Search Results

Search found 11073 results on 443 pages for 'higher kinded types'.

Page 379/443 | < Previous Page | 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386  | Next Page >

• Fortran pointer as an argument to interface procedure

  - by icarusthecow

  Im trying to use interfaces to call different subroutines with different types, however, it doesnt seem to work when i use the pointer attribute. for example, take this sample code MODULE ptr_types TYPE, abstract :: parent INTEGER :: q END TYPE TYPE, extends(parent) :: child INTEGER :: m END TYPE INTERFACE ptr_interface MODULE PROCEDURE do_something END INTERFACE CONTAINS SUBROUTINE do_something(atype) CLASS(parent), POINTER :: atype ! code determines that this allocation is correct from input ALLOCATE(child::atype) WRITE (*,*) atype%q END SUBROUTINE END MODULE PROGRAM testpass USE ptr_types CLASS(child), POINTER :: ctype CALL ptr_interface(ctype) END PROGRAM This gives error Error: There is no specific subroutine for the generic 'ptr_interface' at (1) however if i remove the pointer attribute in the subroutine it compiles fine. Now, normally this wouldnt be a problem, but for my use case i need to be able to treat that argument as a pointer, mainly so i can allocate it if necessary. Any suggestions? Mind you I'm new to fortran so I may have missed something edit: forgot to put the allocation in the parents subroutine, the initial input is unallocated EDIT 2 this is my second attempt, with caller side casting MODULE ptr_types TYPE, abstract :: parent INTEGER :: q END TYPE TYPE, extends(parent) :: child INTEGER :: m END TYPE TYPE, extends(parent) :: second INTEGER :: meow END TYPE CONTAINS SUBROUTINE do_something(this, type_num) CLASS(parent), POINTER :: this INTEGER type_num IF (type_num == 0) THEN ALLOCATE (child::this) ELSE IF (type_num == 1) THEN ALLOCATE (second::this) ENDIF END SUBROUTINE END MODULE PROGRAM testpass USE ptr_types CLASS(child), POINTER :: ctype SELECT TYPE(ctype) CLASS is (parent) CALL do_something(ctype, 0) END SELECT WRITE (*,*) ctype%q END PROGRAM however this still fails. in the select statement it complains that parent must extend child. Im sure this is due to restrictions when dealing with the pointer attribute, for type safety, however, im looking for a way to convert a pointer into its parent type for generic allocation. Rather than have to write separate allocation functions for every type and hope they dont collide in an interface or something. hopefully this example will illustrate a little more clearly what im trying to achieve, if you know a better way let me know

  Read the article

• How to throw meaningful data in exceptions ?

  - by ZeroCool

  I would like to throw exceptions with meaningful explanation ! I thought of using variable arguments worked fine but lately I figured out it's impossible to extend the class in order to implement other exception types. So I figured out using an std::ostreamstring as a an internal buffer to deal with formatting ... but doesn't compile! I guess it has something to deal with copy constructors. Anyhow here is my piece of code: class Exception: public std::exception { public: Exception(const char *fmt, ...); Exception(const char *fname, const char *funcname, int line, const char *fmt, ...); //std::ostringstream &Get() { return os_ ; } ~Exception() throw(); virtual const char *what() const throw(); protected: char err_msg_[ERRBUFSIZ]; //std::ostringstream os_; }; The variable argumens constructor can't be inherited from! this is why I thought of std::ostringstream! Any advice on how to implement such approach ?

  Read the article

• operator overloading and inheritance

  - by user168715

  I was given the following code: class FibHeapNode { //... // These all have trivial implementation virtual void operator =(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator ==(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator <(FibHeapNode& RHS); }; class Event : public FibHeapNode { // These have nontrivial implementation virtual void operator=(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator==(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator<(FibHeapNode& RHS); }; class FibHeap { //... int DecreaseKey(FibHeapNode *theNode, FibHeapNode& NewKey) { FibHeapNode *theParent; // Some code if (theParent != NULL && *theNode < *theParent) { //... } //... return 1; } }; Much of FibHeap's implementation is similar: FibHeapNode pointers are dereferenced and then compared. Why does this code work? (or is it buggy?) I would think that the virtuals here would have no effect: since *theNode and *theParent aren't pointer or reference types, no dynamic dispatch occurs and FibHeapNode::operator< gets called no matter what's written in Event.

  Read the article

• Finding patterns of failure in a Unit Test

  - by Pekka

  I'm new to Unit Testing, and I'm only getting into the routine of building test suites. I have what is going to be a rather large project that I want to build tests for from the start. I'm trying to figure out general strategies and patterns for building test suites. When you look at a class, many tests come to you obviously due to the nature of the class. Say for a "user account" class with basic CRUD operations, being related to a database table, we will want to test - well, the CRUD. creating an object and seeing whether it exists query its properties change some properties change some properties to incorrect values and delete it again. As for how to break things, there are "fail" tests common to most CRUD classes like: Invalid input data types A number as the ID key that exceeds the range of the chosen data type Input in an incorrect character encoding Input that is too long And so on and so on. For a unit test concerned with file operations, the list of "breaking things" could be Invalid characters in file name File name too long File name uses incorrect protocol or path I'm pretty sure similar patterns - applicable beyond the unit test one is currently working on - can be found for most units that are being tested. Now my question is: Am I correct in seeing such "breaking patterns"? Or am I getting something completely wrong about Unit testing, and if I did it right, this wouldn't be an issue at all? Is Unit Testing as a process of finding as many ways to break the unit as possible the right way to go? If I am correct: Are there existing definitions, lists, cheat sheets for such patterns? Are there any provisions (mainly in PHPUnit, as that's the framework I'm working in) to automate such patterns? Is there any assistance - in the form of check lists, or software - to aid in writing complete tests?

  Read the article

• C# Automatic Properties - Still null after +=?

  - by Sam Schutte

  This seems like a bug to me... I accept that automatic properties, defined as such: public decimal? Total { get; set; } Will be null when they are first accessed. They haven't been initialized, so of course they are null. But, even after setting their value through +=, this decimal? still remains null. So after: Total += 8; Total is still null. How can this be correct? I understand that it's doing a (null + 8), but seems strange that it doesn't pick up that it means it should just be set to 8... Addendums: I made the "null + 8" point in my question - but notice that it works with strings. So, it does null + "hello" just fine, and returns "hello". Therefore, behind the scenes, it is initializing the string to a string object with the value of "hello". The behavior should be the same for the other types, IMO. It might be because a string can accept a null as a value, but still, a null string is not an initialized object, correct? Perhaps it's just because a string isn't a nullable...

  Read the article

• "Address of" (&) an array / address of being ignored be gcc?

  - by dbarbosa

  Hi, I am a teaching assistant of a introductory programming course, and some students made this type of error: char name[20]; scanf("%s",&name); which is not surprising as they are learning... What is surprising is that, besides gcc warning, the code works (at least this part). I have been trying to understand and I wrote the following code: void foo(int *str1, int *str2) { if (str1 == str2) printf("Both pointers are the same\n"); else printf("They are not the same\n"); } int main() { int test[50]; foo(&test, test); if (&test == test) printf("Both pointers are the same\n"); else printf("They are not the same\n"); } Compiling and executing: $ gcc test.c -g test.c: In function ‘main’: test.c:12: warning: passing argument 1 of ‘foo’ from incompatible pointer type test.c:13: warning: comparison of distinct pointer types lacks a cast $ ./a.out Both pointers are the same Both pointers are the same Can anyone explain why they are not different? I suspect it is because I cannot get the address of an array (as I cannot have & &x), but in this case the code should not compile.

  Read the article

• Events + Adapter Pattern

  - by Stretto

  I have an adapter pattern on a generic class that essentially adapts between types: class A<T> { event EventHandler e; } class Aadapter<T1, T2> : A<T1> { A<T2> a; Aadapter(A<T2> _a) { a = _a; } } The problem is that A contains an event. I effectively want all event handlers assigned to Adapter to fall through to a. It would be awesome if I could assign the a's event handler to adapter's event handler but this is impossible? The idea here is that A is almost really just A but we need a way to adapt the them. Because of the way event's work I can't how to efficiently do it except manually add two event handlers and when they are called they "relay" the to the other event. This isn't pretty though and it would seem much nicer if I could have something like class A<T> { event EventHandler e; } class Aadapter<T1, T2> : A<T1> { event *e; A<T2> a; Aadapter(A<T2> _a) { a = _a; e = a.e; } } in a sense we have a pointer to the event that we can assign a2's event to. I doubt there is any simple way but maybe someone has some idea to make it work. (BTW, I realize this is possible with virtual events but I'd like to avoid this if at all possible)

  Read the article

• C# specifying generic delegate type param at runtime

  - by smerlin

  following setup, i have several generic functions, and i need to choose the type and the function identified by two strings at runtime. my first try looked like this: public static class FOOBAR { public delegate void MyDelegateType(int param); public static void foo<T>(int param){...} public static void bar<T>(int param){...} public static void someMethod(string methodstr, string typestr) { MyDelegateType mydel; Type mytype; switch(typestr) { case "int": mytype = typeof(int); break; case "double": mytype = typeof(double); break; default: throw new InvalidTypeException(typestr); } switch(methodstr) { case "foo": mydel = foo<mytype>; //error break; case "bar": mydel = bar<mytype>; //error break; default: throw new InvalidTypeException(methodstr); } for(int i=0; i<1000; ++i) mydel(i); } } since this didnt work, i nested those switchs (a methodstr switch inside the typestr switch or viceversa), but that solution is really ugly and unmaintainable. The number of types is pretty much fixed, but the number of functions like foo or bar will increase by high numbers, so i dont want nested switchs. So how can i make this working without using nested switchs ?

  Read the article

• jQuery select by two name roots and perform one of two function depending on which root was selected

  - by RetroCoder

  I'm trying to get this code to work in jQuery and I'm trying to make sure that for each iteration of each root element, its alternate root element for that same iteration doesn't contain anything. Otherwise it sets the .val("") property to an empty string. Looking for a simple solution if possible using search, find, or swap. Each matching number is on the same row level and the same iteration count. I have two input types of input text elements with two different root names like so: 1st Root is "rootA" <input type="text" name="rootA1" /> <input type="text" name="rootA2 /> <input type="text" name="rootA3" /> 2nd Root is "rootB" <input type="text" name="rootB1" /> <input type="text" name="rootB2 /> <input type="text" name="rootB3" /> On blur if any of rootA is called call function fnRootA();. On blur if any of rootB is called call function fnRootB();. Again, I'm trying to make sure that for each iteration like 1 that the alternate root doesn't contain anything, else it sets the .val("") property to an empty string of the root being blurred. My current code works for a single element but wanted to use find or search but not sure how to construct it.. $("input[name='rootA1']").blur(function(e) { fnRootA(1); // this code just removes rootA1's value val("") //if rootB1 has something in it value property // the (1) in parenthesis is the iteration number });

  Read the article

• Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

  - by Tony_Henrich

  My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

  Read the article

• Entity Framework does not map 2 columns from a SqlQuery calling a stored procedure

  - by user1783530

  I'm using Code First and am trying to call a stored procedure and have it map to one of my classes. I created a stored procedure, BOMComponentChild, that returns details of a Component with information of its hierarchy in PartsPath and MyPath. I have a class for the output of this stored procedure. I'm having an issue where everything except the two columns, PartsPath and MyPath, are being mapped correctly with these two properties ending up as Nothing. I searched around and from my understanding the mapping bypasses any Entity Framework name mapping and uses column name to property name. The names are the same and I'm not sure why it is only these two columns. The last part of the stored procedure is: SELECT t.ParentID ,t.ComponentID ,c.PartNumber ,t.PartsPath ,t.MyPath ,t.Layer ,c.[Description] ,loc.LocationID ,loc.LocationName ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierID IS NULL THEN 1 ELSE sup.SupplierID END AS SupplierID ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierName IS NULL THEN 'Scinomix' ELSE sup.SupplierName END AS SupplierName ,c.Active ,c.QA ,c.IsAssembly ,c.IsPurchasable ,c.IsMachined ,t.QtyRequired ,t.TotalQty FROM BuildProducts t INNER JOIN [dbo].[BOMComponent] c ON c.ComponentID = t.ComponentID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[BOMSupplier] bsup ON bsup.ComponentID = t.ComponentID AND bsup.IsDefault = 1 LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupSupplier] sup ON sup.SupplierID = bsup.SupplierID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupLocation] loc ON loc.LocationID = c.LocationID WHERE (@IsAssembly IS NULL OR IsAssembly = @IsAssembly) ORDER BY t.MyPath and the class it maps to is: Public Class BOMComponentChild Public Property ParentID As Nullable(Of Integer) Public Property ComponentID As Integer Public Property PartNumber As String Public Property MyPath As String Public Property PartsPath As String Public Property Layer As Integer Public Property Description As String Public Property LocationID As Integer Public Property LocationName As String Public Property SupplierID As Integer Public Property SupplierName As String Public Property Active As Boolean Public Property QA As Boolean Public Property IsAssembly As Boolean Public Property IsPurchasable As Boolean Public Property IsMachined As Boolean Public Property QtyRequired As Integer Public Property TotalQty As Integer Public Property Children As IDictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) = New Dictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) End Class I am trying to call it like this: Me.Database.SqlQuery(Of BOMComponentChild)("EXEC [BOMComponentChild] @ComponentID, @PathPrefix, @IsAssembly", params).ToList() When I run the stored procedure in management studio, the columns are correct and not null. I just can't figure out why these won't map as they are the important information in the stored procedure. The types for PartsPath and MyPath are varchar(50).

  Read the article

• Returning JSON or XML for Exceptions in Jersey

  - by Dominic

  My goal is to have an error bean returned on a 404 with a descriptive message when a object is not found, and return the same MIME type that was requested. I have a look up resource, which will return the specified object in XML or JSON based on the URI (I have setup the com.sun.jersey.config.property.resourceConfigClass servlet parameter so I dont need the Accept header. My JAXBContextResolver has the ErrorBean.class in its list of types, and the correct JAXBContext is returned for this class because I can see in the logs). eg: http://foobar.com/rest/locations/1.json @GET @Path("{id}") @Produces({MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON, MediaType.APPLICATION_XML}) public Location getCustomer(@PathParam("id") int cId) { //look up location from datastore .... if (location == null) { throw new NotFoundException("Location" + cId + " is not found"); } } And my NotFoundException looks like this: public class NotFoundException extends WebApplicationException { public NotFoundException(String message) { super(Response.status(Response.Status.NOT_FOUND). entity(new ErrorBean( message, Response.Status.NOT_FOUND.getStatusCode() ) .build()); } } The ErrorBean is as follows: @XmlRootElement(name = "error") public class ErrorBean { private String errorMsg; private int errorCode; //no-arg constructor, property constructor, getter and setters ... } However, I'm always getting a 204 No Content response when I try this. I have hacked around, and if I return a string and specify the mime type this works fine: public NotFoundException(String message) { super(Response.status(Response.Status.NOT_FOUND). entity(message).type("text/plain").build()); } I have also tried returning an ErrorBean as a resource. This works fine: {"errorCode":404,"errorMsg":"Location 1 is not found!"}

  Read the article

• Post JSON array to mvc controller

  - by Yustme

  I'm trying to post a JSON array to a mvc controller. But no matter what i try, everything is 0 or null. I have this table that contains textboxes. I need from all those textboxes it's ID and value as an object. This is my java code: $(document).ready(function () { $('#submitTest').click(function (e) { var $form = $('form'); var trans = new Array(); var parameters = { TransIDs: $("#TransID").val(), ItemIDs: $("#ItemID").val(), TypeIDs: $("#TypeID").val(), }; trans.push(parameters); if ($form.valid()) { $.ajax( { url: $form.attr('action'), type: $form.attr('method'), data: JSON.stringify(parameters), dataType: "json", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", success: function (result) { $('#result').text(result.redirectTo) if (result.Success == true) { return fase; } else { $('#Error').html(result.Html); } }, error: function (request) { alert(request.statusText) } }); } e.preventDefault(); return false; }); }); This is my view code: <table> <tr> <th>trans</th> <th>Item</th> <th>Type</th> </tr> @foreach (var t in Model.Types.ToList()) { { <tr> <td> <input type="hidden" value="@t.TransID" id="TransID" /> <input type="hidden" value="@t.ItemID" id="ItemID" /> <input type="hidden" value="@t.TypeID" id="TypeID" /> </td> </tr> } } </table> This is the controller im trying to receive the data to: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Update(CustomTypeModel ctm) { return RedirectToAction("Index"); } What am i doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Writing a generic function that can take a Writer as well as an OutputStream

  - by ebruchez

  I wrote a couple of functions that look like this: def myWrite(os: OutputStream) = {} def myWrite(w: Writer) = {} Now both are very similar and I thought I would try to write a single parametrized version of the function. I started with a type with the two methods that are common in the Java OutputStream and Writer: type Writable[T] = { def close() : Unit def write(cbuf: Array[T], off: Int, len: Int): Unit } One issue is that OutputStream writes Byte and Writer writes Char, so I parametrized the type with T. Then I write my function: def myWrite[T, A[T] <: Writable[T]](out: A[T]) = {} and try to use it: val w = new java.io.StringWriter() myWrite(w) Result: <console>:9: error: type mismatch; found : java.io.StringWriter required: ?A[ ?T ] Note that implicit conversions are not applicable because they are ambiguous: both method any2ArrowAssoc in object Predef of type [A](x: A)ArrowAssoc[A] and method any2Ensuring in object Predef of type [A](x: A)Ensuring[A] are possible conversion functions from java.io.StringWriter to ?A[ ?T ] myWrite(w) I tried a few other combinations of types and parameters, to no avail so far. My question is whether there is a way of achieving this at all, and if so how. (Note that the implementation of myWrite will need, internally, to know the type T that parametrizes the write() method, because it needs to create a buffer as in new ArrayT.)

  Read the article

• How to format JSON Date?

  - by Mark Struzinski

  I'm taking my first crack at AJAX with jQuery. I'm getting my data onto my page, but I'm having some trouble with the JSON that is returned for Date data types. Basically, I'm getting a string back that looks like this: /Date(1224043200000)/ From a total newbie at JSON - How do I format this to a short date format? Should this be handled somewhere in the jQuery code? I've tried the jQuery.UI.datepicker plugin using $.datepicker.formatDate() wiuth no success. FYI: Here's the solution I came up with using a combination of the answers here: function getMismatch(id) { $.getJSON("Main.aspx?Callback=GetMismatch", { MismatchId: id }, function(result) { $("#AuthMerchId").text(result.AuthorizationMerchantId); $("#SttlMerchId").text(result.SettlementMerchantId); $("#CreateDate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.AppendDts))); $("#ExpireDate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.ExpiresDts))); $("#LastUpdate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.LastUpdateDts))); $("#LastUpdatedBy").text(result.LastUpdateNt); $("#ProcessIn").text(result.ProcessIn); } ); return false; } function formatJSONDate(jsonDate){ var newDate = dateFormat(jsonDate, "mm/dd/yyyy"); return newDate; } This solution got my object from the callback method and displayed the dates on the page properly using the date format library.

  Read the article

• Can't get findnext property of range class error

  - by Lawrence Knowlton

  I am trying to parse a report in Excel 2007. It is basically a report of accounting charge exceptions. The report has sections with a header for each type of exception. There are types of exceptions that are deleted from the report. I'm using a Do While loop to find each header and if the section needs to be deleted I have it do so. If nothing needs to be deleted the code works fine, but right after a section is deleted I get an "Unable to get the FindNext property of the Range Class" error. Here is my code: Sub merge_All_Section_Headers() ' Description: ' The next portion macro will find and format the Tranaction Source rows in the file ' by checking each row in column A for the following text: TRANSA. If a cell ' has this text in it, it is selected and a function called merge_text_cells ' is run, which performs concatenation of each Transaction Source header row and ' deletes the text from the rest of the cells with broken up text. ' lastRow = ActiveSheet.UsedRange.Rows.Count + 1 Range(lastRow & ":" & lastRow).Delete ActiveSheet.PageSetup.Orientation = xlLandscape With ActiveSheet.Range("A:A") Dim searchString As String searchString = "TRANSA" 'The following sets stringFound to either true or false based on whether or not 'the searchString (TRANSA) is found or not): Set stringFound = .Find(searchString, LookIn:=xlValues, lookat:=xlPart) If Not stringFound Is Nothing Then firstLocation = stringFound.Address Do stringFound.Select lastFound = stringFound.Address merge_Text_Cells If ((InStr(ActiveCell.Text, "CHARGE FILER") = 0) And _ (InStr(ActiveCell.Text, "CREDIT FILER") = 0) And _ (InStr(ActiveCell.Text, "PA MIDNIGHT FINAL") = 0) And _ (InStr(ActiveCell.Text, "BAD DEBT TURNOVER") = 0)) Then section_Del 'Function that deletes unwanted sections End If Range(lastFound).Select Set stringFound = .FindNext(stringFound) Loop While Not stringFound Is Nothing And stringFound.Address <> firstLocation End If End With Like I said it works fine when the section_Del is commented out. Any ideas as to how to remedy this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

  Read the article

• And now for a complete change of direction from C++ function pointers

  - by David

  I am building a part of a simulator. We are building off of a legacy simulator, but going in different direction, incorporating live bits along side of the simulated bits. The piece I am working on has to, effectively route commands from the central controller to the various bits. In the legacy code, there is a const array populated with an enumerated type. A command comes in, it is looked up in the table, then shipped off to a switch statement keyed by the enumerated type. The type enumeration has a choice VALID_BUT_NOT_SIMULATED, which is effectively a no-op from the point of the sim. I need to turn those no-ops into commands to actual other things [new simulated bits| live bits]. The new stuff and the live stuff have different interfaces than the old stuff [which makes me laugh about the shill job that it took to make it all happen, but that is a topic for a different discussion]. I like the array because it is a very apt description of the live thing this chunk is simulating [latching circuits by row and column]. I thought that I would try to replace the enumerated types in the array with pointers to functions and call them directly. This would be in lieu of the lookup+switch.

  Read the article

• Design Pattern for Changing Object

  - by user210757

  Is there a Design Pattern for supporting different permutations object? Version 1 public class myOjbect { public string field1 { get; set; } /* requirements: max length 20 */ public int field2 { get; set; } . . . public decimal field200 { get; set; } } Version 2 public class myObject { public string field1 { get; set; } /* requirements: max length 40 */ public int field2 { get; set; } . . . public double field200 { get; set; } /* changed data types */ . . ./* 10 new properties */ public double field210 { get; set; } } of course I could just have separate objects, but thought there might be a good pattern for this sort of thing.

  Read the article

• How to get a category listing from Magento?

  - by alex

  I want to create a page in Magento that shows a visual representation of the categories.. example CATEGORY product 1 product 2 ANOTHER CATEGORY product 3 My problem is, their database is organised very differently to what I've seen in the past. They have tables dedicated to data types like varchar, int, etc. I assume this is for performance or similiar. I haven't found a way to use MySQL to query the database and get a list of categories. I'd then like to match these categories to products, to get a listing of products for each category. Unfortunately Magento seems to make this very difficult. Also I have not found a method that will work from within a page block.. I have created showcase.phtml and put it in the XML layout and it displays and runs it's PHP code. I was hoping for something easy like looping through $this-getAllCategories(); and then a nested loop inside with something like $category-getChildProducts(); Can anyone help me? Thank you!

  Read the article

• How do I populate an NSMutableArray in one class with another object?

  - by AngeloS

  Hello, I know this is a simple answer, but I can't seem to find the solution. I created an object in its own class and I am trying to populate it with data from another class. For simple data types like NSString, I have no problem, but when trying make an NSMutableArray equal to another NSMutableArray or when I try to populate a NSMutableArray with another objects (like strings), I keep getting exception errors... Here is the object I am trying to populate: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface RSSFeedList : NSObject { NSString *subject; NSMutableArray *rssfeedDetail; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *subject; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *rssfeedDetail; @end This is how I was able to populate the NSString 'subject' in another class: rssFeedList.subject = @"test"; However, if I follow similar convention within that same class with respect to an Array, it throws an exception: rssFeedList.rssfeedDetail = rssItemDetailArray; Where rssItemDetailArray is a NSMutableArray that I have built in the same class. I have also tried to add items (i tried strings for testing) to the NSMutableArray directly like so to no avail: [rssFeedList.rssfeedDetail addObject:@"test"]; Any ideas?? Thanks in advance!!

  Read the article

• Why use shorter VARCHAR(n) fields?

  - by chryss

  It is frequently advised to choose database field sizes to be as narrow as possible. I am wondering to what degree this applies to SQL Server 2005 VARCHAR columns: Storing 10-letter English words in a VARCHAR(255) field will not take up more storage than in a VARCHAR(10) field. Are there other reasons to restrict the size of VARCHAR fields to stick as closely as possible to the size of the data? I'm thinking of Performance: Is there an advantage to using a smaller n when selecting, filtering and sorting on the data? Memory, including on the application side (C++)? Style/validation: How important do you consider restricting colunm size to force non-sensical data imports to fail (such as 200-character surnames)? Anything else? Background: I help data integrators with the design of data flows into a database-backed system. They have to use an API that restricts their choice of data types. For character data, only VARCHAR(n) with n <= 255 is available; CHAR, NCHAR, NVARCHAR and TEXT are not. We're trying to lay down some "good practices" rules, and the question has come up if there is a real detriment to using VARCHAR(255) even for data where real maximum sizes will never exceed 30 bytes or so. Typical data volumes for one table are 1-10 Mio records with up to 150 attributes. Query performance (SELECT, with frequently extensive WHERE clauses) and application-side retrieval performance are paramount.

  Read the article

• C++ universal data type

  - by Gokul

  I have a universal data type, which is passed by value, but does not maintain the type information. We store only pointers and basic data types(like int, float etc) inside this. Now for the first time, we need to store std::string inside this. So we decided to convert it into std::string* and store it. Then comes the problem of destruction. We don't like to copy the std::string every time. So i am thinking of an approach like this. Say the data type looks like this class Atom { public : enum flags { IS_STRING, IS_EMPTY, HAS_GOT_COPIED, MARKER }; private: void* m_value; std::bitset<MARKER> m_flags; public: ..... Atom( Atom& atm ) { atm.m_flags.set( HAS_GOT_COPIED ); ..... } ..... ~Atom() { if( m_flags.test(IS_STRING) && !m_flags.test(HAS_GOT_COPIED) ) { std::string* val = static_cast<std::string*>(m_value); delete val; } } }; Is this a good approach to find out whether there is no more reference to std::string*? Any comments.. Thanks, Gokul.

  Read the article

• calculating change (over a period) for a dated field

  - by morpheous

  I have two tables with the following schema: CREATE TABLE sales_data ( sales_time date NOT NULL, product_id integer NOT NULL, sales_amt double NOT NULL ); CREATE TABLE date_dimension ( id integer NOT NULL, datestamp date NOT NULL, day_part integer NOT NULL, week_part integer NOT NULL, month_part integer NOT NULL, qtr_part integer NOT NULL, year_part integer NOT NULL, ); I want to write two types of queries that will allow me to calculate: period on period change (e.g. week on week change) change in period on period change (e.g. change in week on week change) I would prefer to write this in ANSI SQL, since I dont want to be tied to any particular db. [Edit] In light of some of the comments, if I have to be tied to a single database (in terms of SQL dialect), it will have to be PostgreSQL The queries I want to write are of the form (pseudo SQL of course): Query Type 1 (Period on Period Change) ======================================= a). select product_id, ((sd2.sales_amt - sd1.sales_amt)/sd1.sales_amt) as week_on_week_change from sales_data sd1, sales_data sd2, date_dimension dd where {SOME CRITERIA) b). select product_id, ((sd2.sales_amt - sd1.sales_amt)/sd1.sales_amt) as month_on_month_change from sales_data sd1, sales_data sd2, date_dimension dd where {SOME CRITERIA) Query Type 2 (Change in Period on Period Change) ================================================= a). select product_id, ((a2.week_on_week_change - a1.week_on_week_change)/a1.week_on_week_change) as change_on_week_on_week_change from (select product_id, ((sd2.sales_amt - sd1.sales_amt)/sd1.sales_amt) as week_on_week_change from sales_data sd1, sales_data sd2, date_dimension dd where {SOME CRITERIA) as a1), (select product_id, ((sd2.sales_amt - sd1.sales_amt)/sd1.sales_amt) as week_on_week_change from sales_data sd1, sales_data sd2, date_dimension dd where {SOME CRITERIA) as a2) WHERE {SOME OTHER CRITERIA}

  Read the article

• Detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on Windows Phone 7

  - by David_001

  Simple question: How do I detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on windows mobile 7? Is there an event I can add a listener to? It takes up about half the screen and I want to scroll the view up when it gets displayed... EDIT: A comment below indicates more clearly what I'm trying to do: I have a textbox input, and as the user types into it an autocomplete dropdown appears below it (like google suggest). By default, the active control (the textbox) scrolls into view when focussed, and the onscreen keyboard is directly below it. The onscreen keyboard appears in front of my autocomplete dropdown - what I want to do is make the screen scroll a little further up, so there's some room for my dropdown to be shown. The windows phone UI design guidelines say: "When the keyboard is deployed, the application should scroll to ensure the active edit control and the caret are in view". This happens fine, it's just the non-active dropdown gets hidden behind the onscreen keyboard. The guidelines also say that an application can choose to show the onscreen keyboard, and can also choose to close it. At the moment i'm stuck, and I don't think (based on my research and the replies to this question) that it's possible to detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed. I'm moving my investigation to see if it's possible to determine the "visible area" of the page (width & height in pixels for example), and combine this with an onfocus for the textbox... not sure if this will prove fruitful though.

  Read the article

• Why can a public class not inherit from a less visible one?

  - by Dan Tao

  I apologize if this question has been asked before. I've searched SO somewhat and wasn't able to find it. I'm just curious what the rationale behind this design was/is. Obviously I understand that private/internal members of a base type cannot, nor should they, be exposed through a derived public type. But it seems to my naive thinking that the "hidden" parts could easily remain hidden while some base functionality is still shared and a new interface is exposed publicly. I'm thinking of something along these lines: Assembly X internal class InternalClass { protected virtual void DoSomethingProtected() { // Let's say this method provides some useful functionality. // Its visibility is quite limited (only to derived types in // the same assembly), but at least it's there. } } public class PublicClass : InternalClass { public void DoSomethingPublic() { // Now let's say this method is useful enough that this type // should be public. What's keeping us from leveraging the // base functionality laid out in InternalClass's implementation, // without exposing anything that shouldn't be exposed? } } Assembly Y public class OtherPublicClass : PublicClass { // It seems (again, to my naive mind) that this could work. This class // simply wouldn't be able to "see" any of the methods of InternalClass // from AssemblyX directly. But it could still access the public and // protected members of PublicClass that weren't inherited from // InternalClass. Does this make sense? What am I missing? }

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386  | Next Page >