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• Protecting an Application's Memory From Tampering

  - by Changeling

  We are adding AES 256 bit encryption to our server and client applications for encrypting the TCP/IP traffic containing sensitive information. We will be rotating the keys daily. Because of that, the keys will be stored in memory with the applications. Key distribution process: Each server and client will have a list of initial Key Encryption Key's (KEK) by day If the client has just started up or the server has just started up, the client will request the daily key from the server using the initial key. The server will respond with the daily key, encrypted with the initial key. The daily key is a randomly generated set of alphanumeric characters. We are using AES 256 bit encryption. All subsequent communications will be encrypted using that daily key. Nightly, the client will request the new daily key from the server using the current daily key as the current KEK. After the client gets the new key, the new daily key will replace the old daily key. Is it possible for another bad application to gain access to this memory illegally or is this protected in Windows? The key will not be written to a file, only stored in a variable in memory. If an application can access the memory illegally, how can you protect the memory from tampering? We are using C++ and XP (Vista/7 may be an option in the future so I don't know if that changes the answer).

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• UITableViewCell imageView images loading small even when they are the correct size!

  - by Alex Barlow

  Im having an issue whilst loading images into a UITableViewCell after an asynchronous download and placement into an UIImage variable.. The images appear smaller than they actually are! But when scrolled down and scrolled back up to the image, or the whole table is reloaded, they appear at the correct size... Here is a code excerpt... - (void)reviewImageDidLoad:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { ThumbDownloader *thumbDownloader = [imageDownloadsInProgress objectForKey:indexPath]; if (thumbDownloader != nil) { UITableViewCell *cell = [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:thumbDownloader.indexPathInTableView]; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.4]; [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath].imageView.alpha = 0.0; [UIView commitAnimations]; cell.imageView.image = thumbDownloader.review.thumb; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.4]; [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath].imageView.alpha = 1.0; [UIView commitAnimations]; } } Here is an image of the app just after calling this method.. http://www.flickr.com/photos/arbarlow/5288563627/ After calling tableView reloadData or scrolling around the appear correctly, go the the next flickr image, to see the normal result, but im sure you can guess that.. Does anyone have an ideas as to make the images appear correctly? im absolutely stumped?! Regards, Alex iPhone noob

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• If Then Else Statement Condition Being Ignored?

  - by Matma

  I think im going mad but can some show me what im missing, it must be some stupidly simple i just cant see the wood for the trees. BOTH side of this if then else statement are being executed? Ive tried commenting out the true side and moving the condition to a seperate variable with the same result. However if i explicitly set the condition to 1=0 or 1=1 then the if then statement is operating as i would expect. i.e. only executing one side of the equation... The only time ive seen this sort of thing is when the compiler has crashed and is no longer compiling (without visible indication that its not) but ive restarted studio with the same results, ive cleaned the solution, built and rebuilt with no change? please show me the stupid mistake im making using vs2005 if it matters. Dim dset As DataSet = New DataSet If (CboCustomers.SelectedValue IsNot Nothing) AndAlso (CboCustomers.SelectedValue <> "") Then Dim Sql As String = "Select sal.SalesOrderNo As SalesOrder,cus.CustomerName,has.SerialNo, convert(varchar,sal.Dateofpurchase,103) as Date from [dbo].[Customer_Table] as cus " & _ " inner join [dbo].[Hasp_table] as has on has.CustomerID=cus.CustomerTag " & _ " inner join [dbo].[salesorder_table] as sal On sal.Hasp_ID =has.Hasp_ID Where cus.CustomerTag = '" & CboCustomers.SelectedValue.ToString & "'" Dim dap As SqlDataAdapter = New SqlDataAdapter(Sql, FormConnection) dap.Fill(dset, "dbo.Customer_Table") DGCustomer.DataSource = dset.Tables("dbo.Customer_Table") Else Dim erm As String = "wtf" End If

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• Python and a "time value of money" problem.

  - by jamieb

  (I asked this question earlier today, but I did a poor job of explaining myself. Let me try again) I have a client who is an industrial maintenance company. They sell service agreements that are prepaid 20 hour blocks of a technician's time. Some of their larger customers might burn through that agreement in two weeks while customers with fewer problems might go eight months on that same contract. I would like to use Python to help model projected sales revenue and determine how many billable hours per month that they'll be on the hook for. If each customer only ever bought a single service contract (never renewed) it would be easy to figure sales as monthly_revenue = contract_value * qty_contracts_sold. Billable hours would also be easy: billable_hrs = hrs_per_contract * qty_contracts_sold. However, how do I account for renewals? Assuming that 90% (or some other arbitrary amount) of customers renew, then their monthly revenue ought to grow geometrically. Another important variable is how long the average customer burns through a contract. How do I determine what the revenue and billable hours will be 3, 6, or 12 months from now, based on various renewal and burn rates? I assume that I'd use some type of recursive function but math was never one of my strong points. Any suggestions please? Edit: I'm thinking that the best way to approach this is to think of it as a "time value of money" problem. I've retitled the question as such. The problem is probably a lot more common if you think of "monthly sales" as something similar to annuity payments.

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• Why does one of these statements compile in Scala but not the other?

  - by Jeff

  (Note: I'm using Scala 2.7.7 here, not 2.8). I'm doing something pretty simple -- creating a map based on the values in a simple, 2-column CSV file -- and I've completed it easily enough, but I'm perplexed at why my first attempt didn't compile. Here's the code: // Returns Iterator[String] private def getLines = Source.fromFile(csvFilePath).getLines // This doesn't compile: def mapping: Map[String,String] = { Map(getLines map { line: String => val pairArr = line.split(",") pairArr(0) -> pairArr(1).trim() }.toList:_*) } // This DOES compile def mapping: Map[String,String] = { def strPair(line: String): (String,String) = { val pairArr = line.split(",") pairArr(0) -> pairArr(1).trim() } Map(getLines.map( strPair(_) ).toList:_*) } The compiler error is CsvReader.scala:16: error: value toList is not a member of (St ring) = (java.lang.String, java.lang.String) [scalac] possible cause: maybe a semicolon is missing before `value toList'? [scalac] }.toList:_*) [scalac] ^ [scalac] one error found So what gives? They seem like they should be equivalent to me, apart from the explicit function definition (vs. anonymous in the nonworking example) and () vs. {}. If I replace the curly braces with parentheses in the nonworking example, the error is "';' expected, but 'val' found." But if I remove the local variable definition and split the string twice AND use parens instead of curly braces, it compiles. Can someone explain this difference to me, preferably with a link to Scala docs explaining the difference between parens and curly braces when used to surround method arguments?

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• Setting processor affinity on CSC.exe launched by CoreCompile MSBuild Task

  - by Hardy

  I am wondering if there is simple way to ensure that when a c# project is compiled the CSC.exe launched inherits the parent processor affinity settings, or perhaps of a way where by i can supply this. I have been trying to accomplish this by launching a bat file from vs.net cmd prompt like start /affinity 01 custombuild.cmd and inside my custombuild.cmd i have @echo off msbuild Libraries.sln /t:rebuild /p:Configuration=Release;platform=x64 /m:1 :END The command line call to Csc.exe this generates looks like the following C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\Csc.exe ... ignoring the rest for brevity. What i 'd like to see is the CSC.exe to inherit the processor affinity or a simple way to be able to override how csc.exe call is generated so i can make it into a start /affinity 01 C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\Csc.exe ... ignoring the rest for brevity. I also noticed that CoreCompile target is defined in Microsoft.CSharp.targets, should i be considering overriding MSBuildToolsPath variable so i can sneak in my own version. This feels rather hacky. Any help would be much appreciated.

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• How does an NSTextField know that it's value has changed?

  - by Brian Postow

  I have a textfield that can either be edited by hand, or set through another control. (It's a page number, so you can jump to page 16 by typing in 16, or you can page up and down with the next/prev buttons) I have the value of the text field bound to an int page variable. It seems to work correctly, when you type a page number in, it jumps, when you page up and down, the page number in the text box changes appropriately. However, at some level, when I page up and down, the text box doesn't seem to know that it's value has changed, because if I type 1 it doesn't do anything. It doesn't call the bound set-method or anything. It looks like the textfield is thinking "I'm already 1, so I don't need to do anything." Even though it was 5 because I hit next 4 times. If I type an number other than 1, it goes there. If I THEN type 1, it goes to page 1, because now it thinks it's on that other page. The problem seems to be that I'm changing the value of the textfield programatically, but some part isn't getting the message. Does this seem like a reasonable explanation? And either way, any ideas on what's causing it? thanks

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• How to customize data points on a Flex graph?

  - by Jess

  I have an area graph and I'm looking to have the data points to be shown. I have a CircleItemRenderer, but this shows all of the datapoints in the default stroke and fill. 1) How do I customize the display of my CircleItemRenderer? (instead of it having an orange fill, how can I change the color? 2) How can I decide to show the node for specific data points but not for others? For example, in my .XML file that imports the data for the graph, I may have a variable show_data_point which is true or false. Here's the current code I have: <mx:AreaSeries yField="numbers" form="segment" displayName="area graph" areaStroke = "{darkblue}" areaFill="{blue}" > <mx:itemRenderer> <mx:Component> <mx:CircleItemRenderer/> </mx:Component> </mx:itemRenderer> </mx:AreaSeries> </mx:series> Thanks a lot for your help!

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• Conditional "Get Script File" in Javascript without using a library function

  - by Adam

  I work at a company that has many clients that have their own website that "plugs in" to our system. In other words they have their own website and they have a link that, when the user clicks it, transitions them over to our site. There is a feature that I want to track by giving the client a small block of code to put on their homepage. Whenever the homepage is loaded with a certain query string variable I want the block of code to request a file on my server. Then on the server I'll record the tracking info based on the query string. All this would be really easy if I can guarantee that the client would be using jQuery or some similar library, but there are a lot of clients and I can't really rely on them all using jQuery. At the same time I'd like to limit the size of the block of javascript code that they paste in. I think the best solution would be to have something like: if(querystring.substring("Tracking=") > 0) { include("blah.aspx?TrackingQS=" + querystring); } but I can't find a include function in built-in javascript without calling some library like jQuery. Any thoughts?? I could do straight up AJAX but I want to limit the number of lines of code for several reasons that I won't bore you with here.

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• nhibernate fluent repository pattern insert problem

  - by voam

  I am trying to use Fluent NHibernate and the repository pattern. I would like my business layer to not be knowledgeable of the data persistence layer. Ideally I would pass in an initialized domain object to the insert method of the repository and all would be well. Where I run into problems is if the object being passed in has a child object. For example say I want to insert an a new order for a customer, and the customer is a property of the order object. I would like to do something like this: Customer c = new Customer; c.CustomerId = 1; Order o = new Order; o.Customer = c; repository.InsertOrder(o); The problem is that using NHiberate the CustomerId field is only privately settable so I can not set it directly like this. so what I have ended up doing is have my repository have an interface of Order InsertOrder(int customerId) where all the foreign keys get passed in as parameters. Somehow this just doesn't seem right. The other approach was to use the NHibernate session variable to load a customer object in my business model and then have the order passed in to the repository but this defeats my persistence ignorance ideal. Should I throw this persistence ignorance out the window or am I missing something here? Thanks

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• Passing parameters to eventListener function

  - by bryan sammon

  I have this function check(e) that I'd like to be able to pass parameters from test() when I add it to the eventListener. Is this possible? Like say to get the mainlink variable to pass through the parameters. Is this even good to do? I put the javascript below, I also have it on jsbin: http://jsbin.com/ujahe3/9/edit function test() { if (!document.getElementById('myid')) { var mainlink = document.getElementById('mainlink'); var newElem = document.createElement('span'); mainlink.appendChild(newElem); var linkElemAttrib = document.createAttribute('id'); linkElemAttrib.value = "myid"; newElem.setAttributeNode(linkElemAttrib); var linkElem = document.createElement('a'); newElem.appendChild(linkElem); var linkElemAttrib = document.createAttribute('href'); linkElemAttrib.value = "jsbin.com"; linkElem.setAttributeNode(linkElemAttrib); var linkElemText = document.createTextNode('new click me'); linkElem.appendChild(linkElemText); if (document.addEventListener) { document.addEventListener('click', check/*(WOULD LIKE TO PASS PARAMETERS HERE)*/, false); }; }; }; function check(e) { if (document.getElementById('myid')) { if (document.getElementById('myid').parentNode === document.getElementById('mainlink')) { var target = (e && e.target) || (event && event.srcElement); var obj = document.getElementById('mainlink'); if (target!= obj) { obj.removeChild(obj.lastChild); }; }; }; };

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• C# parameters by reference and .net garbage collection

  - by Yarko

  I have been trying to figure out the intricacies of the .NET garbage collection system and I have a question related to C# reference parameters. If I understand correctly, variables defined in a method are stored on the stack and are not affected by garbage collection. So, in this example: public class Test { public Test() { } public int DoIt() { int t = 7; Increment(ref t); return t; } private int Increment(ref int p) { p++; } } the return value of DoIt() will be 8. Since the location of t is on the stack, then that memory cannot be garbage collected or compacted and the reference variable in Increment() will always point to the proper contents of t. However, suppose we have: public class Test { private int t = 7; public Test() { } public int DoIt() { Increment(ref t); return t; } private int Increment(ref int p) { p++; } } Now, t is stored on the heap as it is a value of a specific instance of my class. Isn't this possibly a problem if I pass this value as a reference parameter? If I pass t as a reference parameter, p will point to the current location of t. However, if the garbage collector moves this object during a compact, won't that mess up the reference to t in Increment()? Or does the garbage collector update even references created by passing reference parameters? Do I have to worry about this at all? The only mention of worrying about memory being compacted on MSDN (that I can find) is in relation to passing managed references to unmanaged code. Hopefully that's because I don't have to worry about any managed references in managed code. :)

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• Change classes instantiated with loadNibNamed

  - by Nick H247

  I am trying to change the class of objects created with a nib with the iPhone SDK. The reason for this is; i dont know until runtime what the class is that i want the nib object to be (though they will have the same UIView based super class), and i dont want to create a different nib for every eventuality - as the .nib will be the same for each, apart from the class of one object. I have been successful, with a couple of methods, but either have some knock on effects or am unsure of how safe the methods I have used are: Method 1: Override alloc, on the super class and set a c variable to the class I require: + (id) alloc { if (theClassIWant) { id object = [theClassIWant allocWithZone:NSDefaultMallocZone()]; theClassIWant = nil; return object; } return [BaseClass allocWithZone:NSDefaultMallocZone()]; } this works well, and i assume is 'reasonably' safe, though if I alloc a subclass myself (without setting 'theClassIWant') - an object of the base class is created. I also dont really like the idea of overriding alloc... Method 2: use object_setClass(self,theClassIWant) in initWithCoder (before calling initWithCoder on the super class): - (id) initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)aDecoder { if (theClassIWant) { // the framework doesn't like this: //[self release]; //self = [theClassIWant alloc]; // whoa now! object_setClass(self,theClassIWant); theClassIWant = nil; return [self initWithCoder:aDecoder]; } if (self = [super initWithCoder:aDecoder]) { ... this also works well, but not all the subclasses are necessarily going to be the same size as the super class, so this could be very unsafe! To combat this i tried releasing and re-allocing to the correct type within initWithCoder, but i got the following error from the framework: "This coder requires that replaced objects be returned from initWithCoder:" dont quite get what this means! i am replacing an object in initWithCoder... Any comments on the validity of these methods, or suggestions of improvements or alternatives welcome!

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• Object addSubview only works in viewDidLoad

  - by DecodingSand

  Hi, I'm new to iPhone dev and need some help with adding subViews. I have a reusable object that I made that is stored in a separate .h .m and xib file. I would like to use this object in my main project's view controller. I have included the header and the assignment of the object generates no errors. I am able to load the object into my main project but can only do things with it inside my viewDidLoad method. I intend to have a few of these objects on my screen and am looking fora solution that is more robust then just hard wiring up multiple copies of the shape object. As soon as I try to access the object outside of the viewDidLoad it produces a variable unknown error - first use in this function. Here is my viewDidLoad method: shapeViewController *shapeView = [[shapeViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"shapeViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubview: shapeView.view]; // This is the problem line // This code works changes the display on the shape object [shapeView updateDisplay:@"123456"]; ---- but the same code outside of the viewDidLoad generates the error. So to sum up, everything works except when I try to access the shapeView object in the rest of the methods. Thanks in advance

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• Drupal 6: How to quickly theme a view ?

  - by Pierre-Jean Coudert

  I've defined a view with the cck and view2 modules. I would like to quickly define a template specific to this view. Any tutorial or information on this ? What are the files I need to modify ? Here are my findings: (Edited) In fact there are two ways to theme a view : the "field" way and the "node" way. In "edit View", you can choose "Row style: Node", or "Row style: Fields". with the "Node" way, you can create a node-contentname.tpl.php wich will be called for each node in the view. You'll have access to your cck field values with $field_name[0]['value']. (edit2) You can use node-view-viewname.tpl.php wich will be only called for each node displayed from this view. with the "Field" way, you add a views-view-field--viewname--field-name-value.tpl.php for each field you want to theme individually. Thanks to previous responses, I've used the following tools : In the 'Basic Settings' block, the 'Theme: Information' to see all the different templates you can modify. The Devel module's "Theme developer" to quickly find the field variable names. View 2 documentation, especially the "Using Theme" page.

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• use php to parse json data posted from another php file

  - by akshay.is.gr8

  my web hosting has blocked the outward traffic so i am using a free web hosting to read data and post it to my server but the problem is that my php file receives data in the $_REQUEST variable but is not able to parse it. post.php function postCon($pCon){ //echo $pCon; $ch = curl_init('http://localhost/rss/recv.php'); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, "data=$pCon"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $d=curl_exec ($ch); echo $d."<br />"; curl_close ($ch); } recv.php <?php if(!json_decode($_REQUEST['data'])) echo "json error"; echo "<pre>"; print_r($data); echo "</pre>"; ?> every time it gives json error. but echo $_REQUEST['data'] gives the correct json data. plz help.

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• Why slim reader/writer exclusive lock outperformance the shared one?

  - by Jichao

  I have tested the performance of slim reader/writer lock under windows 7 using the codefrom Windows Via C/C++. The result surprised me that the exclusive lock out performance the shared one. Here are the code and the result. unsigned int __stdcall slim_reader_writer_exclusive(void *arg) { //SRWLOCK srwLock; //InitializeSRWLock(&srwLock); for (int i = 0; i < 1000000; ++i) { AcquireSRWLockExclusive(&srwLock); g_value = 0; ReleaseSRWLockExclusive(&srwLock); } _endthreadex(0); return 0; } unsigned int __stdcall slim_reader_writer_shared(void *arg) { int b; for (int i = 0; i < 1000000; ++i) { AcquireSRWLockShared(&srwLock); //b = g_value; g_value = 0; ReleaseSRWLockShared(&srwLock); } _endthreadex(0); return 0; } g_value is a global int volatile variable. Could you kindly explain why this could happen?

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• What happened to the .NET version definition with v4.0?

  - by Tom Tresansky

  I'm building a C# class library, and using the beta 2 of Visual Web Developer/Visual C# 2010. I'm trying to save information about what version of .NET the library was built under. In the past, I was able to use this: // What version of .net was it built under? #if NET_1_0 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 1.0"; #elif NET_1_1 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 1.1"; #elif NET_2_0 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 2.0"; #elif NET_3_5 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 3.5"; #else public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET version unknown"; #endif So I figured I could just add: #elif NET_4_0 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 4.0"; Now, in Project-Properties, my target Framework is ".NET Framework 4". If I check: Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().ImageRuntimeVersion I can see my runtime version is v4.0.21006 (so I know I have .NET 4.0 installed on my CPU). I naturally expect to see that my NETFrameworkVersion variable holds ".NET 4.0". It does not. It holds ".NET version unknown". So my question is, why is NET_4_0 not defined? Did the naming convention change? Is there some simple other way to determine .NET framework build version in versions 3.5?

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• BackgroundWorker and instance variables

  - by Alastair Pitts

  One thing that's always confused me is how a BackgroundWorker seems to have thread-safe access to the instance variables of the surrounding class. Given a basic class: public class BackgroundProcessor { public List<int> Items { get; private set; } public BackgroundProcessor(IEnumerable<int> items) { Items = new List<int>(items); } public void DoWork() { BackgroundWorker worker = new BackgroundWorker(); worker.RunWorkerCompleted += new RunWorkerCompletedEventHandler(worker_RunWorkerCompleted); worker.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(worker_DoWork); worker.RunWorkerAsync(); } void worker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { var processor = new ProcessingClass(); processor.Process(this.Points); //Accessing the instance variable } void worker_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { //Stuff goes here } } Am I erroneous in my assumption the the call to processor.Process(this.Points); is a thread-safe call? How don't I get a cross-thread access violation? I'm sure it's obvious, but it always has confused me.

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• confusing fork system call

  - by benjamin button

  Hi, i was just checking the behaviour of fork system call and i found it very confusing. i saw in a website that Unix will make an exact copy of the parent's address space and give it to the child. Therefore, the parent and child processes have separate address spaces #include <stdio.h> #include <sys/types.h> int main(void) { pid_t pid; char y='Y'; char *ptr; ptr=&y; pid = fork(); if (pid == 0) { y='Z'; printf(" *** Child process ***\n"); printf(" Address is %p\n",ptr); printf(" char value is %c\n",y); sleep(5); } else { sleep(5); printf("\n ***parent process ***\n",&y); printf(" Address is %p\n",ptr); printf(" char value is %c\n",y); } } the output of the above program is : *** Child process *** Address is 69002894 char value is Z ***parent process *** Address is 69002894 char value is Y so from the above mentioned statement it seems that child and parent have separet address spaces.this is the reason why char value is printed separately and why am i seeing the address of the variable as same in both child and parent processes.? Please help me understand this!

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• Button Onclick event (which is in codbehind) doesn't get triggered in MVC 2

  - by rksprst

  I had an MVC 1.0 web application that was in VS 2008; I just upgraded the project to VS 2010 which automatically upgraded MVC to 2.0. I have a bunch of viewpages have codebehind files that were manually added. The project worked fine before the upgrade, but now the onclick even't don't get triggered. I.e. I have an asp:button with an onclick event that points to a method in the codebehind. When you click the button, the onclick event doesn't get triggered. In fact, when you look at the Page variable, IsPostBack is false. This is really bizarre and I'm wondering if anyone know what happened and how to fix it. I'm thinking it has something to do with the changes in MVC 2.0; but I'm not sure. Any help is really appreciated, I've been trying to figure this out for a while. (deleting the codebehinds and moving that to the controller is not really an option since there is so many pages, moving back to vs 2008 is a last resort as I want to make use of some of the VS 2010 features like performance testing.)

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• Php index page utitlizing an idea for a superswitch...

  - by Matt

  I dont know if this is a great idea...or a crap one. But I was thinking I may use one page to display all my pages using includes. Here is what my index.php would look like...on the functions include there is a function called "superSwitch" which will determine what requested page will be included....for instance if I do a get ?a=a it will goto the function superSwitch(a) superSwitch will take it and associate it with (login.php) then respond with such... here is the code for the index.php...please let me know if this makes sense and might work, or should I just stick to long blocks of code (which is why I am trying this because I hate long pages full of code...) of course as you can tell it is not actually including anything yet...the print is for debugging purposes. :) Thanks, Matt <?php //includes Functions include_once('inc/func.inc.php'); //set superget variable $superget = @$_GET['a']; //check if superget is set or null if (!$superget) { echo "Nothing Requested :)"; } else { //sanitizes the superget request $supergetr = supergetSanitize($superget) //uses the result "good" or "nogood" to determine what happens if ( $supergetr == "good" ) { //pulls superSwitch value of the request $ssresult = superSwitch($superget); print_r ($ssresult); } //if the sanitize is nogood else { //the superSwitch is instructed to respond with a 404 page $superget = "404" $ssresult = superSwitch($superget); print_r ($ssresult); } } ?>

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• How to load a library that depends on another library, all from a jar file

  - by Philip

  I would like to ship my application as a self-contained jar file. The jar file should contain all the class files, as well as two shared libraries. One of these shared libraries is written for the JNI and is essentially an indirection to the other one (which is 100% C). I have first tried running my jar file without the libraries, but having them accessible through the LD_LIBRARY_PATH environment variable. That worked fine. I then put the JNI library into the jar file. I have read about loading libraries from jar files by copying them first to some temporary directory, and that worked well for me (note that the 100% C library was, I suppose, loaded as before). Now I want to put both libraries into the jar, but I don't understand how I can make sure that they will both be loaded. Sure I can copy them both to a temporary directory, but when I load the "indirection" one, it always gives me: java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: /tmp/.../libindirect.so: /libpure.so: cannot open shared object file: No such file or directory I've tried to force the JVM to load the "100% C" library first by explicitely calling System.load(...) on its temporary file, but that didn't work better. I suspect the system is looking for it when resolving the links in libindirect.so but doesn't care about what the JVM loaded. Can anyone help me on that one? Thanks

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• Does this language feature already exists?

  - by Pindatjuh

  I'm currently developing a new language for programming in a continuous environment (compare it to electrical engineering), and I've got some ideas on a certain language construction. Let me explain the feature by explanation and then by definition; x = a | b; Where x is a variable and a and b are other variables (or static values). if(x == a) { // all references to "x" are essentially references to "a". } if(x == b) { // same but with "b" } if(x != a) { // ... } if(x == a | b) { // guaranteed that "x" is '"a" | "b"'; interacting with "x" // will interact with both "a" and "b". } // etc. In the above, all code-blocks are executed, but the "scope" changes in each block how x is interpreted. In the first block, x is guaranteed to be a: thus interacting with x inside that block will interact on a. The second and the third code-block are only equal in this situation (because not b only remains a). The last block guarantees that x is at least a or b. Further more; | is not the "bitwise or operator", but I've called it the "and/or"-operator. It's definition is: "|" = "and" | "or" (On my blog, http://cplang.wordpress.com/2009/12/19/binop-and-or/, is more (mathematical) background information on this operator. It's loosely based on sets.) I do not know if this construction already exists, so that's my question: does this language feature already exists?

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• Creating Mobile Cross-Platform Scripting Solution

  - by Aplomb

  I am having the dream to design a Mobile cross-platform scripting solution to achieve Developer only need to code once by scripting language(it's possible be Javascript or others need further investigation), then the solution will be able to generate the installation files for multiple mobile platforms like J2me, Android, Symbian, BlackBerry, Palm, Windows Mobile/Phone, iPhone, etc. Using the scripting language, developer can code with unified platform API. And other extension frameworks under scripting language, like, 1. 2D UI framework Most probably using for Mobile Applications, the UI style will compete with native UI framework and no longer every application in particular platform looks similar. 2. 3D UI framework Provide the platforms who has 3D capability can represent their Mobile Application with more fashion 3D style which will be much more abstractive. 3. Variable game engine Developers can can use it for easily and high-quality build games. 4. etc This Mobile solution is providing three points, 1. Cross-Platform 2. Scripting 3. Middleware So guys, what do you think about this idea, is it good for Developers? is it profitable? where is the better direction for this idea?

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