages using SQL statements (questionedit and questiondelete). However, when i press a button, nothing happens...Any Ideas Here is my javascript <script type="text/javascript"> function SelectedButton(button) { if(button == 'edit') { document.testedit_questionform.action ="testedit_questionedit.php"; } else if(button == 'delete') { document.testedit_questionform.action ="testedit_questiondelete.php"; } document.forms[].testedit_questionform.submit(); } </script> Here is my form (being echoed from a loop) <form name=\"testedit_questionform\" action=\"SelectedButton\" method=\"POST\"> <span class=\"grid_11 prefix_1\" id=\"\" > Question:<input type=\"text\" name=\"QuestionText\" style=\"width:588px; margin-left:10px;\" value=\"$row[0]\"/> <input type=\"button\" value=\"Edit\" name=\"Operation\"onclick=\"submitForm(\'edit\')\" /> <input type=\"button\" value=\"Delete\" name=\"Operation\"onclick=\"submitForm(\'delete\')\" /> <input type=\"hidden\" name=\"QId\" value=\"$row[3]\" /><br />"); </form>

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  • function working fine in IE but the same funtion is not working for mozilla 3.6

    - by anand-juventus
    function VisibleDiv(obj) { if (obj == BaseLog) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivCalls').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } else if (obj == ViewReports) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivReports').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } else if (obj ==Management) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivManage').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } <a href="#" id="BaseLog" class="TextHeader" onclick="VisibleDiv(this)">Base Log </a> in the above code is working in IE but not working in mozilla 3.6. I have checked that obj==BaseLog is not working in the above code. I have tried many options like event.srcelement window.event.srcelement but all in vain. when I debug the code ,I found that obj is having complete value for IE but the same obj is having all the names .ie. the name of tag,id and class for "Base Log" seperated by #. i.e a#BaseLog#TextHeader# Please suggest what shoud I do?

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  • Change class of parent div if radio input checked

    - by xxstevenxo
    I've been searching and searching google for answers to my question but have been unsuccessful so far. I'm hoping one of you guys could give me some assistance. I have 10 divs with the class name "dividend" holding a table with the classname/id of "container" then two smaller tables inside that. Within the container table at the bottom is a hidden radio button with the name "page1". I wrote an onClcick for the container table so the user can select the whole table instead of the radio button, but not I'm trying to change the style of the selected container so the users know they have selected it. I have tried a few different methods and I'm able to change the style to the new class by just writing document.getElementById('container').className = 'selected'; But because all 10 divs share the same name it will only change the style of the first element it finds. So I tried writing this loop to check if there are any selected radios in the document then to change the else name the style as the default. I'm sure its something stupid but I'm pretty stumped atm.. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks. selected = function () { var divs = document.getElementByTagName('DIV'), div, tbl, rad, stat, i; for (i = 0; i < divs.length; i++) { div = divs.id; if (div == 'dividend') { tbl = div.getElementById('container'); rad = tbl.getElementByTagName('INPUT'); if (rad.checked = true) { tbl.className = 'selected'; } } } };

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  • Reduce file size for charts pasted from excel into word

    - by Steve Clanton
    I have been creating reports by copying some charts and data from an excel document into a word document. I am pasting into a content control, so i use ChartObject.CopyPicture in excel and ContentControl.Range.Paste in word. This is done in a loop: Set ws = ThisWorkbook.Worksheets("Charts") With ws For Each cc In wordDocument.ContentControls If cc.Range.InlineShapes.Count > 0 Then scaleHeight = cc.Range.InlineShapes(1).scaleHeight scaleWidth = cc.Range.InlineShapes(1).scaleWidth cc.Range.InlineShapes(1).Delete .ChartObjects(cc.Tag).CopyPicture Appearance:=xlScreen, Format:=xlPicture cc.Range.Paste cc.Range.InlineShapes(1).scaleHeight = scaleHeight cc.Range.InlineShapes(1).scaleWidth = scaleWidth ElseIf ... Next cc End With Creating these reports using Office 2007 yielded files that were around 6MB, but creating them (using the same worksheet and document) in Office 2010 yields a file that is around 10 times as large. After unzipping the docx, I found that the extra size comes from emf files that correspond to charts that are pasted in using VBA. Where they range from 360 to 900 KB before, they are 5-18 MB. And the graphics are not visibly better. I am able to CopyPicture with the format xlBitmap, and while that is somewhat smaller, it is larger than the emf generated by Office 2007 and noticeably poorer quality. Are there any other options for reducing the file size? Ideally, I would like to produce a file with the same resolution for the charts as I did using Office 2007. Is there any way that uses VBA only (without modifying the charts in the spreadsheet)?

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  • How to deploy and secure an ASP.NET web app to be available to internal and outside users?

    - by Swoop
    My company has several web applications written in ASP.NET. We need to make these applications available to Intranet users as well as authenticated external users. Most of the features are the same for the two groups, though there are some extra features available to the Internal users. The two different sets of users would use a slightly different security setup... our internal people will be authenticated using LDAP against Exchange, whereas the external users will have accounts in SQL Server. What is the best approach for deploying our web apps? Should we deploy 2 copies to different servers, one configured for an Intranet and one for outside users? Or is there a better way to share the code between the 2 servers, yet have the flexibility to use different web.config settings for security??

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