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  • Winsock tcp/ip Socket listening but connection refused, race condition?

    - by Wayne
    Hello folks. This involves two automated unit tests which each start up a tcp/ip server that creates a non-blocking socket then bind()s and listen()s in a loop on select() for a client that connects and downloads some data. The catch is that they work perfectly when run separately but when run as a test suite, the second test client will fail to connect with WSACONNREFUSED... UNLESS there is a Thread.Sleep() of several seconds between them??!!! Interestingly, there is retry loop every 1 second for connecting after any failure. So the second test loops for a while until timeout after 10 minutes. During that time, netstat -na shows the correct port number is in the LISTEN state for the server socket. So if it is in the listen state? Why won't it accept the connection? In the code, there are log messages that show the select NEVER even gets a socket ready to read (which means ready to accept a connection when it applies to a listening socket). Obviously the problem must be related to some race condition between finishing one test which means close() and shutdown() on each end of the socket, and the start up of the next. This wouldn't be so bad if the retry logic allowed it to connect eventually after a couple of seconds. However it seems to get "gummed up" and won't even retry. However, for some strange reason the listening socket SAYS it's in the LISTEN state even through keeps refusing connections. So that means it's the Windoze O/S which is actually catching the SYN packet and returning a RST packet (which means "Connection Refused"). The only other time I ever saw this error was when the code had a problem that caused hundreds of sockets to get stuck in TIME_WAIT state. But that's not the case here. netstat shows only about a dozen sockets with only 1 or 2 in TIME_WAIT at any given moment. Please help.

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  • restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

    - by Justin Grant
    I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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  • Paramaterising SQL in SSIS

    - by Anonymouslemming
    Hi all, I'm trying to paramaterize some queries in SSIS. After some reading, it sounds like my best option is to create one variable that contains my base sql, another that contains my criteria and a final variable that is evaluated as an expression that includes both of these. I want to end up with an SQL query that is effectively UPDATE mytable set something='bar' where something_else='foo' So my first two variables have the scope of my package and are as follows: Name: BaseSQL Data Type: String Value: UPDATE mytable set something = 'bar' where something_else = Name: MyVariable Data Type: String Value: foo My third variable has a scope of the data flow task where I want to use this SQL and is as follows: Name: SQLQuery Data Type: String Value: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" EvaluateAsExpression: True In the OLE DB Source, I then choose my connection and 'SQL command from variable' and select User::SQLQuery from the dropdown box. The Variable Value window then displays the following: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" This is as desired, and would provide the output I want from my DB. The variable name dropdown also contains User::BaseSQL and User::MyVariable so I believe that my namespaces are correct. However, when I then click preview, I get the following error when configuring an OLE DB Source (using SQL command from variable): TITLE: Microsoft Visual Studio Error at Set runtime in DB [Set runtime in myDb DB [1]]: SSIS Error Code DTS_E_OLEDBERROR. An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80040E14. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Statement(s) could not be prepared.". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Must declare the scalar variable "@".". (Microsoft Visual Studio) Can anyone advise what I'm missing or how I can resolve this please ? Thanks in advance!

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  • Reading numpy arrays outside of Python

    - by Abiel
    In a recent question I asked about the fastest way to convert a large numpy array to a delimited string. My reason for asking was because I wanted to take that plain text string and transmit it (over HTTP for instance) to clients written in other programming languages. A delimited string of numbers is obviously something that any client program can work with easily. However, it was suggested that because string conversion is slow, it would be faster on the Python side to do base64 encoding on the array and send it as binary. This is indeed faster. My question now is, (1) how can I make sure my encoded numpy array will travel well to clients on different operating systems and different hardware, and (2) how do I decode the binary data on the client side. For (1), my inclination is to do something like the following import numpy as np import base64 x = np.arange(100, dtype=np.float64) base64.b64encode(x.tostring()) Is there anything else I need to do? For (2), I would be happy to have an example in any programming language, where the goal is to take the numpy array of floats and turn them into a similar native data structure. Assume we have already done base64 decoding and have a byte array, and that we also know the numpy dtype, dimensions, and any other metadata which will be needed. Thanks.

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  • Eclipse CDT setup for remote build

    - by Posco Grubb
    Is there a better way to setup Eclipse CDT for local editing and remote building? I am working on a C++ project that uses GNU make in Linux. The code is under CVS on a Linux server. When I'm in the lab, I use Eclipse CDT on a Linux-x64 PC. The project is built on a Linux-x86 PC. All the computers in the lab (including the CVS server) have NFS mounts. When I'm at home, I use Eclipse CDT on a Windows 7 PC. The Windows PC connects to the Linux CVS server via SSH tunnel. To edit source, I rsync the C++ project under the Linux Eclipse workspace back to my Windows Eclipse workspace. (I can also do a remote CVS checkout on the Windows PC.) To build from home, I use a custom build command that SSH's to the Linux-x86 PC, rsync's the C++ project from my Windows Eclipse workspace to my Linux Eclipse workspace, and then runs make on the Liunx-x86 PC, specifying the correct path for the Makefile. In order to go back and forth between lab and home without committing my changes to CVS every time, I use rsync. When I transition from lab to home, I rsync sources to my Windows Eclipse workspace. When I build from home, the sources get rsync'd back to the Linux Eclipse workspace. Is there a better, less wonky way to do this? (I'm NOT interested in remote debugging.)

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  • JSP: How can I still get the code on my error page to run, even if I can't display it?

    - by Josh Hinman
    I've defined an error-page in my web.xml: <error-page> <exception-type>java.lang.Exception</exception-type> <location>/error.jsp</location> </error-page> In that error page, I have a custom tag that I created. The tag handler for this tag e-mails me the stacktrace of whatever error occurred. For the most part this works great. Where it doesn't work great is if the output has already begun being sent to the client at the time the error occurs. In that case, we get this: SEVERE: Exception Processing ErrorPage[exceptionType=java.lang.Exception, location=/error.jsp] java.lang.IllegalStateException I believe this error happens because we can't redirect a request to the error page after output has already started. The work-around I've used is to increase the buffer size on particularly large JSP pages. But I'm trying to write a generic error handler that I can apply to existing applications, and I'm not sure it's feasible to go through hundreds of JSP pages making sure their buffers are big enough. Is there a way to still allow my stack trace e-mail code to execute in this case, even if I can't actually display the error page to the client?

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  • How do I abort a socket.recv() from another thread in python?

    - by Samuel Skånberg
    I have a main thread that waits for connection. It spawns client threads that will echo the response from the client (telnet in this case). But say that I want to close down all sockets and all threads after some time, like after 1 connection. How would I do? If I do clientSocket.close() from the main thread, it won't stop doing the recv. It will only stop if I first send something through telnet, then it will fail doing further sends and recvs. My code look like this: # Echo server program import socket from threading import Thread import time class ClientThread(Thread): def __init__(self, clientSocket): Thread.__init__(self) self.clientSocket = clientSocket def run(self): while 1: try: # It will hang here, even if I do close on the socket data = self.clientSocket.recv(1024) print "Got data: ", data self.clientSocket.send(data) except: break self.clientSocket.close() HOST = '' PORT = 6000 serverSocket = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) serverSocket.setsockopt(socket.SOL_SOCKET, socket.SO_REUSEADDR, 1) serverSocket.bind((HOST, PORT)) serverSocket.listen(1) clientSocket, addr = serverSocket.accept() print 'Got a new connection from: ', addr clientThread = ClientThread(clientSocket) clientThread.start() time.sleep(1) # This won't make the recv in the clientThread to stop immediately, # nor will it generate an exception clientSocket.close()

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  • Facebook Application with PHP running loosing session

    - by ArneRie
    Iam trying to build an Facebook Application based on PHP. The Application is running under php on my own Webhost inside an Canvas as iFrame. I have included the newest Client Library for PHP from Facebook: facebook-php-sdk-94fcb13 To Authorize the user inside my application iam trying to use Facebook Connect, like the example shipped with the Client. Everything works fine the 1st Login, but when i hit the F5 Key to reload the page, the session is lost and i have to login again. When i call my application outside of the Facebook Canvas everything is fine. Iam not sure, but i think my Browser (Chrome/FireFox - Ubuntu) is not allowing to store an cookie inside an iFrame. Does someone knows an solution for this Problem? Here are some Parts of the Sourcecode: $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'x', 'secret' => 'x', 'cookie' => 'true', )); $session = $facebook->getSession(); $facebook->setSession($session); $me = null; // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } // login or logout url will be needed depending on current user state. if ($me) { $logoutUrl = $facebook->getLogoutUrl(); } else { $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl(); }

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  • Data synchronization using XMPP

    - by Jason
    Hi: I'm looking for some insight/advice on synchronizing data over XMPP. I've never developed anything for XMPP before so excuse me if some of my questions seem ridiculous. Basically, what I have is a decentralized social network. Each person has it's own Web site (or server) with a unique URI (one domain could host many servers). Each of these servers can have many clients. E.g., a desktop application, mobile application, etc. What I would like to accomplish is near real-time synchronization/communication between client and server, e.g., I update something on my desktop application, I see it change on my Web site. My server and client code is Python. So, I would like to make use of SleekXMPP if possible (it's license seems to have changed to MIT). I was thinking, and here is where I need advice, that each server would register an account at a dedicated XMPP server, e.g., [email protected]. and then I could use different resources for clients [email protected]/client1, [email protected]/client2, etc. If anyone can register any username, then maybe I also need some intermediate service (since it's decentralized, i'm not sure how to control registrations). Another option, I guess, is that each server runs it's own xmpp server. Assuming, that was all worked out, if I want to broadcast messages to all my resources (except the sending one), how do I do that? Do I have to subscribe to myself? This also seems like a good candidate for publish-subscribe, let me know if you think that could work and what the design/flow of that process would be. thanks :)

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  • Problem using structured data with sproxy-generated proxy c++ class

    - by Odrade
    I am attempting to communicate structured data types between a Visual C++ client application and an ASP.NET web service. I'm am having issues whenever any parameter or return type is not a basic type (e.g. string, int, float, etc). To illustrate the issue, I created the following ASP.NET web service: namespace TestWebService { [WebService(Namespace = "http://localhost/TestWebService")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] [ToolboxItem(false)] public class Service1 : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public TestData StructuredOutput() { TestData td = new TestData(); td.data = 1729; return td; } } public class TestData { public int data; } } To consume the service, I created a dirt-simple Visual C++ client in VS2005. I added a web reference to the project, which caused sproxy to generate a proxy class for me. With the generated header properly included, I attempted to invoke the service like this: int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { CoInitialize(NULL); Service1::CService1 ws; Service1::TestData td; HRESULT hr = ws.StructuredOutput(&td); //data is returned as expected CoUninitialize(); return 0; } // crashes here with access violation The call to StructuredOutput returns the data as expected, but an access violation occurs on destruction of the CService1 object. The access violation is occurring here (from atlsoap.h): void UninitializeSOAP() { if (m_spReader.p != NULL) { m_spReader->putContentHandler(NULL); //access violation m_spReader.Release(); } } I see the same behavior when using a TestData object as an input parameter, or when using any other structured data types as input or output. When I use basic types for input/output from the web service I do not experience these errors. Any ideas about why this might be happening? Is sproxy screwing something up, or am I? NOTE: I'm aware of gSOAP and the wsdl2h tool, but those aren't freely available for commercial use (and nobody here is going to buy a license). I am open to alternatives for generating the c++ proxy, as long as they are free for commercial use.

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  • Systems design question: DB connection management in load-balanced n-tier

    - by aoven
    I'm wondering about the best approach to designing a DB connection manager for a load-balanced n-tier system. Classic n-tier looks like this: Client -> BusinessServer -> DBServer A load-balancing solution as I see it would then look like this: +--> ... +--+ +--> BusinessServer +--+--> SessionServer --+ Client -> Gateway --+--> BusinessServer +--| +--> DBServer +--> BusinessServer +--+--------------------+ +--> ... +--+ As pictured, the business server component is being load-balanced via multiple instances, and a hardware gateway is distributing the load among them. Session server probably needs to be situated outside the load-balancing array, because it manages state, which mustn't be duplicated. Barring any major errors in design so far, what is the best way to implement DB connection management? I've come up with a couple of options, but there may be others I'm not aware of: Introduce a new Broker component between the DBServer and the other components and let it handle the DB connections. The upside is that all the connections can be managed from a single point, which is very convenient. The downside is that now there is an additional "single point of failure" in the system. Other components must go through it for every request that involves DB in some way, which also makes this a bottleneck. Move the DB connection management into BusinessServer and SessionServer components and let each handle its own DB connections. The upside is that there is no additional "single point of failure" or bottleneck components. The downside is that there is also no control over possible conflicts and deadlocks apart from what DBServer itself can provide. What else can be done? FWIW: Technology is .NET, but none of the vendor-specific stacks are used (e.g. no WCF, MSMQ or the like).

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  • prevent javascript in the WMD editor's preview box

    - by Justin Grant
    There are many SO questions (e.g. here and here) about how to do server-side scrubbing of Markdown produced by the WMD editor to ensure the HTML generated doesn't contain malicious script, like this: <img onload="alert('haha');" src="http://www.google.com/intl/en_ALL/images/srpr/logo1w.png" /> Unfortunately, this still allows script to show up in the WMD client's preview box. I doubt this is a big deal since if you're scrubbing the HTML on the server, an attacker can't save the bad HTML so no one else will be able to see it later and have their cookies stolen or sessions hijacked by the bad script. But it's still kinda odd to allow an attacker to run any script in the context of your site, and it's probably a bad idea to allow the client preview window to allow different HTML than your server will allow. StackOverflow has clearly plugged this hole. How did they do it? [NOTE: I already figured this out but it required some tricky javascript debugging, so I'm answering my own question here to help others who may want to do ths same thing]

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  • Uninterruptible Windows Process

    - by Nullstr1ng
    Hi Guys, We're starting a new custom project right now from a client and one of the requirements is the process cannot be terminated unless the system is shutting down, restarting, or logging-off. This application monitors the USB interface. We will be using WMI to query the device periodically. The client want's to run the application on Windows XP Operating System and doesn't like installing .NET. So we targeted Visual Basic 6 as our language. My main concern is this application cannot be terminated. Our Project Adviser talks about Anti-virus and yes, some of the anti virus cannot be terminated. I was thinking how to do the same in Visual Basic 6. I know there will be API involved on the project but where should I go? so API is ok with me. I saw some articles that converts the EXE to a SERVICE, create Windows Service in Visual Basic 6, etc. So please .. share your thoughts.

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  • Sending an email with browser capabilities and screen size etc.

    - by talkingnews
    A lot of my visitors are blind (with it being a site for the blind), and often when trying to diagnose problems, I'd like to know what version of browser etc they're using, whether flash is installed. Because more often than not, someone will swear they are using X, when in fact Y is installed. Currently, I'm using http://jsbrwsniff.sourceforge.net/usage.html piped into an email, but I've got 2 problems here: First of all, jsbrwsniff is quite "heavy" and hasn't been updated since early 2007, so there's a lot of -1's in the result. Secondly, if I call it as follows, the page reloads: <a href="#" onclick="sendEmail()">Email feedback</a> And if I call it like this, the page goes blank and looks like it's trying to infinitely load a blank page: <a href="javascript:sendEmail()">Email feedback</a> See the nightmare for yourself here: http://kingston.talking-newspapers.co.uk/ Now, I know there are 1001 articles and comments here and elsewhere saying "don't use browser sniffers, they can be spoofed (etc)", but honestly, you'll have to trust me that this is a significantly useful tool when you're talking someone in their more "senior years" and using a screenreader through "help about", when they've clicked the wrong window to start with! I'm using jquery anyway in the site, and I'm aware of $jQuery.browser and $jQuery.support, but these don't tell me the elements I need (like whether Flash is installed, and what version etc). I've looked everywhere for a jquery plugin for my needs, with no luck. Finally, if I have to stick to the current method of jsbrwsniff then it's not the end of the world, but if anyone knows a way of launching the user's email client populated with the information I need but WITHOUT refreshing or blanking the page, I'd love to know. BTW - there's a good reason for not using a webform, which is simply because it's easier for the screen-reader user to use an email client they are used to. Thanks!

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  • About AMR audio file playing issue on different devices

    - by user352537
    I have got a quite strange problem here. I am developing an IM software and need to play audio files recorded by another client on Android. The same audio file I've got can be played with AVAudioPlayer on 3GS(IOS 4.2.1) device and simulator 4.2. But when I tried by play it on iPhone4(iOS 4.3.3), the function "play" always return NO. I also tried with two iPhone devices, the audio files recorded by iPhone client can be played on both 3GS and iPhone4. So I asked the Android developers about the record parameters they've used. They said that the "AudioEncoder" used by them was "DEFAULT". There are also some other parameters as following: **private AudioEncoder() {} public static final int DEFAULT = 0; /** AMR (Narrowband) audio codec */ public static final int AMR_NB = 1; /** @hide AMR (Wideband) audio codec */ public static final int AMR_WB = 2; /** @hide AAC audio codec */ public static final int AAC = 3; /** @hide enhanced AAC audio codec */ public static final int AAC_PLUS = 4; /** @hide enhanced AAC plus audio codec */ public static final int EAAC_PLUS = 5;** Does anybody know what's the matter?

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  • RestSharp post object to WCF

    - by steve
    Im having an issue posting an object to my wcf rest webservice. On the WCF side I have the following: [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "", Method = "POST")] public void Create(myObject object) { //save some stuff to the db } When im debugging this never gets hit - it does however get hit when I remove the parameter so im guessing ive done something wrong on the restSharp side of things. Heres my code for that part: var client = new RestClient(ApiBaseUri); var request = new RestRequest(Method.POST); request.RequestFormat = DataFormat.Xml; request.AddBody(myObject); var response = client.Execute(request); Am I doing this wrong? How can the WCF side see my object? What way should I be making the reqest? Or should I be handling it differently WCF side? Things ive tried: request.AddObject(myObject); and request.AddBody(request.XmlSerialise.serialise(myObject)); Any help and understanding in what could possibly be wrong would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • How to detect a WCF session crash before calling a contract method?

    - by brain_pusher
    I am using a session mode for my WCF service. The problem is the following: if session is broken and no longer exists, client can't know it before calling a contract. For example, if the service has been restarted, the client's session id is invalid, because that session has been closed on the server side. I check the channel state before calling the contract and its value is CommunicationState.Opened even if session is already broken. So, when I call the contract after this check I get a CommunicationException with this message: The remote endpoint no longer recognizes this sequence. This is most likely due to an abort on the remote endpoint. The value of wsrm:Identifier is not a known Sequence identifier. The reliable session was faulted. Is there any workaround? I need a way to get an appropriate session state before calling a contract so that I can restore it without getting an exception. P.S. The CommunicationException type is general, so I can't detect a session crash by catching this exception. P.P.S. I have asked the similar question here, but in that case I didn't know the reason, now I don't know how to evade it.

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  • How would you code a washing machine?

    - by Dan
    Imagine I have a class that represents a simple washing machine. It can perform following operations in the following order: turn on - wash - centrifuge - turn off. I see two basic alternatives: A) I can have a class WashingMachine with methods turnOn(), wash(int minutes), centrifuge(int revs), turnOff(). The problem with this is that the interface says nothing about the correct order of operations. I can at best throw InvalidOprationException if the client tries to centrifuge before machine was turned on. B) I can let the class itself take care of correct transitions and have the single method nextOperation(). The problem with this on the other hand, is that the semantics is poor. Client will not know what will happen when he calls the nextOperation(). Imagine you implement the centrifuge button’s click event so it calls nextOperation(). User presses the centrifuge button after machine was turned on and ups! machine starts to wash. I will probably need a few properties on my class to parameterize operations, or maybe a separate Program class with washLength and centrifugeRevs fields, but that is not really the problem. Which alternative is better? Or maybe there are some other, better alternatives that I missed to describe?

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  • Conditional "Get Script File" in Javascript without using a library function

    - by Adam
    I work at a company that has many clients that have their own website that "plugs in" to our system. In other words they have their own website and they have a link that, when the user clicks it, transitions them over to our site. There is a feature that I want to track by giving the client a small block of code to put on their homepage. Whenever the homepage is loaded with a certain query string variable I want the block of code to request a file on my server. Then on the server I'll record the tracking info based on the query string. All this would be really easy if I can guarantee that the client would be using jQuery or some similar library, but there are a lot of clients and I can't really rely on them all using jQuery. At the same time I'd like to limit the size of the block of javascript code that they paste in. I think the best solution would be to have something like: if(querystring.substring("Tracking=") > 0) { include("blah.aspx?TrackingQS=" + querystring); } but I can't find a include function in built-in javascript without calling some library like jQuery. Any thoughts?? I could do straight up AJAX but I want to limit the number of lines of code for several reasons that I won't bore you with here.

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  • sending email with codeigniter

    - by Maru
    I have this MODEL and I get the email which I want to send class Cliente_Model extends CI_Model{ public function getInfo($id){ $this->db->select('*'); $this->db->from('pendientes'); $query = $this->db->get(); if($query->num_rows() > 0) { foreach ($query->result_array() as $row) { return $row['email']; } } else { return FALSE; } } } CONTROLLER $this->load->model('cliente_model', 'client'); $clientInfo = $this->client->getInfo($id); $this->email->from('[email protected]', 'Demo'); $this->email->to($clientInfo); $this->email->subject('Email Test'); $this->email->message('your user is '.$clientInfo.' and your password is '.$clave); $this->email->send(); and I need some help here, I can get the email and it can send it perfectly but in the message I need to send the password also and I don't know how I can get it from the model. thanks in advance!

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  • How much does Website Development cost nowadays?

    - by Andreas Grech
    I am thinking of setting up my own freelance business but coming from a workplace that offers a particular service to huge clients, I do not know what are the current charges for websites are nowadays. I know that as technology just keeps changing and changing (most of the time, for the better...), the amount you charge for a single website is constantly differing. Like for example, I don't think static websites (with just static html pages) are that expensive today, no? (as i said, I might be mistaken since I haven't really touched on this freelance industry yet) So, freelance web-developers out there, can you give me estimates on how much you charge for your clients? Some examples of websites that I want to know an approx charge: ~10 static html pages ~10 dhtml pages (with maybe a flasy menu on the top/side) Database driven websites with a standard CMS (be it the one you developed, or an existing one) Database driven but with a custom-built cms for the particular client Using an existing template for a design Starting the design from scratch etc... I know that the normally clients don't really care about the technologies used to construct their websites, but do you charge differently according to which technology you use to build the website with?; as in, is the technology a factor when setting the price? ...being ASP.Net, PHP, Ruby On Rails etc... Also, how do you go on about charging your clients for your services? What are the major factors that you consider when setting a price tag for a website to a client ? And better yet, how do you even find prospective clients? <= [or should I leave this question for a different post?] Btw, in your post, also mention some numbers (in cash values, be it in USD, GBP, EUR or anything) because I want to be able to take calculate some averages from this post when some answers stack up

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  • Custom model validation of dependent properties using Data Annotations

    - by Darin Dimitrov
    Since now I've used the excellent FluentValidation library to validate my model classes. In web applications I use it in conjunction with the jquery.validate plugin to perform client side validation as well. One drawback is that much of the validation logic is repeated on the client side and is no longer centralized at a single place. For this reason I'm looking for an alternative. There are many examples out there showing the usage of data annotations to perform model validation. It looks very promising. One thing I couldn't find out is how to validate a property that depends on another property value. Let's take for example the following model: public class Event { [Required] public DateTime? StartDate { get; set; } [Required] public DateTime? EndDate { get; set; } } I would like to ensure that EndDate is greater than StartDate. I could write a custom validation attribute extending ValidationAttribute in order to perform custom validation logic. Unfortunately I couldn't find a way to obtain the model instance: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // value represents the property value on which this attribute is applied // but how to obtain the object instance to which this property belongs? return true; } } I found that the CustomValidationAttribute seems to do the job because it has this ValidationContext property that contains the object instance being validated. Unfortunately this attribute has been added only in .NET 4.0. So my question is: can I achieve the same functionality in .NET 3.5 SP1? UPDATE: It seems that FluentValidation already supports clientside validation and metadata in ASP.NET MVC 2. Still it would be good to know though if data annotations could be used to validate dependent properties.

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  • Windows service hangs

    - by Ram
    Hi, I have a webdav client-server application. I'm using Cassini webserver to host the webdav server. One important thing here is that I start and Stop my webserver using a windows service. Now, I start my windows service and I attach my webdav server application's debugger to the windows service. Everything used to go fine, that is I could connect to the server using my webdav client, debug the server code. However, a couple of days back, when I tried to debug my webdav server application, which in turn is attached to a windows service, my computer freezes while I'm in the midst of debugging the server app. The freeze does not occur at the same line every time and is therefore not predictable. Every time this happens, I would not be able to do anything at all with my computer except to reboot the system using the power button. What could be the problem? Could it be the service that is freezing or something else? Any help? Thanks, Ram

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  • [WEB] Local/Dev/Live deployment - best workflow

    - by Adam Kiss
    Hello, situation We our little company with 3 people, each has a localhost webserver and most projects (previous and current) are on one PC network shared disk. We have virtual server, where some of our clients' sites and our site. Our standard workflow is: Coder PC ? Programmer localhost ? dev domain (client.company.com) ? live version (client.com) It often happens, that there are two or three guys working on same projects at the same time - one is on dev version, two are on localhost. When finished, we try to synchronize the files on dev version and ideally not to mess (thanks ILMV:]) up any files, which *knock knock * doesn't happen often. And then one of us deploys dev version on live webserver. question we are looking for a way to simplify this workflow while updating websites - ideally some sort of diff uploader or VCS probably (Git/SVN/VCS/...), but we are not completely sure where to begin or what way would be ideal, therefore I ask you, fellow stackoverflowers for your experience with website / application deployment and recommended workflow. We probably will also need to use Mac in process, so if it won't be a problem, that would be even better. Thank you

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  • Setting an Excel Range with an Array using Python and comtypes?

    - by technomalogical
    Using comtypes to drive Python, it seems some magic is happening behind the scenes that is not converting tuples and lists to VARIANT types: # RANGE(“C14:D21”) has values # Setting the Value on the Range with a Variant should work, but # list or tuple is not getting converted properly it seems >>>from comtypes.client import CreateObject >>>xl = CreateObject("Excel.application") >>>xl.Workbooks.Open(r'C:\temp\my_file.xlsx') >>>xl.Visible = True >>>vals=tuple([(x,y) for x,y in zip('abcdefgh',xrange(8))]) # creates: #(('a', 0), ('b', 1), ('c', 2), ('d', 3), ('e', 4), ('f', 5), ('g', 6), ('h', 7)) >>>sheet = xl.Workbooks[1].Sheets["Sheet1"] >>>sheet.Range["C14","D21"].Value() (('foo',1),('foo',2),('foo',3),('foo',4),('foo',6),('foo',6),('foo',7),('foo',8)) >>>sheet.Range["C14","D21"].Value[()] = vals # no error, this blanks out the cells in the Range According to the comtypes docs: When you pass simple sequences (lists or tuples) as VARIANT parameters, the COM server will receive a VARIANT containing a SAFEARRAY of VARIANTs with the typecode VT_ARRAY | VT_VARIANT. This seems to be inline with what MSDN says about passing an array to a Range's Value. I also found this page showing something similar in C#. Can anybody tell me what I'm doing wrong? EDIT I've come up with a simpler example that performs the same way (in that, it does not work): >>>from comtypes.client import CreateObject >>>xl = CreateObject("Excel.application") >>>xl.Workbooks.Add() >>>sheet = xl.Workbooks[1].Sheets["Sheet1"] # at this point, I manually typed into the range A1:B3 >>> sheet.Range("A1","B3").Value() ((u'AAA', 1.0), (u'BBB', 2.0), (u'CCC', 3.0)) >>>sheet.Range("A1","B3").Value[()] = [(x,y) for x,y in zip('xyz',xrange(3))] # Using a generator expression, per @Mike's comment # However, this still blanks out my range :(

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