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• Problem running java code through command line

  - by kunjaan

  I have a simple Class package chapter10; public class CompilationTest { public static void main(String[] args) { System.out.println("HELLO WORLD"); } } The path is Test\src\chapter10\CompilationTest.java I successfully compiled the code into the same folder and now I have Test\src\chapter10\CompilationTest.class However when I try to run from the same folder it I get this error >java CompilationTest Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: CompilationTest (wrong name: chapter10/CompilationTest) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClassCond(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(Unknown Source) at java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(Unknown Source) at java.net.URLClassLoader.defineClass(Unknown Source) at java.net.URLClassLoader.access$000(Unknown Source) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) Could not find the main class: CompilationTest. Program will exit. When I run using >java chapter10/PropertiesTest Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: chapter10/PropertiesTest Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: chapter10.PropertiesTest at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) Could not find the main class: chapter10/PropertiesTest. Program will exit.

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• simpletest - Why does setReturnValue() seem to change behaviour depending whether test is run in iso

  - by JW

  I am using SimpleTest version 1.0.1 for a unit test. I create a new mock object within a test method and on it i do: $MockDbAdaptor->setReturnValue('query',1); Now, when i run this in a standalone unit test my tested object is happy to see 1 returned when query() is called on the mock db adaptor. However, when this exact same test is run as part of my 'all_tests' TestSuite, the test is failing. This happens because a call to the mock's query() method does not appear to return any value - thus causing my test subject to complain and trigger an unexpected exception that fails the test. So, the behaviour of setReturnValue() seems to change depending on whether the test is run in isolation or not. I can get it to work in both a standalone and TestSuite contexts by using this instead: $MockDbAdaptor->setReturnValueAt(0,'query',1); So my immediate problem can be fixed ...but it feels like a hack. I thought if i create a new mock within a test method then why is the setReturnValue() behaviour getting affected by the context in which the test class instance is run? It feel like a bug.

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• a package for kruskal-wallis that shows pairwise comparison details

  - by dalloliogm

  The standard stats::kruskal.test module allows to calculate the kruskal-wallis test on a dataset: >>> data(diamonds) >>> kruskal.test.test(price~carat, data=diamonds) Kruskal-Wallis rank sum test data: price by carat by color Kruskal-Wallis chi-squared = 50570.15, df = 272, p-value < 2.2e-16 this is fine, it is giving me the probability that all the groups in the data have the same mean. However, I would like to have the details per each pair comparison, like if diamonds of colors D and E have the same mean price, as some other softwares (SPSS) do when you ask for a Kruskal test. I have found kruskalmc from the package pgirmess which allows me to do what I want to do: > kruskalmc(diamonds$price, diamonds$color) Multiple comparison test after Kruskal-Wallis p.value: 0.05 Comparisons obs.dif critical.dif difference D-E 571.7459 747.4962 FALSE D-F 2237.4309 751.5684 TRUE D-G 2643.1778 726.9854 TRUE D-H 4539.4392 774.4809 TRUE D-I 6002.6286 862.0150 TRUE D-J 8077.2871 1061.7451 TRUE E-F 2809.1767 680.4144 TRUE E-G 3214.9237 653.1587 TRUE E-H 5111.1851 705.6410 TRUE E-I 6574.3744 800.7362 TRUE E-J 8649.0330 1012.6260 TRUE F-G 405.7470 657.8152 FALSE F-H 2302.0083 709.9533 TRUE F-I 3765.1977 804.5390 TRUE F-J 5839.8562 1015.6357 TRUE G-H 1896.2614 683.8760 TRUE G-I 3359.4507 781.6237 TRUE G-J 5434.1093 997.5813 TRUE H-I 1463.1894 825.9834 TRUE H-J 3537.8479 1032.7058 TRUE I-J 2074.6585 1099.8776 TRUE However, this package only allows for one categoric variable (e.g. I can't study the prices clustered by color and by carat, as I can do with kruskal.test), and I don't know anything about the pgirmess package, whether it is maintained or not, or if it is tested.

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• Problems with GData Request Token

  - by Dan Delgado

  We have successfully used GData libraries to access a user's Google Docs. But we encountered problems when many users log in to our site and authorize our web app at the same time or successively. Here's what happens: First user successful logs in, authorizes our web app via OAuth and is able to add rubric (or google spreadsheet). Second user, immediately after first user adds a rubric, successfully logs in then webapp fails on authorize (Token not given. I tried to log it.) Third user fails on login. Fourth user was able to log in, authorize via OAuth, and create rubrics successfully. Fifth user was able to log in but like the second user, gets an invalid token on authorize (Token not given.) And the list goes on. Results were unpredicatable. Below is an excerpt of the stack trace we get when the fail scenario happens: Nested in org.springframework.web.util.NestedServletException: Request processing failed; nested exception is java.lang.NullPointerException: java.lang.NullPointerException at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthUtil.normalizeParameters(OAuthUtil.java:158) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthUtil.getSignatureBaseString(OAuthUtil.java:81) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthHelper.addCommonRequestParameters(OAuthHelper.java:649) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthHelper.getOAuthUrl(OAuthHelper.java:592) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthHelper.getUnauthorizedRequestToken(OAuthHelper.java:276) at com.projectrix.controller.OAuthController.authorize(OAuthController.java:59) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:40) Help!

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• Dragging an UIView inside UIScrollView

  - by Sergey Mikhanov

  Hello community! I am trying to solve a basic problem with drag and drop on iPhone. Here's my setup: I have a UIScrollView which has one large content subview (I'm able to scroll and zoom it) Content subview has several small tiles as subviews that should be dragged around inside it. My UIScrollView subclass has this method: - (UIView *)hitTest:(CGPoint)point withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UIView *tile = [contentView pointInsideTiles:[self convertPoint:point toView:contentView] withEvent:event]; if (tile) { return tile; } else { return [super hitTest:point withEvent:event]; } } Content subview has this method: - (UIView *)pointInsideTiles:(CGPoint)point withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { for (TileView *tile in tiles) { if ([tile pointInside:[self convertPoint:point toView:tile] withEvent:event]) return tile; } return nil; } And tile view has this method: - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet*)touches withEvent:(UIEvent*)event { UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; CGPoint location = [touch locationInView:self.superview]; self.center = location; } This works, but not fully correct: the tile sometimes "falls down" during the drag process. More precisely, it stops receiving touchesMoved: invocations, and scroll view starts scrolling instead. I noticed that this depends on the drag speed: the faster I drag, the quicker the tile "falls". Any ideas on how to keep the tile glued to the dragging finger? Thanks in advance!

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• ADO/SQL Server: What is the error code for "timeout expired"?

  - by Ian Boyd

  i'm trying to trap a "timeout expired" error from ADO. When a timeout happens, ADO returns: Number: 0x80040E31 (DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED in oledberr.h) SQLState: HYT00 NativeError: 0 The NativeError of zero makes sense, since the timeout is not a function of the database engine (i.e. SQL Server), but of ADO's internal timeout mechanism. The Number (i.e. the COM hresult) looks useful, but the definition of DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED in oledberr.h says: Execution stopped because a resource limit was reached. No results were returned. This error could apply to things besides "timeout expired" (some potentially server-side), such as a governor that limits: CPU usage I/O reads/writes network bandwidth and stops a query. The final useful piece is SQLState, which is a database-independent error code system. Unfortunately the only reference for SQLState error codes i can find have no mention of HYT00. What to do? What do do? Note: i can't trust 0x80040E31 (DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED) to mean "timeout expired", anymore than i could trust 0x80004005 (E_UNSPECIFIED_ERROR) to mean "Transaction was deadlocked on lock resources with another process and has been chosen as the deadlock victim". My pseudo-question becomes: does anyone have documentation on what the SQLState "HYT000" means? And my real question still remains: How can i specifically trap an ADO timeout expired exception thrown by ADO? Gotta love the questions where the developer is trying to "do the right thing", but nobody knows how to do the right thing. Also gotta love how googling for DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED and this question is #9, with MSDN nowhere to be found. Update 3 From the OLEdb ICommand.Execute reference: DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED Execution has been aborted because a resource limit has been reached. For example, a query timed out. No results have been returned. "For example", meaning not an exhaustive list.

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• Flex 3: should I provide prepared data to my component or make it to process data before display?

  - by grapkulec

  I'm starting to learn a little Flex just for fun and maybe to prove that I still can learn something new :) I have some idea for a project and one of its parts is a tree component which could display data in different ways depending on configuration. The idea There is list of objects having properties like id, date, time, name, description. And sometimes list should be displayed like this: first level: date second level: time third level: name and sometimes like this: first level: year second level: month third level: day fourth level: time and name By level I mean level of nesting of course. So, we can have years, that have months, that have days, that have hours and so forth. The problem What could be the best way to do it? I mean, should I prepare data for different ways of nesting outside of component or even outside of flex? I can do it at web service level in C# where I plan to have database access layer and send to flex nice and ready to display XML or array of objects. But I wonder if that won't cause additional and maybe unneccessary network traffic. I tried to hack some code in my component to convert my data objects into XML or ArrayCollection but I don't know enough of Flex and got stuck on elimination of duplicates or getting specific data by some key value. Usually to do such things I have STL with maps, sets and vectors and I find Flex arrays and even Dictionary a little bit confusing (I've read language reference and googled without any significant luck). The question So, to sum things up: should I give my tree component data prepared just for chosen type of display or should I try to do it internally inside component (or some helper class written in ActionScript)?

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• Core Data - How to check if a managed object's properties have been deallocated?

  - by georryan

  I've created a program that uses core data and it works beautifully. I've since attempted to move all my core data methods calls and fetch routines into a class that is self contained. My main program then instantiates that class and makes some basic method calls into that class, and the class then does all the core data stuff behind the scenes. What I'm running into, is that sometimes I'll find that when I grab a managed object from the context, I'll have a valid object, but its properties have been deallocated, and I'll cause a crash. I've played with the zombies and looked for memory leaks, and what I have gathered is it seems that the run loop is probably responsible for deallocating the memory, but I'm not sure. Is there a way to determine if that memory has been deallocated and force the core data to get it back if I need to access it? My managedObjectContext never gets deallocated, and the fetchedResultsController never does, either. I thought maybe I needed to use the [managedObjectContext refreshObject:mergeData:] method, or the [managedObjectContext setRetainsRegisteredObjects:] method. Although, I'm under the impression that last one may not be the best bet since it will be more memory intensive (from what I understand). These errors only popped up when I moved the core data calls into another class file, and they are random when they show up. Any insight would be appreciated. -Ryan

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• Can addition of an ActionListener be short? Can I add arguments to the actionPerformed?

  - by Roman

  I have a big table containing a button in each cell. These buttons are very similar and do almost the same. If I add an action listener to every button in this way: tmp.addActionListener(new ActionListener(){ @Override public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent evt) { proposition = proposition + action; SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { updatePropositionPanel(); } }); } }); Actually, every action listener differ from all others by the value of the action. proposition and updatePropositionPanel are a field and a method of the class. First i thought that I can make it shorter if I do not use inner classes. So, I decided to program a new ActionListener class. But than I realized that in this case "proposition" will not be visible to the instances of this class. Then I decided to add the actionPerformed method to the current class and do that: addActionListener(this). But than I realized that I do not know how give arguments to the actionPerformed method. So, how does it work. Can I add an action listener in a short and elegent way?

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• SQL Server 2008: CASE vs IF-ELSE-IF vs GOTO

  - by Saharsh Shah

  I have some rules in my application and I have written the business logic of that rules in my procedure. At the time of creation of procedure I came to know that CASE statement won't work in my scenario. So I have tried two ways to perform same operations (using IF-ELSE-IF or GOTO) shown as below. Method 1 Using IF-ELSE-IF conditions: DECLARE @V_RuleId SMALLINT; IF (@V_RuleId = 1) BEGIN /*My business logic*/ END ELSE IF (@V_RuleId = 2) BEGIN /*My business logic*/ END ELSE IF (@V_RuleId = 3) BEGIN /*My business logic*/ END /* ... ... ... ...*/ ELSE IF (@V_RuleId = 19) BEGIN /*My business logic*/ END ELSE IF (@V_RuleId = 20) BEGIN /*My business logic*/ END Method 2 Using GOTO statement: DECLARE @V_RuleId SMALLINT, @V_Temp VARCHAR(100); SET @V_Temp = 'GOTO RULE' + CONVERT(VARCHAR, @V_RuleId); EXECUTE sp_executesql @V_Temp; RULE1: BEGIN /*My business logic*/ END RULE2: BEGIN /*My business logic*/ END RULE3: BEGIN /*My business logic*/ END /* ... ... ... ...*/ RULE19: BEGIN /*My business logic*/ END RULE20: BEGIN /*My business logic*/ END Today I have 20 rules. It can be increase to any number in future. If I can able to use CASE statement then I have not any problem with performance, but I can't do that so I am worried about the performance of my procedure. Also one thing to be noticed that this procedure will execute very frequently by application. My questions are: Is there any way to use CASE statement in my procedure? If not, which method is best to use in my procedure to improve the performance of my code? Thanks in advance...

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• Can I configure the ResetPassword in Asp.Net's MembershipProvider?

  - by coloradotechie

  I have an C# asp.net app using the default Sql MembershipProvider. My web.config has a few settings that control how I'm using this Provider: enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresUniqueEmail="true" passwordFormat="Hashed" minRequiredPasswordLength="5" The problem I'm running into is that when people reset their passwords, it seems the ResetPassword() method returns a password that is longer than I want and has characters that can be confusing (l,1,i,I,0,O). Furthermore, I'm sending my users an email with a plain-text message and an HTML message (I'm using MailMessage with AlternateViews). If the password has unsafe HTML characters in it, when the email clients render the HTML text the password might be different (e.g. the %, &, and < aren't exactly HTML safe). I've looked over the "add" element that belongs in the web.config, but I don't see any extra configuration properties to only include certain characters in the ResetPassword() method and to limit the password length. Can I configure the ResetPassword() method to limit the password length and limit the character set it is choosing from? Right now I have a workaround: I call ResetPassword() to make sure the supplied answer is correct, and then I use a RandomPassword generator I downloaded off the internet to generate a password that I like (without ambiguous characters, HTML safe, and only 8 characters long) and then I call ChangePassword() to change the user's password after I've already reset it. My workaround seems kludgy and I thought it would be better to configure ResetPassword() to do what I want. Thank you~! ColoradoTechie

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• Convert IDispatch* to a string?

  - by Rob

  I am converting an old VB COM object (which I didn't write) to C++ using ATL. One of the methods, according to the IDL, takes an IDispatch* as a parameter and the documentation and samples for this method claim that you can pass either a string (which is the progid of an object that will be created and used by the control) or an IDispatch* to an object that has already been created. How on earth do I implement this in ATL? For example, the IDL: [id(1)] HRESULT Test(IDispatch* obj); The samples (which are all JScript): obj.Test("foo.bar"); or var someObject = new ActiveXObject("foo.bar"); obj.Test(someObject); To make matters even more bizarre the actual VB code that implements this method actually declares the 'obj' parameter as a string! However, it all seems to work. Can you even pass a string to a COM method that takes an IDispatch*? If so, can I determine that the IDispatch* is actually a string in my C++ ATL code? Even better, if it's an IDispatch that implements a specific interface I will want to call methods on it, or instantiate an object if it's a string. Any ideas welcome!

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• How can I change the text in a <span></span> element using jQuery?

  - by Eric Reynolds

  I have a span element as follows: <span id="download">Download</span>. This element is controlled by a few radio buttons. Basically, what I want to do is have 1 button to download the item selected by the radio buttons, but am looking to make it a little more "flashy" by changing the text inside the <span> to say more specifically what they are downloading. The span is the downloading button, and I have it animated so that the span calls slideUp(), then should change the text, then return by slideDown().Here is the code I am using that does not want to work. $("input[name=method]").change(function() { if($("input[name=method]").val() == 'installer') { $('#download').slideUp(500); $('#download').removeClass("downloadRequest").removeClass("styling").css({"cursor":"default"}); $('#download').text("Download"); $('#download').addClass("downloadRequest").addClass("styling").css({"cursor":"pointer"}); $('#download').slideDown(500); } else if($("input[name=method]").val() == 'url') { $('#download').slideUp(500); $('#download').removeClass("downloadRequest").removeClass("styling").css({"cursor":"default"}); $('#download').text("Download From Vendor Website"); $('#download').addClass("styling").addClass("downloadRequest").css({"cursor":"pointer"}); $('#download').slideDown(500); } }); I changed the code a bit to be more readable so I know that it doesn't have the short code that jQuery so eloquently allows. Everything in the code works, with the exception of the changing of the text inside the span. I'm sure its a simple solution that I am just overlooking. Any help is appreciated, Eric R.

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• NSOperation and fwrite (Iphone)

  - by Sridhar

  Hi, I am having problem with this code.Basically I want to execute the fwrite from a timer function asyncronusly. Here is the code block in my Timer function. (This will call by the timer every 0.2 seconds. -(void)timerFunction { WriteFileOperation * operation = [WriteFileOperation writeFileWithBuffer:pFile buffer:readblePixels length:nBytes*15]; [_queue addOperation:operation]; // Here it is waiting to complete the fwrite } The WrtiteFilerOperation is an NSoperation class which it has to write the passing buffer to a file. I added this code in WriteFileOperation's "start" method. (void)start { if (![NSThread isMainThread]) { [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(start) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; return; } [self willChangeValueForKey:@"isExecuting"]; _isExecuting = YES; [self didChangeValueForKey:@"isExecuting"]; NSLog(@"write bytes %d",fwrite(_buffer, 1, _nBytes, _file)); free(_buffer); [self finish]; } The problem here is , my timerFunction blocked by NSOperation until it writes the buffer into file.(I mean blocked till start method finishes its execution) and the performance seems same as directly placing the fwrite in timerFunction. I want to just return to timerFunction with out waiting from the start method execution to be completed. What I am doing wrong here ? Thanks In Advance Raghu

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• Passing control references as ref parameters

  - by Enmanuel

  Hi everyone. Please help me out here because im getting kind of confused.. I have a form in a C# winforms project and a couple of methods that are suposed to perform some tasks for this particular form and all derived ones, so one of those helper methods can make the example.. this one should fill comboboxes with a dataset. Its working properly now but when i coded the method with this signature protected void FillComboBox(kComboBox target, IEntClass_DA entity) { target.DataSource = entity.GetList().Tables[0]; target.DisplayMember = "name"; target.ValueMember = "id"; } I saw that the displayMember and ValueMember in the comboboxes were not holding the values after the method call. I just thought I should use ref parameters so the asignments are not wasted in read-only reference variables. It was ok by then but later, making an exercise of passing the whole form as a parameter I was warned by the compiler with the notice that this could not be passed as a ref parameter because it is read-only. Fine then, I keep working and see that even without the ref keyword i can use the ref variable from the form, update some properties and see the changes. So whats happening here: passing a reference of the control to the helper method gives me ability to change its members even when not using the ref parameter?? Thanks.

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• Passing data to a non-static listBox, by calling function from another class

  - by Andrew A

  I have a simple forms program that I have been fighting with for a while now. I simply want to be able to call a method from a different class file (when a certain step is triggered in the code in that class file) in order to insert a string in the listBox. Here is my main method, pretty standard: class Program { [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new MainForm()); } } Here is the function which resides in my MainForm.cs file, which I can call just fine from that class file (via 'TextToBox(myString);'): public partial class MainForm : Form { ... // Function to output results to main Listbox window public void TextToBox(string aString) { // Place messages in Main Display list box window this.listBox1.Items.Insert(0, aString); } ... } But my problem is when I am in another class and I want to call 'TextToBox(myString);'. If I create another object reference of the MainForm, the code compiles fine but nothing will show up in the listBox. How do I do this? I cannot simply make TextToBox() static. I know I must create the object reference but I can't figure out how to reference the ORIGINAL MainForm, the one that was created in the Main method. Thanks in advance...

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• Wordpress XML-RPC call from Objective C: wp.newComment

  - by radesix

  I'm using Eric Czarny's Cocoa XML-RPC framework to make a call to the Wordpress API's. I've downloaded the sample app from Wordpress which gives some good examples. Unfortunately the good examples are for every call EXCEPT wp.newComment. I'm trying to post a comment using the code below and I keep getting an error with a localized description that tells me to check my input parameters. I've checked and rechecked and I don't understand what is wrong. Any ideas? NSDictionary *commentStructure = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:[NSNumber numberWithInt:0], @"comment_parent", @"xmlrpc anonymous comments plugin now enabled", @"content", @"Test Author", @"author", @"http://iphone.someurl.com", @"author_url", @"[email protected]", @"author_email", nil]; NSArray *args = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:[NSNumber numberWithInt:0], @"", @"", [NSNumber numberWithInt:[self.parentFeedItem.postID intValue]], commentStructure, nil]; // the param(s) NSString *server = [[[NSString alloc] initWithString:@"http://www.someurl.com/xmlrpc.php"] autorelease]; // the server NSString *method = [[[NSString alloc] initWithString:@"wp.newComment"] autorelease]; // the method XMLRPCRequest *request = [[XMLRPCRequest alloc] initWithHost:[NSURL URLWithString:server]]; [request setMethod:method withObjects:args]; id response = [self executeXMLRPCRequest:request]; [request release]; if( [response isKindOfClass:[NSError class]] ) { //return nil; NSLog(@"There was a problem"); NSLog([response localizedDescription]); }

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• How can you handle cross-cutting conerns in JAX-WS without Spring or AOP? Handlers?

  - by LES2

  I do have something more specific in mind, however: Each web service method needs to be wrapped with some boiler place code (cross cutting concern, yes, spring AOP would work great here but it either doesn't work or unapproved by gov't architecture group). A simple service call is as follows: @WebMethod... public Foo performFoo(...) { Object result = null; Object something = blah; try { soil(something); result = handlePerformFoo(...); } catch(Exception e) { throw translateException(e); } finally { wash(something); } return result; } protected abstract Foo handlePerformFoo(...); (I hope that's enough context). Basically, I would like a hook (that was in the same thread - like a method invocation interceptor) that could have a before() and after() that could could soil(something) and wash(something) around the method call for every freaking WebMethod. Can't use Spring AOP because my web services are not Spring managed beans :( HELP!!!!! Give advice! Please don't let me copy-paste that boiler plate 1 billion times (as I've been instructed to do). Regards, LES

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• Detecting a Dispose() from an exception inside using block

  - by Augusto Radtke

  I have the following code in my application: using (var database = new Database()) { var poll = // Some database query code. foreach (Question question in poll.Questions) { foreach (Answer answer in question.Answers) { database.Remove(answer); } // This is a sample line that simulate an error. throw new Exception("deu pau"); database.Remove(question); } database.Remove(poll); } This code triggers the Database class Dispose() method as usual, and this method automatically commits the transaction to the database, but this leaves my database in an inconsistent state as the answers are erased but the question and the poll are not. There is any way that I can detect in the Dispose() method that it being called because of an exception instead of regular end of the closing block, so I can automate the rollback? I don´t want to manually add a try ... catch block, my objective is to use the using block as a logical safe transaction manager, so it commits to the database if the execution was clean or rollbacks if any exception occured. Do you have some thoughts on that?

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• HttpURLConnection: What's the deal with having to read the whole response?

  - by stormin986

  My current problem is very similar to this one. I have a downloadFile(URL) function that creates a new HttpURLConnection, opens it, reads it, returns the results. When I call this function on the same URL multiple times, the second time around it almost always returns a response code of -1 (But throws no exception!!!). The top answer in that question is very helpful, but there are a few things I'm trying to understand. So, if setting http.keepAlive to false solves the problem, it indicates what exactly? That the server is responding in a way that violates the http protocol? Or more likely, my code is violating the protocol in some way? What will the trace tell me? What should I look for? And what's the deal with this: You need to read everything from error stream. Otherwise, it's going to confuse next connection and that's the cause of -1. Does this mean if the response is some type of error (which would be what response code(s)?), the stream HAS to be fully read? Also, every time I am attempting an http request I am basically creating a new connection, and then disconnect()ing it at the end. However, in my case I'm not getting a 401 or whatever. It's always a 200. But my second connection almost always fails. Does this mean there's some other data I should be reading that I'm not (in a similar manner that the error stream must be fully read)? Please help shed some light on this? I feel like there's some fundamental http protocol understanding I'm missing.

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• Array Recursion

  - by GeeYouAreYou

  I've got an assignment I can't figure out, any pointers will be much appreciated, it goes like so: There's a series of light bulbs represented as an array of true/false, there's a switch for every light bulb, by clicking it for any light bulb, you toggle it as well as 2 adjacent ones (1 from left & another 1 from right; if clicked switch's bulb on edge -- only 1 adjacent toggled of course). What is needed to accomplish is a method that accepts an array of a series of turned on/off light bulbs and another one representing another state of supposedly the 1st array after some switches have been clicked..! So recursion must be used to find out whether there's a combination of switch clicks that will transform array 1 to array 2. Here's the signature of the method: public static boolean disco(boolean[] init, boolean[] target) Will return true if array init can be transformed to target, false otherwise. Method must be static and not use any other static and global variables, only local. Example: boolean[] init = {true, false, true, false, true, false}; boolean[] target = {false, true, false, true, false, true}; For above 2 arrays, disco(init, target) will return true because toggling the 1st and 4th bulbs would yield the target state (remember adjacent bulbs being toggled as well). Any help much appreciated..!!

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• How can we call an activity through service in android???

  - by Shalini Singh

  Hi! friends, i am a android developer,,, want to know is it possible to call an activity through background service in android like : import android.app.Service; import android.content.Intent; import android.content.SharedPreferences; import android.media.MediaPlayer; import android.os.Handler; import android.os.IBinder; import android.os.Message; public class background extends Service{ private int timer1; @Override public void onCreate() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(); SharedPreferences preferences = getSharedPreferences("SaveTime", MODE_PRIVATE); timer1 = preferences.getInt("time", 0); startservice(); } @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } private void startservice() { Handler handler = new Handler(); handler.postDelayed(new Runnable(){ public void run() { mediaPlayerPlay.sendEmptyMessage(0); } }, timer1*60*1000); } private Handler mediaPlayerPlay = new Handler(){ @Override public void handleMessage(Message msg) { try { getApplication(); MediaPlayer mp = new MediaPlayer(); mp = MediaPlayer.create(background.this, R.raw.alarm); mp.start(); } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } super.handleMessage(msg); } }; /* * (non-Javadoc) * * @see android.app.Service#onDestroy() */ @Override public void onDestroy() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onDestroy(); } } i want to call my activity......

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• JSF - managed bean in variable?

  - by Yurish

  Hi! Weird question, but i need to find an answer. Is there any way, in which i can manage managed beans in JSP? I`ll try to explain, what i want to do: Imagine, i have JSP page, which, for example, is called document.save.jsp. I have some various documents with different types. Each of them have their own bean. For example: BillDocument.java, OrderDocument.java and ReportDocument.java. BillDocument.java in my jsp is #{billdoc}. OrderDocument.java - #{orddoc}. ReportDocument.java - #{repdoc}. Each of them have method save(). In my JSP i want to call this method, but i need to know, which document it is. In my mind this structure is something like: <% String currentBean = ""; if(document == BillDocument){ currentBean = #{billdoc}; } if(document == OrderDocument){ currentBean = #{orddoc}; } if(document = ReportDocument){ currentBean = #{repdoc}; } %> Then, my Button with save method on it, may be smth like: <h:commandButton action="currentbean.save"/> Is there any way, in which i can store data about bean, which will be used in this button? Thank`s for your replies!

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• Are Parameters really enough to prevent Sql injections?

  - by Rune Grimstad

  I've been preaching both to my colleagues and here on SO about the goodness of using parameters in SQL queries, especially in .NET applications. I've even gone so far as to promise them as giving immunity against SQL injection attacks. But I'm starting to wonder if this really is true. Are there any known SQL injection attacks that will be successfull against a parameterized query? Can you for example send a string that causes a buffer overflow on the server? There are of course other considerations to make to ensure that a web application is safe (like sanitizing user input and all that stuff) but now I am thinking of SQL injections. I'm especially interested in attacks against MsSQL 2005 and 2008 since they are my primary databases, but all databases are interesting. Edit: To clarify what I mean by parameters and parameterized queries. By using parameters I mean using "variables" instead of building the sql query in a string. So instead of doing this: SELECT * FROM Table WHERE Name = 'a name' We do this: SELECT * FROM Table WHERE Name = @Name and then set the value of the @Name parameter on the query / command object.

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• How do I get the inserted id (or object) after an insert with the FormView/ObjectDataSource controls

  - by drs9222

  I have a series of classes that loosely fit the following pattern: public class CustomerInfo { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} } public class CustomerTable { public bool Insert(CustomerInfo info) { /*...*/ } public bool Update(CustomerInfo info) { /*...*/ } public CustomerInfo Get(int id) { /*...*/ } /*...*/ } After a successful insert the Insert method will set the Id property of the CustomerInfo object that was passed in. I've used these classes in several places and would prefer to altering them. Now I'm experimenting with writing an ASP.NET page for inserting and updating the records. I'm currently using the ObjectDataSource and FormView controls: <asp:ObjectDataSource TypeName="CustomerTable" DataObjectTypeName="CustomerInfo" InsertMethod="Insert" UpdateMethod="Update" SelectMethod="Get" /> I can successfully Insert and Update records. I would like to switch the FormView's mode from Insert to Edit after a successful insert. My first attempt was to switch the mode in the ItemInserted event. This of course did not work. I was using a QueryStringParameter for the id which of course wan't set when inserting. So, I switched to manually populating the InputParameters during the ObjectDataSource's Selecting event. The problem with this is I need to know the id of the newly inserted record which I can't find a good way to get. I understand that I can access the Insert method's return value, and out parameters in the ItemInserted event of course my method doesn't return the id using any of these methods. I can't find anyway to access the id or the CustomerInfo object that was inserted after the insert completes. The best I've been able to do is to save the CustomerInfo object in the ObjectDataSource's Inserting event. This feels like an odd way to do this. I figure that there must be a better way to do this and I'll kick myself when I see it. Any ideas?

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