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  • ASP.NET Web Service - how to handle special characters in strings?

    - by Vlorg
    To show this fundamental issue in .NET and the reason for this question, I have written a simple test web service with one method (EditString), and a consumer console app that calls it. They are both standard web service/console applications created via File/New Project, etc., so I won't list the whole code - just the methods in question: Web method: [WebMethod] public string EditString(string s, bool useSpecial) { return s + (useSpecial ? ((char)19).ToString() : ""); } [You can see it simply returns the string s if useSpecial is false. If useSpecial is true, it returns s + char 19.] Console app: TestService.Service1 service = new SCTestConsumer.TestService.Service1(); string response1 = service.EditString("hello", false); Console.WriteLine(response1); string response2 = service.EditString("hello", true); // fails! Console.WriteLine(response2); [The second response fails, because the method returns hello + a special character (ascii code 19 for argument's sake).] The error is: There is an error in XML document (1, 287) Inner exception: "'', hexadecimal value 0x13, is an invalid character. Line 1, position 287." A few points worth mentioning: The web method itself WORKS FINE when browsing directly to the ASMX file (e.g. http://localhost:2065/service1.asmx), and running the method through this (with the same parameters as in the console application) - i.e. displays XML with the string hello + char 19. Checking the serialized XML in other ways shows the special character is being encoded properly (the SERVER SIDE seems to be ok which is GOOD) So it seems the CLIENT SIDE has the issue - i.e. the .NET generated proxy class code doesn't handle special characters This is part of a bigger project where objects are passed in and out of the web methods - that contain string attributes - these are what need to work properly. i.e. we're de/serializing classes. Any suggestions for a workaround and how to implement it? Or have I completely missed something really obvious!!? Thanks in advance... PS. I've not had much luck with getting it to use CDATA tags (does .NET support these out of the box?).

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  • Uses of a C++ Arithmetic Promotion Header

    - by OlduvaiHand
    I've been playing around with a set of templates for determining the correct promotion type given two primitive types in C++. The idea is that if you define a custom numeric template, you could use these to determine the return type of, say, the operator+ function based on the class passed to the templates. For example: // Custom numeric class template <class T> struct Complex { Complex(T real, T imag) : r(real), i(imag) {} T r, i; // Other implementation stuff }; // Generic arithmetic promotion template template <class T, class U> struct ArithmeticPromotion { typedef typename X type; // I realize this is incorrect, but the point is it would // figure out what X would be via trait testing, etc }; // Specialization of arithmetic promotion template template <> class ArithmeticPromotion<long long, unsigned long> { typedef typename unsigned long long type; } // Arithmetic promotion template actually being used template <class T, class U> Complex<typename ArithmeticPromotion<T, U>::type> operator+ (Complex<T>& lhs, Complex<U>& rhs) { return Complex<typename ArithmeticPromotion<T, U>::type>(lhs.r + rhs.r, lhs.i + rhs.i); } If you use these promotion templates, you can more or less treat your user defined types as if they're primitives with the same promotion rules being applied to them. So, I guess the question I have is would this be something that could be useful? And if so, what sorts of common tasks would you want templated out for ease of use? I'm working on the assumption that just having the promotion templates alone would be insufficient for practical adoption. Incidentally, Boost has something similar in its math/tools/promotion header, but it's really more for getting values ready to be passed to the standard C math functions (that expect either 2 ints or 2 doubles) and bypasses all of the integral types. Is something that simple preferable to having complete control over how your objects are being converted? TL;DR: What sorts of helper templates would you expect to find in an arithmetic promotion header beyond the machinery that does the promotion itself?

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  • Parse int to string with stringstream

    - by SoulBeaver
    Well! I feel really stupid for this question, and I wholly don't mind if I get downvoted for this, but I guess I wouldn't be posting this if I had not at least made an earnest attempt at looking for the solution. I'm currently working on Euler Problem 4, finding the largest palindromic number of two three-digit numbers [100..999]. As you might guess, I'm at the part where I have to work with the integer I made. I looked up a few sites and saw a few standards for converting an Int to a String, one of which included stringstream. So my code looked like this: // tempTotal is my int value I want converted. void toString( int tempTotal, string &str ) { ostringstream ss; // C++ Standard compliant method. ss << tempTotal; str = ss.str(); // Overwrite referenced value of given string. } and the function calling it was: else { toString( tempTotal, store ); cout << loop1 << " x " << loop2 << "= " << store << endl; } So far, so good. I can't really see an error in what I've written, but the output gives me the address to something. It stays constant, so I don't really know what the program is doing there. Secondly, I tried .ToString(), string.valueOf( tempTotal ), (string)tempTotal, or simply store = temptotal. All refused to work. When I simply tried doing an implicit cast with store = tempTotal, it didn't give me a value at all. When I tried checking output it literally printed nothing. I don't know if anything was copied into my string that simply isn't a printable character, or if the compiler just ignored it. I really don't know. So even though I feel this is a really, really lame question, I just have to ask: How do I convert that stupid integer to a string with the stringstream? The other tries are more or less irrelevant for me, I just really want to know why my stringstream solution isn't working.

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  • _heapwalk reports _HEAPBADNODE, causes breakpoint or loops endlessly

    - by Stefan Hubert
    I use _heapwalk to gather statistics about the Process' standard heap. Under certain circumstances i observe unexpected behaviours like: _HEAPBADNODE is returned some breakpoint is triggered inside _heapwalk, telling me the heap might got corrupted access violation inside _heapWalk. I saw different behaviours on different Computers. On one Windows XP 32 bit machine everything looked fine, whereas on two Windows XP 64 bit machines i saw the mentioned symptoms. I saw this behaviour only if LowFragmentationHeap was enabled. I played around a bit. I walked the heap several times right one after another inside my program. First time doing nothing in between the subsequent calls to _heapWalk (everything fine). Then again, this time doing some stuff (for gathering statistics) in between two subsequent calls to _heapWalk. Depending upon what I did there, I sometimes got the described symptoms. Here finally a question: What exactly is safe and what is not safe to do in between two subsequent calls to _heapWalk during a complete heap walk run? Naturally, i shall not manipulate the heap. Therefore i doublechecked that i don't call new and delete. However, my observation is that function calls with some parameter passing causes my heap walk run to fail already. I subsequently added function calls and increasing number of parameters passed to these. My feeling was two function calls with two paramters being passed did not work anymore. However I would like to know why. Any ideas why this does not happen on some machines? Any ideas why this only happens if LowFragmentationHeap is enabled? Sample Code finally: #include <malloc.h> void staticMethodB( int a, int b ) { } void staticMethodA( int a, int b, int c) { staticMethodB( 3, 6); return; } ... _HEAPINFO hinfo; hinfo._pentry = NULL; while( ( heapstatus = _heapwalk( &hinfo ) ) == _HEAPOK ) { //doing nothing here works fine //however if i call functions here with parameters, this causes //_HEAPBADNODE or something else staticMethodA( 3,4,5); } switch( heapstatus ) { ... case _HEAPBADNODE: assert( false ); /*ERROR - bad node in heap */ break; ...

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  • WinRT ControlTemplate ItemsPanel

    - by user1427149
    I'm new to WinRT and am trying to create a standard gridview which has a group heading with a number of tiles beneath it. That bit is easy. I'm trying to modify it so that beneath the grid of tiles I can also add a footer using the containers style: <GridView x:Name="itemGridView" AutomationProperties.AutomationId="ItemGridView" AutomationProperties.Name="Grouped Items" Margin="116,0,40,46" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource groupedItemsViewSource}}" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource Project200x200ItemTemplate}" SelectionMode="None" IsItemClickEnabled="True" ItemClick="ItemView_ItemClick"> <GridView.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <VirtualizingStackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"/> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </GridView.ItemsPanel> <GridView.GroupStyle> <GroupStyle> <GroupStyle.HeaderTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid Margin="1,0,0,6"> <Button AutomationProperties.Name="Group Title" Content="{Binding Name}" Click="Header_Click" Style="{StaticResource TextButtonStyle}" FontWeight="{Binding IsSelected, ConverterParameter=FontWeight, Converter={StaticResource BooleanToFontWeightConverter}}" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </GroupStyle.HeaderTemplate> <GroupStyle.Panel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <VariableSizedWrapGrid Background="Red" Orientation="Vertical" Margin="0,0,40,0" /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </GroupStyle.Panel> <GroupStyle.ContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="GroupItem"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate> <StackPanel> <ContentPresenter/> <ItemsPresenter/> <TextBlock Text="*** End of group ***"/> </StackPanel> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </GroupStyle.ContainerStyle> </GroupStyle> </GridView.GroupStyle> </GridView> This almost works but after adding the container style, the grid of tiles no longer shows... the group header and 'End of group' textblock is showing, but I've lost the tile grid. Can anyone spot what I'm doing wrong...?

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  • CSS rules not getting applied in JSPs ?

    - by lakshmanan
    Im building a web application using struts2. I have an authentication interceptor at the top of all the interceptors (I have set it up as such) which checks whether a user is logged in. If not, it will give a login page as result. In login page, I have some set of standard CSS rules which I use for all the JSPs in the app. But that login page coming via that interceptor is not getting applied with CSS rules. Don't know why. Here is my JSP login page. <%@ page language="java" contentType="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1" pageEncoding="ISO-8859-1"%> <%@ taglib prefix="s" uri="/struts-tags" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <link rel="stylesheet" href="styles/styles.css" type="text/css" /> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1"> <title>Projit Login </title> </head> <body> <div id="header"> <h1>Projit</h1> </div> <div id="col1"> <s:form action="/login.action"> <s:textfield name="some field" label="Enter somefield" /> <s:textfield name="username" label="Username" /> <s:password name="password" label="Password" /> <s:submit value="Sign In" /> </s:form> </div> <div id="col2"> <h3>Login</h3> </div> <div id="footer"> some footer </div> </body> </html> the css file is present in WebContent/styles/styles.css I am using eclipse for development. this problem of CSS rules not getting applied occurs at times for other jsps as well inspite of the CSS file being present in the correct location. I guess there must be some URL thing behind this problem. I have tried hard but it is not working till now. Please help.

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  • WCF Duplex Interaction with Web Server

    - by Mark Struzinski
    Here is my scenario, and it is causing us a considerable amount of grief at the moment: We have a vendor web service which provides base level telephony functionality. This service has a SOAP api, which we are leveraging to build up a custom UI that is integrated into our in house web apps. The api functions on 2 levels. You make standard client calls into the service to initiate actions, such as Login, Place Call, Hang Up, etc. On a different thread, the service sends events back to the client to alert the user of things that are occurring on the system (agent successfully logged in, call was disconnected, etc). I implemented a WCF service to sit between the web server and the vendor service. This WCF service operates in duplex mode, establishing a 2 way connection with the web server. The web server makes outbound calls to the WCF service, which routes them to the vendor's web service. Events are received back to the WCF service, which passes them onto the web server via a callback channel on the WCF client. As events are received on the web server, they are placed into a hash table with the user's name as the key, and a .NET queue as the value to hold the event. Each event is enqueued to the agent who owns it. On a 2 second interval, the web page polls the web server via an ajax request to get new events for the logged in user. It hits the hash table for the user key, dequeues any events that are present, and serializes them back up to the web page. From there, they are processed in order and appropriate messages are displayed to the user. This implementation performs well in a single user scenario. The second I put more than 1 user on the system, I start getting frequent timeouts with the following CommunicationException: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond We are running Windows Server 2008 R2 both servers. Both the web app and WCF service are running on .NET 3.5. The WCF service is running under the net.tcp protocol in duplex mode. The web app is ASP.NET MVC 2. Has anyone dealt with anything like this scenario? Is there a more efficient way (or a widely accepted pattern) to implement this?

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  • Can I append to a preprocessor macro?

    - by JCSalomon
    Is there any way in standard C—or with GNU extensions—to append stuff to a macro definition? E.g., given a macro defined as #define quux_list X(foo) X(bar) can I append X(bas) so that it now expands as if I’d defined it #define quux_list X(foo) X(bar) X(bas)? I’m playing with discriminated/tagged unions along these lines: struct quux_foo { int x; }; struct quux_bar { char *s; }; struct quux_bas { void *p; }; enum quux_type {quux_foo, quux_bar, quux_bas}; struct quux { enum quux_type type; union { struct quux_foo foo; struct quux_bar bar; struct quux_bas bas; } t; }; I figure this is a good place for the X-macro. If I define a macro #define quux_table X(foo) X(bar) X(bas) the enumeration & structure can be defined thus, and never get out of sync: #define X(t) quux_ ## t, enum quux_type {quux_table}; #undef X #define X(t) struct quux_ ## t t; struct quux { enum quux_type type; union {quux_table} t; }; #undef X Of course, the quux_* structures can get out of sync, so I’d like to do something like this, only legally: struct quux_foo { int x; }; #define quux_table quux_table X(foo) struct quux_bar { char *s; }; #define quux_table quux_table X(bar) struct quux_bas { void *p; }; #define quux_table quux_table X(bas) (Well, what I really want to be able to do is something like member_struct(quux, foo) { int x; }; but I’m well aware that macros cannot be (re)defined from within macros.) Anyhow, that’s my motivating example. Is there a way to accomplish this? Boost.Preprocessor examples are fine, if you can show me how to make the X-macro technique work with that library.

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  • A Python Wrapper for Shutterfly. Uploading an Image

    - by iJames
    I'm working on a Django app in which I want to order prints through Shutterfly's Open API: http://www.shutterfly.com/documentation/start.sfly So far I've been able to build the appropriate POSTs and GETs using the modules and suggested code snippets including httplib, httplib2, urllib, urllib2, mimetype, etc. But I'm stuck on the image uploading when placing an order (the ordering process is not the same process as uploading images to albums which I haven't tried.) From what I can tell, I'm supposed to basically create the multipart form data by concatenating the HTTP request body together with the binary data of the image. I take the strings: --myuniqueboundary1273149960.175.1 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="AuthenticationID" auniqueauthenticationid --myuniqueboundary1273149960.175.1 Content-Disposition: file; name="Image.Data"; filename="1_41_orig.jpg" Content-Type: image/jpeg and I put this data into it and end with the final boundary: ...\xb5|\xf88\x1dj\t@\xd9\'\x1f\xc6j\x88{\x8a\xc0\x18\x8eGaJG\x03\xe9J-\xd8\x96[\x91T\xc3\x0eTu\xf4\xaa\xa5Ty\x80\x01\x8c\x9f\xe9Z\xad\x8cg\xba# g\x18\xe2\xaa:\x829\x02\xb4["\x17Q\xe7\x801\xea?\xad7j\xfd\xa2\xdf\x81\xd2\x84D\xb6)\xa8\xcb\xc8O\\\x9a\xaf(\x1cqM\x98\x8d*\xb8\'h\xc8+\x8e:u\xaa\xf3*\x9b\x95\x05F8\xedN%\xcb\xe1B2\xa9~Tw\xedF\xc4\xfe\xe8\xfc\xa9\x983\xff\xd9... That ends up making it look like this (when I use print to debug): ... --myuniqueboundary1273149960.175.1 Content-Disposition: file; name="Image.Data"; filename="1_41_orig.jpg" Content-Type: image/jpeg ????q?ExifMM* ? ??(1?2?<??i?b?NIKON CORPORATIONNIKON D40HHQuickTime 7.62009:02:17 13:05:25Mac OS X 10.5.6%??????"?'??0220?????? ???? ? ?|_???,b???50??5 ... --myuniqueboundary1273149960.175.1-- My code for grabbing the binary data is pretty much this: filedata = open('myjpegfile.jpeg','rb').read() Which I then add to the rest of the body. I've see something like this code everywhere. I'm then using this to post the full request (with the headers too): response = urllib2.urlopen(request).read() This seems to me to be the standard way that form POSTS with files happens. Am I missing something here? At some point I might be able to make this into a library worth posting up on github, but this problem has stopped me cold in my tracks. Thanks for any insight!

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  • Purpose of Explicit Default Constructors

    - by Dennis Zickefoose
    I recently noticed a class in C++0x that calls for an explicit default constructor. However, I'm failing to come up with a scenario in which a default constructor can be called implicitly. It seems like a rather pointless specifier. I thought maybe it would disallow Class c; in favor of Class c = Class(); but that does not appear to be the case. Some relevant quotes from the C++0x FCD, since it is easier for me to navigate [similar text exists in C++03, if not in the same places] 12.3.1.3 [class.conv.ctor] A default constructor may be an explicit constructor; such a constructor will be used to perform default-initialization or value initialization (8.5). It goes on to provide an example of an explicit default constructor, but it simply mimics the example I provided above. 8.5.6 [decl.init] To default-initialize an object of type T means: — if T is a (possibly cv-qualified) class type (Clause 9), the default constructor for T is called (and the initialization is ill-formed if T has no accessible default constructor); 8.5.7 [decl.init] To value-initialize an object of type T means: — if T is a (possibly cv-qualified) class type (Clause 9) with a user-provided constructor (12.1), then the default constructor for T is called (and the initialization is ill-formed if T has no accessible default constructor); In both cases, the standard calls for the default constructor to be called. But that is what would happen if the default constructor were non-explicit. For completeness sake: 8.5.11 [decl.init] If no initializer is specified for an object, the object is default-initialized; From what I can tell, this just leaves conversion from no data. Which doesn't make sense. The best I can come up with would be the following: void function(Class c); int main() { function(); //implicitly convert from no parameter to a single parameter } But obviously that isn't the way C++ handles default arguments. What else is there that would make explicit Class(); behave differently from Class();? The specific example that generated this question was std::function [20.8.14.2 func.wrap.func]. It requires several converting constructors, none of which are marked explicit, but the default constructor is.

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  • ELMAH - Using custom error pages to collecting user feedback

    - by vdh_ant
    Hey guys I'm looking at using ELMAH for the first time but have a requirement that needs to be met that I'm not sure how to go about achieving... Basically, I am going to configure ELMAH to work under asp.net MVC and get it to log errors to the database when they occur. On top of this I be using customErrors to direct the user to a friendly message page when an error occurs. Fairly standard stuff... The requirement is that on this custom error page I have a form which enables to user to provide extra information if they wish. Now the problem arises due to the fact that at this point the error is already logged and I need to associate the loged error with the users feedback. Normally, if I was using my own custom implementation, after I log the error I would pass through the ID of the error to the custom error page so that an association can be made. But because of the way that ELMAH works, I don't think the same is quite possible. Hence I was wondering how people thought that one might go about doing this.... Cheers UPDATE: My solution to the problem is as follows: public class UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext : IUserCurrentConext { private const string _StoredExceptionName = "System.StoredException."; private const string _StoredExceptionIdName = "System.StoredExceptionId."; public virtual string UniqueAddress { get { return HttpContext.Current.Request.UserHostAddress; } } public Exception StoredException { get { return HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionName + this.UniqueAddress] as Exception; } set { HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionName + this.UniqueAddress] = value; } } public string StoredExceptionId { get { return HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionIdName + this.UniqueAddress] as string; } set { HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionIdName + this.UniqueAddress] = value; } } } Then when the error occurs, I have something like this in my Global.asax: public void ErrorLog_Logged(object sender, ErrorLoggedEventArgs args) { var item = new UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext(); item.StoredException = args.Entry.Error.Exception; item.StoredExceptionId = args.Entry.Id; } Then where ever you are later you can pull out the details by var item = new UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext(); var error = item.StoredException; var errorId = item.StoredExceptionId; item.StoredException = null; item.StoredExceptionId = null; Note this isn't 100% perfect as its possible for the same IP to have multiple requests to have errors at the same time. But the likely hood of that happening is remote. And this solution is independent of the session, which in our case is important, also some errors can cause sessions to be terminated, etc. Hence why this approach has worked nicely for us.

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  • NHibernate exception on query

    - by Yoav
    I'm getting a mapping exception doing the most basic query. This is my domain class: public class Project { public virtual string PK { get; set; } public virtual string Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } } And the mapping class: public class ProjectMap :ClassMap<Project> { public ProjectMap() { Table("PROJECTS"); Id(x => x.PK, "PK"); Map(x => x.Id, "ID"); Map(x => x.Name, "NAME"); Map(x => x.Description, "DESCRIPTION"); } } Configuration: public ISessionFactory SessionFactory { return Fluently.Configure() .Database(MsSqlCeConfiguration.Standard.ShowSql().ConnectionString(c => c.Is("data source=" + path))) .Mappings(m => m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<Project>()) .BuildSessionFactory(); } And query: IList project; using (ISession session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { IQuery query = session.CreateQuery("from Project"); project = query.List<Project>(); } I'm getting the exception on the query line: NHibernate.Hql.Ast.ANTLR.QuerySyntaxException: Project is not mapped [from Project] at NHibernate.Hql.Ast.ANTLR.SessionFactoryHelperExtensions.RequireClassPersister(String name) at NHibernate.Hql.Ast.ANTLR.Tree.FromElementFactory.AddFromElement() at NHibernate.Hql.Ast.ANTLR.Tree.FromClause.AddFromElement(String path, IASTNode alias) at NHibernate.Hql.Ast.ANTLR.HqlSqlWalker.fromElement() at NHibernate.Hql.Ast.ANTLR.HqlSqlWalker.fromElementList() at NHibernate.Hql.Ast.ANTLR.HqlSqlWalker.fromClause() at NHibernate.Hql.Ast.ANTLR.HqlSqlWalker.unionedQuery() at NHibernate.Hql.Ast.ANTLR.HqlSqlWalker.query() at NHibernate.Hql.Ast.ANTLR.HqlSqlWalker.selectStatement() at NHibernate.Hql.Ast.ANTLR.HqlSqlWalker.statement() at NHibernate.Hql.Ast.ANTLR.HqlSqlTranslator.Translate() at NHibernate.Hql.Ast.ANTLR.QueryTranslatorImpl.Analyze(HqlParseEngine parser, String collectionRole) at NHibernate.Hql.Ast.ANTLR.QueryTranslatorImpl.DoCompile(IDictionary`2 replacements, Boolean shallow, String collectionRole) at NHibernate.Hql.Ast.ANTLR.QueryTranslatorImpl.Compile(IDictionary`2 replacements, Boolean shallow) at NHibernate.Engine.Query.HQLQueryPlan..ctor(String hql, String collectionRole, Boolean shallow, IDictionary`2 enabledFilters, ISessionFactoryImplementor factory) at NHibernate.Engine.Query.QueryPlanCache.GetHQLQueryPlan(String queryString, Boolean shallow, IDictionary`2 enabledFilters) at NHibernate.Impl.AbstractSessionImpl.GetHQLQueryPlan(String query, Boolean shallow) at NHibernate.Impl.AbstractSessionImpl.CreateQuery(String queryString) I assume something is wrong with my query.

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  • Is ResourceBundle fallback resolution broken in Resin3x?

    - by LES2
    Given the following ResourceBundle properties files: messages.properties messages_en.properties messages_es.properties messages_{some locale}.properties Note: messages.properties contains all the messages for the default locale. messages_en.properties is really empty - it's just there for correctness. messages_en.properties will fall back to messages.properties! And given the following config params in web.xml: <context-param> <param-name>javax.servlet.jsp.jstl.fmt.localizationContext</param-name> <param-value>messages</param-value> </context-param> <context-param> <param-name>javax.servlet.jsp.jstl.fmt.fallbackLocale</param-name> <param-value>en</param-value> </context-param> I would expect that if the chosen locale is 'es', and a resource is not translated in 'es', then it would fall back to 'en', and finally to 'messages.properties' (since messages_en.properties is empty). This is how things work in Jetty. I've also tested this on WebSphere. Resin Is the Problem The problem is when I get to Resin (3.0.23). Fallback resolution does not work at all! In order to get an messages to display, I must do the following: Rename messages.properties to messages_en.properties (essentially, swap the contents of messages.properties and messages_en.properties) Make sure ever key in messages_en.properties is also defined in messages_{every other locale}.properties (even if the exact same). If I don't do this, I get "???some.key???" in the JSPs. Please help! This is perplexing. -- LES SOLUTION Add following to pom.xml (if you're using maven) ... <properties> <taglibs.version>1.1.2</taglibs.version> </properties> ... <!-- Resin ships with a crappy JSTL implementation that doesn't work with fallback locales for resource bundles correctly; we therefore include our own JSTL implementation in the WAR, and avoid this problem. This can be removed if the target container is not resin. --> <dependency> <groupId>taglibs</groupId> <artifactId>standard</artifactId> <version>${taglibs.version}</version> <scope>compile</scope> </dependency>

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  • How do I add a custom view to iPhone app's UI?

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm diving into iPad development and I'm still learning how everything works together. I understand how to add standard view (i.e. buttons, tableviews, datepicker, etc.) to my UI using both Xcode and Interface Builder, but now I'm trying to add a custom calendar control (TapkuLibrary) to the left window in my UISplitView application. My question is, if I have a custom view (in this case, the TKCalendarMonthView), how do I programmatically add it to one of the views in my UI (in this case, the RootViewController)? Below are some relevant code snippets from my project... RootViewController interface @interface RootViewController : UITableViewController <NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate> { DetailViewController *detailViewController; NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet DetailViewController *detailViewController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; - (void)insertNewObject:(id)sender; TKCalendarMonthView interface @class TKMonthGridView,TKCalendarDayView; @protocol TKCalendarMonthViewDelegate, TKCalendarMonthViewDataSource; @interface TKCalendarMonthView : UIView { id <TKCalendarMonthViewDelegate> delegate; id <TKCalendarMonthViewDataSource> dataSource; NSDate *currentMonth; NSDate *selectedMonth; NSMutableArray *deck; UIButton *left; NSString *monthYear; UIButton *right; UIImageView *shadow; UIScrollView *scrollView; } @property (readonly,nonatomic) NSString *monthYear; @property (readonly,nonatomic) NSDate *monthDate; @property (assign,nonatomic) id <TKCalendarMonthViewDataSource> dataSource; @property (assign,nonatomic) id <TKCalendarMonthViewDelegate> delegate; - (id) init; - (void) reload; - (void) selectDate:(NSDate *)date; Thanks in advance for all your help! I still have a ton to learn, so I apologize if the question is absurd in any way. I'm going to continue researching this question right now!

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  • Agilent E4426B signal generator locks up during multiple GPIB *SAV operations

    - by aspiehler
    I have a test fixture with an Agilent E4426B RF signal generator connected to a PC via a National Instrument Ethernet-to-GPIB bridge. My software is attempting to sanitize the instrument by presetting it and then saving the current state to all of the memory locations writable via the standard SCPI command "*SAV x,y". The loop works to a point, but eventually the instrument responds with an error and continuously displays the "L" icon on the front display and a "Remote preset" message at the bottom. At that point it won't respond to any more remote commands and I have to either cycle power or press LOCAL, then PRESET at which point it takes about 3 minutes to finish presetting. At that point the "L" icon is still present and and the next GPIB command sent to the instrument causes it to report a -113 error (undefined header) in the instrument error queue. I fired up NI spy to see what was happening, and found that the error was happening at the same point in the loop - "*SAV 6,2" in this case. From NI Spy: Send (0, 0x0017, "*SAV 6,2", 8 (0x8), NLend (0,0x01)) Process ID: 0x00000520 Thread ID: 0x00000518 ibsta:0xc168 iberr: 6 ibcntl: 2(0x2) And here's the code from the instrument driver: int CHP_E4426b::Erase() { if ((m_StatusCode = Initialize()) != GPIB_SUCCESS) // basically just sends "*RST" return m_StatusCode; m_SaveState = "*SAV %d, %d"; for (int i=0; i < 10; i++) for (int j=0; j < 100; j++) { sprintf(m_CmdString, m_SaveState, j, i); if ((m_StatusCode = Send(m_CmdString, strlen(m_CmdString))) != GPIB_SUCCESS) return m_StatusCode; } return GPIB_SUCCESS; } I tried putting a small Sleep() delay (10-20 ms) at the end of the inner loop, and to my surprise it caused the error to show up earlier rather than later. 10 ms caused the loop to error out at 44,1 and 20 ms was even sooner. I've already eliminated faulty cabling or the instrument as the culprit. This same type of sequence works without any error on a higher end signal generator, so I'm tempted to chalk this up to a bug in the instrument's firmware.

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  • mysql_connect() causes page to not display (WAMP)

    - by VOIDHand
    I currently have a website running MySQL and PHP in which this is all working. I've tried installing WAMPServer to be able to work on the site on my own computer, but I have been having issues trying to get the site to work correctly. HTML and PHP files work correctly (by going to http://localhost/index.php, etc.). But some of the pages display "This Webpage is not available" (in Chrome) or "Internet Explorer cannot display this webpage", which leads me to think there is an error is the server, as when the page doesn't exist, it typically dispays "Oops! This link appears to be broken" or IE's standard 404 page. Each page in my site has an include() call to set up an instance of a class to handle all database transactions. This class opens the connection to the database in its constructor. I have found commenting out the contents of the constructor will allow the page to load, although this understandably causes errors later in the page. This is the contents of the included file: class dbAccess { private $db; function __construct() { $this->db = mysql_connect("externalURL","user","password") or die ("Connection for database not found."); mysql_select_db("dbName", $this->db) or die ("Database not selected"); } ... } As a note for what's happening here. I'm attempting to use the database on my site, rather than the local machine. The actual values of externalURL, dbName, user, and password work when I plug them into my database software and the file fine of the site, so I don't think the issue is with those values themselves, but rather some setting with Apache or Wamp. The issue persists if I try a local database as well. This is an excerpt of my Apache error log for one attempt at logging into the site: [Wed Apr 14 15:32:54 2010] [notice] Parent: child process exited with status 255 -- Restarting. [Wed Apr 14 15:32:54 2010] [notice] Apache/2.2.11 (Win32) PHP/5.3.0 configured -- resuming normal operations [Wed Apr 14 15:32:54 2010] [notice] Server built: Dec 10 2008 00:10:06 [Wed Apr 14 15:32:54 2010] [notice] Parent: Created child process 1756 [Wed Apr 14 15:32:55 2010] [notice] Child 1756: Child process is running [Wed Apr 14 15:32:55 2010] [notice] Child 1756: Acquired the start mutex. [Wed Apr 14 15:32:55 2010] [notice] Child 1756: Starting 64 worker threads. [Wed Apr 14 15:32:55 2010] [notice] Child 1756: Starting thread to listen on port 80. For the first line, isLoggedIn (from the first line) is a method of the class above. Assuming that the connection works, this error should disappear. I've tried searching for solutions online, but haven't been able to find anything to help. If you need any further information to help solve this issue, feel free to ask for it. (One more note, I don't even have Skype on this computer, so I can't see it being an issue, as this conflict seems to be the default response for any Wamp issue.) [Edit: Removed entry from the error log as it was solved as an unrelated issue]

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  • Help choosing authentication method

    - by Dima
    I need to choose an authentication method for an application installed and integrated in customers environment. There are two types of environments - windows and linux/unix. Application is user based, no web stuff, pure Java. The requirement is to authenticate users which will use my application against customer provided user base. Meaning, customer installs my app, but uses his own users to grant or deny access to my app. Typical, right? I have three options to consider and I need to pick up the one which would be a) the most flexible to cover most common modern environments and b) would take least effort while stay robust and standard. Option (1) - Authenticate locally managing user credentials in some local storage, e.g. file. Customer would then add his users to my application and it will then check the passwords. Simple, clumsy but would work. Customers would have to punch every user they want to grant access to my app using some UI we will have to provide. Lots of work for me, headache to the customer. Option (2) - Use LDAP authentication. Customers would tell my app where to look for users and I will walk their directory resolving names into user names and trying to bind with found password. This is better approach IMO, but more fragile because I will have to walk an unknown directory structure and who knows if this will be permitted everywhere. Would be harder to test since there are many LDAP implementation out there, last thing I want is drowning in this voodoo. Option(3) - Use plain Kerberos authentication. Customers would tell my app what realm (domain) and which KDC (key distribution center) to use. In ideal world these two parameters would be all I need to set while customers could use their own administration tools to configure domain and kdc. My application would simply delegate user credentials to this third party (using JAAS or Spring security) and consider success when third party is happy with them. I personally prefer #3, but not sure what surprises I might face. Would this cover windows and *nix systems entirely? Is there another option to consider?

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  • What are the benefits of using ORM over XML Serialization/Deserialization?

    - by Tequila Jinx
    I've been reading about NHibernate and Microsoft's Entity Framework to perform Object Relational Mapping against my data access layer. I'm interested in the benefits of having an established framework to perform ORM, but I'm curious as to the performance costs of using it against standard XML Serialization and Deserialization. Right now, I develop stored procedures in Oracle and SQL Server that use XML Types for either input or output parameters and return or shred XML depending on need. I use a custom database command object that uses generics to deserialize the XML results into a specified serializable class. By using a combination of generics, xml (de)serialization and Microsoft's DAAB, I've got a process that's fairly simple to develop against regardless of the data source. Moreover, since I exclusively use Stored Procedures to perform database operations, I'm mostly protected from changes in the data structure. Here's an over-simplified example of what I've been doing. static void main() { testXmlClass test = new test(1); test.Name = "Foo"; test.Save(); } // Example Serializable Class ------------------------------------------------ [XmlRootAttribute("test")] class testXmlClass() { [XmlElement(Name="id")] public int ID {set; get;} [XmlElement(Name="name")] public string Name {set; get;} //create an instance of the class loaded with data. public testXmlClass(int id) { GenericDBProvider db = new GenericDBProvider(); this = db.ExecuteSerializable("myGetByIDProcedure"); } //save the class to the database... public Save() { GenericDBProvider db = new GenericDBProvider(); db.AddInParameter("myInputParameter", DbType.XML, this); db.ExecuteSerializableNonQuery("mySaveProcedure"); } } // Database Handler ---------------------------------------------------------- class GenericDBProvider { public T ExecuteSerializable<T>(string commandText) where T : class { XmlSerializer xml = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T)); // connection and command code is assumed for the purposes of this example. // the final results basically just come down to... return xml.Deserialize(commandResults) as T; } public void ExecuteSerializableNonQuery(string commandText) { // once again, connection and command code is assumed... // basically, just execute the command along with the specified // parameters which have been serialized. } public void AddInParameter(string name, DbType type, object value) { StringWriter w = new StringWriter(); XmlSerializer x = new XmlSerializer(value.GetType()); //handle serialization for serializable classes. if (type == DbType.Xml && (value.GetType() != typeof(System.String))) { x.Serialize(w, value); w.Close(); // store serialized object in a DbParameterCollection accessible // to my other methods. } else { //handle all other parameter types } } } I'm starting a new project which will rely heavily on database operations. I'm very curious to know whether my current practices will be sustainable in a high-traffic situation and whether or not I should consider switching to NHibernate or Microsoft's Entity Framework to perform what essentially seems to boil down to the same thing I'm currently doing. I appreciate any advice you may have.

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  • Advice for Architecture Design Logic for software application

    - by Prasad
    Hi, I have a framework of basic to complex set of objects/classes (C++) running into around 500. With some rules and regulations - all these objects can communicate with each other and hence can cover most of the common queries in the domain. My Dream: I want to provide these objects as icons/glyphs (as I learnt recently) on a workspace. All these objects can be dragged/dropped into the workspace. They have to communicate only through their methods(interface) and in addition to few iterative and conditional statements. All these objects are arranged finally to execute a protocol/workflow/dataflow/process. After drawing the flow, the user clicks the Execute/run button. All the user interaction should be multi-touch enabled. The best way to show my dream is : Jeff Han's Multitouch Video. consider Jeff is playing with my objects instead of the google maps. :-) it should be like playing a jigsaw puzzle. Objective: how can I achieve the following while working on this final product: a) the development should be flexible to enable provision for web services b) the development should enable easy web application development c) The development should enable client-server architecture - d) further it should also enable mouse based drag/drop desktop application like Adobe programs etc. I mean to say: I want to economize on investments. Now I list my efforts till now in design : a) Created an Editor (VB) where the user writes (manually) the object / class code b) On Run/Execute, the code is copied into a main() function and passed to interpreter. c) Catch the output and show it in the console. The interpreter can be separated to become a server and the Editor can become the client. This needs lot of standard client-server architecture work. But some how I am not comfortable in the tightness of this system. Without interpreter is there much faster and better embeddable solution to this? - other than writing a special compiler for these objects. Recently learned about AXIS-C++ can help me - looks like - a friend suggested. Is that the way to go ? Here are my questions: (pl. consider me a self taught programmer and NOT my domain) a) From the stage of C++ objects to multi-touch product, how can I make sure I will develop the parallel product/service models as well.? What should be architecture aspects I should consider ? b) What technologies are best suited for this? c) If I am thinking of moving to Cloud Computing, how difficult/ how redundant / how unnecessary my efforts will be ? d) How much time in months would it take to get the first beta ? I take the liberty to ask if any of the experts here are interested in this project, please email me: [email protected] Thank you for any help. Looking forward.

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  • What is the best way to archive data in a relational database?

    - by GenericTypeTea
    I have a bit of an issue with a particular aspect of a program I'm working on. I need the ability to archive (fix) a table so that a change anywhere in the system will not affect the results it returns. This is the basic structure of what I need to fix: Recipe --> Recipe (as sub recipe) Recipe --> Ingredients So, if I fix a Recipe, I need to ensure all the sub recipes (including all the sub recipes sub recipes and so forth) are fixed and all its ingredients are fixed. The problem is that the sub recipe and ingredients still need to be modifiable as they are used by other recipes that are not fixed. I came up with a solution whereby I serialize (with protobuf-net) a master object that deals with the recipe and all the sub recipes and ingredients and save the archive data to a table like follows: Archive{ ReferenceId, (i.e. RecipeId) ReferenceTypeId, (i.e. Recipe) ArchiveData varbinary(max) } Now, this works great and is almost perfect... however I totally forgot (I'd love to blame the agile development mentally, however this was just short sighted) that this information needs to be reported on. As far as I'm aware I can't think how I could inflate the serialized data back into my Recipe Object and use it in a Report. I'm using the standard SQL 2005 report services at the moment. Alternatively, I guess I could do the following: Duplicate every table and tag the word "Archive" on the end of the table name. This would then give me an area of specific archive data... but ignoring my simplified example, there'd actually be about 15 tables duplicated. Add a nullable, non-foreign key property called "CopiedFromId" to every table that contains fixed data and duplicate every record that the recipe (and all it's sub recipes and all their sub recipes) touches. Create some sort of denormalised structure that could be restored from at a later date to the original, unfixed recipe. Although I think this would be like option 1 and involve a lot of extra tables. Anyway, I'm at a total loss and do not like any of the ideas particularly. Can anyone please advise the best course of action? EDIT: Or 4) Create tables specific to what the report requires and populate them with the data when the user clicks the report button? This would cause about 4 extra tables for the report in question.

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  • php , SimpleXML, while loop

    - by Michael
    I'm trying to get some information from ebay api and store it in database . I used simple xml to extract the information but I have a small issue as the information is not displayed for some items . if I make a print to the simple_xml I can see very well that the information is provided by ebay api . I have $items = "220617293997,250645537939,230485306218,110537213815,180519294810"; $number_of_items = count(explode(",", $items)); $xml = $baseClass->getContent("http://open.api.ebay.com/shopping?callname=GetMultipleItems&responseencoding=XML&appid=Morcovar-c74b-47c0-954f-463afb69a4b3&siteid=0&version=525&IncludeSelector=ItemSpecifics&ItemID=$items"); writeDoc($xml, "api.xml"); //echo $xml; $getvalues = simplexml_load_file('api.xml'); // print_r($getvalue); $number = "0"; while($number < 6) { $item_number = $getvalues->Item[$number]->ItemID; $location = $getvalues->Item[$number]->Location; $title = $getvalues->Item[$number]->Title; $price = $getvalues->Item[$number]->ConvertedCurrentPrice; $manufacturer = $getvalues->Item[$number]->ItemSpecifics->NameValueList[3]->Value; $model = $getvalues->Item[$number]->ItemSpecifics->NameValueList[4]->Value; $mileage = $getvalues->Item[$number]->ItemSpecifics->NameValueList[5]->Value; echo "item number = $item_number <br>localtion = $location<br>". "title = $title<br>price = $price<br>manufacturer = $manufacturer". "<br>model = $model<br>mileage = $mileage<br>"; $number++; } the above code returns item number = localtion = title = price = manufacturer = model = mileage = item number = 230485306218 localtion = Coventry, Warwickshire title = 2001 LAND ROVER RANGE ROVER VOGUE AUTO GREEN price = 3635.07 manufacturer = Land Rover model = Range Rover mileage = 76000 item number = 220617293997 localtion = Crawley, West Sussex title = 2004 CITROEN C5 HDI LX RED price = 3115.77 manufacturer = Citroen model = C5 mileage = 76000 item number = 180519294810 localtion = London, London title = 2000 VOLKSWAGEN POLO 1.4 SILVER 16V NEED GEAR BOX price = 905.06 manufacturer = Right-hand drive model = mileage = Standard Car item number = localtion = title = price = manufacturer = model = mileage = As you can see the information is not retrieved for a few items ... If I replace the $number manually like " $item_number = $getvalues-Item[4]-ItemID;" works well for any number .

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  • .NET JIT Code Cache leaking?

    - by pitchfork
    We have a server component written in .Net 3.5. It runs as service on a Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition. It works great but after some time (days) we notice massive slowdowns and an increased working set. We expected some kind of memory leak and used WinDBG/SOS to analyze dumps of the process. Unfortunately the GC Heap doesn’t show any leak but we noticed that the JIT code heap has grown from 8MB after the start to more than 1GB after a few days. We don’t use any dynamic code generation techniques by our own. We use Linq2SQL which is known for dynamic code generation but we don’t know if it can cause such a problem. The main question is if there is any technique to analyze the dump and check where all this Host Code Heap blocks that are shown in the WinDBG dumps come from? [Update] In the mean time we did some more analysis and had Linq2SQL as probable suspect, especially since we do not use precompiled queries. The following example program creates exactly the same behaviour where more and more Host Code Heap blocks are created over time. using System; using System.Linq; using System.Threading; namespace LinqStressTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { for (int i = 0; i < 100; ++ i) ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(Worker); while(runs < 1000000) { Thread.Sleep(5000); } } static void Worker(object state) { for (int i = 0; i < 50; ++i) { using (var ctx = new DataClasses1DataContext()) { long id = rnd.Next(); var x = ctx.AccountNucleusInfos.Where(an => an.Account.SimPlayers.First().Id == id).SingleOrDefault(); } } var localruns = Interlocked.Add(ref runs, 1); System.Console.WriteLine("Action: " + localruns); ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(Worker); } static Random rnd = new Random(); static long runs = 0; } } When we replace the Linq query with a precompiled one, the problem seems to disappear.

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  • Understanding CLR 2.0 Memory Model

    - by Eloff
    Joe Duffy, gives 6 rules that describe the CLR 2.0+ memory model (it's actual implementation, not any ECMA standard) I'm writing down my attempt at figuring this out, mostly as a way of rubber ducking, but if I make a mistake in my logic, at least someone here will be able to catch it before it causes me grief. Rule 1: Data dependence among loads and stores is never violated. Rule 2: All stores have release semantics, i.e. no load or store may move after one. Rule 3: All volatile loads are acquire, i.e. no load or store may move before one. Rule 4: No loads and stores may ever cross a full-barrier (e.g. Thread.MemoryBarrier, lock acquire, Interlocked.Exchange, Interlocked.CompareExchange, etc.). Rule 5: Loads and stores to the heap may never be introduced. Rule 6: Loads and stores may only be deleted when coalescing adjacent loads and stores from/to the same location. I'm attempting to understand these rules. x = y y = 0 // Cannot move before the previous line according to Rule 1. x = y z = 0 // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load 0 store z Looking at this, it appears that the load 0 can be moved up to before load y, but the stores may not be re-ordered at all. Therefore, if a thread sees z == 0, then it also will see x == y. If y was volatile, then load 0 could not move before load y, otherwise it may. Volatile stores don't seem to have any special properties, no stores can be re-ordered with respect to each other (which is a very strong guarantee!) Full barriers are like a line in the sand which loads and stores can not be moved over. No idea what rule 5 means. I guess rule 6 means if you do: x = y x = z Then it is possible for the CLR to delete both the load to y and the first store to x. x = y z = y // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load y store z // could be re-ordered like this load y load y store x store z // rule 6 applied means this is possible? load y store x // but don't pop y from stack (or first duplicate item on top of stack) store z What if y was volatile? I don't see anything in the rules that prohibits the above optimization from being carried out. This does not violate double-checked locking, because the lock() between the two identical conditions prevents the loads from being moved into adjacent positions, and according to rule 6, that's the only time they can be eliminated. So I think I understand all but rule 5, here. Anyone want to enlighten me (or correct me or add something to any of the above?)

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  • fileToSTring keeps on returning " "

    - by karikari
    I managed to get this code to compile with out error. But somehow it did not return the strings that I wrote inside file1.txt and file.txt that I pass its path through str1 and str2. My objective is to use this open source library to measure the similarity between strings contains inside 2 text files. Inside the its Javadoc, its states that ... public static java.lang.StringBuffer fileToString(java.io.File f) private call to load a file and return its content as a string. Parameters: f - a file for which to load its content Returns: a string containing the files contents or "" if empty or not present Here's is my modified code trying to use the FileLoader function, but fails to return the strings inside the file. The end result keeps on returning me the "" . I do not know where is my fault: package uk.ac.shef.wit.simmetrics; import java.io.File; import uk.ac.shef.wit.simmetrics.similaritymetrics.*; import uk.ac.shef.wit.simmetrics.utils.*; public class SimpleExample { public static void main(final String[] args) { if(args.length != 2) { usage(); } else { String str1 = "arg[0]"; String str2 = "arg[1]"; File objFile1 = new File(str1); File objFile2 = new File(str2); FileLoader obj1 = new FileLoader(); FileLoader obj2 = new FileLoader(); str1 = obj1.fileToString(objFile1).toString(); str2 = obj2.fileToString(objFile2).toString(); System.out.println(str1); System.out.println(str2); AbstractStringMetric metric = new MongeElkan(); //this single line performs the similarity test float result = metric.getSimilarity(str1, str2); //outputs the results outputResult(result, metric, str1, str2); } } private static void outputResult(final float result, final AbstractStringMetric metric, final String str1, final String str2) { System.out.println("Using Metric " + metric.getShortDescriptionString() + " on strings \"" + str1 + "\" & \"" + str2 + "\" gives a similarity score of " + result); } private static void usage() { System.out.println("Performs a rudimentary string metric comparison from the arguments given.\n\tArgs:\n\t\t1) String1 to compare\n\t\t2)String2 to compare\n\n\tReturns:\n\t\tA standard output (command line of the similarity metric with the given test strings, for more details of this simple class please see the SimpleExample.java source file)"); } }

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  • How to dispose of a NET COM interop object on Release()

    - by mhenry1384
    I have a COM object written in managed code (C++/CLI). I am using that object in standard C++. How do I force my COM object's destructor to be called immediately when the COM object is released? If that's not possible, call I have Release() call a MyDispose() method on my COM object? My code to declare the object (C++/CLI): [Guid("57ED5388-blahblah")] [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType::InterfaceIsIDispatch)] [ComVisible(true)] public interface class IFoo { void Doit(); }; [Guid("417E5293-blahblah")] [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType::None)] [ComVisible(true)] public ref class Foo : IFoo { public: void MyDispose(); ~Foo() {MyDispose();} // This is never called !Foo() {MyDispose();} // This is called by the garbage collector. virtual ULONG Release() {MyDispose();} // This is never called virtual void Doit(); }; My code to use the object (native C++): #import "..\\Debug\\Foo.tlb" ... Bar::IFoo setup(__uuidof(Bar::Foo)); // This object comes from the .tlb. setup.Doit(); setup-Release(); // explicit release, not really necessary since Bar::IFoo's destructor will call Release(). If I put a destructor method on my COM object, it is never called. If I put a finalizer method, it is called when the garbage collector gets around to it. If I explicitly call my Release() override it is never called. I would really like it so that when my native Bar::IFoo object goes out of scope it automatically calls my .NET object's dispose code. I would think I could do it by overriding the Release(), and if the object count = 0 then call MyDispose(). But apparently I'm not overriding Release() correctly because my Release() method is never called. Obviously, I can make this happen by putting my MyDispose() method in the interface and requiring the people using my object to call MyDispose() before Release(), but it would be slicker if Release() just cleaned up the object. Is it possible to force the .NET COM object's destructor, or some other method, to be called immediately when a COM object is released? Googling on this issue gets me a lot of hits telling me to call System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.ReleaseComObject(), but of course, that's how you tell .NET to release a COM object. I want COM Release() to Dispose of a .NET object.

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