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• Are there Windows API binaries for Subversion or do I have to build SVN to call the API from Windows

  - by JeffH

  I want to call a Subversion API from a Visual Studio 2003 C++ project. I know there are threads here, here, here, and here that tell how to get started with C#.NET on Windows (the consensus seems to be SharpSvn, which I've used easily and successfully on another project) but that's not what I want. I've read the chapter on using APIs in the red-bean book which says: Subversion is primarily a set of C libraries, with header (.h) files that live in the subversion/include directory of the source tree. These headers are copied into your system locations (e.g., /usr/local/include) when you build and install Subversion itself from source. These headers represent the entirety of the functions and types meant to be accessible by users of the Subversion libraries. I'd like to use CollabNet Subversion but there doesn't seem to be API binary downloads, and I'd just as soon not build the whole thing if I can avoid it. Considering another approach, I found RapidSVN's C++ API, but it doesn't appear to offer Windows API binaries either and seems to require building SVN (which I would be willing to do as a last choice if RapidSVN's API is higher-level than the stock SVN offering.) Does calling the API from C++ in Windows have to be this much more work compared to using SharpSvn under .NET, or is there something I haven't found that would help me achieve my goal?

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• Begin game programming basics

  - by AJ

  My 14 year old kid brother wants to learn to program games. He has never programmed but would like to learn programming. His interest lies with games and game programming and he understands that it can be difficult but he wants to do that. So, obviously, I turned to SO folks to know what you feel on how he should go about it. Remember, please suggest on Areas that beginners can choose, how to begin in that area, what to read in the beginning, initial languages in the beginning etc. Once the beginning part is taken care of, you may also suggest the intermediate and advanced stuff but this question is about very beginning level. If there are areas like Web games Vs. console games Vs generic computer games, then please advice on the areas. As I said he has never programmed, he might want to try all the areas and choose the one he likes the best. I hope this is not too much to ask for someone who is in this field but if this question is huge, please advice on how to break it into multiple questions. ~Thanks.

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• How can I build a wrapper to wait for listening on a port?

  - by BillyBBone

  Hi, I am looking for a way of programmatically testing a script written with the asyncore Python module. My test consists of launching the script in question -- if a TCP listen socket is opened, the test passes. Otherwise, if the script dies before getting to that point, the test fails. The purpose of this is knowing if a nightly build works (at least up to a point) or not. I was thinking the best way to test would be to launch the script in some kind of sandbox wrapper which waits for a socket request. I don't care about actually listening for anything on that port, just intercepting the request and using that as an indication that my test passed. I think it would be preferable to intercept the open socket request, rather than polling at set intervals (I hate polling!). But I'm a bit out of my depths as far as how exactly to do this. Can I do this with a shell script? Or perhaps I need to override the asyncore module at the Python level? Thanks in advance, - B

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• Flex Tree with infinite parents and children

  - by Tempname

  I am working on a tree component and I am having a bit of the issue with populating the data-provider for this tree. The data that I get back from my database is a simple array of value objects. Each value object has 2 properties. ObjectID and ParentID. For parents the ParentID is null and for children the ParentID is the ObjectID of the parent. Any help with this is greatly appreciated. Essentially the tree should look something like this: Parent1 Child1 Child1 Child2 Child1 Child2 Parent2 Child1 Child2 Child3 Child1 This is the current code that I am testing with: public function setDataProvider(data:Array):void { var tree:Array = new Array(); for(var i:Number = 0; i < data.length; i++) { // do the top level array if(!data[i].parentID) { tree.push(data[i], getChildren(data[i].objectID, data)); } } function getChildren(objectID:Number, data:Array):Array { var childArr:Array = new Array(); for(var k:Number = 0; k < data.length; k++) { if(data[k].parentID == objectID) { childArr.push(data[k]); //getChildren(data[k].objectID, data); } } return childArr; } trace(ObjectUtil.toString(tree)); } Here is a cross section of my data: ObjectID ParentID 1 NULL 10 NULL 8 NULL 6 NULL 4 6 3 6 9 6 2 6 11 7 7 8 5 8

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• I cannot make log4net work in my web application :(

  - by vtortola

  Hi, I'm trying to set up log4net but I cannot make it work. I've put this in my Web.config: <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net" /> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <file value="logfile.log" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <rollingStyle value="Composite" /> <maxSizeRollBackups value="14" /> <maximumFileSize value="15000KB" /> <datePattern value="yyyyMMdd" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <conversionPattern value="%date [%thread] %-5level %logger [%property{NDC}] - %message%newline" /> </layout> </appender> <root> <level value="DEBUG" /> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender" /> <appender-ref ref="TraceAppender" /> </root> (StackOverflow is not rendering correctly the code I've pasted, I don't know why) Then, in my code I execute: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(new FileInfo(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~/Web.config"))); ILog log = LogManager.GetLogger("MainLogger"); if(log.IsDebugEnabled) log.Debug("lalala"); But nothing happen. I check the "log" variable, and contains an LogImpl object, that has all the logging levels enabled. I get no error or configuration warning, I cannot see any file in the root, in the bin or anywhere. What do I have to do to make it work? Cheers.

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• do the Python libraries have a natural dependence on the global namespace?

  - by msw

  I first ran into this when trying to determine the relative performance of two generators: t = timeit.repeat('g.get()', setup='g = my_generator()') So I dug into the timeit module and found that the setup and statement are evaluated with their own private, initially empty namespaces so naturally the binding of g never becomes accessible to the g.get() statement. The obvious solution is to wrap them into a class, thus adding to the global namespace. I bumped into this again when attempting, in another project, to use the multiprocessing module to divide a task among workers. I even bundled everything nicely into a class but unfortunately the call pool.apply_async(runmc, arg) fails with a PicklingError because buried inside the work object that runmc instantiates is (effectively) an assignment: self.predicate = lambda x, y: x > y so the whole object can't be (understandably) pickled and whereas: def foo(x, y): return x > y pickle.dumps(foo) is fine, the sequence bar = lambda x, y: x > y yields True from callable(bar) and from type(bar), but it Can't pickle <function <lambda> at 0xb759b764>: it's not found as __main__.<lambda>. I've given only code fragments because I can easily fix these cases by merely pulling them out into module or object level defs. The bug here appears to be in my understanding of the semantics of namespace use in general. If the nature of the language requires that I create more def statements I'll happily do so; I fear that I'm missing an essential concept though. Why is there such a strong reliance on the global namespace? Or, what am I failing to understand? Namespaces are one honking great idea -- let's do more of those!

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• AJAX or a server side framework?

  - by Romansky

  I am working with a friend on building a web site, in general this web site will be a custom web app along with a very custom social network type of thing.. Currently I have a mock-up site that uses simple PHP with AJAX and JSON and JQUERY and I love how it works, I love the way it all fits together. But for a mock-up I did not implement any of the Social Network design patterns such as a login, rating, groups etc.. This brought me to a higher level of decision making requirement, I need to decide if I want to develop all this functionality by hand or use some kind of a framework. I spent this entire day researching, and it would seem that using Drupal and such frameworks will make the Social Network part easy (overlooking the customization requirement for now..) but will make client side Web App development less so. I found some other frameworks that are more developer friendly (customizable) such as Zend and Symfony etc.. but these seem to take allot of the power from the client and implement it in the server side, to me this seems a waste (and an unjustified performance bottleneck) .. Finally I found Aptana Jaxer framework that seems to think the same way I feel. That said it seems a bit under-developed, I didn't find modules for a social network and the community around it seems thin.. (searching Jaxer in StackOverflow returns few results) So other then making server side DB comm a bit simpler it does not help me greatly.. My requirements are a good facility to develop web apps on while containing all the user centric logic usually used for social networks in advance. What would you recommend? EDIT: OK, lats fine tune this question, after considering this abit further, is there a good down loadable source of a social network site in PHP that I can work around in building my web app? (I really like using JQUERY AJAX JSON etc..)

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• Why won't EF4 generate a method to support my Function Import?

  - by Deane

  I have a stored proc in my database which returns an integer. I added a Function Import to my model. This appears in the EDMX file: <Function Name="GetTotalEntityCount" Aggregate="false" BuiltIn="false" NiladicFunction="false" IsComposable="false" ParameterTypeSemantics="AllowImplicitConversion" Schema="dbo" /> However, no method actually gets generated for this. It should be top level, right? using (MyContext context = new MyContext()) { context.MyMethodShouldBeRightHere(); } Nothing appears in Intellisense, I've gone through the designer.cs file and there's nothing in there, and reflected the DLL...nothing. The code generator is just not generating any code to support this stored proc. I added another table to my database and updated the model, and that came in, so the model will update, it's just specifically ignoring this stored proc. I've tried everything I can think of, and consulted every resource I can find, and as near as I can tell, I'm doing everything right. I'm using EF4, database-first. (I'm pretty sure on the version, anyway. This shows up in the generated file: Runtime Version:4.0.30319.1 )

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• Template trick to optimize out allocations

  - by anon

  I have: struct DoubleVec { std::vector<double> data; }; DoubleVec operator+(const DoubleVec& lhs, const DoubleVec& rhs) { DoubleVec ans(lhs.size()); for(int i = 0; i < lhs.size(); ++i) { ans[i] = lhs[i]] + rhs[i]; // assume lhs.size() == rhs.size() } return ans; } DoubleVec someFunc(DoubleVec a, DoubleVec b, DoubleVec c, DoubleVec d) { DoubleVec ans = a + b + c + d; } Now, in the above, the "a + b + c + d" will cause the creation of 3 temporary DoubleVec's -- is there a way to optimize this away with some type of template magic ... i.e. to optimize it down to something equivalent to: DoubleVec ans(a.size()); for(int i = 0; i < ans.size(); i++) ans[i] = a[i] + b[i] + c[i] + d[i]; You can assume all DoubleVec's have the same # of elements. The high level idea is to have do some type of templateied magic on "+", which "delays the computation" until the =, at which point it looks into itself, goes hmm ... I'm just adding thes numbers, and syntheizes a[i] + b[i] + c[i] + d[i] ... instead of all the temporaries. Thanks!

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• S.redirectTo leads always to a blank screen

  - by Jaime Ocampo

  I am now playing a little bit with lift (2.8.0), and all the features in LiftRules work as intended. But I haven't been able to use S.redirectTo at all. I always ends with a blank screen, no matter what. No error messages at all! As an example, I have the following form: ... <lift:logIn.logInForm form="post"> <p><login:name /></p> <p><login:password /></p> <p><login:submit /></p> </lift:logIn.logInForm> ... And the code is: object LogIn extends helper.LogHelper { ... def logInForm(in: NodeSeq): NodeSeq = { var name = "" var password = "" def login() = { logger.info("name: " + name) logger.info("password: " + password) if (name == "test1") S.redirectTo("/example") if (name == "test2") S.redirectTo("/example.html") if (name == "test3") S.redirectTo("example.html") S.redirectTo("/") } bind("login", in, "name" -> SHtml.text(name, name = _), "password" -> SHtml.password(password, password = _), "submit" -> SHtml.submit("Login", login)) } } The method 'login' is invoked, I can check that in the log information. But as I said, no matter which name I enter, I always end with a blank screen, although 'examples.html' is available when being accessed directly in the browser. How should I invoke S.redirectoTo in order to navigate to 'examples.html'? Also, why don't I receive an error message (I am logging at a debug level)? I think all the configuration in Boot is correct, since all LitRules examples (statelessRewrite, dispatch, viewDispatch, snippets) work fine.

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• Generating jquery 'rules' from business model to UI in asp.net mvc

  - by jim

  Hi all, I've had a good look around and am certain that there's no matching question on SO, so here goes. Has anyone created a 'helper' method on their model that generates jquery (or plain javascript) rules validation dynamically, based on the criteria/rules that are contained within the object and taken from a repository (i.e. DB). What i'm thinking of is a discrete set of partial views (and associated models) that have rules at the business logic 'level' and rather than (or in combination with) validating the rule(s) at postback, translating the same rules into tightly focussed jquery methods that work identically at client (js) and server (c#) levels. I can see benefits here re performance. Also, the rules definitions could be created in a single place (in c#) and the jquery generated off of that, thus allowing single edits to update both code streams. I appreciate that there would be limitations imposed by language specific contstraints but the general principle could be quite interesting if used appropriately. I'm also aware that testibility could be an issue when using two different language structures and hoping to achieve similar test outcomes - but those aside... any thoughts or experiences of similar out there?? cheers jimi

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• create a class attribute without going through __setattr__

  - by eric.frederich

  Hello, What I have below is a class I made to easily store a bunch of data as attributes. They wind up getting stored in a dictionary. I override __getattr__ and __setattr__ to store and retrieve the values back in different types of units. When I started overriding __setattr__ I was having trouble creating that initial dicionary in the 2nd line of __init__ like so... super(MyDataFile, self).__setattr__('_data', {}) My question... Is there an easier way to create a class level attribute with going through __setattr__? Also, should I be concerned about keeping a separate dictionary or should I just store everything in self.__dict__? #!/usr/bin/env python from unitconverter import convert import re special_attribute_re = re.compile(r'(.+)__(.+)') class MyDataFile(object): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): super(MyDataFile, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) super(MyDataFile, self).__setattr__('_data', {}) # # For attribute type access # def __setattr__(self, name, value): self._data[name] = value def __getattr__(self, name): if name in self._data: return self._data[name] match = special_attribute_re.match(name) if match: varname, units = match.groups() if varname in self._data: return self.getvaras(varname, units) raise AttributeError # # other methods # def getvaras(self, name, units): from_val, from_units = self._data[name] if from_units == units: return from_val return convert(from_val, from_units, units), units def __str__(self): return str(self._data) d = MyDataFile() print d # set like a dictionary or an attribute d.XYZ = 12.34, 'in' d.ABC = 76.54, 'ft' # get it back like a dictionary or an attribute print d.XYZ print d.ABC # get conversions using getvaras or using a specially formed attribute print d.getvaras('ABC', 'cm') print d.XYZ__mm

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• OpenMP: Get total number of running threads

  - by Konrad Rudolph

  I need to know the total number of threads that my application has spawned via OpenMP. Unfortunately, the omp_get_num_threads() function does not work here since it only yields the number of threads in the current team. However, my code runs recursively (divide and conquer, basically) and I want to spawn new threads as long as there are still idle processors, but no more. Is there a way to get around the limitations of omp_get_num_threads and get the total number of running threads? If more detail is required, consider the following pseudo-code that models my workflow quite closely: function divide_and_conquer(Job job, int total_num_threads): if job.is_leaf(): # Recurrence base case. job.process() return left, right = job.divide() current_num_threads = omp_get_num_threads() if current_num_threads < total_num_threads: # (1) #pragma omp parallel num_threads(2) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) else: divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) job = merge(left, right) If I call this code with a total_num_threads value of 4, the conditional annotated with (1) will always evaluate to true (because each thread team will contain at most two threads) and thus the code will always spawn two new threads, no matter how many threads are already running at a higher level. I am searching for a platform-independent way of determining the total number of threads that are currently running in my application.

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• Async task ASP.net HttpContext.Current.Items is empty - How do handle this?

  - by GuruC

  We are running a very large web application in asp.net MVC .NET 4.0. Recently we had an audit done and the performance team says that there were a lot of null reference exceptions. So I started investigating it from the dumps and event viewer. My understanding was as follows: We are using Asyn Tasks in our controllers. We rely on HttpContext.Current.Items hashtable to store a lot of Application level values. Task<Articles>.Factory.StartNew(() => { System.Web.HttpContext.Current = ControllerContext.HttpContext.ApplicationInstance.Context; var service = new ArticlesService(page); return service.GetArticles(); }).ContinueWith(t => SetResult(t, "articles")); So we are copying the context object onto the new thread that is spawned from Task factory. This context.Items is used again in the thread wherever necessary. Say for ex: public class SomeClass { internal static int StreamID { get { if (HttpContext.Current != null) { return (int)HttpContext.Current.Items["StreamID"]; } else { return DEFAULT_STREAM_ID; } } } This runs fine as long as number of parallel requests are optimal. My questions are as follows: 1. When the load is more and there are too many parallel requests, I notice that HttpContext.Current.Items is empty. I am not able to figure out a reason for this and this causes all the null reference exceptions. 2. How do we make sure it is not null ? Any workaround if present ? NOTE: I read through in StackOverflow and people have questions like HttpContext.Current is null - but in my case it is not null and its empty. I was reading one more article where the author says that sometimes request object is terminated and it may cause problems since dispose is already called on objects. I am doing a copy of Context object - its just a shallow copy and not a deep copy.

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• Checkboxes in ADF are initially null, where I want them to be 0

  - by Mark Tielemans

  I am using ADF in JDeveloper and don´t have any experience with either of the two. Now I´ve run into quite some trouble yet, but for this particular thing I decided to consult the wisom of stackoverflow. The thing is, I have an edit form for an object that contains 3 checkboxes. The checked values are set to 1, unchecked to 0. In my database, the values are NOT NULL, and I want to keep it that way. The thing is, in the edit form, if the user submits the form leaving any boxes unchecked, it will result in an error, because the unchecked box values apparently remain null. Only after checking and then unchecking the boxes again, their values will be '0' rather than null. I've tried some things, including making the attributes mandatory in the domain BCD, but that just gives a bit more neat error message.. Any help would be greatly appreciated!! EDIT I made a little progress thanks to the guide provided by Joe, but still run into problems. I changed the values that should be checkboxes in my model, making them BOOLEANs where the table columns are NUMBERs (All are also mandatory and have a default value of 0). This automatically changed the corresponding View Object too. In the Application module, this now works great. It shows checkboxes, a checked one will return 1, an untouched one will return 0. However, I deleted the old form, and inserted a new one using the corresponding Data Control. I gave these values the checkbox type. I still had to edit the bindings (which I think reflects the problem, as this is not the case with, say, a model-level defined LOV) and gave them 1 for checked and 0 for unchecked. However, now apart from the original problem still occurring, also the checkboxes cannot be unchecked after checking, and return 0 when checked (and null when left untouched). Even though this has created new problems, it works correctly in my AM. Does someone know what I'm doing wrong in my Swing form?

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• Does the managed main UI thread stay on the same (unmanaged) Operation System thread?

  - by Daniel Rose

  I am creating a managed WPF UI front-end to a legacy Win32-application. The WPF front-end is the executable; as part of its startup routines I start the legacy app as a DLL in a second thread. Any UI-operation (including CreateWindowsEx, etc.) by the legacy app is invoked back on the main UI-thread. As part of the shutdown process of the app I want to clean up properly. Among other things, I want to call DestroyWindow on all unmanaged windows, so they can properly clean themselves up. Thus, during shutdown I use EnumWindows to try to find all my unmanaged windows. Then I call DestroyWindow one the list I generate. These run on the main UI-thread. After this background knowledge, on to my actual question: In the enumeration procedure of EnumWindows, I have to check if one of the returned top-level windows is one of my unmanaged windows. I do this by calling GetWindowThreadProcessId to get the process id and thread id of the window's creator. I can compare the process id with Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id to check if my app created it. For additional security, I also want to see if my main UI-thread created the window. However, the returned thread id is the OS's ThreadId (which is different than the managed thread id). As explained in this question, the CLR reserves the right to re-schedule the managed thread to different OS threads. Can I rely on the CLR to be "smart enough" to never do this for the main UI thread (due to thread-affinity of the UI)? Then I could call GetCurrentThreadId to get the main UI-thread's unmanaged thread id for comparison.

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• Namespace Traversal

  - by RikSaunderson

  I am trying to parse the following sample piece of XML: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <soapenv:Body> <d2LogicalModel modelBaseVersion="1.0" xmlns="http://datex2.eu/schema/1_0/1_0" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://datex2.eu/schema/1_0/1_0 http://datex2.eu/schema/1_0/1_0/DATEXIISchema_1_0_1_0.xsd"> <payloadPublication xsi:type="PredefinedLocationsPublication" lang="en"> <predefinedLocationSet id="GUID-NTCC-VariableMessageSignLocations"> <predefinedLocation id="VMS30082775"> <predefinedLocationName> <value lang="en">VMS M60/9084B</value> </predefinedLocationName> </predefinedLocation> </predefinedLocationSet> </payloadPublication> </d2LogicalModel> </soapenv:Body> </soapenv:Envelope> I specifically need to get at the contents of the top-level predefinedLocation tag. By my calculations, the correct XPath should be /soapenv:Envelope/soapenv:Body/d2LogicalModel/payloadPublication/predefinedLocationSet/predefinedLocation I am using the following C# code to parse the XML: string filename = "content-sample.xml"; XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.Load(filename); XmlNamespaceManager nsmanager = new XmlNamespaceManager(xmlDoc.NameTable); nsmanager.AddNamespace("soapenv", "http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/Envelope"); string xpath ="/soapenv:Envelope/soapenv:Body/d2LogicalModel/payloadPublication/predefinedLocationSet/predefinedLocation"; XmlNodeList itemNodes = xmlDoc.SelectNodes(xpath, nsmanager); However, this keeps coming up with no results. Can anyone shed any light on this, because I feel like I'm banging my head on a brick wall.

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• Ajax and JSF 1.1 using hidden iframe with "proxy forms", what do you think about this development st

  - by Steel Plume

  Hi, currently I am using yet 1.1 specs, so I am trying to make simple what is too complex for me :p, managing backing beans with conflicting navigation rules, external params breaking rules and so on... for example when I need a backing bean used by other "views" simply I call it using FacesContext inside other backing beans, but often it's too wired up to JSF navigation/initialization rules to be really usable, and of course more simple is more useful become the FacesContext. So with only a bit of cross browser Javascript (simply a form copy and a read-write on a "proxy" form), I create a sort of proxy form inside the main user page (totally disassociated from JSF navigation rules, but using JSF taglibs). Ajax gives me flexibility on the user interaction, but data is always managed by JSF. Pratically I demand all "fictious" user actions to an hidden "iframe" which build up all needed forms according JSF rules, then a javascript simply clone its form output and put it into the user view level (CSS for showing/hiding real command buttons and making pretty), the user plays around and when he click submit, a script copies all "proxied" form values into the real JSF form inside the "iframe" that invokes the real submit of the form, what it returns is obviously dependent by your choice. Now JSF is really a pleasure :-p My real interest is to know what are your alternative strategy for using pure Ajax and JSF 1.1 without adopting middle layer like ajax4jsf and others, all good choices but too much "plugins" than specs.

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• generating XML in rails

  - by PeterWong

  I created a controller having an action: def gen_books_xml @books = Book.find(:all, :conditions => {:owner_id => 1}) respond_to do |format| format.xml { render :xml => @books.to_xml(:root => "Books", :skip_types=>true) } end end How could I implement the to_xml method in the Book model sa that it can generate the following format? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <Books> <Owner>1</Owner> <Book><title>some title</title></Book> <Book><title>some title</title></Book> <Book><title>some title</title></Book> ... </Books> where there is only 1 Owner element and many Book elements I can only output the Book elements but cannot output the one Owner in the same level of Books. Please HELP!!!

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• Java: Typecasting to Generics

  - by bguiz

  This method that uses method-level generics, that parses the values from a custom POJO, JXlistOfKeyValuePairs (which is exactly that). The only thing is that both the keys and values in JXlistOfKeyValuePairs are Strings. This method wants to taken in, in addition to the JXlistOfKeyValuePairs instance, a Class<T> that defines which data type to convert the values to (assume that only Boolean, Integer and Float are possible). It then outputs a HashMap with the specified type for the values in its entries. This is the code that I have got, and it is obviously broken. private <T extends Object> Map<String, T> fromListOfKeyValuePairs(JXlistOfKeyValuePairs jxval, Class<T> clasz) { Map<String, T> val = new HashMap<String, T>(); List<Entry> jxents = jxval.getEntry(); T value; String str; for (Entry jxent : jxents) { str = jxent.getValue(); value = null; if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Float.class)) { value = (T)(Float.parseFloat(str)); } else { logger.warn("Unsupported value type encountered in key-value pairs, continuing anyway: " + clasz.getName()); } val.put(jxent.getKey(), value); } return val; } This is the bit that I want to solve: if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } I get: Inconvertible types required: T found: Boolean Also, if possible, I would like to be able to do this with more elegant code, avoiding Class#isAssignableFrom. Any suggestions? Sample method invocation: Map<String, Boolean> foo = fromListOfKeyValuePairs(bar, Boolean.class);

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• MySQL to SQL Server ODBC Connector?

  - by Scott C.

  My boss wants to have data in MySQL DBs used for our website to be "linked and synced" with a Financial Server that has its DB in SQL Server. Sooooo...even though I have no idea how to accomplish this, this just sounds like an absolute nightmare especially since the MySQL DB is most likely going to be hosted in the cloud and not on a machine next to the Financial Server. Any ideas how to accomplish this? (within reason?) Also, his big thing is he wants to basically pull up the data from any record a user enters and using data pulled from that do all sorts of calculations using ANOTHER program that stores its data (apparently) in SQL Server. Thinking of all the data I might have to convert makes me very uneasy. Please tell a ODBC eliminates complicated junk like this. :/ I'm trying to talk him into just having MySQL do a nightly dump into a CSV file or something and using that (rather than connector) to update the SQL Server DBs. I guess I'm just not that comfortable with a server and/or programming I have no say over being connected DIRECTLY to my MySQL DB for the website. If there's no good answer for this, can anyone offer a suggestion as to what I can say to talk him out of this? (I'm a low-level IT guy w/ a decent grasp on programming...but I'm no expert - should I try to push this off to a seasoned IT pro?) Thanks in advance.

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• .NET framework execution aborted while executing CLR stored procedure?

  - by Sean Ochoa

  I constructed a stored procedure that does the equivalent of FOR XML AUTO in SQL Server 2008. Now that I'm testing it, it gives me a really unhelpful error message. What does this error mean? Msg 10329, Level 16, State 49, Procedure ForXML, Line 0 .NET Framework execution was aborted. System.Threading.ThreadAbortException: Thread was being aborted. System.Threading.ThreadAbortException: at System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.PtrToStringUni(IntPtr ptr, Int32 len) at System.Data.SqlServer.Internal.CXVariantBase.WSTRToString() at System.Data.SqlServer.Internal.SqlWSTRLimitedBuffer.GetString(SmiEventSink sink) at System.Data.SqlServer.Internal.RowData.GetString(SmiEventSink sink, Int32 i) at Microsoft.SqlServer.Server.ValueUtilsSmi.GetValue(SmiEventSink_Default sink, ITypedGettersV3 getters, Int32 ordinal, SmiMetaData metaData, SmiContext context) at Microsoft.SqlServer.Server.ValueUtilsSmi.GetValue200(SmiEventSink_Default sink, SmiTypedGetterSetter getters, Int32 ordinal, SmiMetaData metaData, SmiContext context) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReaderSmi.GetValue(Int32 ordinal) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReaderSmi.GetValues(Object[] values) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DataReaderContainer.CommonLanguageSubsetDataReader.GetValues(Object[] values) at System.Data.ProviderBase.SchemaMapping.LoadDataRow() at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.FillLoadDataRow(SchemaMapping mapping) at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.FillFromReader(DataSet dataset, DataTable datatable, String srcTable, DataReaderContainer dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, DataColumn parentChapterColumn, Object parentChapterValue) at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.Fill(DataTable[] dataTables, IDataReader dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillInternal(DataSet dataset, DataTable[] datatables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataTable[] dataTables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataTable dataTable) at ForXML.GetXML...

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• JPA - Real primary key generated ID for references

  - by Val

  I have ~10 classes, each of them, have composite key, consist of 2-4 values. 1 of the classes is a main one (let's call it "Center") and related to other as one-to-one or one-to-many. Thinking about correct way of describing this in JPA I think I need to describe all the primary keys using @Embedded / @PrimaryKey annotations. Question #1: My concern is - does it mean that on the database level I will have # of additional columns in each table referring to the "Center" equal to number of column in "Center" PK? If yes, is it possible to avoid it by using some artificial unique key for references? Could you please give an idea how real PK and the artificial one needs to be described in this case? Note: The reason why I would like to keep the real PK and not just use the unique id as PK is - my application have some data loading functionality from external data sources and sometimes they may return records which I already have in local database. If unique ID will be used as PK - for new records I won't be able to do data update, since the unique ID will not be available for just downloaded ones. At the same time it is normal case scenario for application and it just need to update of insert new records depends on if the real composite primary key matches. Question #2: All of the 10 classes have common field "date" which I described in an abstract class which each of them extends. The "date" itself is never a key, but it always a part of composite key for each class. Composite key is different for each class. To be able to use this field as a part of PK should I describe it in each class or is there any way to use it as is? I experimented with @Embedded and @PrimaryKey annotations and always got an error that eclipselink can't find field described in an abstract class. Thank you in advance! PS. I'm using latest version of eclipselink & H2 database.

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• How do I "rebind" the click event after unbind('click') ?

  - by Ben

  I have an anchor tag <a class="next">next</a> made into a "button". Sometimes, this tag needs to be hidden if there is nothing new to show. All works fine if I simply hide the button with .hide() and re-display it with .show(). But I wanted to uses .fadeIn() and .fadeOut() instead. The problem I'm having is that if the user clicks on the button during the fadeOut animation, it can cause problems with the logic I have running the show. The solution I found was to unbind the click event from the button after the original click function begins, and then re-bind it after the animation is complete. $('a.next').click(function() { $(this).unbind('click'); ... // calls some functions, one of which fades out the a.next if needed ... $(this).bind('click'); } the last part of the above example does not work. The click event is not actually re-bound to the anchor. does anyone know the correct way to accomplish this? I'm a self-taught jquery guy, so some of the higher level things like unbind() and bind() are over my head, and the jquery documentation isn't really simple enough for me to understand.

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• Publish Git repository to SVN

  - by Ken Williams

  I and my small team work in Git, and the larger group uses Subversion. I'd like to schedule a cron job to publish our repositories current HEADs every hour into a certain directory in the SVN repo. I thought I had this figured out, but the recipe I wrote down previously doesn't seem to be working now: git clone ssh://me@gitserver/git-repo/Projects/ProjX px2 cd px2 svn mkdir --parents http://me@svnserver/svn/repo/play/me/fromgit/ProjX git svn init -s http://me@svnserver/svn/repo/play/me/fromgit/ProjX git svn fetch git rebase trunk master git svn dcommit Here's what happens when I attempt: % git clone ssh://me@gitserver/git-repo/Projects/ProjX px2 Cloning into 'ProjX'... ... % cd px2 % svn mkdir --parents http://me@svnserver/svn/repo/play/me/fromgit/ProjX Committed revision 123. % git svn init -s http://me@svnserver/svn/repo/play/me/fromgit/ProjX Using higher level of URL: http://me@svnserver/svn/repo/play/me/fromgit/ProjX => http://me@svnserver/svn/repo % git svn fetch W: Ignoring error from SVN, path probably does not exist: (160013): Filesystem has no item: File not found: revision 100, path '/play/me/fromgit/ProjX' W: Do not be alarmed at the above message git-svn is just searching aggressively for old history. This may take a while on large repositories % git rebase trunk master fatal: Needed a single revision invalid upstream trunk I could have sworn this worked previously, anyone have any suggestions? Thanks.

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