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  • How do I get javascript-generated image maps to work with internet explorer?

    - by schwerwolf
    I'm using javascript to generate a high resolution grid for an image that I generated on a web server. The high-resolution grid is composed of a 'map' element with hundreds of 'area' child elements. Each 'area' element has onmouseover attribute that causes the display of a popup box. After assigning the map to the img (via the usemap attribute), Internet explorer ignores the 'onmouseover' attribute of the area elements that I added via javascript. The behavior is not caused by syntactical variations between IE and other browsers. A static map behaves correctly. Only the elements that I add dynamically to an existing image map fail to fire their corresponding mouse-over events. How can I get IE to fire the mouse-over event for the added 'area' elements? function generate_image_map ( img ) { var tile_width = 8; var tile_height = 10; var plotarea_left = 40; var plotarea_top = 45; var column_count = 100; var row_count = 120; var img_id = YAHOO.util.Dom.getAttribute(img, "id"); var img_map_id = YAHOO.util.Dom.getAttribute(img, "usemap"); var original_map = YAHOO.util.Selector.query(img_map_id)[0]; var area_nodes = YAHOO.util.Selector.query("area", original_map); var last_node = area_nodes[area_nodes.length - 1]; for (var y = 0; y < row_count; y++) { var top = Math.round(plotarea_top + (y * tile_height)); var bottom = Math.round(plotarea_top + (y * tile_height) + tile_height); for (var x = 0; x < column_count; x++) { var left = Math.round(plotarea_left + (x * tile_width)); var right = Math.round(plotarea_left + (x * tile_width) + tile_width); var area = document.createElement("area"); YAHOO.util.Dom.setAttribute(area, "shape", "rect"); YAHOO.util.Dom.setAttribute(area, "onmouseover", "alert('This does not appear in IE')" ); var coords = [ left, top, right, bottom ]; YAHOO.util.Dom.setAttribute(area, "coords", coords.join(",")); YAHOO.util.Dom.insertBefore(area, last_node); } } }

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  • Perl - Calling subclass constructor from superclass (OO)

    - by Emmel
    This may turn out to be an embarrassingly stupid question, but better than potentially creating embarrassingly stupid code. :-) This is an OO design question, really. Let's say I have an object class 'Foos' that represents a set of dynamic configuration elements, which are obtained by querying a command on disk, 'mycrazyfoos -getconfig'. Let's say that there are two categories of behavior that I want 'Foos' objects to have: Existing ones: one is, query ones that exist in the command output I just mentioned (/usr/bin/mycrazyfoos -getconfig`. Make modifications to existing ones via shelling out commands. Create new ones that don't exist; new 'crazyfoos', using a complex set of /usr/bin/mycrazyfoos commands and parameters. Here I'm not really just querying, but actually running a bunch of system() commands. Affecting changes. Here's my class structure: Foos.pm package Foos, which has a new($hashref-{name = 'myfooname',) constructor that takes a 'crazyfoo NAME' and then queries the existence of that NAME to see if it already exists (by shelling out and running the mycrazyfoos command above). If that crazyfoo already exists, return a Foos::Existing object. Any changes to this object requires shelling out, running commands and getting confirmation that everything ran okay. If this is the way to go, then the new() constructor needs to have a test to see which subclass constructor to use (if that even makes sense in this context). Here are the subclasses: Foos/Existing.pm As mentioned above, this is for when a Foos object already exists. Foos/Pending.pm This is an object that will be created if, in the above, the 'crazyfoo NAME' doesn't actually exist. In this case, the new() constructor above will be checked for additional parameters, and it will go ahead and, when called using -create() shell out using system() and create a new object... possibly returning an 'Existing' one... OR As I type this out, I am realizing it is perhaps it's better to have a single: (an alternative arrangement) Foos class, that has a -new() that takes just a name -create() that takes additional creation parameters -delete(), -change() and other params that affect ones that exist; that will have to just be checked dynamically. So here we are, two main directions to go with this. I'm curious which would be the more intelligent way to go.

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  • MFC: Reading entire file to buffer...

    - by deostroll
    I've meddled with some code but I am unable to read the entire file properly...a lot of junk gets appended to the output. How do I fix this? // wmfParser.cpp : Defines the entry point for the console application. // #include "stdafx.h" #include "wmfParser.h" #include <cstring> #ifdef _DEBUG #define new DEBUG_NEW #endif // The one and only application object CWinApp theApp; using namespace std; int _tmain(int argc, TCHAR* argv[], TCHAR* envp[]) { int nRetCode = 0; // initialize MFC and print and error on failure if (!AfxWinInit(::GetModuleHandle(NULL), NULL, ::GetCommandLine(), 0)) { // TODO: change error code to suit your needs _tprintf(_T("Fatal Error: MFC initialization failed\n")); nRetCode = 1; } else { // TODO: code your application's behavior here. CFile file; CFileException exp; if( !file.Open( _T("c:\\sample.txt"), CFile::modeRead, &exp ) ){ exp.ReportError(); cout<<'\n'; cout<<"Aborting..."; system("pause"); return 0; } ULONGLONG dwLength = file.GetLength(); cout<<"Length of file to read = " << dwLength << '\n'; /* BYTE* buffer; buffer=(BYTE*)calloc(dwLength, sizeof(BYTE)); file.Read(buffer, 25); char* str = (char*)buffer; cout<<"length of string : " << strlen(str) << '\n'; cout<<"string from file: " << str << '\n'; */ char str[100]; file.Read(str, sizeof(str)); cout << "Data : " << str <<'\n'; file.Close(); cout<<"File was closed\n"; //AfxMessageBox(_T("This is a test message box")); system("pause"); } return nRetCode; }

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  • SQL Invalid Object Name 'AddressType'

    - by salvationishere
    I am getting the above error in my VS 2008 C# method when I try to invoke the SQL getColumnNames stored procedure from VS. This SP accepts one input parameter, the table name, and works successfully from SSMS. Currently I am selecting the AdventureWorks AddressType table for it to pull the column names from this table. I can see teh AdventureWorks table available in VS from my Server Explorer / Data Connection. And I see both the AddressType table and getColumnNames SP showing in Server Explorer. But I am still getting this error listed above. Here is the C# code snippet I use to execute this: public static DataTable DisplayTableColumns(string tt) { SqlDataReader dr = null; string TableName = tt; string connString = "Data Source=.;AttachDbFilename=\"C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.MSSQLSERVER\MSSQL\DATA\AdventureWorks_Data.mdf\";Initial Catalog=AdventureWorks;Integrated Security=True;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=False"; string errorMsg; SqlConnection conn2 = new SqlConnection(connString); SqlCommand cmd = conn2.CreateCommand(); try { cmd.CommandText = "dbo.getColumnNames"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Connection = conn2; SqlParameter parm = new SqlParameter("@TableName", SqlDbType.VarChar); parm.Value = TableName; parm.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; cmd.Parameters.Add(parm); conn2.Open(); dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); } catch (Exception ex) { errorMsg = ex.Message; } And when I examine the errorMsg it says the following: " at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.ConsumeMetaData()\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.get_MetaData()\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.FinishExecuteReader(SqlDataReader ds, RunBehavior runBehavior, String resetOptionsString)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReaderTds(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, Boolean async)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method, DbAsyncResult result)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior, String method)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader()\r\n at ADONET_namespace.ADONET_methods.DisplayTableColumns(String tt) in C:\Documents and Settings\Admin\My Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\AddFileToSQL\AddFileToSQL\ADONET methods.cs:line 35" Where line 35 is dr = cmd.ExecuteReader();

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  • HTML-like GUI Framework in Java

    - by wintermute
    I was recently brought onto a project where we are developing a lot GUI elements for BlackBerry devices. The standard RIM APIs are pretty basic, almost never do what is required and are difficult or impossible to extend, so we end up re-implementing chunks of it. Currently the code we have isn't super organized and factored so there are lots of little tricks that get implemented over and over again. I had a thought about how to aid development efforts on this platform and wanted to see if the community could tell me if I'm still sane or if I've gone totally nuts. By far, the biggest organizational problem I've run into is making sure that each screen is laid out properly with proper padding and such. The current approach is to manually keep track of padding like so: protected void sublayout(int width, int height) { final int padding = 5; int y = padding; int x = padding; layoutChild(_someChild, width - padding * 2, height / 3 - padding * 2); setPositionChild(_someChild, x, y); y += _someChild.getHeight() + padding; // Calculate where to start drawing next. /* ... snipped ... */ } As you can see, positioning elements on a screen is a nightmare due to the tedium. I have investigated other GUI frameworks but, for a variety of reasons, it is difficult to find one that suites our purposes. One potential solution that came to me is to create a GUI framework who's API resembles HTML/CSS. This would allow for things like padding, margins, borders and colours to be handled through a sort of CSS API while the content would be organized using the HTML part of the API. It might look something like this: public class OptionsScreen extends Document { public OptionsScreen() { // You would set the style (like CSS style) through the constructor. Div content = new Div(new Style(new Padding(5), Color.BLACK)); // Then build up a tree of elements which can each have their own style's. // Each element knows how to draw itself, but it doesn't have to worry about // manually handling things like padding. // content.addChild(new P("This is a paragraph", new Style(new Padding(), Color.RED))); Ul list = new Ul(); list.addChild(new Li("item 1")); list.addChild(new Li("item 2")); content.addChild(list); addChild(content); } } I can imagine this making it easier to customize the UI of our app (which is very important) with different fonts, colours and layouts. Does this idea belong on The Daily WTF or do you think there is some promise?

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  • Wordpress pages address rewrite

    - by kemp
    UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

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  • Why do sockets not die when server dies? Why does a socket die when server is alive?

    - by Roman
    I try to play with sockets a bit. For that I wrote very simple "client" and "server" applications. Client: import java.net.*; public class client { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { InetAddress localhost = InetAddress.getLocalHost(); System.out.println("before"); Socket clientSideSocket = null; try { clientSideSocket = new Socket(localhost,12345,localhost,54321); } catch (ConnectException e) { System.out.println("Connection Refused"); } System.out.println("after"); if (clientSideSocket != null) { clientSideSocket.close(); } } } Server: import java.net.*; public class server { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { ServerSocket listener = new ServerSocket(12345); while (true) { Socket serverSideSocket = listener.accept(); System.out.println("A client-request is accepted."); } } } And I found a behavior that I cannot explain: I start a server, than I start a client. Connection is successfully established (client stops running and server is running). Then I close the server and start it again in a second. After that I start a client and it writes "Connection Refused". It seems to me that the server "remember" the old connection and does not want to open the second connection twice. But I do not understand how it is possible. Because I killed the previous server and started a new one! I do not start the server immediately after the previous one was killed (I wait like 20 seconds). In this case the server "forget" the socket from the previous server and accepts the request from the client. I start the server and then I start the client. Connection is established (server writes: "A client-request is accepted"). Then I wait a minute and start the client again. And server (which was running the whole time) accept the request again! Why? The server should not accept the request from the same client-IP and client-port but it does!

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  • Mixing .NET versions between website and virtual directories and the "server application unavailable" error Message

    - by Doug Chamberlain
    Backstory Last month our development team created a new asp.net 3.5 application to place out on our production website. Once we had the work completed, we requested from the group that manages are server to copy the app out to our production site, and configure the virtual directory as a new application. On 12/27/2010, two public 'Gineau Pigs' were selected to use the app, and it worked great. On 12/30/2010, We received notification by internal staff, that when that staff member tried to access the application (this was the Business Process Owner) they recieved the 'Server Application Unavailable' message. When I called the group that does our server support, I was told that it probably failed, because I didn't close the connections in my code. However, the same group went in and then created a separate app pool for this Extension Request application. It has had no issues since. I did a little googling, since I do not like being blamed for things. I found that the 'Server Application Unavailable' message will also appear when you have multiple applications using different frameworks and you do not put them in different application pools. Technical Details - Tree of our website structure Main Website <-- ASP Classic +-Virtual Directory(ExtensionRequest) <-- ASP 3.5 From our server support group: 'Reviewed server logs and website setup in IIS. Had to reset the application pool as it was not working properly. This corrected the website and it is now back online. We went ahead and created a application pool for the extension web so it is isolated from the main site pool. In the past we have seen other application do this when there is a connection being left open and the pool fills up. Would recommend reviewing site code to make sure no connections are being left open.' The Real Question: What really caused the failure? Isn't the connection being left open issue an ASP Classic issue? Wouldn't the ExtensionRequest application have to be used (more than twice) in the first place to have the connections left open? Is it more likely the failure is caused by them not bothering to setup the new Application in it's own App Pool in the first place? Sorry for the long windedness

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  • KnockoutJS radio buttons not changing like checkboxes do

    - by Gaui
    I have the same data structure for checkboxes and radio buttons. When checking the checkboxes, they return correct boolean value ('chosen' variable). However, when I check the radio buttons, 'chosen' always changes to the 'value' (integer). Also the radio buttons don't get "checked" in the beginning, even though 'chosen' == true Javascript: function attributeValueViewModel(data) { var self = this; self.id = ko.observable(data.id); self.attributeID = ko.observable(data.attributeID); self.value = ko.observable(data.value); self.chosen = ko.observable(data.chosen); } function viewModel() { var self = this; self.attributeValues1 = ko.observableArray([]); self.attributeValues2 = ko.observableArray([]); self.addToList = function(data) { ko.utils.arrayForEach(data, function(item) { self.attributeValues1.push(new attributeValueViewModel(item)); self.attributeValues2.push(new attributeValueViewModel(item)); }); }; } var arr = [ { "id": 55, "attributeID": 28, "value": "Yes", "chosen": false, }, { "id": 56, "attributeID": 28, "value": "No", "chosen": true, }, { "id": 62, "attributeID": 28, "value": "Maybe", "chosen": false, } ]; var vm = new viewModel(); ko.applyBindings(vm); vm.addToList(arr); HTML <b>Checkbox:</b> <div id="test1"> <span data-bind="foreach: attributeValues1()"> <input type="checkbox" data-bind="value: id(), checked: chosen, attr: { name: 'test1' }" /> <span data-bind="text: value()"></span> <span data-bind="text: chosen()"></span> </span> </div> <br /> <b>Radio:</b> <div id="test2"> <span data-bind="foreach: attributeValues2()"> <input type="radio" data-bind="value: id(), checked: chosen, attr: { name: 'test2' }" /> <span data-bind="text: value()"></span> <span data-bind="text: chosen()"></span> </span> </div>? Here is my fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/SN7Vn/1/ Can you please explain this behavior and why the radio buttons don't update boolean (like checkboxes do)?

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  • casting doubles to integers in order to gain speed

    - by antirez
    Hello all, in Redis (http://code.google.com/p/redis) there are scores associated to elements, in order to take this elements sorted. This scores are doubles, even if many users actually sort by integers (for instance unix times). When the database is saved we need to write this doubles ok disk. This is what is used currently: snprintf((char*)buf+1,sizeof(buf)-1,"%.17g",val); Additionally infinity and not-a-number conditions are checked in order to also represent this in the final database file. Unfortunately converting a double into the string representation is pretty slow. While we have a function in Redis that converts an integer into a string representation in a much faster way. So my idea was to check if a double could be casted into an integer without lost of data, and then using the function to turn the integer into a string if this is true. For this to provide a good speedup of course the test for integer "equivalence" must be fast. So I used a trick that is probably undefined behavior but that worked very well in practice. Something like that: double x = ... some value ... if (x == (double)((long long)x)) use_the_fast_integer_function((long long)x); else use_the_slow_snprintf(x); In my reasoning the double casting above converts the double into a long, and then back into an integer. If the range fits, and there is no decimal part, the number will survive the conversion and will be exactly the same as the initial number. As I wanted to make sure this will not break things in some system, I joined #c on freenode and I got a lot of insults ;) So I'm now trying here. Is there a standard way to do what I'm trying to do without going outside ANSI C? Otherwise, is the above code supposed to work in all the Posix systems that currently Redis targets? That is, archs where Linux / Mac OS X / *BSD / Solaris are running nowaday? What I can add in order to make the code saner is an explicit check for the range of the double before trying the cast at all. Thank you for any help.

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  • Programmatically created GridView cells don't scale to fit screen

    - by ChrisAshton84
    I've read a ton of other responses about GridView already but almost all deal with the XML format (which I had working). I wanted to learn the programmatic way of designing Android, though, so I'm trying to build most of this app without XML. All I define in XML are the GridView and the first TextView. After that I add the other LinearLayouts in onCreate(). I would like to have a 2 column GridView containing a title and several (4 for now) LinearLayouts. I realize from documentation that the GridView won't scale cells unless they have a gravity set, but no matter how I try to do this I can't get it to work. After adding two cells, my GridView tree would look like: GridView -> TextView (colspan 2) -> LinearLayout (Vertical) -> TextView -> LinearLayout (Horizontal) -> TextView -> TextView -> LinearLayout (Horizontal) -> TextView -> TextView -> LinearLayout (Vertical) -> TextView -> LinearLayout (Horizontal) -> TextView -> TextView -> LinearLayout (Horizontal) -> TextView -> TextView I've tried about every combination of FILL and FILL_HORIZONTAL I could think of on either the outermost LinearLayouts, or also trying on the TextViews and inner LinearLayouts. No matter what I do, the LinearLayouts I add are always sized as small as possible and pushed to the left of the screen. Meanwhile, the first TextView (the colspan 2 one) with only CENTER_HORIZONTAL set is correctly centered in the screen. Its as if that TextView gets one idea of the column widths and the LinearLayouts get another! (If I add the FILL Gravity for it, it also moves all the way left.) I believe I had this working accidentally with 100% XML, but I would prefer not to switch back unless this is known to not work programatically. Any ideas what I can try to get this working?

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  • cellForRowAtIndexPath called too late

    - by Mihai Fonoage
    Hi, I am trying to re-load a table every time some data I get from the web is available. This is what I have: SearchDataViewController: - (void)parseDatatXML { parsingDelegate = [[XMLParsingDelegate alloc] init]; parsingDelegate.searchDataController = self; // CONTAINS THE TABLE THAT NEEDS RE-LOADING; ImplementedSearchViewController *searchController = [[ImplementedSearchViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ImplementedSearchView" bundle:nil]; ProjectAppDelegate *delegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; UINavigationController *nav = (UINavigationController *)[delegate.splitViewController.viewControllers objectAtIndex: 0]; NSArray *viewControllers = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:nav, searchController, nil]; self.splitViewController.viewControllers = viewControllers; [viewControllers release]; // PASS A REFERENCE TO THE PARSING DELEGATE SO THAT IT CAN CALL reloadData on the table parsingDelegate.searchViewController = searchController; [searchController release]; // Build the url request used to fetch data ... NSURLRequest *dataURLRequest = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:dataURL]]; parsingDelegate.feedConnection = [[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:dataURLRequest delegate:parsingDelegate] autorelease]; } ImplementedSearchViewController: - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { NSLog(@"count = %d", [keys count]); // keys IS A NSMutableArray return [self.keys count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { ... cell.textLabel.text = [keys objectAtIndex:row]; ... } XMLParsingDelgate: -(void) updateSearchTable:(NSArray *)array { ... [self.currentParseBatch addObject:(NSString *)[array objectAtIndex:1]]; // RELOAD TABLE [self.searchViewController.table reloadData]; } - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser didStartElement:(NSString *)elementName namespaceURI:(NSString *)namespaceURI qualifiedName:(NSString *)qualifiedName attributes:(NSDictionary *)attributeDict { if ([elementName isEqualToString:@"..."]) { self.currentParseBatch = [NSMutableArray array]; searchViewController.keys = self.currentParseBatch; ... } ... } - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser didEndElement:(NSString *)elementName namespaceURI:(NSString *)namespaceURI qualifiedName:(NSString *)qName { if ([elementName isEqualToString:@"..."]) { ... [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(updateSearchTable:) withObject:array waitUntilDone:NO]; } ... } My problem is that when I debug, the calls go between reloadData and numberOfRowsInSection until the keys array is filled with the last data, time at which the cellForRowAtIndexPath gets called. I wanted the table to be updated for each element I send, one by one, instead of just in the end. Any ideas why this behavior? Thank you!

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  • EXC_MEMORY_ACCESS when trying to delete from Core Data ($cash solution)

    - by llloydxmas
    I have an application that downloads an xml file, parses the file, and creates core data objects while doing so. In the parse code I have a function called 'emptydatacontext' that removes all items from Core Data before creating replacements items from the xml data. This method looks like this: -(void) emptyDataContext { NSFetchRequest * allCon = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [allCon setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Condition" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]]; NSError * error = nil; NSArray * conditions = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:allCon error:&error]; DebugLog(@"ERROR: %@",error); DebugLog(@"RETRIEVED: %@", conditions); [allCon release]; for (NSManagedObject * condition in conditions) { [managedObjectContext deleteObject:condition]; } // Update the data model effectivly removing the objects we removed above. //NSError *error; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { DebugLog(@"%@", [error domain]); } } The first time this runs it deletes all objects and functions as it should - creating new objects from the xml file. I created a 'update' button that starts the exact same process of retrieving the file the proceeding with the parse & build. All is well until its time to delete the core data objects. This 'deleteObject' call creates a "EXC_BAD_ACCESS" error each time. This only happens on the second time through. Captured errors return null. If I log the 'conditions' array I get a list of NSManagedObjects on the first run. On the second this log request causes a crash exactly as the deleteObject call does. I have a feeling it is something very simple I'm missing or not doing correctly to cause this behavior. The data works great on my tableviews - its only when trying to update I get the crashes. I have spent days & days on this trying numerous alternative methods. Whats left of my hair is falling out. I'd be willing to ante up some cash for anyone willing to look at my code and see what I'm doing wrong. Just need to get past this hurdle. Thanks in advance for the help!

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  • Urgent help needed on How to update NSMutableDictionary. My code doesn't work.

    - by dawatson833
    I've populated an array using. arrSettings = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[self settingsPath]]; The file is a plist with the root as an array and then a dictionary with three three keys defined as number. I've also tried setting the keys to string. I display the values in the plist file on a view using. diaper = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Diaper Expenses"]; oil = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Oil Used"]; tree = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Wood Used"]; This code works fine, the values in the dictionary are assigned to the variables and they are displayed. The user can make changes and then press a save button. I use this code to extract the dictionary part of the array so I can update it. The assignment to editDictionary works. I've double checked the key names including case and that is correct. editDictionary = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; editDictionary = [arrSettings objectAtIndex:0]; NSNumber *myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:diaperAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Diaper Expenses"]; myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:oilAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Oil Used"]; myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:treeAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Wood Used"]; In this example I've used a nsnumber. But I've also tried the xxxAmount field as part of SetValue instead of creating a NSNumber. Neither implementation works. Several strange things happen. Sometimes the first two setvalue statements work, but the last setvalue fails with a EXC_BAD_ACCESS failure. Other times the first setValue fails with the same error. I have no idea why the first two sometimes work. I'm at a loss of what to do next. I've tried several implentations and none of them work. Also, in the debugger how can I display the editDictionary elements. I can see editDictionary, but I don't know how to display the individual elements.

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  • jQuery action being called when selector isn't met?

    - by dougoftheabaci
    I've been working on a prototype for a client's web site and I've run into a rather significant snag. You can view the prototype here. As you can see, the way it works is you can scroll a set of slides horizontally and, by clicking one, open a stack containing yet more slides. If you then click again on an image in that stack it opens up a lightbox. Clicking on another stack or the close button will close that stack (and open another, as case may be). That all works great. However you get some weird behavior if you do the following: Click to open any stack. Click to open an image's light box (this works best if you click on the image that's level with the main list). Close the light box and the stack either by clicking the close button or clicking on another stack. Click back to the first stack. Instead of reopening the stack, you get the lightbox. This confuses me as the light box should only ever be called if there is a class on the containing UL and that class is removed when the lightbox is closed. I've checked and double-checked this, it's definitely missing. Here are the respective functions: $("ul.hide a.lightbox").live("click",function(){ $("ul.show").removeClass("show").addClass("hide"); $(this).parent().parent().removeClass("hide").addClass("show"); $("ul.hide").animate({opacity: 0.2}); $("ul.show").animate({opacity: 1}); $("#next").animate({opacity: 0.2}); $("#prev").animate({opacity: 0.2}); return false; }); $("ul.show a.lightbox").live("click",function(){ $(this).fancybox().trigger("click"); return false; }); As you can see, in order for the lightbox to be called the containing UL has to have the class of show. However, if you check it with Firebug it won't. For those who are curious, the added .trigger("click"); is because the lightbox will require a double-click to launch otherwise. Any idea how I can fix this?

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  • Generating Unordered List with PHP + CodeIgniter from a MySQL Database

    - by Tim
    Hello Everyone, I am trying to build a dynamically generated unordered list in the following format using PHP. I am using CodeIgniter but it can just be normal php. This is the end output I need to achieve. <ul id="categories" class="menu"> <li rel="1"> Arts &amp; Humanities <ul> <li rel="2"> Photography <ul> <li rel="3"> 3D </li> <li rel="4"> Digital </li> </ul> </li> <li rel="5"> History </li> <li rel="6"> Literature </li> </ul> </li> <li rel="7"> Business &amp; Economy </li> <li rel="8"> Computers &amp; Internet </li> <li rel="9"> Education </li> <li rel="11"> Entertainment <ul> <li rel="12"> Movies </li> <li rel="13"> TV Shows </li> <li rel="14"> Music </li> <li rel="15"> Humor </li> </ul> </li> <li rel="10"> Health </li> And here is my SQL that I have to work with. -- -- Table structure for table `categories` -- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `categories` ( `id` mediumint(8) NOT NULL auto_increment, `dd_id` mediumint(8) NOT NULL, `parent_id` mediumint(8) NOT NULL, `cat_name` varchar(256) NOT NULL, `cat_order` smallint(4) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=1 ; So I know that I am going to need at least 1 foreach loop to generate the first level of categories. What I don't know is how to iterate inside each loop and check for parents and do that in a dynamic way so that there could be an endless tree of children. Thanks for any help you can offer. Tim

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  • ZF-Autoloader not working in UnitTests on Ubuntu

    - by Sam
    i got a problem regarding Unit-testing a Zend-Framework application under Ubuntu 12.04. The project-structure is a default zend application whereas the models are defined as the following ./application ./models ./DbTable ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_DbTable_ProjectStatus) ./Mappers ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_Mapper_ProjectStatus) ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_ProjectStatus) The Problem here is with the Zend-specific autoloading. The naming convention here appears that the folder Mappers loads all classes with _Mapper but not _Mappers. This is some internal Zend behavior which is fine so far. On my windows machine the phpunit runs without any Problems, trying to initiate all those classes. On my Ubuntu machine however with jenkins running on it, phpunit fails to find the appropriate classes giving me the following error Fatal error: Class 'Application_Model_Mapper_ProjectStatus' not found in /var/lib/jenkins/jobs/PAM/workspace/tests/application/models/Mapper/ProjectStatusTest.php on line 39 The error appears to really be that the Zend-Autoloader doesn't load from the ubuntu machine, but i can't figure out how or why this works. The question remains of why this is. I think i've double checked every point of contact with the zend autoloading stuff, but i just can't figure this out. I'll paste the - from my point of view relevant snippets - and hope someone of you has any insight to this. Jenkins Snippet for PHPUnit <target name="phpunit" description="Run unit tests with PHPUnit"> <exec executable="phpunit" failonerror="true"> <arg line="--configuration '${basedir}/tests/phpunit.xml' --coverage-clover '${basedir}/build/logs/clover.xml' --coverage-html '${basedir}/build/coverage/.' --log-junit '${basedir}/build/logs/junit.xml'" /> </exec> </target> ./tests/phpunit.xml <phpunit bootstrap="./bootstrap.php"> ... this shouldn't be of relevance ... </phpunit> ./tests/bootstrap.php <?php // Define path to application directory defined('APPLICATION_PATH') || define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__) . '/../application')); // Define application environment defined('APPLICATION_ENV') || define('APPLICATION_ENV', (getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') ? getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') : 'testing')); // Ensure library/ is on include_path set_include_path(implode(PATH_SEPARATOR, array( realpath(APPLICATION_PATH . '/../library'), get_include_path(), ))); require_once 'Zend/Loader/Autoloader.php'; Zend_Loader_Autoloader::getInstance(); Any help will be appreciated.

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  • Why oh why doesn't my asp.net treeview update?

    - by Brendan
    I'm using an ASP.net treeview on a page with a custom XmlDataSource. When the user clicks on a node of the tree, a detailsview pops up and edits a bunch of things about the underlying object. All this works properly, and the underlying object gets updated in my background object-management classes. Yay! However, my treeview just isn't updating the display. Either immediately (which i would like it to), or on full page re-load (which is the minimal useful level i need it to be at). Am i subclassing XmlDataSource poorly? I really don't know. Can anyone point me in a good direction? Thanks! The markup looks about like this (chaff removed): <data:DefinitionDataSource runat="server" ID="DefinitionTreeSource" RootDefinitionID="uri:1"></data:DefinitionDataSource> <asp:TreeView ID="TreeView" runat="server" DataSourceID="DefinitionTreeSource"> <DataBindings> <asp:TreeNodeBinding DataMember="definition" TextField="name" ValueField="id" /> </DataBindings> </asp:TreeView> <asp:DetailsView ID="DetailsView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateRows="False" DataKeyNames="Id" DataSourceID="DefinitionSource" DefaultMode="Edit"> <Fields> <asp:BoundField DataField="Name" HeaderText="Name" HeaderStyle-Wrap="false" SortExpression="Name" /> <asp:CommandField ShowCancelButton="False" ShowInsertButton="True" ShowEditButton="True" ButtonType="Button" /> </Fields> </asp:DetailsView> And the DefinitionTreeSource code looks like this: public class DefinitionDataSource : XmlDataSource { public string RootDefinitionID { get { if (ViewState["RootDefinitionID"] != null) return ViewState["RootDefinitionID"] as String; return null; } set { if (!Object.Equals(ViewState["RootDefinitionID"], value)) { ViewState["RootDefinitionID"] = value; DataBind(); } } } public DefinitionDataSource() { } public override void DataBind() { base.DataBind(); setData(); } private void setData() { String defXML = "<?xml version=\"1.0\" ?>"; Test.Management.TestManager.Definition root = Test.Management.TestManager.Definition.GetDefinitionById(RootDefinitionID); if (root != null) this.Data = defXML + root.ToXMLString(); else this.Data = defXML + "<definition id=\"null\" name=\"Set Root Node\" />"; } } }

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  • SQL Native Client 10 Performance miserable (due to server-side cursors)

    - by namezero
    we have an application that uses ODBC via CDatabase/CRecordset in MFC (VS2010). We have two backends implemented. MSSQL and MySQL. Now, when we use MSSQL (with the Native Client 10.0), retrieving records with SELECT is dramatically slow via slow links (VPN, for example). The MySQL ODBC driver does not exhibit this nasty behavior. For example: CRecordset r(&m_db); r.Open(CRecordset::snapshot, L"SELECT a.something, b.sthelse FROM TableA AS a LEFT JOIN TableB AS b ON a.ID=b.Ref"); r.MoveFirst(); while(!r.IsEOF()) { // Retrieve CString strData; crs.GetFieldValue(L"a.something", strData); crs.MoveNext(); } Now, with the MySQL driver, everything runs as it should. The query is returned, and everything is lightning fast. However, with the MSSQL Native Client, things slow down, because on every MoveNext(), the driver communicates with the server. I think it is due to server-side cursors, but I didn't find a way to disable them. I have tried using: ::SQLSetConnectAttr(m_db.m_hdbc, SQL_ATTR_ODBC_CURSORS, SQL_CUR_USE_ODBC, SQL_IS_INTEGER); But this didn't help either. There are still long-running exec's to sp_cursorfetch() et al in SQL Profiler. I have also tried a small reference project with SQLAPI and bulk fetch, but that hangs in FetchNext() for a long time, too (even if there is only one record in the resultset). This however only happens on queries with LEFT JOINS, table-valued functions, etc. Note that the query doesn't take that long - executing the same SQL via SQL Studio over the same connection returns in a reasonable time. Question1: Is is possible to somehow get the native client to "cache" all results locally use local cursors in a similar fashion as the MySQL driver seems to do it? Maybe this is the wrong approach altogether, but I'm not sure how else to do this. All we want is to retrieve all data at once from a SELECT, then never talk the server again until the next query. We don't care about recordset updates, deletes, etc or any of that nonsense. We only want to retrieve data. We take that recordset, get all the data, and delete it. Question2: Is there a more efficient way to just retrieve data in MFC with ODBC?

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  • are C functions declared in <c____> headers guaranteed to be in the global namespace as well as std?

    - by Evan Teran
    So this is something that I've always wondered but was never quite sure about. So it is strictly a matter of curiosity, not a real problem. As far as I understand, what you do something like #include <cstdlib> everything (except macros of course) are declared in the std:: namespace. Every implementation that I've ever seen does this by doing something like the following: #include <stdlib.h> namespace std { using ::abort; // etc.... } Which of course has the effect of things being in both the global namespace and std. Is this behavior guaranteed? Or is it possible that an implementation could put these things in std but not in the global namespace? The only way I can think of to do that would be to have your libstdc++ implement every c function itself placing them in std directly instead of just including the existing libc headers (because there is no mechanism to remove something from a namespace). Which is of course a lot of effort with little to no benefit. The essence of my question is, is the following program strictly conforming and guaranteed to work? #include <cstdio> int main() { ::printf("hello world\n"); } EDIT: The closest I've found is this (17.4.1.2p4): Except as noted in clauses 18 through 27, the contents of each header cname shall be the same as that of the corresponding header name.h, as specified in ISO/IEC 9899:1990 Programming Languages C (Clause 7), or ISO/IEC:1990 Programming Languages—C AMENDMENT 1: C Integrity, (Clause 7), as appropriate, as if by inclusion. In the C + + Standard Library, however, the declarations and definitions (except for names which are defined as macros in C) are within namespace scope (3.3.5) of the namespace std. which to be honest I could interpret either way. "the contents of each header cname shall be the same as that of the corresponding header name.h, as specified in ISO/IEC 9899:1990 Programming Languages C" tells me that they may be required in the global namespace, but "In the C + + Standard Library, however, the declarations and definitions (except for names which are defined as macros in C) are within namespace scope (3.3.5) of the namespace std." says they are in std (but doesn't specify any other scoped they are in).

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  • Doing some stuff right before the user exits the page

    - by Mike
    I have seen some questions here regarding what I want to achieve and have based what I have so far on those answer. But there is a slight misbehavior that is still irritating me. What I have is sort of a recovery feature. Whenever you are typing text, the client sends a sync request to the server every 45 seconds. It does 2 things. First, it extends the lease the client has on the record (only one person may edit at one time) for another 60 seconds. Second, it sends the text typed so far to the server in case the server crashes, internet connection fails, etc. In that case, the next time the user enters our application, the user is notified that something has gone wrong and that some text was recovered. Think of Microsoft or OpenOffice recovery whenever they crash! Of course, if the user leaves the page willingly, the user does not need to be notified and as a result, the recovery is deleted. I do that final request via a beforeunload event. Everything went fine until I was asked to make a final adjustment... The same behavior you have here at stack overflow when you exit the editor... a confirm dialogue. This works so far, BUT, the confirm dialogue is shown twice. Here is the code. The event if (local.sync.autosave_textelement) { window.onbeforeunload = exitConfirm; } The function function exitConfirm() { var local = Core; if (confirm('blub?')) { local.sync.autosave_destroy = true; sync(false); return true; } else { return false; } }; Some problem irrelevant clarifications: Core is a global Object that contains a lot of variables that are used everywhere. sync makes an ajax request. The values are based on the values that the Core.sync object contains. The parameter determines if the call should be async (default) or sync. Edit 1 I did try to separate both things (recovery deletion and user confirmation that is) into beforeunload and unload. The problem there was that unload is a bit too late. The user gets informed that there is a recovery even though it is scheduled to be deleted. If you refresh the page 1 second later, the dialogue disappears as the file was deleted by then.

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  • Why sockets does not die when server dies? Why socket dies when server is alive?

    - by Roman
    I try to play with sockets a bit. For that I wrote very simple "client" and "server" applications. Client: import java.net.*; public class client { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { InetAddress localhost = InetAddress.getLocalHost(); System.out.println("before"); Socket clientSideSocket = null; try { clientSideSocket = new Socket(localhost,12345,localhost,54321); } catch (ConnectException e) { System.out.println("Connection Refused"); } System.out.println("after"); if (clientSideSocket != null) { clientSideSocket.close(); } } } Server: import java.net.*; public class server { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { ServerSocket listener = new ServerSocket(12345); while (true) { Socket serverSideSocket = listener.accept(); System.out.println("A client-request is accepted."); } } } And I found a behavior that I cannot explain: I start a server, than I start a client. Connection is successfully established (client stops running and server is running). Then I close the server and start it again in a second. After that I start a client and it writes "Connection Refused". It seems to me that the server "remember" the old connection and does not want to open the second connection twice. But I do not understand how it is possible. Because I killed the previous server and started a new one! I do not start the server immediately after the previous one was killed (I wait like 20 seconds). In this case the server "forget" the socket from the previous server and accepts the request from the client. I start the server and then I start the client. Connection is established (server writes: "A client-request is accepted"). Then I wait a minute and start the client again. And server (which was running the whole time) accept the request again! Why? The server should not accept the request from the same client-IP and client-port but it does!

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  • General workflow to allow multiple OpenIDs to be associated with one app account

    - by BobTodd
    I have a (typical?) scenario: that my app's users can use multiple openids mapped to one app account (like stackoverflow). For me the unique thing on the account is the email address, so this binds openids to the profile. Question is, how to allow a user to start using a second openid once one is setup. I am asking as I have read that it is a security hole to allow automatic account openid syncing simply based on the provider-supplied email address as someone could easily spoof someone's email address to create a spoof openid and falsely access the account (how I am not sure) - although this seems to be exactly how stack operates. See options a. and b. below. Problem for me with a. is what happens if the original openid no longer works for whatever reason - how would you set-up a new openid? Would b. be more acceptable if we used email verification? Does anyone have an article detailing a "standard" way (set of user stories) for this - it seems to be an increasingly popular way to authenticate. I have tried to detail this in a rough decision tree... 1. My Site > authentication landing page - user chooses an openid (facebook, google, myopenid etc), redirection > 2. Provider site returns with token (includes user registering a new openid, logging in or is already logged in to Provider site) 3. My Site > use token id to lookup user 3.1 Profile exists? Yes > authenticate. ends. No > 3.1.1 was email address supplied by provider? Yes > lookup user by email address 3.1.1.1 Profile exists? Yes > a. error message - please login with existing openid and associate this openid (from special page) Yes > b. or associate this openid with existing profile automatically. authenticate. ends. No > Register profile. With registration email address follow 3.1.1, except this time where email is unique, we will associate openid. ends

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  • current_user.user_type_id = @employer ID

    - by sscirrus
    I am building a system with a User model (authenticated using AuthLogic) and three user types in three models: one of these models is Employer. Each of these three models has_many :users, :as = :authenticable. I start by having a new visitor to the site create their own 'User' record with username, password, which user type they are, etc. Upon creation, the user is sent to the 'new' action for one of the three models. So, if they tell us they are an employer, we redirect_to :controller = "employers, :action = "new". Question: When the employer has submitted, I want to set the current_user.user_type_id equal to the employer ID. This should be simple... but it's not working. # Employers Controller / new def new @employer = Employer.new 1.times {@employer.addresses.build} render :layout => 'forms' end # Employers Controller / create def create @employer = Employer.new(params[:employer]) if @employer.save if current_user.blank? redirect_to :controller => "users", :action => "new" else current_user.user_type_id = @employer.id current_user.user_type = "Employer" redirect_to :action => "home", :id => current_user.user_type_id end else render :action => "new" end end ------UPDATE------ Hi guys. In response: I am using this table structure because each of my three user type models have lots of different fields and each has different relationships to the other models, which is why I've avoided STI. By 1.times (@employer.addresses.build) I'm connecting the employer model to the address polymorphic table in one form, so I'm asking the controller to build a new address to go along with the new employer. Averell: you mentioned encapsulating... something in the model using a 'setter' method. I have no idea what you mean by this - could you please explain how this works (or direct me to an example elsewhere)? With tsdbrown's answer I have managed to create the behavior I want... if there's a more elegant way to accomplish the same thing I'd love to learn how. Thanks very much. Thanks to tsdbrown for answering the current_user.save problem!

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  • validate uniqueness amongst multiple subclasses with Single Table Inheritance

    - by irkenInvader
    I have a Card model that has many Sets and a Set model that has many Cards through a Membership model: class Card < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :memberships has_many :sets, :through => :memberships end class Membership < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :card belongs_to :set validates_uniqueness_of :card_id, :scope => :set_id end class Set < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships validates_presence_of :cards end I also have some sub-classes of the above using Single Table Inheritance: class FooCard < Card end class BarCard < Card end and class Expansion < Set end class GameSet < Set validates_size_of :cards, :is => 10 end All of the above is working as I intend. What I'm trying to figure out is how to validate that a Card can only belong to a single Expansion. I want the following to be invalid: some_cards = FooCard.all( :limit => 25 ) first_expansion = Expansion.new second_expansion = Expansion.new first_expansion.cards = some_cards second_expansion.cards = some_cards first_expansion.save # Valid second_expansion.save # **Should be invalid** However, GameSets should allow this behavior: other_cards = FooCard.all( :limit => 10 ) first_set = GameSet.new second_set = GameSet.new first_set.cards = other_cards # Valid second_set.cards = other_cards # Also valid I'm guessing that a validates_uniqueness_of call is needed somewhere, but I'm not sure where to put it. Any suggestions? UPDATE 1 I modified the Expansion class as sugested: class Expansion < Set validate :validates_uniqueness_of_cards def validates_uniqueness_of_cards membership = Membership.find( :first, :include => :set, :conditions => [ "card_id IN (?) AND sets.type = ?", self.cards.map(&:id), "Expansion" ] ) errors.add_to_base("a Card can only belong to a single Expansion") unless membership.nil? end end This works when creating initial expansions to validate that no current expansions contain the cards. However, this (falsely) invalidates future updates to the expansion with new cards. In other words: old_exp = Expansion.find(1) old_exp.card_ids # returns [1,2,3,4,5] new_exp = Expansion.new new_exp.card_ids = [6,7,8,9,10] new_exp.save # returns true new_exp.card_ids << [11,12] # no other Expansion contains these cards new_exp.valid? # returns false ... SHOULD be true

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