Search Results

Search found 24335 results on 974 pages for 'document property'.

Page 377/974 | < Previous Page | 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384  | Next Page >

  • Reporting Services: Tablix RepeatColumnHeaders doesn't work on some reports

    - by I Have the Hat
    So I've got various reports that consist of a DataSet rendered in a Tablix... pretty garden variety stuff. There is a property for the Tablix control named RepeatColumnHeaders, which I have set to True for each report in question. The explanation for this property states “Indicates whether column headers are repeated on each page on which part of the data region appear.” Sounds pretty straightforward, but on some reports it works and on others it does not. I can't seem to find what's different about the reports that might affect this. On one report where the headers do repeat, there is some fairly arcane grouping mojo, but in an example where it doesn't work the Tablix only has one level--no grouping. I would expect the multi-nested one to be the problem, not the flat one. Maybe it's a different problem altogether. I threw together a simple Tablix rendering SELECT * FROM Foo, accepted all the default values, which results in RepeatColumnHeaders being set to False, and lo and behold the column headers do repeat for that report... Grrr. Any insights greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Best way to transfer an Entity Framework object over the web and back via JSON

    - by AVH
    I've got some MVC code that serializes an EF 3.5 object into an anonymous type for return as a JSON result to an AJAX call on my page. The hurdle I have is that when I send the object back to the server via JSON, (and let the ModelBinder deserialize it for me into my EF type), I have to update it in my Entity Framework context manually. Or at least that's what I'm doing now. It has no EntityKey, so attaching it fails. I end up having to look up the old object and update it property by property. Any ideas around this? Is the solution to pass the EntityKey around with my object? Here's what I have: public void Update(Album album) { using (var db = new BandSitesMasterEntities()) { var albumToUpdate = db.Album.First(x => x.ID == album.ID); albumToUpdate.AlbumTitle = album.AlbumTitle; albumToUpdate.Description = album.Description; albumToUpdate.ReleaseYear = album.ReleaseYear; albumToUpdate.ImageURL = album.ImageURL; albumToUpdate.OtherURL = album.OtherURL; db.SaveChanges(); } } And here's what I'd like to do, or something similar: public void Update(Album album) { using (var db = new BandSitesMasterEntities()) { db.Attach(album) db.SaveChanges(); } }

    Read the article

  • Testing a method used from an abstract class

    - by Bas
    I have to Unit Test a method (runMethod()) that uses a method from an inhereted abstract class to create a boolean. The method in the abstract class uses XmlDocuments and nodes to retrieve information. The code looks somewhat like this (and this is extremely simplified, but it states my problem) namespace AbstractTestExample { public abstract class AbstractExample { public string propertyValues; protected XmlNode propertyValuesXML; protected string getProperty(string propertyName) { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(new System.IO.StringReader(propertyValues)); propertyValuesXML= doc.FirstChild; XmlNode node = propertyValuesXML.SelectSingleNode(String.Format("property[name='{0}']/value", propertyName)); return node.InnerText; } } public class AbstractInheret : AbstractExample { public void runMethod() { bool addIfContains = (getProperty("AddIfContains") == null || getProperty("AddIfContains") == "True"); //Do something with boolean } } } So, the code wants to get a property from a created XmlDocument and uses it to form the result to a boolean. Now my question is, what is the best solution to make sure I have control over the booleans result behaviour. I'm using Moq for possible mocking. I know this code example is probably a bit fuzzy, but it's the best I could show. Hope you guys can help.

    Read the article

  • Personalized UIView created with Interface Builder

    - by Malox
    I need to project a personalized UIView with a UIImageView and 3 UILabel. I need to allocate more of this view because I want put it into a UIScrollView. I would avoid to generate the view programatically because it's difficult and boring design it. My idea is to create a new class that extends UIView and design it with interface builder. For example my Personalized View code is like that: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface PersonalizedPreview : UIView { IBOutlet UIImageView *image; IBOutlet UILabel *first_label; IBOutlet UILabel *second_label; IBOutlet UILabel *third_label; } -(void) setImage:(UIImage *)image; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIImageView *image; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UILabel *label; .... @end I would create an associated xib file for this view and initialize it simply specifing the xib file. Note that I don't want create a specific ViewController for this view and PersonalizedView is instantiate at runtime not when the app runs, moreover I don't know how many PersonalizedView I will instantiate, it depends on runtime execution. Anyone can help me? Thank you very much.

    Read the article

  • Texture2D.Bounds.Intersect, but the Bounds never move? - XNA, .Net 4.0

    - by Gineer
    Hi all, I am still shiny new to XNA, so please forgive any stupid question and statements in this post (The added issue is that I am using Visual Studio 2010 with .Net 4.0 which also means very few examples exist out on the web - well, none that I could find easily): I have two 2D objects in a "game" that I am using to learn more about XNA. I need to figure out when these two objects intersect. I noticed that the Texture2D objects has a property named "Bounds" which in turn has a method named "Intersects" which takes a Rectangle (the other Texture2D.Bounds) as an argument. However when you run the code, the objects always intersect even if they are on separate sides of the screen. When I step into the code, I noticed that for the Texture2D Bounds I get 4 parameters back when you mouse over the Bounds and the X, and Y coordinates always read "X = 0, Y = 0" for both objects (hence they always intersect). The thing that confuses me is the fact that the Bounds property is on the Texture rather than on the Position (or Vector2) of the objects. I eventually created a little helper method that takes in the objects and there positions and then calculate whether they intersect, but I'm sure there must be a better way. any suggestions, pointers would be much appreciated. Gineer

    Read the article

  • DDSteps date question.

    - by Srini
    DDStep Date Question: Currently trying to pass just the date from excel. But getting the below error while doing it. Failed to convert property value of type [java.lang.String] to required type [java.util.Date] for property ...no matching editors or conversion strategy found spring for date conversion I even tried to add customEditorConfigurer in the ddsteps-context file. Still getting error. But in their pet store example looks like it works fine. Any help is appreciated. <entry key="java.util.Date"> <bean class="org.springframework.beans.propertyeditors.CustomDateEditor"> <constructor-arg> <bean class="java.text.SimpleDateFormat"> <constructor-arg value="yyyy-MM-dd" /> </bean> </constructor-arg> <constructor-arg value="false" /> </bean> </entry>

    Read the article

  • Strange JPA one-to-many behavior when trying to set the "many" on the "one" entity

    - by errr
    I've mapped two entities using JPA (specifically Hibernate). Those entities have a one-to-many relationship (I've simplified for presentation): @Entity public class A { @ManyToOne public B getB() { return b; } } @Entity public Class B { @OneToMany(mappedBy="b") public Set<A> getAs() { return as; } } Now, I'm trying to create a relationship between two instances of these entities by using the setter of the one-side/not-owner-side of the relationship (i.e the table being referenced to): em.getTransaction().begin(); A a = new A(); B b = new B(); Set<A> as = new HashSet<A>(); as.add(a); b.setAs(as); em.persist(a); em.persist(b); em.getTransaction().commit(); But then, the relationship isn't persisted to the DB (the row created for entity A isn't referencing the row created for entity B). Why is it so? I'd excpect it to work. Also, if I remove the "mappedBy" property from the @OneToMany annotation it will work. Again - why is it so? and what are the possible effects for removing the "mappedBy" property?

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 5 Enum Naming

    - by Tyrel Van Niekerk
    I am using EF 5 with migrations and code first. It all works rather nicely, but there are some issues/questions I would like to resolve. Let's start with a simple example. Lets say I have a User table and a user type table. The user type table is an enum/lookup table in my app. So the user table has a UserTypeId column and a foreign key ref etc to UserType. In my poco, I have a property called UserType which has the enum type. To add the initial values to the UserType table (or add/change values later) and to create the table in the initial migrator etc. I need a UserType table poco to represent the actual table in the database and to use in the map files. I mapped the UserType property in the User poco to UserTypeId in the UserType poco. So now I have a poco for code first/migrations/context mapping etc and I have an enum. Can't have the same name for both, so do I have a poco called UserType and something else for the enum or have the poco for UserType be UserTypeTable or something? More importantly however, am I missing some key element in how code first works? I tried the example above, ran Add-Migration and it does not add the lookup table for the enum.

    Read the article

  • WPF validation on Enter Key Up

    - by Martin
    I'm trying to validate a UI change when Enter key is pressed. The UI element is a textbox, which is data binded to a string. My problem is that the data binding hasn't updated TestText when Enter key is Up. It is only updated when I press the button which brings up a message box. /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for Window1.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window, INotifyPropertyChanged { String _testText = new StringBuilder("One").ToString(); public string TestText { get { return _testText; } set { if (value != _testText) { _testText = value; OnPropertyChanged("TestText"); } } } public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); myGrid.DataContext = this; } private void OnPropertyChanged(string property) { if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(property)); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void onKeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.Key != System.Windows.Input.Key.Enter) return; System.Diagnostics.Trace.WriteLine(TestText); } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(TestText); } } Window XAML: Window x:Class="VerificationTest.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300" KeyUp="onKeyUp" TextBox XAML: TextBox Name="myTextBox" Text="{Binding TestText}" Button XAML: Button Name="button1" Click="button1_Click"

    Read the article

  • Return value mapping on Stored Procedures in Entity Framework

    - by Yucel
    Hi, I am calling a stored procedure with EntityFramework. But custom property that i set in partial entity class is null. I have Entities in my edmx (I called edmx i dont know what to call for this). For example I have a "User" table in my database and so i have a "User" class on my Entity. I have a stored procedure called GetUserById(@userId) and in this stored procedure i am writing a basic sql statement like below "SELECT * FROM Users WHERE Id=@userId" in my edmx i make a function import to call this stored procedure and set its return value to Entities (also select User from dropdownlist). It works perfectly when i call my stored procedure like below User user = Context.SP_GetUserById(123456); But i add a custom new column to stored procedure to return one more column like below SELECT *, dbo.ConcatRoles(U.Id) AS RolesAsString FROM membership.[User] U WHERE Id = @id Now when i execute it from SSMS new column called RolesAsString appear in result. To work this on entity framework i added a new property called RolesAsString to my User class like below. public partial class User { public string RolesAsString{ get; set; } } But this field isnt filled by stored procedure when i call it. I look to the Mapping Detail windows of my SP_GetUserById there isnt a mapping on this window. I want to add but window is read only i cant map it. I looked to the source of edmx cant find anything about mapping of SP. How can i map this custom field?

    Read the article

  • Regarding the ViewModel

    - by mizipzor
    Im struggling to understand the ViewModel part of the MVVM pattern. My current approach is to have a class, with no logic whatsoever (important), except that it implements INotifyPropertyChanged. The class is just a collection of properties, a struct if you like, describing an as small part of the data as possible. I consider this my Model. Most of the WPF code I write are settings dialogs that configure said Model. The code-behind of the dialog exposes a property which returns an instance of the Model. In the XAML code I bind to subproperties of that property, thereby binding directly to the Model's properties. Which works quite well since it implements the INotifyPropertyChanged. I consider this settings dialog the View. However, I havent really been able to figure out what in all this is the ViewModel. The articles Ive read suggests that the ViewModel should tie the View and the Model together, providing the logic the Model lacks but is still to complex to go directly into the View. Is this correct? Would, in my example, the code-behind of the settings dialog be considered the ViewModel? I just feel a bit lost and would like my peers to debunk some of my assumptions. Am I completely off track here?

    Read the article

  • JSP Iterating over a map of a list when the value might be null

    - by Brian Hoover
    How do I clear the value from the stack of a s:iterator? I'm trying to iterator over a TreeMultimap with a structure like: TreeMultimap<person, lineItems> persons; Using something like: <s:iterator value="attendeesForParticipantTypeEvents.asMap()"> <div> <s:property value="key.name" /><br /> <s:iterator id="currentSku" value="value"> <s:property value="currentSku.name" /><br /> </s:iterator> </div> </s:iterator> This works fine, except when the treeMultimap has null for lineItems, then it's taking the value from the previous iteration. So, a structure like: persons = {{"Person1",["Line1","line2"]}, {"Person2",["Line3","line4"]}, {"Person2",null}} Renders as: <div> Person1<br /> Line1<br /> Line2<br /> </div> <div> Person2<br /> Line3<br /> Line4<br /> </div> <div> Person3<br /> Line3<br /> Line4<br /> </div> Which seems to indicate that the value isn't being cleared on each iterator. What do I need to do to handle the case where value might be null? Thanks for your help

    Read the article

  • JSON to javaScript array

    - by saturn_research
    I'm having a problem handling JSON data within JavaScript, specifically in regards to using the data as an array and accessing and iterating through individual values. The JSON file is structured as follows: { "head": { "vars": [ "place" , "lat" , "long" , "page" ] } , "results": { "bindings": [ { "place": { "type": "literal" , "value": "Building A" } , "lat": { "datatype": "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema#float" , "type": "typed-literal" , "value": "10.3456" } , "long": { "datatype": "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema#float" , "type": "typed-literal" , "value": "-1.2345" } , "page": { "type": "uri" , "value": "http://www.example.com/a.html" } } , { "place": { "type": "literal" , "value": "Building B" } , "lat": { "datatype": "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema#float" , "type": "typed-literal" , "value": "11.3456" } , "long": { "datatype": "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema#float" , "type": "typed-literal" , "value": "-2.2345" } , "page": { "type": "uri" , "value": "http://www.example.com/b.html" } } , { "place": { "type": "literal" , "value": "Building C" } , "lat": { "datatype": "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema#float" , "type": "typed-literal" , "value": "12.3456" } , "long": { "datatype": "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema#float" , "type": "typed-literal" , "value": "-3.2345" } , "page": { "type": "uri" , "value": "http://www.example.com/c.html" } } ] } } I want to be able to convert this into a JavaScript array as follows in order that I can iterate through it and pull out the values for each location in order: var locations = [ ['Building A',10.3456,-1.2345,'http://www.example.com/a.html'], ['Building B',11.3456,-2.2345,'http://www.example.com/b.html'], ['Building C',12.3456,-3.2345,'http://www.example.com/c.html'] ]; Does anyone have any advice on how to achieve this? I have tried the following, but it picks up the "type" within the JSON, rather than just the value: $.each(JSONObject.results.bindings, function(i, object) { $.each(object, function(property, object) { $.each(object, function(property, value) { value; }); }); }); Any help, suggestions, advice or corrections would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • deserializing multiple types from a stream

    - by clanier9
    I have a card game program, and so far, the chat works great back and forth over the TCPClient streams between host and client. I want to make it do this with serializing and deserializing so that I can also pass cards between host and client. I tried to create a separate TCPClient stream for the passing of cards but it didn't work and figured it may be easier to keep one TCPClient stream that gets the text messages as well as cards. So I created a class, called cereal, which has the properties for the cards that will help me rebuild the card from an embedded database of cards on the other end. Is there a way to make my program figure out whether a card has been put in the stream or if it's just text in the stream so I can properly deserialize it to a string or to a cereal? Or should I add a string property to my cereal class and when that property is filled in after deserializing to the cereal, i'll know it's just text (if that field is empty after deserializing i'll know it's a card)? I'm thinking a try catch, where it tries to deserialize to a string, and if it fails it will catch and cast as a cereal. Or am I just way off base with this and should choose another route? I'm using visual studio 2011, am using a binaryformatter, and am new to serializing/deserializing.

    Read the article

  • How does asp.net MVC remember my false values on postback?

    - by Michel
    Hi, This is working, but how??? I have a controller action for a post: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post )] public ActionResult Edit(Person person) { bool isvalid = ModelState.IsValid; etc. The Person object has a property BirthDate, type DateTime. When i enter some invalid data in the form, say 'blabla' which is obvious not a valid Datetime, it fills all the (other) Person properties with the correct data and the BirthDate property with a new blank DateTime. The bool isvalid has the value 'false'. So far so good. Then i do this: return View(p); and in the view i have this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.BirthDate)) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("BirthDate", "*") %> Ant there it comes: i EXPECTED the model to contain the new, blank DateTime because i didn't put any new data in. Second, when the View displays something, it must be a DateTime, because Model.BirthDate can't hold anything but a DateTime. But to my surprise, it shows a textbox with the 'blabla' value! (and the red * behind it) Which ofcourse is nice because the user can seee what he typed wrong, but how can that (blabla)string be transferred to the View in a DateTime field?

    Read the article

  • Get Nhibernate entity and complete it from a web service.

    - by Nour Sabouny
    Hi every one. let's say that i have an order system. each "Order" references a "Customer" Object. when i fill the orders list in Data Access Layer, the customer object should be brought from a Customer Web Service "WCF". so i didn't map the Customer property in the Order mapping class, Id(o => o.OrderID).GeneratedBy.Identity(); //References(o => o.Customer).Not.Nullable().Column("CustomerID"); HasMany(o => o.Details).KeyColumn("OrderID").Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); Map(c => c.CustomerID).Not.Nullable(); and asked the nhibernate session to get me the orders list. and tried to loop on every order in the list to fill it's customer property, doe's any body have a good idea for this ???? IList<Order> lst = Session.CreateCriteria<Order>().List<Order>(); foreach (Order order in lst) order.Customer = serviceProxy.GetCustomerByID(order.CustomerID);

    Read the article

  • flex 4 release changes to application are not showing up.

    - by guacamoly
    I just took over a clients flex project and I can't get the app to reflect even a simple trace statement. Before I took over, the project was last successfully built using the Flash Builder Beta 2 environment/sdk. I have the latest release version of Flash Builder 4. Upon importing the project into FB4, I got a ton of errors. Most of them mostly because of the changes made to the sdk from beta2 to release. Some of the things I corrected: - mx namespace from library://ns.adobe.com/flex/halo to library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx - video player skinning: a lot of the state names for the video player component had been changed, more required states had been added. also there were other video related component and property names that had to be updated. But I fixed all that and the application was finally able to compile (although with some warnings mostly of the duplicate variable type) The only thing now is that whatever change I make to the project doesn't get reflected in the build (debug or release). I changed existing traces, added additional traces. Nothing shows up. I even removed the applicationComplete property in the main.mxml. Everything still ran like nothing changed. Also I can't seem to debug the app. Whenever I try to debug.. flash builder says.. "Swf Application doesn't contain the required debugging information ... " Anyone have any idea how I need to even begin tackling all this? Any help or pointers would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Spring Data Neo4J @Indexed(unique = true) not working

    - by Markus Lamm
    I'm new to Neo4J and I have, probably an easy question. There're NodeEntitys in my application, a property (name) is annotated with @Indexed(unique = true) to achieve the uniqueness like I do in JPA with @Column(unique = true). My problem is, that when I persist an entity with a name that already exists in my graph, it works fine anyway. But I expected some kind of exception here...?! Here' s an overview over basic my code: @NodeEntity public abstract class BaseEntity implements Identifiable { @GraphId private Long entityId; ... } public class Role extends BaseEntity { @Indexed(unique = true) private String name; ... } public interface RoleRepository extends GraphRepository<Role> { Role findByName(String name); } @Service public class RoleServiceImpl extends BaseEntityServiceImpl<Role> implements { private RoleRepository repository; @Override @Transactional public T save(final T entity) { return getRepository().save(entity); } } And this is my test: @Test public void testNameUniqueIndex() { final List<Role> roles = Lists.newLinkedList(service.findAll()); final String existingName = roles.get(0).getName(); Role newRole = new Role.Builder(existingName).build(); newRole = service.save(newRole); } That's the point where I expect something to go wrong! How can I ensure the uniqueness of a property, without checking it for myself?? THANKS IN ADVANCE FOR ANY IDEAS!! P.S.: I'm using neo4j 1.8.M07, spring-data-neo4j 2.1.0.BUILD-SNAPSHOT and Spring 3.1.2.RELEASE.

    Read the article

  • Cocoa - calling a VIEW method from the CONTROLLER

    - by eemerge
    Hello everyone, Got a little problem i asked about it before but maybe i didnt ask properly. I have a cocoa application, which amongst other things, must do the following task: - load some images from the disk, store them in an array and display them in a custom view. In the Interface Builder i have a CustomView and an OBJECT that points to TexturesController.h The custom view is a custom class, TextureBrowser. Below is the code for the controller and view: TexturesController #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @class TextureBrowser; @interface TexturesController : NSObject { IBOutlet NSTextField *logWindow; IBOutlet TextureBrowser *textureView; NSMutableArray *textureList; } @property textureView; -(IBAction)loadTextures:(id)sender; -(IBAction)showTexturesInfo:(id)sender; @end TextureBrowser @interface TextureBrowser : NSView { NSMutableArray *textures; } @property NSMutableArray *textures; -(void)loadTextureList:(NSMutableArray *)source; @end These are just the headers. Now , what i need to do is: when loadTextures from the TexturesController is called, after i load the images i want to send this data to the view (TextureBrowser), for example, store it in the NSMutableArray *textures. I tried using the -(void)loadTextureList:(NSMutableArray*)source method from the view, but in the TextureController.m i get a warning : No -loadTextureList method found This is how i call the method : [textureView loadTextureList: textureList]; And even if i run it with the warning left there, the array in the view class doesnt get initialised. Maybe im missing something...maybe someone can give a simple example of what i need to do and how to do it (code). Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • how to text-align columns in DataGrid? (style DataGridCell)

    - by Olga
    I use WPF (C #). I use DataGrid. I want the first column is aligned with the center, the other columns are right-aligned. I have style: <Style x:Key="TextInCellCenter" TargetType="{x:Type TextBlock}" > <Setter Property="HorizontalAlignment" Value="Center"/> </Style> <Style TargetType="{x:Type DataGridCell}"> <Setter Property="HorizontalAlignment" Value="Right"/> </Style> DataGrid: <DataGrid> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn ElementStyle="{StaticResource TextInCellCenter}" Binding="{Binding Path=Name}" /> <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=Number}" /> <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=Number}" /> <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=Number}" /> I have all the columns are right-aligned. Please tell me, how do I change the first column had a center text-alignment?

    Read the article

  • Exception when retrieving record using Nhibernate

    - by Muhammad Akhtar
    I am new to NHibernate and have just started right now. I have very simple table contain Id(Int primary key and auto incremented), Name(varchar(100)), Description(varchar(100)) Here is my XML <class name="DevelopmentStep" table="DevelopmentSteps" lazy="true"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" column="Id"> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" length="100" not-null="false"/> <property name="Description" column="Description" type="String" length="100" not-null="false"/> here is how I want to get all the record public List<DevelopmentStep> getDevelopmentSteps() { List<DevelopmentStep> developmentStep; developmentStep = Repository.FindAll<DevelopmentStep>(new OrderBy("Name", Order.Asc)); return developmentStep; } But I am getting exception The element 'id' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2' has incomplete content. List of possible elements expected: 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2:meta urn:nhibernate-mapping- 2.2:column urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2:generator'. Please Advise me --- Thanks

    Read the article

  • How do you compare using .NET types in an NHibernate ICriteria query for an ICompositeUserType?

    - by gabe
    I have an answered StackOverflow question about how to combine to legacy CHAR database date and time fields into one .NET DateTime property in my POCO here (thanks much Berryl!). Now i am trying to get a custom ICritera query to work against that very DateTime property to no avail. here's my query: ICriteria criteria = Session.CreateCriteria<InputFileLog>() .Add(Expression.Gt(MembersOf<InputFileLog>.GetName(x => x.FileCreationDateTime), DateTime.Now.AddDays(-14))) .AddOrder(Order.Desc(Projections.Id())) .CreateCriteria(typeof(InputFile).Name) .Add(Expression.Eq(MembersOf<InputFile>.GetName(x => x.Id), inputFileName)); IList<InputFileLog> list = criteria.List<InputFileLog>(); And here's the query it's generating: SELECT this_.input_file_token as input1_9_2_, this_.file_creation_date as file2_9_2_, this_.file_creation_time as file3_9_2_, this_.approval_ind as approval4_9_2_, this_.file_id as file5_9_2_, this_.process_name as process6_9_2_, this_.process_status as process7_9_2_, this_.input_file_name as input8_9_2_, gonogo3_.input_file_token as input1_6_0_, gonogo3_.go_nogo_ind as go2_6_0_, inputfile1_.input_file_name as input1_3_1_, inputfile1_.src_code as src2_3_1_, inputfile1_.process_cat_code as process3_3_1_ FROM input_file_log this_ left outer join go_nogo gonogo3_ on this_.input_file_token=gonogo3_.input_file_token inner join input_file inputfile1_ on this_.input_file_name=inputfile1_.input_file_name WHERE this_.file_creation_date > :p0 and this_.file_creation_time > :p1 and inputfile1_.input_file_name = :p2 ORDER BY this_.input_file_token desc; :p0 = '20100401', :p1 = '15:15:27', :p2 = 'LMCONV_JR' The query is exactly what i would expect, actually, except it doesn't actually give me what i want (all the rows in the last 2 weeks) because in the DB it's doing a greater than comparison using CHARs instead of DATEs. I have no idea how to get the query to convert the CHAR values into a DATE in the query without doing a CreateSQLQuery(), which I would like to avoid. Anyone know how to do this?

    Read the article

  • Default entries on a first time creation for a serialized class

    - by MGSoto
    I have a class I am using for serializing various configuration options for an application I am working on. I'm adding a new property to the class that is a List, and I'd like it to fill this list if it does not exist already in a XML file. My first thought was to check if the list contained zero items, however this is not acceptable because there are times I want to have zero items in the list. In essence I want a file that has been serialized with an older version of the same class to be "upgraded" and have defaults automatically inserted for new properties. How can I do this? For a more visual example of what I'm trying to do, see below: When I deserialize an XML file that contains: <Item1>wtfe</Item1> <Item2>wtfe</Item2> and after I've added a list property it will serialze as: <Item1>wtfe</Item1> <Item2>wtfe</Item2> <Item3/> I want it to serialize as: <Item1>wtfe</Item1> <Item2>wtfe</Item2> <Item3> <DefaultSubItem/ Field="wtfe"> <DefaultSubItem/ Field="wtfe"> </Item3> But allow me to change it to: <Item1>wtfe</Item1> <Item2>wtfe</Item2> <Item3></Item3>

    Read the article

  • Strange Effect with Overridden Properties and Reflection

    - by naacal
    I've come across a strange behaviour in .NET/Reflection and cannot find any solution/explanation for this: Class A { public string TestString { get; set; } } Class B : A { public override string TestString { get { return "x"; } } } Since properties are just pairs of functions (get_PropName(), set_PropName()) overriding only the "get" part should leave the "set" part as it is in the base class. And this is just what happens if you try to instanciate class B and assign a value to TestString, it uses the implementation of class A. But what happens if I look at the instantiated object of class B in reflection is this: PropertyInfo propInfo = b.GetType().GetProperty("TestString"); propInfo.CanRead ---> true propInfo.CanWrite ---> false(!) And if I try to invoke the setter from reflection with: propInfo.SetValue("test", b, null); I'll even get an ArgumentException with the following message: Property set method not found. Is this as expected? Because I don't seem to find a combination of BindingFlags for the GetProperty() method that returns me the property with a working get/set pair from reflection.

    Read the article

  • JSON Array Created in PHP/MySQL incorrectly decoded using JQuery

    - by Zak
    I am attempting to make an AJAX call to a very small PHP script that should return me an array that could be echo'd and decoded using JQuery. Here is what I have: My PHP page called to by AJAX: $web_q=mysql_query("select * from sec_u_g where uid='$id' "); $rs = array(); while($rs[] = mysql_fetch_assoc($web_q)) { } print_r(json_encode($rs)); This outputs: [{"id":"3","uid":"39","gid":"16"},{"id":"4","uid":"39","gid":"4"},{"id":"5","uid":"39","gid":"5"},{"id":"6","uid":"39","gid":"6"},{"id":"7","uid":"39","gid":"7"},{"id":"8","uid":"39","gid":"8"},{"id":"9","uid":"39","gid":"9"},false] I don't understand the "false" at the end for one .. But then I send to to JQuery and use: $.each(json.result, function(i, object) { $.each(object, function(property, value) { alert(property + "=" + value); }); }); This just fails. I try to alert "result" by itself which is set by: $.post("get_ug.php",{id:txt},function(result){ }); My output alerts are as follows: 1) The key is '0' and the value is '[' 2) The key is '1' and the value is 'f' 3) The key is '2' and the value is 'a' 4) The key is '3' and the value is 'l' 5) The key is '4' and the value is 's' 6) The key is '5' and the value is 'e' 7) The key is '6' and the value is ']' 8) The key is '7' and the value is ' ' (<-- Yes the line break is there in the alert) I am exhausted from trying different ideas and scripts. Other than setting a delimiter myself and concatenating my own array and decoding it with a custom script, does anyone have any ideas?? Thank you!!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384  | Next Page >