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• System.EnterpriseServices.Wrapper.dll error

  - by Elaine

  this has driven me crazy, Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Could not load file or assembly 'System.EnterpriseServices.Wrapper.dll' or one of its dependencies. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x800700C1) Source Error: Line 1: <%@ Application Codebehind="Global.asax.cs" Inherits="PMP.MvcApplication" Language="C#" % Yesterday, I shut up my WIN7, an windows update was pending there without any process for nearly one hour, then I shut my laptop . and when i re-opened my win7 and ran the PMP MVC application, this error occured. I finished that pending windows update. but no help. I googed to find that should re-install .net framework 1.1/2.1, i tried but nothing good happend, this error always here. I even spent 4 hrs to re-install vs2010, but still cannot solve this. If i need to re-install WIN7 for this , i will be crazy at all... How this happened? and how to overcome it? Thanks for your time..

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• Dynamic ASP.NET controls using Infragistics

  - by Emil D

  So, in my asp.net webapp I need to dynamically load a custom control, based on the selected value of a dropdown list.That seems to work at first glance, but for some reason all infragistics controls that I have in my custom control appear, but won't work.I get a "Can't init [controlname]" warning in my browser.If I declare my custom control statically, this problem doesn't apprear Here's my code: Markup: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="GenericReportGUI.ascx.cs" Inherits="GenericReportGUI" %> <%@ Register assembly="Infragistics35.WebUI.Misc.v8.3, Version=8.3.20083.1009,Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=7dd5c3163f2cd0cb" namespace="Infragistics.WebUI.Misc" tagprefix="igmisc" %> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="myUpdatePanel" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <igmisc:WebPanel ID="WebPanel1" runat="server"> <Template> <div> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="Placeholder" runat="server"> </asp:PlaceHolder> </div> </Template> </igmisc:WebPanel> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> Code-behind: public partial class GenericReportGUI : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected override void OnPreRender( EventArgs e ) { base.OnPreRender(e); loadCustomControl(); } protected void loadCustomControl() { Placeholder.Controls.Clear(); string controlPath = getPath(); //getPath() returns the path to the .ascx file we need to load, based on the selected value of a dropdownlist try { Control newControl = LoadControl( controlPath ); Placeholder.Controls.Add( newControl ); } catch { //if the desired control cannot be loaded, display nothing } myUpdatePanel.Update();//Update the UpdatePanel that contains the custom control } } I'm a total noob when it comes to asp.net, so any help with this issue would be greatly appreciated.

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• Updating Workflow Task without Correlation Token

  - by Khurram Aziz

  I have inhertied a sequential sharepoint workflow which deals with multiple tasks for different people; multi step approval based on certain condition..For each approval new task is created and monitored...For some reason; we have decided to use single task for the whole workflow and the single task will get assigned to required person at different stages...this will help us reduce the cluter in the task list For refactoring it; I am trying to create "CreateOrUpdateTaskAndWaitForCompletition" activity...so that I can use this component multiple times as per given workflow. Create/Wait branch of my activity works fine; as I have the correlation token within the activity. But when I try two instances of this activity; task is created in first activity and it needs to be updated in second instance where I dont have the correlation token. In the second instance; (Update/Wait branch) I have tried updating the task through code activity but its not working and I am getting "This task is currently locked by a running workflow and cannot be edited" exception! Can I use UpdateTask activity without correlation token? Can I programmatically update the workflow task? Can I programmatically unlock the workflow task?

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• EWS: RemoveExtendedProperty throws error when used on an occurrence of a recurring appointment

  - by flyfishnjake

  I am developing an application that syncs an exchange calendar to another calendar. I put extended properties on the exchange appointments in order to preserve the mapping between appointments in the two calendars. Everything is working fine until I try to remove an extended property from an occurrence of a recurring appointment. When I try doing this, I get the error: The delete action is not supported for this property. Here is a code snippet that demonstrates the error: public void ExchangeTest() { ExchangeService service = new ExchangeService(ExchangeVersion.Exchange2007_SP1) { Credentials = new NetworkCredential("username", "password", "domain") }; service.AutodiscoverUrl("[email protected]"); Appointment appt = new Appointment(service) { Recurrence = new Recurrence.DailyPattern(DateTime.Now, 2) { NumberOfOccurrences = 3}, Start = DateTime.Now, End = DateTime.Now.AddHours(2), Subject = "Test Appointment" }; NameResolutionCollection resolutionCollection = service.ResolveName("username", ResolveNameSearchLocation.DirectoryOnly, false); string mailboxAddress = resolutionCollection.First().Mailbox.Address; FolderId folderId = new FolderId(WellKnownFolderName.Calendar, mailboxAddress); appt.Save(folderId); PropertySet properties = new PropertySet(AppointmentSchema.ICalUid); appt.Load(properties); CalendarView view = new CalendarView(DateTime.Today, DateTime.Today.AddDays(8)){PropertySet = properties}; IEnumerable<Appointment> occurrences = service.FindAppointments(folderId, view) .Where(a => a.ICalUid == appt.ICalUid); ExtendedPropertyDefinition definition = new ExtendedPropertyDefinition(DefaultExtendedPropertySet.PublicStrings, "TestProperty", MapiPropertyType.String); Appointment firstOccurrence = occurrences.First(); firstOccurrence.SetExtendedProperty(definition, "test"); firstOccurrence.Update(ConflictResolutionMode.AutoResolve); //The error occurs on the next line. firstOccurrence.RemoveExtendedProperty(definition); firstOccurrence.Update(ConflictResolutionMode.AutoResolve); //clean up appt.Delete(DeleteMode.HardDelete); } It appears that the error is only thrown for an Exchange 2007 server (It works on 2010). Am I doing something wrong, or is this a problem with Exchange? Is there a way to work around this issue? Any help will be appreciated.

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• Problems requesting the LDAP: The server is unwilling to process the request.

  - by Flo

  We have written an authentication provider for a SharePoint web application which can requests multiple LDAP directories. One of the LDAP server have to be requested via SSL. So we imported the CA certificate which was used to sign the LDAP server's certificate into the certificate store of the SharePoint server. The following code snippet shows how we authenticate an user. The passed credentials (account, password) belong to the user we want to authenticate. var entry = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://<ldap-server-address>", "cn=account,ou=sub,o=xyz,c=de", "password", AuthenticationTypes.SecureSocketsLayer); var searcher = new DirectorySearcher(entry); var found = searcher.FindOne(); When the code is processed, the call to searcher.FindOne() throws following exception. System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80072035): The server is unwilling to process the request What circumstance can lead to this error? UPDATE: I found some information about the error message. There the problem seems to be the certificate store, as the user has only stored the certificate in the in the user's store and not in the computer's store. Unfortunately we've already stored it there. So could this be still a certificate issue? UPDATE/SOLUTION: Actually the problem is solved. It seems as if the root CA certificate was imported correctly but the error messages the LDAP server responded was caused by an expired user account our customer gave us for testing.

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• Ubuntu NBR karmic boot freezes at fsck from util-linux-ng 2.16

  - by BlueBill

  Hi all, I have a netbook (emachine e250 - equivalent to an acer aspire one) and I have Ubunutu NBR 9.10 installed on it. Every other cold boot freezes at the following error message: "fsck from util-linux-ng 2.16" There is no disk activity, no activity what so ever. I have left the machine sit for over an hour and nothing. It takes a couple of hard resets to be able to boot properly. Once it boots everything works great (wireless, suspend/resume, etc.)! I have spent the last couple of weeks researching the problem and the only thing that seems to work is setting nolapic in the boot string in grub - it boots every time. Unfortunately, nolapic disables the second core and causes problems with suspend resume. At first I thought it was an fsck problem with the first partition on the hard disk as it is a hidden ntfs partition containing the windows xp recover information. So in /etc/fstab I set the partition so that it would be ignored by fsck. This didn't seem to do anything. I have these partitions: /dev/sda1 - an ntfs recovery partition /dev/sda2 - /boot /dev/sda3 - swap /dev/sda5 - / /dev/sda6 - /home I am running kernel version 2.6.31-19-generic and have all the patches (as indicated by update manager). I also have no splash screen so I can see the boot progress. I have only been using NBR since January, I have been using Ubuntu on my desktop since last June (2009-06). What logs should I be looking at? Is there a log for failed boots? Thanks, Troy

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• running asp.net 3.5 and asp.net 2.0 in same site

  - by cori

  We're running ASP.Net 2.0 on our corporate web site, and I'd like to get it up to ASP.Net 3.5 as smoothly as possible. The project/solution architecture in VS 2005 is an ASP.Net 2.0 web project and an .Net 2.0 data access layer project which is used by the site code. Upon opening the projects in a new VS 2008 solution they seemed to be converted to .Net 3.5 with a minimum of fuss - they built correctly out of the box, deployed successfully, and seem to work just fine, which is exactly as I would expect given that .Net 2.0 and 3.5 share a common runtime. The major difference after the conversion is that the web.config file's referenced dlls are now the 3.5 versions. What I would like to do is to update the site piecemeal; as I make modifications to a given page send the 3.5 verson of that page over to our webserver and not update the whole site at once. In testing on our dev box this approach seems to be working fine - the site code is interacting with the .Net 3.5 data access layer without difficulty, a handful of pages are running 3.5 page-behind code (by this I mean that they're running assemblies built in VS 2008 - the site is using single-page assemblies for code behind), the 3.5 web.config is in place, and the bulk of the site is running code-behind assemblies built in VS2005. Everything looks great. Which makes me worried that I'm missing something. Is this architecture workable, or is there a problem lying is wait for m that I haven't considered?

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• Creating Array of settings names and values using ADO.NET Entities

  - by jordan.baucke

  I'm using an ADO.NET Entities (.edmx) data-model along with MVC2 to build an application. I have a DB table where I want to store settings for method that run elsewhere. MVC2 allows me to create a view, editor, etc. to update this table which is great, but now when I want to do simple assignments based on column titles I'm a bit confused. For example, I would like to easily build an array that I could offset into the record's value based on it's "Title" Column: var entities = new ManagerEntities(); Setting[] settings = entities.settings.ToArray(); This returns something like: Settings[0].[SettingTitle][SettingValue] However, I would like to more easily index into the value than having to loop through all the returned settings, when they're already index. string URL_ID_NEED = [NeededUrl][http://www.url.com] Am I missing something relatively simple? Thanks! ========================= *Update* ========================= Ok, I think I've got a solution, but I'm wondering why this would be so complicated, and if I'm just not thinking of the right context for ADO.NET objects, here's what I did: public string GetSetting(string SettingName) { var entities = new LabelManagerEntities(); IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, object>> entityKeyValues = new KeyValuePair<string, object>[] { new KeyValuePair<string, object>("SettingTitle", SettingName) }; EntityKey key = new EntityKey("LabelManagerEntities.Settings", entityKeyValues); // Get the object from the context or the persisted store by its key. Setting settingvalue = (Setting)entities.GetObjectByKey(key); return settingvalue.SettingValue.ToString(); } This method handles the job of querying the Entities by "Key" to get back the correct value as a returned string (which I can than strip out the " ", or or cast to an integer, etc. etc.,) Am I just duplicating functionality that already exists in ADO.NET's design patterns (I'm pretty new to it) -- or is this a reasonable solution?

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• animation extender in datalist control in asp.net 2008

  - by BibiBuBu

  Good Day! i have a question that how can i use animation extender in datalist control in asp.net with c#. i want the animation when i click the delete button (delete button will be in repeater). so that when i remove one record then it shows animation to bring the next record. it is in update panel. <cc1:AnimationExtender ID="AnimationExtender1" runat="server" Enabled="True" TargetControlID="btnDeleteId"> <Animations> <OnClick> <Sequence> <EnableAction Enabled="false" /> <Parallel Duration=".2"> <Resize Height="0" Width="0" Unit="px" /> <FadeOut /> </Parallel> <HideAction /> </Sequence> </OnClick> </Animations> </cc1:AnimationExtender> now if i put my button id in the Target control id then it gives error that it should not be in same update panel etc... but over all nothing working for animation. i am binding my datalist in itemDataBound....e.g. ImageButton imgbtn = (ImageButton)e.Item.FindControl("imgBtnPic"); Label lblAvatar = (Label)e.Item.FindControl("lblAvatar"); LinkButton lbName = (LinkButton)e.Item.FindControl("lbtnName"); Can somebody please suggest me something. thanks

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• Use XMPP instead of HTTP

  - by pavel

  Hey guys. My friend and I, we are working on iPhone application. This application uses XMPP protocol to provide chat functionality. Right now we are designing architecture for the application. So my friend is working on iPhone side, and I am ruby on rails guy. My friend suggested, that we wrap every call, that is usually served via HTTP into XMPP. So, user registration, users search, profile editing, photo uploading, everything goes via XMPP. No HTTP at all. My friend wants to use XMPP, because he says, that it's much easier to implement XMPP on client-side rather HTTP. As for me, this is bullshit, but we've got a product owner, who have been working with my friend for a long time and he trusts him. So what I'm trying to do is to convince my friend and product owner that using XMPP for what HTTP can work find — is totally not the best idea. I feel, that if we implement everything on XMPP, we will have a pain in an ass till the end of lives. But how do I prove it? P.S. I'm not against chat over XMPP, I am against users search, photo uploading, rankings, nearby search and various other restful requests. Please, leave response. Any help appreciated. A little update: Yesterday we had a long discussion. And it turns out, it's quiete hard to receive response from both XMPP and HTTP in Objective-C. Because every single object and its data should be stored in Core Data model, while this model can't be securely modified from various places. Say, if you use HTTP transport, you always want to use only HTTP transport to update data in your model. And if you use XMPP, you should always use XMPP. So, you can't use both. That's what my iPhone buddy told me. It sounds weird for me, can anyone explain me that?

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• Why updatepanel triggers another updatepanel?

  - by HasanGursoy

  I have two update panels at my ajax page. This is first time I'm using updatepanel and I don't know what is wrong. I think only btnFilter's Click event must trigger the second update panel's content but changing combo values (which also hides/unhides btnFilter button) makes second updatepanel change content (at least I see transferred data with firebug & second updatepanel blinks sometimes). Online here. <asp:UpdatePanel ID="upComparison" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> Brand: <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlBrands" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" OnSelectedIndexChanged="ddlBrands_SelectedIndexChanged" AppendDataBoundItems="true"> <asp:ListItem Value="" Text="Please select a brand..." /> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:Panel ID="pModels" runat="server" Visible="false"> Model: <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlModels" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" OnSelectedIndexChanged="ddlModels_SelectedIndexChanged" /> </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel ID="pButton" runat="server" Visible="false"> <asp:UpdateProgress ID="upMain" runat="server" DisplayAfter="100"> <ProgressTemplate><img src="/Assets/Images/loader.gif" /> </ProgressTemplate> </asp:UpdateProgress> <asp:Button ID="btnFilter" runat="server" Text="Filter" OnClick="btnFilter_Click" /> </asp:Panel> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="upList" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Repeater ID="rProducts" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate>some code here</ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="btnFilter" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel>

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• How to use Scala in IntelliJ IDEA (or: why is it so difficult to get a working IDE for Scala)?

  - by Alex R

  I recently gave up trying to use Scala in Eclipse (basic stuff like completion doesn't work). So now I'm trying IntelliJ. I'm not getting very far. I've been able to edit programs (within syntax highlighting and completion... yay!). But I'm unable to run even the simplest "Hello World". This was the original error: Scala signature Predef has wrong version Expected 5.0 found: 4.1 in .... scala-library.jar But that was yesterday with IDEA 9.0.1. See below... UPDATE Today I uninstalled IntelliJ 9.0.1, and installed 9.0.2 Early Availability, with the 4/14 stable version of the Scala plug-in. Then I setup a project from scratch through the wizards: new project from scratch JDK is 1.6.u20 accept the default (project) instead of global / module accept the download of Scala 2.8.0beta1 into project's lib folder Created a new class: object hello { def main(args: Array[String]) { println("hello: " + args); } } For my efforts, I now have a brand-new error :) Here it is: Scalac internal error: class java.lang.ClassNotFoundException [java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:202), java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method), java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:190), java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307), sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301), java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:248), java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method), java.lang.Class.forName(Class.java:169), org.jetbrains.plugins.scala.compiler.rt.ScalacRunner.main(ScalacRunner.java:72)] FINAL UPDATE I uninstalled 9.0.2 EA and reinstalled 9.0.1, but this time went with the 2.7.3 version of Scala rather than the default 2.7.6, because 2.7.3 is the one shown in the screen-shots at the IntelliJ website (I guess the screen-shots prove that they actually tested this version!). Now everything works!!!

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• MySQL Relational Database Foreign Key

  - by user623879

  To learn databasing, I am creating a movie database. To associate multiple directors with a movie, I have the following schema: movie(m_ID, ....) m_director(dirID, dirName)//dirID is a autoincrement primary key m_directs(dirID, m_ID) //dirID, m_ID are set as foreign Keys in the mysql database(InnoDB engine) I have a program that connects to the db that needs to add a movie to the database. I can easily add a new entry to the movie table and the m_director table, but I am having trouble adding a entry in the m_directs table. INSERT INTO m_director (dirName) VALUES("Jason Reitman"); INSERT INTO m_directs (dirID, m_ID) VALUES(LAST_INSERT_ID(), "tt0467406"); I am using this sql statement to insert a new director and add the association to the movie. I know the primary key of the movie, but I don't know the dirID, so I use LAST_INSERT_ID() to get the last id of the director just inserted. The problem I am having is that I get the following error: MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlException (0x80004005): Cannot add or update a child row: a foreign key constraint fails (`siteproducts`. `m_directs`, CONSTRAINT `m_directs_ibfk_2` FOREIGN KEY (`dirID`) REFERENCES `m_directs` (`dirID`) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE) Any ideas?

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• Microsoft Sync Framework with Mutliple Client and Server Database

  - by David Osborn

  I'm working on changes to an application to have a local data store instead of connecting directly to the database server. The client app will then sync changes both ways between the server database and its local data store. I'm trying to implement the syncing solution using Microsoft Sync Framework. To be clear there is no server application, only the database server, but there are multiple clients. I have started implementing two classes that implement FullEnumerationSimpleSyncProvider, one called LocalSyncProvider and one called ServerSyncProvider. The LocalSyncProvider knows how to enumerate, insert, update, delete items from the local data store, and the ServerSyncProvider knows how to enumerate, insert, update, delete items from the database server. They each use the provided SqlMetadataStore and store the two metadata stores (one for the local and one for the server) on the local drive of the client. This means that each client will have its own metadata store for its local data store and its own metadata store for the server database. Is this actually going to work, does there need to exists only one server metadata store, or do I need to be using the Sync Framework differently?

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• ASP.NET MVC2: Client-side validation not working with Start.js

  - by Shaggy13spe

  Ok, this is strange. I would hope it's something I'm doing wrong and not that MS has two technologies that simply don't work together. (UPDATE: See bottom of post for Script tag order in HEAD section) I'm trying to use the dataView template and client-side validation. If I include a reference to: <script src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/beta/0911/Start.js" type="text/javascript"></script> by itself, the dataview template works fine. but if I put in the following references: <script src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/jquery.validate/1.7/jquery.validate.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcValidation.js" type="text/javascript"></script> then I get the following error: > Error: Type._registerScript is not a > function Source File: > http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/beta/0911/MicrosoftAjaxTemplates.js > Line: 1 and: > Error: Sys.get("$listings") is null > Source File: > http://localhost:12370/Listings Line: > 76 Here's the code calling the dataview: $(document).ready(function () { LoadMap(); Sys.require([Sys.components.dataView, Sys.scripts.jQuery], function() { $("#listings").dataView(); Sys.get("$listings").set_data(listings.Data); updateMap(listings.Data); }); }); I would really appreciate any help with this one. Thanks! UPDATE: I've tried moving around the order of the last 4 script tags, but to no avail.

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• Sharepoint OLE DB - field not updateable

  - by Pandincus

  I need to write a simple C# .NET application to retrieve, update, and insert some data in a Sharepoint list. I am NOT a Sharepoint developer, and I don't have control over our Sharepoint server. I would prefer not to have to develop this in a proper sharepoint development environment simply because I don't want to have to deploy my application on the Sharepoint server -- I'd rather just access data externally. Anyway, I found out that you can access Sharepoint data using OLE DB, and I tried it successfully using some ADO.NET: var db = DatabaseFactory.CreateDatabase(); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); using (var command = db.GetSqlStringCommand("SELECT * FROM List")) { db.LoadDataSet(command, ds, "List"); } The above works. However, when I try to insert: using (var command = db.GetSqlStringCommand("INSERT INTO List ([HeaderName], [Description], [Number]) VALUES ('Blah', 'Blah', 100)")) { db.ExecuteNonQuery(command); } I get this error: Cannot update 'HeaderName'; field not updateable. I did some Googling and apparently you cannot insert data through OLE DB! Does anyone know if there are some possible workarounds? I could try using Sharepoint Web Services, but I tried that initially and was having a heck of a time authenticating. Is that my only option?

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• Db4o Mvc Application Architecture

  - by Mac

  I am currently testing out Db4o for an asp.net MVC 2 application idea but there are a few things I'm not quite sure on the best way to proceed. I want my application to use guessable routes rather than Id's for referencing my entities but I also think I need Id's of some sort for update scenarios. so for example I want /country/usa instead of /country/1 I may want to change the key name though (not perhaps on a country but on other entities) so am thinking I need an Id to use as the reference to retrieve the object prior to updating it's fields. From other comments it seems like the UUID is a bit long to be using and would prefer to use my own id's anyway for clean separation of concerns. Looking at both the KandaAlpha project I wasn't too keen on some aspects of the design and prefer something more along the lines of S#arp architecture where they use things like the [domainsignature] and EntityWithTypedId, IEntityDuplicateChecker, IHasAssignedId, BaseObject and IValidatable in their entities to control insert/update behaviour which seems cleaner and more extensible, covers validation and is encapsulated well within the core and base repository classes. So would a port of S#arp architecture to Db4o make sense of am I still thinking rmdbs in an oodb world? Also is there a best practice for managing indexes (including Unique ones as above) in Db4o? Should they be model metadata based and loaded using DI in a bootstrapper for example or should they be more loaded more like Automapper.CreateMap? Its a bit of a rambling question I know but any thoughts, ideas or suggested reading material is greatly appreciated. Thanks Mac

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• Why does text from Assembly.GetManifestResourceStream() start with three junk characters?

  - by flipdoubt

  I have a SQL file added to my VS.NET 2008 project as an embedded resource. Whenever I use the following code to read the file's content, the string returned always starts with three junk characters and then the text I expect. I assume this has something to do with the Encoding.Default I am using, but that is just a guess. Why does this text keep showing up? Should I just trim off the first three characters or is there a more informed approach? public string GetUpdateRestoreSchemaScript() { var type = GetType(); var a = Assembly.GetAssembly(type); var script = "UpdateRestoreSchema.sql"; var resourceName = String.Concat(type.Namespace, ".", script); using(Stream stream = a.GetManifestResourceStream(resourceName)) { byte[] buffer = new byte[stream.Length]; stream.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length); // UPDATE: Should be Encoding.UTF8 return Encoding.Default.GetString(buffer); } } Update: I now know that my code works as expected if I simply change the last line to return a UTF-8 encoded string. It will always be true for this embedded file, but will it always be true? Is there a way to test any buffer to determine its encoding?

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• ASP.NET MVC and ViewState

  - by nickyt

  Now I've seen some questions like this, but it's not exactly what I want to ask, so for all those screaming duplicate, I apologize :). I've barely touched ASP.NET MVC but from what I understand there is no ViewState/ControlState... fine. So my question is what is the alternative to retaining a control's state? Do we go back to old school ASP where we might simulate what ASP.NET ViewState/ControlState does by creating hidden form inputs with the control's state, or with MVC, do we just assume AJAX always and retain all state client-side and make AJAX calls to update? This question has some answers, http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1285547/maintaining-viewstate-in-asp-net-mvc, but not exactly what I'm looking for in an answer. UPDATE: Thanks for all the answers so far. Just to clear up what I'm not looking for and what I'm looking for: Not looking for: Session solution Cookie solution Not looking to mimic WebForms in MVC What I am/was looking for: A method that only retains the state on postback if data is not rebound to a control. Think WebForms with the scenario of only binding a grid on the initial page load, i.e. only rebinding the data when necessary. As I mentioned, I'm not trying to mimic WebForms, just wondering what mechanisms MVC offers.

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• Java Swingworker: Not as encapsulated class

  - by Thomas Matthews

  I'm having problems passing information, updating progress and indicating "done" with a SwingWorker class that is not an encapsulated class. I have a simple class that processes files and directories on a hard drive. The user clicks on the Start button and that launches an instance of the SwingWorker. I would like to print the names of the files that are processed on the JTextArea in the Event Driven Thread from the SwingWorker as update a progress bar. All the examples on the web are for an nested class, and the nested class accesses variables in the outer class (such as the done method). I would also like to signal the Event Driven Thread that the SwingWorker is finished so the EDT can perform actions such as enabling the Start button (and clearing fields). Here are my questions: 1. How does the SwingWorker class put text into the JTextArea of the Event Driven Thread and update a progress bar? How does the EDT determine when the {external} SwingWorker thread is finished? {I don't want the SwingWorker as a nested class because there is a lot of code (and processing) done.}

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• Updating textfield in doctrine produces an exception

  - by james-murphy

  I have a textfield that contains say for example the following text:- "A traditional English dish comprising sausages in Yorkshire pudding batter, usually served with vegetables and gravy." This textfield is in a form that simply updates an item record using it's ID. If I edit part of the textfield and replace "and gravy." with "humous." So that the textfield now contains "A traditional English dish comprising sausages in Yorkshire pudding batter, usually served with vegetables and humous." I get the following exception:- Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'Doctrine_Query_Exception' with message 'Unknown component alias humous' in C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php:780 Stack trace: C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php(767): Doctrine_Query_Abstract-getQueryComponent('humous') C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Set.php(58): Doctrine_Query_Abstract-getAliasDeclaration('humous') C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php(2092): Doctrine_Query_Set-parse('i.details = 'A ...') C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query.php(1058): Doctrine_Query_Abstract-_processDqlQueryPart('set', Array) C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php(971): Doctrine_Query-getSqlQuery(Array) C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php(1030): Doctrine_Query_Abstract-_execute(Array) C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\appl in C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php on line 780 I'm using Doctrine 1.0.6 hooked into CodeIgniter 1.7.0 if anyone is interested. My doctrine query that actually performs the update looks as follows:- public function updateItems($id, $arrayItem) { $query = new Doctrine_Query(); $query->update('Item i'); foreach($arrayItem as $key => $value) { $query->set('i.'.$key, "'".$value."'"); } $query->where('i.id = ?', $id); return $query->execute(); } This seems bizarre because if i replace the entire string "A traditional English dish comprising sausages in Yorkshire pudding batter, usually served with vegetables and humous." with something completely different like just "test" it doesn't throw an exception and works just fine. This baffles me... is it a bug in Doctrine or have I missed something?

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• NVidia ION and /dev/mapper/nvidia_... issues.

  - by Ritsaert Hornstra

  I have an NVidia ION board with 4 SATA ports and want to use that to run a Linux Server (CentOS 5.4). I first hooed up 3 HDs (that will be a RAID5 array) and a forth small boot HD. I first started to use the onboard RAID capability but that does not work correctly under Linux: the raid capacity is not a real RAID but uses lvm to define some arays. After setting the BIOS back to normal SATA mode and whiping the HDs, the first boot harddisk (/dev/sda) is seen as /dev/sda BEFORE mounting and after mounting as /dev/mapper/nvidia_. CentOS is unable to install on it (and grub is not installable on it either). So somehow the harddisk is still seen as if it belongs to some lvm volume. I tried to clean out the HD by issuing a few dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/sda commands to wipe the starting cylinders and final cylinders but to no avail. Did anyone see this problem and did anyone find a solution? UPDATE When I create only a single ext3 partition on the first HD (/dev/mapper/nvidia_...) no LVM partitions are seen and I can boot from /dev/mapper/nvidia_.... Now the next step is to see how I can get rid of this folly.

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• WMD markdown editor - HTML to Markdown conversion

  - by gg1

  I am using wmd markdown editor on a project and had a question: When I post the form containing the markdown text area, it (as expected) posts html to the server. However, say upon server-side validation something fails and I need to send the user back to edit their entry, is there anyway to refill the textarea with just the markdown and not the html? Since as I have it set up, the server only has access to the post data (which is in the form of html) so I can't seem to think of a way to do this. Any ideas? Preferably a non-javascript based solution. Update: I found an html to markdown converter called markdownify. I guess this might be the best solution for displaying the markdown back to the user...any better alternatives are welcome! Update 2: I found this post on SO and I guess there is an option to send the data to the server as markdown instead of html. Are there any downsides to simply storing the data as markdown in the database? What about displaying it back to the user (outside of an editor)? Maybe it would be best to post both versions (html AND markdown) to the server... SOLVED: I can simply use php markdown to convert the markdown to html serverside.

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• Xen dom0 reports incorrect amount of RAM with dom0_mem set

  - by xen_amnesiac

  I've done a fair bit of searching about this, but have found nothing that answers my question. I have a system with 6GB of RAM which acts as a Xen server. For reference, it runs Ubuntu 12.04. I've set the kernel parameter dom0_mem:512M,max:512M in /etc/default/grub as follows: GRUB_CMDLINE_XEN_DEFAULT="dom0_mem=min:512M,max:512M" I've tried variations of that, with the same result. My question is this: With the above set, the dom0 reports in all applications a RAM amount of 422M. cat /proc/meminfo gives the following: $ cat /proc/meminfo MemTotal: 432472 kB MemFree: 54144 kB Buffers: 17640 kB Cached: 220104 kB SwapCached: 30172 kB Active: 136500 kB Inactive: 167780 kB Active(anon): 6156 kB Inactive(anon): 60516 kB Active(file): 130344 kB Inactive(file): 107264 kB Unevictable: 52 kB Mlocked: 52 kB SwapTotal: 1794044 kB SwapFree: 1682012 kB Dirty: 0 kB Writeback: 0 kB AnonPages: 39572 kB Mapped: 8048 kB Shmem: 136 kB Slab: 44324 kB SReclaimable: 22012 kB SUnreclaim: 22312 kB KernelStack: 1280 kB PageTables: 3840 kB NFS_Unstable: 0 kB Bounce: 0 kB WritebackTmp: 0 kB CommitLimit: 2010280 kB Committed_AS: 329192 kB VmallocTotal: 34359738367 kB VmallocUsed: 313988 kB VmallocChunk: 34359417340 kB HardwareCorrupted: 0 kB AnonHugePages: 0 kB HugePages_Total: 0 HugePages_Free: 0 HugePages_Rsvd: 0 HugePages_Surp: 0 Hugepagesize: 2048 kB DirectMap4k: 524696 kB DirectMap2M: 0 kB top, htop, free -m, and byobu's RAM monitor all report the same amount. At first I thought this was because of the onboard graphics borrowing some memory, but have now switched to a dedicated GPU and it persists. Is this normal behavior, or has something gone amiss? It's just about 100MB of RAM that's "gone", and I have no idea where it went. I understand that it's normal that not all RAM is available for allocation, but does the system really take an amount relatively high to the amount of RAM available?

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• UIAlertViewDelegate method didDismissWithButtonIndex gets called while the phone is sleeping/locked.

  - by Rob

  I have a UIAlertView who's didDismissWithButtonIndex delegate method calls pops the view controller (same class, it's the alertview delegate and the viewcontroller) to return the user to the previous screen. The issue is that when you lock the phone before the [alert show]; is called, something is calling didDismissWithButtonIndex while the phone is locked. Since the response to that is to pop the view controller, which releases and deallocs it, I crash on the callback. What is causing this phantom button press? Seems like a framework bug, but I hate jumping to that conclusion. I'm definitely not hitting the button, because I hit a breakpoint in my code right before it's displayed. Then I lock the phone. Then I continue. I see it do the show, return to the event loop, and then, while the phone is still locked, hit my breakpoint in didDismissWithButtonIndex. There are a few internet/forum postings about similar spurious delegate calls, but no concrete answers. This is on the simulator, and the device, both OS 2.2 and OS 3.0. I'm assuming I'm missing something, but what? Update: Yeah, I created a simple project with just two view controllers, where when the 2nd view controller displays it creates the alert, and shows it. Then I NSLog in the delegate method, and when the phone is locked, it fires once while locked, and then again when it's unlocked and the button is clicked...2 log messages. But when not locked, there's only one. I guess I'll open an issue, but it seems awfully obvious to have survived this long without anyone complaining. :-) I'm going to try and work around it by making an isActive flag value when the willResignActive/didBecomeActive notifications arrive, and if the app isn't active skipping the delegate body. Update I went ahead in July after I posted this and created radar 7097363 for this issue. There's been no response. The workaround in practice works quite well, checking the active status when processing the delegate, and skipping the action if the the app is inactive.

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