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  • Is there any way to configure what reCAPTCHA is actually displaying?

    - by trejder
    Is there any way to control, what kind of image is displayed to user in reCAPTCHA or what kind of puzzle he/she is required to solve? I noticed at least two significant changes to what reCAPTCHA is serving (and I must admit, that I don't much like these changes): For years reCAPTCHA was serving two words from scanned books and user was required to solve one of them. They were clearly readable (even those "second" ones, that could be ommitted) and with nearly no problem in solving them by a human. For past few month, I noticed a significant change at all of my sites, that are using reCAPTCHA. They started to show combination of computer-generated long numbers string and something, that looks for me as street/house number photographed in Google StreetView. They're even easier to solve, but what is most important -- it started to happen more and more often that user is obligated to solve both of them. Now, I have noticed another change/regression. Now some of my sites remain at so called "level 2" (like above) and some of them started to serve two words again ("level 1"?). And again, there are more and more situations, where solving both words is required. But, what is most important, on this "level" words are nearly impossible to solve (on my old mobile devices with 3.5'' display I need 5-6 attempts to pass on!). They're cluttered, written in some strange font, mostly in italics with a lot of black and white stains or drops on letters etc. Plus: reCAPTCHA stopped to be equal -- some of my pages are still serving "level2" while some of them are "killing" end users with a need to solve "level3". Is there anyway, I can control this -- force it to use only "level2" and on all my pages? (of course, I'm using exactly the same piece of code to serve reCAPTCHA on all my pages) Note, that I'm not asking for something like in this question. I don't want to change what reCAPTCHA shows (to disable words in favor of only numbers for example). I only want to control, which "version" of puzzles (among described above) reCAPTCHA shows and I want to make it equal on all my sites.

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  • Working with PHP and MySQL - need a good and secure design with OO design

    - by Andrew
    I am new to PHP- first time developer. I am working on my web application and it is nearly done; nevertheless, most of my sql was done directly via code using direct mysql requests. This is the way I approached it: In classes_db.php I declared the db settings and created methods that I use to open and close DB connections. I declare those objects on my regular pages: class classes_db { public $dbserver = 'server; public $dbusername = 'user'; public $dbpassword = 'pass'; public $dbname = 'db'; function openDb() { $dbhandle = mysql_connect($this->dbserver, $this->dbusername, $this->dbpassword); if (!$dbhandle) { die('Could not connect: ' . mysql_error()); } $selected = mysql_select_db($this->dbname, $dbhandle) or die("Could not select the database"); return $dbhandle; } function closeDb($con) { mysql_close($con); } } On my regular page, I do this: <?php require 'classes_db.php'; session_start(); //create instance of the DB class $db = new classes_db(); //get dbhandle $dbhandle = $db->openDb(); //process query $result = mysql_query("update user set username = '" . $usernameFromForm . "' where iduser= " . $_SESSION['user']->iduser); //close the connection if (isset($dbhandle)) { $db->closeDb($dbhandle); } ?> My questions is: how to do it right and make it OO and secure? I know that I need incorporate prepared queries- how to do it the best way? Please provide some code

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  • calling same function on different buttons not loaded yet

    - by Jordan Faust
    I can not get this to work for every button and I cannot find anything explaining why. I guessing it is something small that I am missing $(document).ready(function() { // delete the selected row from the database $(document).on('click', '#business-area-delete-button', { model: "BusinessArea" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#business-type-delete-button', { model: "BusinessType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#client-delete-button', { model: "Client" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#client-type-delete-button', { model: "ClientType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#communication-channel-type', { model: "CommunicationChannelType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#parameter-type-delete-button', { model: "ParameterType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#validation-method-delete-button', { model: "ValidationMethod" }, deleteRow); } the event function deleteRow(event){ $.ajax( { type:'POST', data: { id: $(".delete-row").attr("id") }, url:"/mysite/admin/delete" + event.data.model, success:function(data,textStatus){ $('#main-content').html(data); }, error:function(XMLHttpRequest,textStatus,errorThrown){ jQuery('#alerts').html(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); }, complete:function(XMLHttpRequest,textStatus){ placeAlerts() } } ); return false }; This works only for a the button with id validation-method-delete-button. I use document and not the button its self because the button is contained in a template that is loaded later via ajax. I have this working for a similar function that is selecting a row in a table however I am not attempting to pass data in that scenario.

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  • C++ arrays as parameters, EDIT: now includes variable scoping

    - by awshepard
    Alright, I'm guessing this is an easy question, so I'll take the knocks, but I'm not finding what I need on google or SO. I'd like to create an array in one place, and populate it inside a different function. I define a function: void someFunction(double results[]) { for (int i = 0; i<100; ++i) { for (int n = 0; n<16; ++n) //note this iteration limit { results[n] += i * n; } } } That's an approximation to what my code is doing, but regardless, shouldn't be running into any overflow or out of bounds issues or anything. I generate an array: double result[16]; for(int i = 0; i<16; i++) { result[i] = -1; } then I want to pass it to someFunction someFunction(result); When I set breakpoints and step through the code, upon entering someFunction, results is set to the same address as result, and the value there is -1.000000 as expected. However, when I start iterating through the loop, results[n] doesn't seem to resolve to *(results+n) or *(results+n*sizeof(double)), it just seems to resolve to *(results). What I end up with is that instead of populating my result array, I just get one value. What am I doing wrong? EDIT Oh fun, I have a typo: it wasn't void someFunction(double results[]). It was: void someFunction(double result[])... So perhaps this is turning into a scoping question. If my double result[16] array is defined in a main.cpp, and someFunction is defined in a Utils.h file that's included by the main.cpp, does the result variable in someFunction then wreak havoc on the result array in main?

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  • Convert SVG to PDF

    - by Adrian Smith
    How would one go about converting a SVG file to a PDF programatically? (I need to alter the SVG in certain respects before generating the PDF so simply pre-converting it using a tool won't be sufficient.) Ideally using Java but Perl or PHP would be fine too. Obviously I am basically considering Apache FOP and Batik with Java. However no matter how long I search I cannot find a simple introduction on how to do it. Things like SVGConverter have descriptions like "Defines the interface for classes that are able to convert part or all of a GraphicContext", but I don't really know what that means. I have this feeling there must be an API to do this quite simply, provided by FOP or Batik, but I'm just not able to find it at the moment (or perhaps it really doesn't exist.) In terms of the supported SVG features I need, the file has some paths which are filled with some linear gradients. Ideally if I could pass the SVG in as a DOM Document that would be ideal; then I would load my template SVG file, change it as specified by the user, and then generate the PDF.

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  • How to setup and teardown temporary django db for unit testing?

    - by blokeley
    I would like to have a python module containing some unit tests that I can pass to hg bisect --command. The unit tests are testing some functionality of a django app, but I don't think I can use hg bisect --command manage.py test mytestapp because mytestapp would have to be enabled in settings.py, and the edits to settings.py would be clobbered when hg bisect updates the working directory. Therefore, I would like to know if something like the following is the best way to go: import functools, os, sys, unittest sys.path.append(path_to_myproject) os.environ['DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE'] = 'myapp.settings' def with_test_db(func): """Decorator to setup and teardown test db.""" @functools.wraps def wrapper(*args, **kwargs): try: # Set up temporary django db func(*args, **kwargs) finally: # Tear down temporary django db class TestCase(unittest.TestCase): @with_test_db def test(self): # Do some tests using the temporary django db self.fail('Mark this revision as bad.') if '__main__' == __name__: unittest.main() I should be most grateful if you could advise either: If there is a simpler way, perhaps subclassing django.test.TestCase but not editing settings.py or, if not; What the lines above that say "Set up temporary django db" and "Tear down temporary django db" should be?

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  • IList<T> vs IEnumerable<T>. What is more efficient IList<T> or IEnumerable<T>

    - by bigb
    What is more efficient way to make methods return IList<T> or IEnumerable<T>? IEnumerable<T> it is immutable collection but IList<T> mutable and contain a lot of useful methods and properties. To cast IList<T> to IEnumerable<T> it is just reference copy: IList<T> l = new List<T>(); IEnumerable<T> e = l; To cast IEnumerable<T> to List<T> we need to iterate each element or to call ToList() method: IEnumerable<T>.ToList(); or may pass IEnumerable<T> to List<T> constructor which doing the same iteration somewhere within its constructor. List<T> l = new List<T>(e); Which cases you think is more efficient? Which you prefer more in your practice?

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  • PHP hashing function not working properly

    - by Jordan Foreman
    So I read a quick PHP login system securing article, and was trying to sort of duplicate their hashing method, and during testing, am not getting the proper output. Here is my code: function decryptPassword($pw, $salt){ $hash = hash('sha256', $salt . hash('sha256', $pw)); return $hash; } function encryptPassword($pw){ $hash = hash('sha256', $pw); $salt = substr(md5(uniqid(rand(), true)), 0, 3); $hash = hash('sha265', $salt . $hash); return array( 'salt' => $salt, 'hash' => $hash ); } And here is my testing code: $pw = $_GET['pw']; $enc = encryptPassword($pw); $hash = $enc['hash']; $salt = $enc['salt']; echo 'Pass: ' . $pw . '<br />'; echo 'Hash: ' . $hash . '<br />'; echo 'Salt: ' . $salt . '<br />'; echo 'Decrypt: ' . decryptPassword($hash, $salt); Now, the output of this should be pretty obvious, but unfortunately, the $hash variable always comes out empty! I'm trying to figure out what the problem could be, and my only guess would be the second $hash assignment line in the encryptPassword(..) function. After a little testing, I've determined that the first assignment works smoothly, but the second does not. Any suggestions? Thanks SO!

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  • Javascript function with PHP throwing a "Illegally Formed XML Syntax" error

    - by Joe
    I'm trying to learn some javascript and i'm having trouble figuring out why my code is incorrect (i'm sure i'm doing something wrong lol), but anyways I am trying to create a login page so that when the form is submitted javascript will call a function that checks if the login is in a mysql database and then checks the validity of the password for the user if they exist. however I am getting an error (Illegally Formed XML Syntax) i cannot resolve. I'm really confused, mostly because netbeans is saying it is a xml syntax error and i'm not using xml. here is the code in question: function validateLogin(login){ login.addEventListener("input", function() { $value = login.value; if (<?php //connect to mysql mysql_connect(host, user, pass) or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Connected.');"); echo("</script>"); //select db mysql_select_db() or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Database Selected.');"); echo("</script>"); //query $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM logins") or die(mysql_error()); //check results against given login while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)){ if($row[login] == $value){ echo("true"); exit(0); } } echo("false"); exit(0); ?>) { login.setCustomValidity("Invalid Login. Please Click 'Register' Below.") } else { login.setCustomValidity("") } }); } the code is in an external js file and the error throws on the last line. Also from reading i understand best practices is to not mix js and php so how would i got about separating them but maintaining the functionality i need? thanks!

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  • How do I authenticate an ADO.NET Data Service?

    - by lsb
    Hi! I've created an ADO.Net Data Service hosted in a Azure worker role. I want to pass credentials from a simple console client to the service then validate them using a QueryInterceptor. Unfortunately, the credentials don't seem to be making it over the wire. The following is a simplified version of the code I'm using, starting with the DataService on the server: using System; using System.Data.Services; using System.Linq.Expressions; using System.ServiceModel; using System.Web; namespace Oslo.Worker { [ServiceBehavior(AddressFilterMode = AddressFilterMode.Any)] public class AdminService : DataService<OsloEntities> { public static void InitializeService( IDataServiceConfiguration config) { config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("*", EntitySetRights.All); config.SetServiceOperationAccessRule("*", ServiceOperationRights.All); } [QueryInterceptor("Pairs")] public Expression<Func<Pair, bool>> OnQueryPairs() { // This doesn't work!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! if (HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name != "ADMIN") throw new Exception("Ooops!"); return p => true; } } } Here's the AdminService I'm using to instantiate the AdminService in my Azure worker role: using System; using System.Data.Services; namespace Oslo.Worker { public class AdminHost : DataServiceHost { public AdminHost(Uri baseAddress) : base(typeof(AdminService), new Uri[] { baseAddress }) { } } } And finally, here's the client code. using System; using System.Data.Services.Client; using System.Net; using Oslo.Shared; namespace Oslo.ClientTest { public class AdminContext : DataServiceContext { public AdminContext(Uri serviceRoot, string userName, string password) : base(serviceRoot) { Credentials = new NetworkCredential(userName, password); } public DataServiceQuery<Order> Orders { get { return base.CreateQuery<Pair>("Orders"); } } } } I should mention that the code works great with the signal exception that the credentials are not being passed over the wire. Any help in this regard would be greatly appreciated! Thanks....

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  • Use Linq to SQL to generate sales report

    - by Richard Reddy
    I currently have the following code to generate a sales report over the last 30 days. I'd like to know if it would be possible to use linq to generate this report in one step instead of the rather basic loop I have here. For my requirement, every day needs to return a value to me so if there are no sales for any day then a 0 is returned. Any of the Sum linq examples out there don't explain how it would be possible to include a where filter so I am confused on how to get the total amount per day, or a 0 if no sales, for the last days I pass through. Thanks for your help, Rich //setup date ranges to use DateTime startDate = DateTime.Now.AddDays(-29); DateTime endDate = DateTime.Now.AddDays(1); TimeSpan startTS = new TimeSpan(0, 0, 0); TimeSpan endTS = new TimeSpan(23, 59, 59); using (var dc = new DataContext()) { //get database sales from 29 days ago at midnight to the end of today var salesForDay = dc.Orders.Where(b => b.OrderDateTime > Convert.ToDateTime(startDate.Date + startTS) && b.OrderDateTime <= Convert.ToDateTime(endDate.Date + endTS)); //loop through each day and sum up the total orders, if none then set to 0 while (startDate != endDate) { decimal totalSales = 0m; DateTime startDay = startDate.Date + startTS; DateTime endDay = startDate.Date + endTS; foreach (var sale in salesForDay.Where(b => b.OrderDateTime > startDay && b.OrderDateTime <= endDay)) { totalSales += (decimal)sale.OrderPrice; } Response.Write("From Date: " + startDay + " - To Date: " + endDay + ". Sales: " + String.Format("{0:0.00}", totalSales) + "<br>"); //move to next day startDate = startDate.AddDays(1); } }

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  • Facebook connect with iPhone not working?

    - by Atulkumar V. Jain
    Hi Everybody, I am trying to use Facebook connect in my application, but its not working as I desire. When I am trying to use the API Key and the API SecretKey of my application which I have registered with the facebook its not working. I have downloaded the code for the facebook. In the SessionViewController.m file when I pass my key values its not working. What I am trying to achieve is, when the app launches the first page is the Facebook Login Page. The user enters his username and password and then the next view should display. But nothing is happening, even the label doesn't display the username. Heres the code which I am using - (void)request:(FBRequest*)request didLoad:(id)result { NSArray* users = result; NSDictionary* user = [users objectAtIndex:0]; NSString* name = [user objectForKey:@"name"]; _label.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Logged in as %@",name]; NSLog(@"Username is :- %@",name); FrontController *main = [[FrontController alloc] init]; [self.view addSubview:main.view]; [main release]; } I am not able to figure out what is wrong with this code. When I try with some other key values such as the key for connect application its working fine. Can anyone help me with this... Thanx in advance...

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  • Dependency injection in C++

    - by Yorgos Pagles
    This is also a question that I asked in a comment in one of Miško Hevery's google talks that was dealing with dependency injection but it got buried in the comments. I wonder how can the factory / builder step of wiring the dependencies together can work in C++. I.e. we have a class A that depends on B. The builder will allocate B in the heap, pass a pointer to B in A's constructor while also allocating in the heap and return a pointer to A. Who cleans up afterwards? Is it good to let the builder clean up after it's done? It seems to be the correct method since in the talk it says that the builder should setup objects that are expected to have the same lifetime or at least the dependencies have longer lifetime (I also have a question on that). What I mean in code: class builder { public: builder() : m_ClassA(NULL),m_ClassB(NULL) { } ~builder() { if (m_ClassB) { delete m_ClassB; } if (m_ClassA) { delete m_ClassA; } } ClassA *build() { m_ClassB = new class B; m_ClassA = new class A(m_ClassB); return m_ClassA; } }; Now if there is a dependency that is expected to last longer than the lifetime of the object we are injecting it into (say ClassC is that dependency) I understand that we should change the build method to something like: ClassA *builder::build(ClassC *classC) { m_ClassB = new class B; m_ClassA = new class A(m_ClassB, classC); return m_ClassA; } What is your preferred approach?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Inserting object and related object into 2 tables

    - by ile
    I have two tables: Users and UserOwners. Table UserOwners contains list of users that certain user created (list of child-users) - or to be more precise, it contains UserOwnerID and UserID fields. So, now I want to create a new user... in Controller I have something like this: var userOwner = accountRepository.GetUser(User.Identity.Name); var userOwnerID = userOwner.UserID; UserReference userReference = new UserReference(); userReference.UserOwnerID = userOwnerID; if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { //accountRepository.Add(user); //accountRepository.Save(); return View(); } catch { return View(); } } What is the easiest way to add new user to a table Users and matching UserOwner to UserOwners table. Is it suppose to be something like this? public void Add(User user) { db.Users.InsertOnSubmit(user); db.UserReferences.InsertOnSubmit(user.UserReference); } ...or I will have to pass two objects and after adding user I must read it's ID and than assign it to userReference object and add that object to DB? If so, how to read ID of the last object added? Thanks, Ile

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  • Passing models between controllers in MVC4

    - by wtfsven
    I'm in the middle of my first foray into web development with MVC4, and I've run into a problem that I just know is one of the core issues in web development in general, but can't seem to wrap my mind around it. So I have two models: Employee and Company. Employee has a Company, therefore /Employee/Create contains a field that is either a dropdown list for selecting an existing Company, or an ActionLink to /Company/Create if none exists. But here's the issue: If a user has to create a Company, I need to preserve the existing Employee model across both Views--over to /Company/Create, then back to /Employee/Create. So my first approach was to pass the Employee model to /Company/Create with a @Html.ActionLink("Add...", "Create", "Organization", Model , null), but then when I get to Company's Create(Employee emp), all of emp's values are null. The second problem is that if I try to come back to /Employee/Create, I'd be passing back an Employee, which would resolve to the POST Action. Basically, the whole idea is to save the state of the /Employee/Create page, jump over to /Company/Create to create a Company record, then back to /Employee/Create to finish creating the Employee. I know there is a well understood solution to this because , but I can't seem to phase it well enough to get a good Google result out of it. I've though about using Session, but it seems like doing so would be a bit of a kludge. I'd really like an elegant solution to this.

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  • How to deal with unknown entity references?

    - by Chris
    I'm parsing (a lot of) XML files that contain entity references which i dont know in advance (can't change that fact). For example: xml = "<tag>I'm content with &funny; &entity; &references;.</tag>" when i try to parse this using the following code: final DocumentBuilderFactory dbf = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); final DocumentBuilder db = dbf.newDocumentBuilder(); final InputSource is = new InputSource(new StringReader(xml)); final Document d = db.parse(is); i get the following exception: org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: The entity "funny" was referenced, but not declared. but, what i do want to achieve is, that the parser replaces every entity that is not declared (unknown to the parser) with an empty String ''. Or even better, is there a way to pass a map to the parser like: Map<String,String> entityMapping = ... entityMapping.put("funny","very"); entityMapping.put("entity","important"); entityMapping.put("references","stuff"); so that i could do the following: final DocumentBuilderFactory dbf = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); final DocumentBuilder db = dbf.newDocumentBuilder(); final InputSource is = new InputSource(new StringReader(xml)); db.setEntityResolver(entityMapping); final Document d = db.parse(is); if i would obtain the text from the document using this example code i should receive: I'm content with very important stuff. Any suggestions? Of course, i already would be happy to just replace the unknown entity's with empty strings. Thanks,

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  • Using map() on a _set in a template?

    - by Stuart Grimshaw
    I have two models like this: class KPI(models.Model): """KPI model to hold the basic info on a Key Performance Indicator""" title = models.CharField(blank=False, max_length=100) description = models.TextField(blank=True) target = models.FloatField(blank=False, null=False) group = models.ForeignKey(KpiGroup) subGroup = models.ForeignKey(KpiSubGroup, null=True) unit = models.TextField(blank=True) owner = models.ForeignKey(User) bt_measure = models.BooleanField(default=False) class KpiHistory(models.Model): """A historical log of previous KPI values.""" kpi = models.ForeignKey(KPI) measure = models.FloatField(blank=False, null=False) kpi_date = models.DateField() and I'm using RGraph to display the stats on internal wallboards, the handy thing is Python lists get output in a format that Javascript sees as an array, so by mapping all the values into a list like this: def f(x): return float(x.measure) stats = map(f, KpiHistory.objects.filter(kpi=1) then in the template I can simply use {{ stats }} and the RGraph code sees it as an array which is exactly what I want. [87.0, 87.5, 88.5, 90] So my question is this, is there any way I can achieve the same effect using Django's _set functionality to keep the amount of data I'm passing into the template, up until now I've been passing in a single KPI object to be graphed but now I want to pass in a whole bunch so is there anything I can do with _set {{ kpi.kpihistory_set }} dumps the whole model out, but I just want the measure field. I can't see any of the built in template methods that will let me pull out just the single field I want. How have other people handled this situation?

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  • CakePHP dropping session between pages

    - by DavidYell
    Hi, I have an application with multiple regions and various incoming links. The premise, well it worked before, is that in the app_controller, I break out these incoming links and set them in the session. So I have a huge beforeFilter() in my *app_controller* which catches these and sets two variables in the session. Viewing.region and Search.engine, no problem. The problem arises that the session does not seem to be persistant across page requests. So for example, going to /reviews/write (userReviews/add) should have a session available which was set when the user arrived at the site. Although it seems to have vanished! It would appear that unless $this-params is caught explicitly in the *app_controller* and a session variable written, it does not exist on other pages. So far I have tried, swapping between storing session in 'cake' and 'php' both seem to exhibit the same behaviour. I use 'php' as a default. My Session.timeout is '120', Session.checkAgent is False and Security.level is 'low'. All of which should give enough leniency to the framework to allow sessions the most room to live! I'm a bit stumped as to why the session seems to be either recreated or blanked when a new page is being requested. I have commented out the requestAction() calls to make sure that isn't confusing the session request object also, which doesn't seem to make a difference. Any help would be great, as I don't have to have to recode the site to pass all the various variables via parameters in the url, as that would suck, and it's worked before, thus switching on $this-Session-read('Viewing.region') in all my code!

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  • Approach for parsing file and creating dynamic data structure for use by another program

    - by user275633
    All, Background: I have a customer who has some build scripts for their datacenter based on python that I've inherited. I did not work on the original design so I'm sort of limited to some degree on what I can and can't change. That said, my customer has a properties file that they use in their datacenter. Some of the values are used to build their servers and unfortunately they have other applications that also use these values so I cannot change them to make it easier for me. What I want to do is make the scripts more dynamic to distribute more hosts so that I don't have to keep updating the scripts in the future and can just add more hosts to the property file. Unfortunately I can't change the current property file and have to work with it. The property file looks something like this: projectName.ClusterNameServer1.sslport=443 projectName.ClusterNameServer1.port=80 projectName.ClusterNameServer1.host=myHostA projectName.ClusterNameServer2.sslport=443 projectName.ClusterNameServer2.port=80 projectName.ClusterNameServer2.host=myHostB In their deployment scripts they basically have alot of if projectName.ClusterNameServerX where X is some number of entries defined and then do something, e.g.: if projectName.ClusterNameServer1.host != "" do X if projectName.ClusterNameServer2.host != "" do X if projectName.ClusterNameServer3.host != "" do X Then when they add another host (say Serve4) they've added another if statement. Question: What I would like to do is make the scripts more dynamic and parse the properties file and put what I need into some data structure to pass to the deployment scripts and then just iterate over the structure and do my deployment that way so I don't have to constantly add a bunch of if some host# do something. I'm just curious to feed some suggestions as to what others would do to parse the file and what sort of data structure would they use and how they would group things together by ClusterNameServer# or something else. Thanks

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  • How to reliably get size of C-style array?

    - by Frank
    How do I reliably get the size of a C-style array? The method often recommended seems to be to use sizeof, but it doesn't work in the foo function, where x is passed in: #include <iostream> void foo(int x[]) { std::cerr << (sizeof(x) / sizeof(int)); // 2 } int main(){ int x[] = {1,2,3,4,5}; std::cerr << (sizeof(x) / sizeof(int)); // 5 foo(x); return 0; } Answers to this question recommend sizeof but they don't say that it (apparently?) doesn't work if you pass the array around. So, do I have to use a sentinel instead? (I don't think the users of my foo function can always be trusted to put a sentinel at the end. Of course, I could use std::vector, but then I don't get the nice shorthand syntax {1,2,3,4,5}.)

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  • C++, Ifstream opens local file but not file on HTTP Server

    - by fammi
    Hi, I am using ifstream to open a file and then read from it. My program works fine when i give location of the local file on my system. for eg /root/Desktop/abc.xxx works fine But once the location is on the http server the file fails to open. for eg http://192.168.0.10/abc.xxx fails to open. Is there any alternate for ifstream when using a URL address? thanks. part of the code where having problem: bool readTillEof = (endIndex == -1) ? true : false; // Open the file in binary mode and seek to the end to determine file size ifstream file ( fileName.c_str ( ), ios::in|ios::ate|ios::binary ); if ( file.is_open ( ) ) { long size = (long) file.tellg ( ); long numBytesRead; if ( readTillEof ) { numBytesRead = size - startIndex; } else { numBytesRead = endIndex - startIndex + 1; } // Allocate a new buffer ptr to read in the file data BufferSptr buf (new Buffer ( numBytesRead ) ); mpStreamingClientEngine->SetResponseBuffer ( nextRequest, buf ); // Seek to the start index of the byte range // and read the data file.seekg ( startIndex, ios::beg ); file.read ( (char *)buf->GetData(), numBytesRead ); // Pass on the data to the SCE // and signal completion of request mpStreamingClientEngine->HandleDataReceived( nextRequest, numBytesRead); mpStreamingClientEngine->MarkRequestCompleted( nextRequest ); // Close the file file.close ( ); } else { // Report error to the Streaming Client Engine // as unable to open file AHS_ERROR ( ConnectionManager, " Error while opening file \"%s\"\n", fileName.c_str ( ) ); mpStreamingClientEngine->HandleRequestFailed( nextRequest, CONNECTION_FAILED ); } }

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  • Prompting for authentication from a wxPython program and passing it along to IIS?

    - by MetaHyperBolic
    I have a client (written in Python, with a wxPython front end in dead-simple wizard style) which communicates a website running IIS. A python script receives requests and does the usual client-server dance. I would have written this as a browser application, but for the requirement that certain things happen on the local PC that the web can't help with (file manipulation, interfacing with certain USB hardware, etc.) Right now, I am simply using the logon credentials, compounded as a string from os.environ['USERDOMAIN'] and os.environ['USERNAME'], to pass along to the server, which connects to Active Directory and enumerates the members of the group, looking for those logon credentials. It's an ugly hack, but it works. Obviously, I could make people log out of the generic helper accounts and log back into Windows using specific accounts. However, I wondered how feasible it would be to provide some kind of logon prompt wherein the user can type in a name and password, then some kind of authorization token could be passed on to IIS. This seems like something I would not want to do myself, given that amateurs almost always make huge security mistakes. Now you can see why I am wishing this was purely web-based. What's a good way to handle this?

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  • Sanitize input before executing at server in php

    - by Interfaith
    I want to let user input two variable, Name and Password in a form. I want to disable any XSS or script insert in the input values. I have the following code in the form method: <form name="form1" method="post" action="checkpw.php"> Your Name: <table> <tr><td><input class="text" name="name" onBlur="capitalize(this);" maxlength=12 type="text" /></td></tr> </table> Password: <table> <tr><td><input class="text" name="passwd" maxlength=8 type="password" /></td></tr> <tr><td align="center"><br/> <input class="text" type="submit" name="submitbt" value="Login" /> </td></tr> </table> and the following checkpw.php: <?php // Clean up the input values $post = filter_input_array(INPUT_POST, array( 'name' => FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING, 'pw' => FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING, )); if (is_null($post) || in_array(null, $post)) { header("location:login.php"); return; // missing fields (or failed filter) } // pw is the password sent from the form $pw=$_POST['passwd']; $name=$_POST['name']; if($pw == 'testpass'){ header("location:index.php"); } else { header("location:wrong.php"); } ?> Is this a secure way to ensure the form is sent to the server and executed ONLY after the input values have been sanitized? Also, the $name value i want to pass it to index.php file. I insert a code in the index.php as follow: <?php echo $name ?> But it's empty. Any idea how to resolve it?

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  • Which options do I have for Java process communication?

    - by Dmitriy Matveev
    We have a place in a code of such form: void processParam(Object param) { wrapperForComplexNativeObject result = jniCallWhichMayCrash(param); processResult(result); } processParam - method which is called with many different arguments. jniCallWhichMayCrash - a native method which is intended to do some complex processing of it's parameter and to create some complex object. It can crash in some cases. wrapperForComplexNativeObject - wrapper type generated by SWIG processResult - a method written in pure Java which processes it's parameter by creation of several kinds (by the kinds I'm not meaning classes, maybe some like hierarchies) of objects: 1 - Some non-unique objects which are referencing each other (from the same hierarchy), these objects can have duplicates created from the invocations of processParam() method with different parameter values. Since it's costly to keep all the duplicates it's necessary to cache them. 2 - Some unique objects which are referencing each other (from the same hierarchy) and some of the objects of 1st kind. After processParam is executed for each of the arguments from some set the data created in processResult will be processed together. The problem is in fact that jniCallWhichMayCrash method may crash the entire JVM and this will be very bad. The reason of crash may be such that it can happen for one argument value and not for the other. We've decided that it's better to ignore crashes inside of JVM and just skip some chunks of data when such crashes occur. In order to do this we should run processParam function inside of separate process and pass the result somehow (HOW? HOW?! This is a question) to the main process and in case of any crashes we will only lose some part of data (It's ok) without lose of everything else. So for now the main problem is implementation of transport between different processes. Which options do I have? I can think about serialization and transmitting of binary data by the streams, but serialization may be not very fast due to object complexity. Maybe I have some other options of implementing this?

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  • Algorithm to determine if array contains n...n+m?

    - by Kyle Cronin
    I saw this question on Reddit, and there were no positive solutions presented, and I thought it would be a perfect question to ask here. This was in a thread about interview questions: Write a method that takes an int array of size m, and returns (True/False) if the array consists of the numbers n...n+m-1, all numbers in that range and only numbers in that range. The array is not guaranteed to be sorted. (For instance, {2,3,4} would return true. {1,3,1} would return false, {1,2,4} would return false. The problem I had with this one is that my interviewer kept asking me to optimize (faster O(n), less memory, etc), to the point where he claimed you could do it in one pass of the array using a constant amount of memory. Never figured that one out. Along with your solutions please indicate if they assume that the array contains unique items. Also indicate if your solution assumes the sequence starts at 1. (I've modified the question slightly to allow cases where it goes 2, 3, 4...) edit: I am now of the opinion that there does not exist a linear in time and constant in space algorithm that handles duplicates. Can anyone verify this? The duplicate problem boils down to testing to see if the array contains duplicates in O(n) time, O(1) space. If this can be done you can simply test first and if there are no duplicates run the algorithms posted. So can you test for dupes in O(n) time O(1) space?

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