Search Results

Search found 24891 results on 996 pages for 'update grub'.

Page 395/996 | < Previous Page | 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401 402  | Next Page >

• updating dataset using join and bindingsource?

  - by netadictos

  Hi, I have created a dataset and in the designer I have created the relations and foreign keys that exist in the database. Basically, I have a product that has a relationship to a table of prices. The keyfield they share is IdProduct in the Prices table. In the Fill/Get of the product I return the Price field. I also have a DataGrid that uses a BindingSource which uses this table. Everything displays correctly and when I double click on a row within the datagrid I then open up a tabbed form that contains a detailed view of the record selected. The user at this point is able to make changes to the record and they are properly propogated back to the BindingSource. The problem is that the TableAdapter does not contain the appopriate update, therefore I am not able to call the TableAdapter.Update method with the dataset as I would had I created a tableadapter not using a join. How am I best to handle this situation. At the same time I cannot get any modified row: dTiendasDs.ProductosDataTable modified = (dTiendasDs.ProductosDataTable) dTiendasDs.Productos.GetChanges(DataRowState.Modified); modified is always null Thanks,

  Read the article

• mysql row locking via php

  - by deezee

  I am helping a friend with a web based form that is for their business. I am trying to get it ready to handle multiple users. I have set it up so that just before the record is displayed for editing I am locking the record with the following code. $query = "START TRANSACTION;"; mysql_query($query); $query = "SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = \"$value\" FOR UPDATE;"; mysql_query($query); (okay that is greatly simplified but that is the essence of the mysql) It does not appear to be working. However, when I go directly to mysql from the command line, logging in with the same user and execute START TRANSACTION; SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = "40" FOR UPDATE; I can effectively block the web form from accessing record "40" and get the timeout warning. I have tried using BEGIN instead of START TRANSACTION. I have tried doing SET AUTOCOMMIT=0 first and starting the transaction after locking but I cannot seem to lock the row from the PHP code. Since I can lock the row from the command line I do not think there is a problem with how the database is set up. I am really hoping that there is some simple something that I have missed in my reading. FYI, I am developing on XAMPP version 1.7.3 which has Apache 2.2.14, MySQL 5.1.41 and PHP 5.3.1. Thanks in advance. This is my first time posting but I have gleaned alot of knowledge from this site in the past.

  Read the article

• Flex DataGridColumn with array of objects as data provider

  - by rforte

  I have a datagrid that uses an array of objects as the data provider. The objects are essentially key/value pairs: { foo:"something"} { bar:"hello"} { caca:"lorem"} The datagrid has 2 columns. The first column is the key and the second column is the value. Right now my grid looks like: My dataFormatter function makes sure that depending on the column (i.e. the dataField value) the correct key or value gets printed out. This works fine for displaying. However, as soon as I try and edit the value field it essentially adds a new value into the object with a key of '1'. For example, if I edit the {caca:"lorem"} object it will then contain the value {caca:"lorem",1:"new value"}. Is there any possible way I can set the DataGridColumn so that when I edit a value it will update the value associated with the key rather than inserting a new value? I've tried using a custom item editor but it still does the insert. It seems like I need to be able to update the 'dataField' with the actual key value but I'm not sure how to do that.

  Read the article

• Javascript timezone solution needed(taking into account the actual difference in UTC timestamps)

  - by user198729

  I have unix timestamps from time zone X which is not known, the current timestamp(now()) in TZ X is known 1275143019, how to approach a javascript function so that it can generate the datetime in the users current TZ in the format 2010-05-29 15:32:35 ? UPDATE I'm not a unix timestamp expert,if unix timestamp is always the same in different TZ, then I have to change the question a little,so that the current datetime in TZ X is known(like 2010-05-29 22:32:28),and the other datetime is also in this format,how to convert them to the user's TZ based on the difference between now() ? UPDATE Something strange from MySQL: On server: mysql> select now(); +---------------------+ | now() | +---------------------+ | 2010-05-29 18:34:30 | +---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) mysql> select UNIX_TIMESTAMP(); +------------------+ | UNIX_TIMESTAMP() | +------------------+ | 1275143674 | +------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) On local: mysql> select now(); +---------------------+ | now() | +---------------------+ | 2010-05-29 22:41:30 | +---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) mysql> select UNIX_TIMESTAMP(); +------------------+ | UNIX_TIMESTAMP() | +------------------+ | 1275144091 | +------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Why the difference between now() (2010-05-29 22:41:30-2010-05-29 18:34:30=6hours) and UNIX_TIMESTAMP() (1275144091 - 1275143674 = 417seconds) is not the same ?

  Read the article

• Codeigniter: Library function--I'm stuck

  - by Kevin Brown

  I have a library function that sets up my forms, and submits data. They're long, and they work, so I'll spare you reading my code. :) I simply need a way for my functions to determine how to handle the data. Until now, the function did one thing: Submit a report for the current user. NOW, the client has requested that an administrator also be able to complete a form--this means that the form would be filled out, and it would CREATE a user at the same time, whereas the current function EDITS and is accessed by an EXISTING user. Do I need a separate function to do essentially the same thing? How do I make one function perform two tasks? One to update a user, and if there is no user, create one. Current controller: function survey() { $id = $this->session->userdata('id'); $data['member'] = $this->home_model->getUser($id); //Convert the db Object to a row array $data['manager'] = $data['member']->row(); $manager_id = $data['manager']->manager_id; $data['manager'] = $this->home_model->getUser($manager_id); $data['manager'] = $data['manager']->row(); $data['header'] = "Home"; $this->survey_form_processing->survey_form($this->_container,$data, $method); } Current Library: function survey_form($container) { //Lots of validation stuff $this->CI->validation->set_rules($rules); if ( $this->CI->validation->run() === FALSE ) { // Output any errors $this->CI->validation->output_errors(); } else { // Submit form $this->_submit(); } $this->CI->load->view($container,$data); The submit function is huge too. Basically says, "Update table with data where user_id=current user" I hope this wasn't too confusing. I'll create two functions if need be, but I'd like to keep redundancy down! }

  Read the article

• Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

  - by Jason

  I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

  Read the article

• What should i do for accomodating large scale data storage and retrieval?

  - by kailashbuki

  There's two columns in the table inside mysql database. First column contains the fingerprint while the second one contains the list of documents which have that fingerprint. It's much like an inverted index built by search engines. An instance of a record inside the table is shown below; 34 "doc1, doc2, doc45" The number of fingerprints is very large(can range up to trillions). There are basically following operations in the database: inserting/updating the record & retrieving the record accoring to the match in fingerprint. The table definition python snippet is: self.cursor.execute("CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `fingerprint` (fp BIGINT, documents TEXT)") And the snippet for insert/update operation is: if self.cursor.execute("UPDATE `fingerprint` SET documents=CONCAT(documents,%s) WHERE fp=%s",(","+newDocId, thisFP))== 0L: self.cursor.execute("INSERT INTO `fingerprint` VALUES (%s, %s)", (thisFP,newDocId)) The only bottleneck i have observed so far is the query time in mysql. My whole application is web based. So time is a critical factor. I have also thought of using cassandra but have less knowledge of it. Please suggest me a better way to tackle this problem.

  Read the article

• Setting acquired location to a text view: How to maintain?

  - by Mark

  Hi, I have built an app for the Motorola Droid which should automatically update a server with the phone's location. After the user performs a particular task on the main activity screen, an alarm is set to update the user's location periodically, using a service. The alarm is explicitly stopped when the user completes another task. Thing is, I have set up a location manager within the main activity's onCreate() method which is supposed to place the first acquired lat/long into two textview fields. Even though the manifest is set up for acquiring coarse and fine coords and I'm using requestLocationUpdates (String provider, long minTime, float minDistance, LocationListener listener), with minTime and minDistance set to zero, I'm not seeing the coords coming up on the screen. With that, I'm not recording any locations on the server. When I seed the textviews with sample coords, they are being recorded fine on the server. I am not at a computer that can run the IDE, so don't currently have the code, but am desperate for some help on this. One other thing is that the main activity screen calls a photography app before the user manually clicks "send data". I'm suspicious that I may need to override the main activity's onResume() method to do this location acquisition. Please help, thanks. Mark.

  Read the article

• Inheritance and choose constructor from base class

  - by myle

  My question is rather simple, but I am stuck. How can I choose the desired constructor from base class? // node.h #ifndef NODE_H #define NODE_H #include <vector> // definition of an exception-class class WrongBoundsException { }; class Node { public: ... Node(double, double, std::vector<double>&) throw (WrongBoundsException); ... }; #endif // InternalNode.h #ifndef INTERNALNODE_H #define INTERNALNODE_H #include <vector> #include "Node.h" class InternalNode : public Node { public: // the position of the leftmost child (child left) int left_child; // the position of the parent int parent; InternalNode(double, double, std::vector<double>&, int parent, int left_child) throw (WrongBoundsException); private: int abcd; }; #endif // InternalNode.cpp #include "InternalNode.h" #define UNDEFINED_CHILD -1 #define ROOT -1 // Here is the problem InternalNode::InternalNode(double a, double b, std::vector<double> &v, int par, int lc) throw (WrongBoundsException) : Node(a, b, v), parent(par), left_child(lc) { std::cout << par << std::endl; } I get: $ g++ InternalNode.cpp InternalNode.cpp:16: error: declaration of ‘InternalNode::InternalNode(double, double, std::vector &, int, int) throw (WrongBoundsException)’ throws different exceptions InternalNode.h:17: error: from previous declaration ‘InternalNode::InternalNode(double, double, std::vector &, int, int)’ UPDATE 0: Fixed missing : UPDATE 1: Fixed throw exception

  Read the article

• Accessing MS Access database from C#

  - by Abilash

  I want to use MS Access as database for my C# windows form application.I have used OleDb driver for connecting MS Access. I am able to select the records from the MS Access using OleDbConnection and ExecuteReader.But I am un able to insert,update and delete records. My code is as follows: OleDbConnection con=new OleDbConnection(strCon); try { con.Open(); OleDbCommand com = new OleDbCommand("INSERT INTO DPMaster(DPID,DPName,ClientID,ClientName) VALUES('53','we','41','aw')", con); int a=com.ExecuteNonQuery(); //OleDbCommand com = new OleDbCommand("SELECT * FROM DPMaster", con); //OleDbDataReader dr = com.ExecuteReader(); //while (dr.Read()) //{ // MessageBox.Show(dr[2].ToString()); //} MessageBox.Show(a.ToString()); } catch { MessageBox.Show("cannot"); } If I execute the commented block the application works.But the insert block doesnt works.Why I am unable to insert/update/delete the records into database? My Connection String is as follows: string strCon="Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=xyz.mdb;Persist Security Info=True";

  Read the article

• Opa app does not load in Internet Explorer when compiled with Opa 1.1.1

  - by Marcin Skórzewski

  I did a minor update to the already working application and then had problems using new version of Opa compiler. First problem - runtime exception Since the original deployment Opa 1.1.1 has been released and it resulted in error: events.js:72 throw er; // Unhandled 'error' event ^ Error: listen EADDRINUSE at errnoException (net.js:901:11) at Server._listen2 (net.js:1039:14) at listen (net.js:1061:10) at Server.listen (net.js:1127:5) at global.BslNet_Http_server_init_server (/opt/mlstate/lib/opa/stdlib/server.opp/serverNodeJsPackage.js:223:1405) at global.BslNet_Http_server_init_server_cps (/opt/mlstate/lib/opa/stdlib/server.opp/serverNodeJsPackage.js:226:15) at __v1_bslnet_http_server_init_server_cps_b970f080 (/opt/mlstate/lib/opa/stdlib/stdlib.qmljs/stdlib.core.web.server.opx/main.js:1:175) at /opt/mlstate/lib/opa/stdlib/stdlib.qmljs/stdlib.core.web.server.opx/main.js:440:106 at global.execute_ (/opt/mlstate/lib/opa/static/opa-js-runtime-cps/main.js:19:49) at /opt/mlstate/lib/opa/static/opa-js-runtime-cps/main.js:17:78 I decided to build Opa from sources and it helped, but another problem occurred :( Second problem - stops to support the IE Application stopped to work in Internet Explorer. I tried two different machines (Windows XP and 7) with IE 8 and 10. Web page does not load at all (looks like the network problem, but the same URL works fine in Firefox). I confirmed the same problem with "Hello world" from the Opa tutorial compiled with both Opa stable 1.1.1 and build from sources. I suspected that the problem is due to Node.js update (Opa = 1.1.1 requires Node 0.10.* - now I am using 0.10.12, but I also tried other 0.10-s), but "Hello world" from the Node's from page works fine. I am running the app on OSX developer box and Linux Debian 7.0 server. Any suggestions what am I doing wrong? PS. I was off the business for a while. Anyone knows what happened to the Opa forum? Signing is seams not to work.

  Read the article

• SQL Server stored procedure return code oddity

  - by gbn

  Hello The client that calls this code is restricted and can only deal with return codes from stored procs. So, we modified our usual contract to RETURN -1 on error and default to RETURN 0 if no error If the code hits the inner catch block, then the RETURN code default to -4. Where does this come from, does anyone know...? IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.foo') IS NOT NULL DROP TABLE dbo.foo GO CREATE TABLE dbo.foo ( KeyCol char(12) NOT NULL, ValueCol xml NOT NULL, Comment varchar(1000) NULL, CONSTRAINT PK_foo PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED (KeyCol) ) GO IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.bar') IS NOT NULL DROP PROCEDURE dbo.bar GO CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.bar @Key char(12), @Value xml, @Comment varchar(1000) AS SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @StartTranCount tinyint; BEGIN TRY SELECT @StartTranCount = @@TRANCOUNT; IF @StartTranCount = 0 BEGIN TRAN; BEGIN TRY --SELECT @StartTranCount = 'fish' INSERT dbo.foo (KeyCol, ValueCol, Comment) VALUES (@Key, @Value, @Comment); END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF ERROR_NUMBER() = 2627 --PK violation UPDATE dbo.foo SET ValueCol = @Value, Comment = @Comment WHERE KeyCol = @Key; ELSE RAISERROR ('Tits up', 16, 1); END CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 COMMIT TRAN; END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 AND XACT_STATE() <> 0 ROLLBACK TRAN; RETURN -1 END CATCH --Without this, we'll send -4 if we hit the UPDATE CATCH block above --RETURN 0 GO --Run with RETURN 0 and fish line commented out DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar2 />', 'testing2' --updated OK but we get @rtn = -4 SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo --uncomment fish line DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' --Hit outer CATCH, @rtn = -1 as expected SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo

  Read the article

• Comparing two images from the clipboard class

  - by VeXe

  In a C# winform app. I'm writing a Clipboard log manager that logs test to a log file, (everytime a Ctrl+c/x is pressed the copied/cut text gets appended to the file) I also did the same for images, that is, if you press "prtScreen", the screen shot you took will also go to a folder. I do that by using a timer, inside I have something which 'looks' like this: if (Clipboard.ContainsImage()) { if (IsClipboardUpdated()) { LogData(); UpdateLastClipboardData(); } } This is how the rest of the methods look like: public void UpdateLastClipboardData() { // ... other updates LastClipboardImage = Clipboard.GetImage(); } // This is how I determine if there's a new image in the clipboard... public bool IsClipboardUpdated() { return (LastClipboardImage != Clipboard.GetImage()); } public void LogData() { Clipboard.GetImage().Save(ImagesLogFolder + "\\Image" + now_hours + "_" + now_mins + "_" + now_secs + ".jpg"); } The problem is: inside the update method, "LastClipboardImage != Clipboard.GetImage()" is always returning true! I even did the following inside the update method: Image img1 = Clipboard.GetImage(); Image img2 = Clipboard.GetImage(); Image img3 = img2; bool b1 = img1 == img2; // this returned false. WHY?? bool b2 = img3 == img2; // this returned true. Makes sense. Please help, the comparison isn't working... why?

  Read the article

• Ajax with Jsf 1.1 implementation

  - by Rohan Ved

  I am using JSF1.1 in that, have this code_ <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" prefix="h"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsf/core" prefix="f"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://www.azureworlds.org" prefix="azure"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://myfaces.apache.org/tomahawk" prefix="x"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://www.asifqamar.com/jsf/asif" prefix="a"%> ... <x:selectOneMenu value="#{hotelBean.state}"> <f:selectItem itemLabel="Select One" itemValue="" /> <f:selectItem value="#{hotelBean.mapStates }" /> <x:ajax update="city" listener="#{hotelBean.handleCityChange}" /> </x:selectOneMenu> <h:outputText value="City* " /> <x:selectOneMenu id="city" value="#{hotelBean.city}"> <f:selectItem itemLabel="Select One" itemValue="" /> <f:selectItem value="#{hotelBean.mapCities }" /> </x:selectOneMenu> line x:ajax update="city" listener="#{hotelBean.handleCityChange}" is not working , i searched but got JSF1.1 not support for Ajax. then what can i do for this? and i have less knowledge of JS. Thanx

  Read the article

• Box2D in Flash runs quicker when drawing debug data than not

  - by bowdengm

  I've created a small game with Box2d for AS3 - I have sprites attached to the stage that take their position from the underlying Box2d world. These sprites are mostly PNGs. When the game runs with DrawDebugData() bening called every update, it runs nice and smoothly. However when I comment this out, it runs choppily. In both cases all my sprites are being rendered. So it seems that it's running faster when it's drawing the debug data additionaly (i.e. my sprites are on the screen in both cases!) What's going on? Does drawing the debug data flick some sort of 'render quick' switch? If so, what's the switch!? I can't see it in the Box2D code. function Update(e){ m_world.Step(m_timeStep, m_velocityIterations, m_positionIterations); // draw debug? m_world.DrawDebugData(); // with the above line in, I get 27fps, without it, I get 19fps. // that's the only change that's causing such a huge difference. doStuff(); } Interestingly, If i set the debug draw scale to something different to my world scale, it slows down to 19fps. So there's something happening when it draws the boxes under my sprites causing it to run quicker.. Cheers, Guy

  Read the article

• updating multiple nodes in xml with xquery and xdmp:node-replace

  - by morja

  Hi all, I wnat to update an XML document in my xml database (Marklogic). I have xml as input and want to replace each node that exists in the target xml. If a node does not exist it would be great if it gets added, but thats maybe another task. My XML in the database: <user> <username>username</username> <firstname>firstname</firstname> <lastname>lastname</lastname> <email>[email protected]</email> <comment>comment</comment> </user> The value of $user_xml: <user> <firstname>new firstname</firstname> <lastname>new lastname</lastname> </user> My function so far: declare function update-user ( $username as xs:string, $user_xml as node()) as empty-sequence() { let $uri := user-uri($username) return for $node in $user_xml/user return xdmp:node-replace(fn:doc($uri)/user/fn:node-name($node), $node) }; First of all I cannot iterate over $user_xml/user. If I try to iterate over $user_xml I get "arg1 is not of type node()" exception. But maybe its the wrong approach anyway? Does anybody maybe have sample code how to do this?

  Read the article

• Almost All Xenserver Logical Volumes Disappeared - Recovery?

  - by Alex

  We had a hard disc crash of one of two hard discs in a software raid with a LVM on top. The server is running Citrix xenserver. On the hard disk which is still intact, the volume group gets detected well, but only one LV is left. (some hashes replaced by "x") # lvdisplay --- Logical volume --- LV Name /dev/VG_XenStorage-x-x-x-x-408b91acdcae/MGT VG Name VG_XenStorage-x-x-x-x-408b91acdcae LV UUID x-x-x-x-x-x-vQmZ6C LV Write Access read/write LV Status available # open 0 LV Size 4.00 MiB Current LE 1 Segments 1 Allocation inherit Read ahead sectors auto - currently set to 256 Block device 253:0 root@rescue ~ # vgdisplay --- Volume group --- VG Name VG_XenStorage-x-x-x-x-408b91acdcae System ID Format lvm2 Metadata Areas 1 Metadata Sequence No 4 VG Access read/write VG Status resizable MAX LV 0 Cur LV 1 Open LV 0 Max PV 0 Cur PV 1 Act PV 1 VG Size 698.62 GiB PE Size 4.00 MiB Total PE 178848 Alloc PE / Size 1 / 4.00 MiB Free PE / Size 178847 / 698.62 GiB VG UUID x-x-x-x-x-x-53w0kL I could understand if a full physical volume is lost - but why only the logical volumes? Is there any explanation for this? Is there any way to recover the logical volumes? EDIT We are here in a rescue system. The problem is that the whole server does not boot (GRUB error 22) What we are trying to do is to access the root filesystem. But everything was in the LVM. We have only this: (parted) print Model: ATA SAMSUNG HD753LJ (scsi) Disk /dev/sdb: 750GB Sector size (logical/physical): 512B/512B Partition Table: msdos Number Start End Size Type File system Flags 1 32.3kB 750GB 750GB primary boot, lvm And this 750GB LVM volume is exactly what we see on top. edit2 Output of vgcfgrestore, but from the rescue system, as there is no root to chroot to. # vgcfgrestore --list VG_XenStorage-x-b4b0-x-x-408b91acdcae File: /etc/lvm/archive/VG_XenStorage-x-x-x-x-408b91acdcae_00000.vg VG name: VG_XenStorage-x-x-x-x-408b91acdcae Description: Created *before* executing '/sbin/vgscan --ignorelockingfailure --mknodes' Backup Time: Fri Jun 28 23:53:20 2013 File: /etc/lvm/backup/VG_XenStorage-x-x-x-x-408b91acdcae VG name: VG_XenStorage-x-x-x-x-408b91acdcae Description: Created *after* executing '/sbin/vgscan --ignorelockingfailure --mknodes' Backup Time: Fri Jun 28 23:53:20 2013

  Read the article

• JSF: Showing/Calling a dialog programatically

  - by Sway

  has anybody an idea to show/call a dialog programatically and add this to stage(actual browser window) ?! I am running in circles and cannot find a solution :/ More background what I want to do: I want to trigger a database update every 2 hours. This I have done with a TimerTask... This works fine for me, the Timertask gets all the data I want from the database... Before this TimerTask is triggered I want to "lock" the screen for some seconds that no user(session scoped) can access the database(this I also know how this will work) ... My problem is that I don't know/ cannot find a way/ i am to stupid to call a dialog programatically ... Any tips, hints would be very cool :) Thanks a lot ! UPDATE: I want to set this primefaces dialog: Dialog dialog = new Dialog(); dialog.setAppendToBody(true); dialog.setModal(true); dialog.setVisible(true); dialog.setWidgetVar("generatedDialog"); dialog.setId("fancyDialog"); dialog.setClosable(false); dialog.setHeader("Getting latest information from the database"); dialog.setDynamic(true); dialog.setResizable(false); dialog.setDraggable(false); How can I do that ? :/ How do I display it to my browser ? :o Regards

  Read the article

• Jquery and Prototype Conflict

  - by patrick

  I am having trouble running two javascript files on the same page. I used JQuery.noConflict() (http://api.jquery.com/jQuery.noConflict/) but no luck. <script src="http://www.google.com/jsapi"></script> <script> google.load("prototype", "1.6.0.3",{uncompressed:false}); google.load("scriptaculous", "1.8.1",{uncompressed:false}); </script> <script src="js/jquery.tools.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $jQuery.noConflict(); jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("#download_now").tooltip({ effect: 'slide'}); }); function show_text() { new Ajax.Request('./new.php', { method: 'post', parameters: { userid: $('userid').value }, onSuccess: function(r) { $('update').update(r.responseText) } }); } document.observe("dom:loaded", function() { $('loading').hide(); Ajax.Responders.register({ onCreate: function() { new Effect.Opacity('loading',{ from: 1.0, to: 0.3, duration: 0.7 }); new Effect.toggle('loading', 'appear'); }, onComplete: function() { new Effect.Opacity('loading', { from: 0.3, to: 1, duration: 0.7 }); new Effect.toggle('loading', 'appear'); } }); }); </script>

  Read the article

• Entity Framework 4 + POCO with custom classes and WCF contracts (serialization problem)

  - by eman

  Yesterday I worked on a project where I upgraded to Entity Framework 4 with the Repository pattern. In one post, I have read that it is necessary to turn off the custom tool generator classes and then write classes (same like entites) by hand. That I can do it, I used the POCO Entity Generator and then deleted the new generated files .tt and all subordinate .cs classes. Then I wrote the "entity classes" by myself. I added the repository pattern and implemented it in the business layer and then implemented a WCF layer, which should call the methods from the business layer. By calling an Insert (Add) method from the presentation layer and everything is OK. But if I call any method that should return some class, then I get an error like (the connection was interrupted by the server). I suppose there is a problem with the serialization or am I wrong? How can by this problem solved? I'm using Visual Studio S2010, Entity Framework 4, C#. UPDATE: I have uploaded the project and hope somebody can help me! link text UPDATE 2: My questions: Why is POCO good (pros/cons)? When should POCO be used? Is POCO + the repository pattern a good choice? Should POCO classes by written by myself or could I use auto generated POCO classes?

  Read the article

• how to get this value on method post using asp.net mvc

  - by kumar

  I have a lable in the view <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<CDC.ITT.Info.StudentBE>" %> <label for="FollowupDate"> Follow-up: <span><input type="text" id="exc-flwup" name="fdate" /></span> </label> $("input[id^='exc-flwup']").datepicker({ duration: '', showTime: true, constrainInput: true, stepMinutes: 30, stepHours: 1, altTimeField: '', time24h: true, minDate: 0 }); when I click on the input field I am getting popupcalender to select the date. My method post is <% using (Html.BeginForm("Update", "home", FormMethod.Post, new { @id = "exc-"})) { %> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(true)%> then Followupdate user is goign to select the perticular date he wants.. when this method post to the method.. public ActionResult Update(StudentBE e) { return View(); } this e should have the date value but I am not able to see the date selected there.. is there anything wrong I am doing here? thanks

  Read the article

• I have created a PHP script and I am lacking to extract the primary key, I have given flow below, pl

  - by Parth

  I am using MySQL DB, working for Joomla, My requirement is tracking the activity like insert/update/delete on any table and store it in another audit table using triggers, i.e. I am doing Auditing. DB's table structure: Few tables dont have any PK nor auto increment key Flow of my script is : I fetch out all table from DB. I check whether the table have any trigger or not. If yes then it moves to check nfor next table and so on. If it does'nt find any trigger then it creates the triggers for the table, such that, -it first checks if the table has any primary key or not(for inserting in Tracking audit table for every change made) if it has the primary key then it uses it further in creation of trigger. if it doesnt find any PK then it proceeds further in creating the trigger without inserting any id in audit table Now here, My problem is I need the PK every time so that I can record the id of any particular table in which the insert/update/delete is performed, so that further i can use this audit track table to replicate in production DB.. Now as I haave mentioned earlier that I am not available with PK/auto-incremented in some table, then what should I do get the particular id in which change is done? please guide me...GEEKS!!!

  Read the article

• Trigger JavaScript action after Datatable is loaded

  - by perissf

  In a JSF 2.1 + PrimeFaces 3.2 web application, I need to trigger a JavaScript function after a p:dataTable is loaded. I know that there is no such event in this component, so I have to find a workaround. In order to better understand the scenario, on page load the dataTable is not rendered. It is rendered after a successful login: <p:commandButton value="Login" update=":aComponentHoldingMyDataTable" action="#{loginBean.login}" oncomplete="handleLoginRequest(xhr, status, args)"/> As you can see from the above code, I have a JavaScript hook after the successful login, if it can be of any help. Immediately after the oncomplete action has finished, the update attribute renders the dataTable: <p:dataTable var="person" value="#{myBean.lazyModel}" rendered="#{p:userPrincipal() != null}" /> After the datatable is loaded, I need to run a JavaScript function on each row item, in order to subscribe to a cometD topic. In theory I could use the oncomplete attribute of the login Button for triggering a property from myBean in order to retrieve once again the values to be displayed in the dataTable, but it doesn't seem very elegant. The JavaScript function should do something with the rowKey of each row of the dataTable: function javaScriptFunctionToBeTriggered(rowKey) { // do something }

  Read the article

• JVM to ignore certificate name mismatch

  - by Heavy Bytes

  I know there were a lot of questions/answers about how to ignore SSL error in the code. On our dev region dev.domain.tld we have configured a app server over SSL. The certificate that is displayed is for somedev.domain.tld. There is no way to change the certificate, it will always be a domain mismatch. So when I deploy a web-service to https://dev.domain.tld and try to connect/call my webservice I get an exception: Caused by: java.security.cert.CertificateException: No name matching dev.domain.tld found And I have the somedev.domain.tld CERT in my trust store. Now, I saw a lot of samples how to change that in the code (using a Trust Manager that accepts all domains), but how do I specify to the JVM to ignore the domain mismatch when connecting to the server? Is there a -Djavax.net.ssl argument or something? Thank you! UPDATE: Or, since I am using Spring-WS, is there a way to set some property in Spring for that? (WebServiceTemplate) UPDATE I guess I'll have to do use something from Spring Security: http://static.springsource.org/spring-ws/sites/1.5/reference/html/security.html

  Read the article

• Host system resets (crashes) when using VMWare or VirtualBox and 64-bit guest systems

  - by sinni800

  I have been trying to install virtual systems on VMWare for a while now and encountered strange behaviour from my PC. The behaviour is as follows: On "automatic" virtualization mode it either outputs a cryptic error message (can MAYBE give later, if I can reproduce) right on startup (before even the BIOS) or it resets the complete HOST system (blackscreen, bios...) If I install a Windows XP on it it works well on "binary translation" mode. If I try installing Linux on it, in "binary translation" mode it crashes 1 or 2 seconds after I hit enter on the GRUB selection screen (after the first page of kernel messages rolled in) Using VirtualBox it crashes right in the BIOS. It gave me a Bluescreen though! 0x00000101: CLOCK_WATCHDOG_TIMEOUT: a clock interrupt was not received on a secondary processor within the allocated time interval NEWS: I tried VirtualBox again and it did not completely crash the computer this time. It gave me a critical error and a log file: http://pastebin.com/yKZSDs91 In conclusion, it will crash instantly if VT-x is activated. If not, it seemingly only crashed if I try to install something with 64 bits. Another update: Yes, it ONLY crashes when the guest is 64 bit! What I tried: Reinstalling Windows (my Windows installation was quite broken so it seemed natural. Didn't work though.) New BIOS What I am certain of: Virtualization extensions are activated in the BIOS What my computer specs are: ASUS P8P67 LE mainboard, newest BIOS/EFI firmware Intel Core i5 2500k Ati Radeon HD 5770 16 GB Corsair 1333mhz DDR3 RAM, 4 X 4 GB

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401 402  | Next Page >