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• ASP.NET 2.0 + Firefox/Safari - UI Issues?

  - by Tejaswi Yerukalapudi

  I'm developing on a system that was originally developed five years ago. I don't have access to the complete source code of the system, but it is completely driven by XML and runs on ASP.NET 2.0. This was originally written for IE6, but since Microsoft has officially decided to dump it, we moved to IE7. Some javascript is added on the client side, but nothing that changes the UI has been done. (We had to integrate a credit card reader into the system) This code is accessed primarily on tablet PCs running windows, but I'd like to persuade my company to use the iPad. [The tablet somehow costs around 3k$. I think selling a 3000$ device to a client when you have the iPad for 500$ is ridiculous.] Now, my problem is if we open it in any other browser (Tested it on safari / firefox), the UI is completely messed up with elements completely out of place. Doesn't ASP.NET generate HTML that runs on any browser? My second question is if there are any credit card readers available in the market that integrate with the iPad. I don't really care about the software part as it's taken care by our company, I just need it to read the card details and post it to the server. Thanks, Teja.

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• BackgroundWorker Help needed

  - by ChrisMuench

  I have code that does a web-service request. While doing this request I need a progress-bar to be moving independently. My problem is that I just need to say run a progress update every 1 or 2 seconds and check to see if progress of the request has been completed. NetBasisServicesSoapClient client = new NetBasisServicesSoapClient(); TransactionDetails[] transactions = new TransactionDetails[dataGridView1.Rows.Count - 1]; for (int i = 0; i < dataGridView1.Rows.Count - 1; i++) { transactions[i] = new TransactionDetails(); transactions[i].TransactionDate = (string)dataGridView1.Rows[i].Cells[2].Value; transactions[i].TransactionType = (string)dataGridView1.Rows[i].Cells[3].Value; transactions[i].Shares = (string)dataGridView1.Rows[i].Cells[4].Value; transactions[i].Pershare = (string)dataGridView1.Rows[i].Cells[5].Value; transactions[i].TotalAmount = (string)dataGridView1.Rows[i].Cells[6].Value; } CostbasisResult result = client.Costbasis(dataGridView1.Rows[0].Cells[0].Value.ToString(), dataGridView1.Rows[0].Cells[1].Value.ToString(), transactions, false, "", "", "FIFO", true); string result1 = ConvertStringArrayToString(result.Details);

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• Random problem connecting to MySQL

  - by CharlesLeaf

  Environment: RHEL 5 servers, MySQL 5.1.43, PHP 5.1.6 (using MySQLi). Currently only available within our internal VPN network. Servers ServerA: Webserver ServerB/C/D: Database server (1 master 2 slaves) The error (on ServerA) [Tue May 25 11:12:17 2010] [error] [client CLIENTIP] PHP Warning: mysqli::real_connect() [function.mysqli-real-connect]: (HY000/2003): Can't connect to MySQL server on 'ServerB' (4) in /home/**/Database.php on line 67, referer: [website] Problem description It appears that at completely random times, our website is unable to connect to one of the MySQL servers - usually the Master. Except for the forementioned error message, there is nothing to be found in any of the logs as far as I can see, and most of the times the connection is succesful and everything works as it should. It's just at completely random times, this error pops up. There's no firewall blocking any internal traffic, timeout value is 3 but it doesn't take 3 seconds before it fails to connect. With the default mysql client I can connect from ServerA to ServerB,C and D and haven't encountered a problem yet. Does anyone have a clue what I might be overlooking / could be the problem? Because I've run out of ideas myself.

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• Where does the delete control go in my Cocoa user interface?

  - by Graham Lee

  Hi, I have a Cocoa application managing a collection of objects. The collection is presented in an NSCollectionView, with a "new object" button nearby so users can add to the collection. Of course, I know that having a "delete object" button next to that button would be dangerous, because people might accidentally knock it when they mean to create something. I don't like having "are you sure you want to..." dialogues, so I dispensed with the "delete object". There's a menu item under Edit for removing an object, and you can hit Cmd-backspace to do the same. The app supports undoing delete actions. Now I'm getting support emails ranging from "does it have to be so hard to delete things" to "why can't I delete objects?". That suggests I've made it a bit too hard, so what's the happy middle ground? I see applications from Apple that do it my way, or with the add/remove buttons next to each other, but I hate that latter option. Is there another good (and preferably common) convention for delete controls? I thought about an action menu but I don't think I have any other actions that would go in it, rendering the menu a bit thin.

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• Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

  - by user555937

  Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

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• Threadpool design question

  - by ZeroVector

  I have a design question. I want some feedback to know if a ThreadPool is appropriate for the client program I am writing. I am having a client running as a service processing database records. Each of these records contains connection information to external FTP sites [basically it is a queue of files to transfer]. A lot of them are to the same host, just moving different files. Therefore, I am grouping them together by host. I want to be able to create a new thread per host. I really don't care when the transfers finish, they just need to do all the work (or try to do) they were assigned, and then terminate once they are finished, cleaning up all resources they used in the process. I anticipate no more than 10-25 connections to be established. Once the transfer queue is empty, the program will simply wait until there are records in the queue again. Is the ThreadPool a good candidate for this or should I use a different approach? Edit: For the most part, this is the only significant custom application running on the server.

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• How to get Amazon s3 PHP SDK working?

  - by JakeRow123

  I'm trying to set up s3 for the first time and trying to run the sample file that comes with the PHP sdk that creates a bucket and attempts to upload some demo files to it. But this is the error I am getting: The difference between the request time and the current time is too large. I read on another question on SO that this is because Amazon determines a valid request by comparing the times between the server and the client, that the 2 must be within a 15 min span of one another. Now here is the problem. My laptop's time is 12:30AM June 8, 2012 at the moment. On my server I created a file called servertime.php and placed this code in that file: <?php print strftime('%c'); ?> and the output is: Fri Jun 8 00:31:22 2012 It looks like the day is correct but I don't know what to make of 00:31:22. In any case, how is it possible to always make sure the time between the client and server is within a 15 minute window of one another. What if I have a user in China who wishes to upload a file on my site which uses s3 for the cdn. Then the time difference would be over a day. How can I make sure all my user's times are within 15 minutes of my server time? What if the user is in the U.S. but the time on their machine is misconfigured. Basically how to get s3 bucket creation and upload to work?

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• When to define SDD operations System->Actor?

  - by devoured elysium

  I am having some trouble understanding how to make SDDs, as I don't fully grasp why in some cases one should define operations for System - Actor and in others don't. Here is an example: 1) The User tells the System that wants to buy some tickets, stating his client number. 2) The System confirms that the given client number is valid. 3) The User tells the System the movie that wants to see. 4) The System shows the set of available sessions and seats for that movie. 5) The System asks the user which session/seat he wants. 6) The user tells the System the chosen session/seat. This would be converted to: a) -----> tellClientNumber(clientNumber) b) <----- validClientNumber c) -----> tellMovieToSee(movie) d) <----- showsAvailableSeatsHours e) -----> tellSystemChosenSessionSeat(session, seat) I know that when we are dealing with SDD's we are still far away from coding. But I can't help trying to imagine how it how it would have been had I to convert it right away to code: I can understand 1) and 2). It's like if it was a C#/Java method with the following signature: boolean tellClientNumber(clientNumber) so I put both on the SDD. Then, we have the pair 3) 4). I can imagine that as something as: SomeDataStructureThatHoldsAvailableSessionsSeats tellSystemMovieToSee(movie) Now, the problem: From what I've come to understand, my lecturer says that we shouldn't make an operation on the SDD for 5) as we should only show operations from the Actor to the System and when the System is either presenting us data (as in c)) or validating sent data (such as in b)). I find this odd, as if I try to imagine this like a DOS app where you have to put your input sequencially, it makes sense to make an arrow even for 5). Why is this wrong? How should I try to visualize this? Thanks

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• Switch front-end's of a website after X amount of hits

  - by Derek Adair

  Sorry about the title - not sure what to call this one. A client of mine would like to redirect users to different front-ends of his eCommerce site based on a hit-counter (possibly a timer?). important: -The content is moderately different in the two sites, enough to consider them two different websites. Knowing this client he will likely add more drastic content changes and other front-ends. So for this question consider the content to be -This site has a rather large back-end. With affiliate networking, multiple payment gateways, order-tracking, and several other features in the works. It is essential that these two front-ends have identical back-end functionality I know that if it was just a simple CSS swap this would be as simple as an if statement that ran off some kind of counter stored in a DB... but the different HTML markup is throwing me for a loop. Q: How can I serve two different front-ends (HTML/CSS) based on a hit counter? Also, I don't have any clue what to tag this one as...

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• Best Practice: Protecting Personally Identifiable Data in a ASP.NET / SQL Server 2008 Environment

  - by William

  Thanks to a SQL injection vulnerability found last week, some of my recommendations are being investigated at work. We recently re-did an application which stores personally identifiable information whose disclosure could lead to identity theft. While we read some of the data on a regular basis, the restricted data we only need a couple of times a year and then only two employees need it. I've read up on SQL Server 2008's encryption function, but I'm not convinced that's the route I want to go. My problem ultimately boils down to the fact that we're either using symmetric keys or assymetric keys encrypted by a symmetric key. Thus it seems like a SQL injection attack could lead to a data leak. I realize permissions should prevent that, permissions should also prevent the leaking in the first place. It seems to me the better method would be to asymmetrically encrypt the data in the web application. Then store the private key offline and have a fat client that they can run the few times a year they need to access the restricted data so the data could be decrypted on the client. This way, if the server get compromised, we don't leak old data although depending on what they do we may leak future data. I think the big disadvantage is this would require re-writing the web application and creating a new fat application (to pull the restricted data). Due to the recent problem, I can probably get the time allocated, so now would be the proper time to make the recommendation. Do you have a better suggestion? Which method would you recommend? More importantly why?

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• How to send KeyEvents through an input method service to a Dialog, or a Spinner menu?

  - by shutdown11

  I'm trying to implement an input method service that receives intents sent by a remote client, and in response to those sends an appropriate KeyEvent. I'm using in the input method service this method private void keyDownUp(int keyEventCode) { getCurrentInputConnection().sendKeyEvent( new KeyEvent(KeyEvent.ACTION_DOWN, keyEventCode)); getCurrentInputConnection().sendKeyEvent( new KeyEvent(KeyEvent.ACTION_UP, keyEventCode)); } to send KeyEvents as in the Simple Sofykeyboard Sample, and it works in the home, in Activities... but it doesn't works when a Dialog or the menu of a Spinner is in foreground. The events is sent to the parent activity behind the Dialog. Is there any way to send keys and control the device like using the hardware keys from an input method? Better explanation on what I'm trying to do: I am kind of writng an Input Method that allows to control the device from remote. I write in a client (a java application on my desktop pc) a command (for example "UP"), a server on the device with sendBroadcast() sends the intent with the information, and a receiver in the input method gets it and call keyDownUp with the keycode of the DPAD_UP key. It generally works, but when I go to an app that shows a dialog, the keyDownUp method don't sends the key event to the dialog, for example for select the yes or not buttons, but it keeps to control the activty behind the Dialog.

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• Server side aggregation using Spring MVC Controllers

  - by Venu

  Hi! We have a web site with multiple pages each with lot of AJAX calls. All the Ajax calls go to a data proxy layer written in Spring 3 MVC application. In order to reduce the load on the server we are planning to aggregate calls on the client and send to the proxy layer. For ex: we have two calls /controller1/action1 and /controller2/action2 in different controllers. I want to write an aggregate controller and call it from the client instead of making two calls to the individual controllers. Something like /aggregatecontroller/aggregate (and we will post the information regarding which calls are being aggregated and required parameters). Is there any way we can call another controller/action from a controller/action and get output? The flow will be something like this: a. Call /aggregatecontroller/aggregate with info regd call1 and call2 b. aggregate action understands that it needs to aggregate call1 and call2 c. it calls /controller1/action1 and gets the response d. it calls /controller2/action2 and gets the response e. it merges both in a json response and sends it back to browser. Please let me know if you have any suggestion regd how to do this or if you think there is a better approach to do the server side aggregation. Thanks for your time.

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• get id parameter and increment count for each click in jquery

  - by Jean

  Hello, I want to get the id value of c_i. And each time c_i is clicked I want to increment the value at chk_count, using jquery <div id='d<? echo $i; ?>' style='margin-bottom:8px; border:#cccccc thin solid; height:25px;'> <span style='color:#cccccc; margin-right:5px;'><? echo $i; ?></span> <span><? echo $row_dw_all['d1e']; ?></span> <span style='position:absolute;right:0px;'> <input type='checkbox' name='c_i<? echo $i; ?>' id="c_i<? echo $i; ?>" value='<? echo $row_dw_all['dle']; ?>'> </span> </div> <input type="hidden" name="chk_count" id="chk_count" value="" /> Thanks Jean

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• Resumable Upload in Ruby on Rails

  - by user253011

  Hi, I have been searching for a way for resumable file upload in RoR. In conclusion, I found out other than Java Applet no client-side-and-cross-platform agent can access the file system in such a way that to request the file from the position where the upload got terminated (due to any reason) with some exceptions like http://github.com/taf2/resume-up/tree/master (built in native Ruby, but requires google gears which is not "reliable" yet when it comes to cross platform almost same story as of ActiveX!) Since the only reliable option left is java applet, is there any good tutorial/forum/documentation for those paid java applets, such as "thin slice upload" etc. to make it work with rails application. I have found one http : // github . com / dassi / mediaclue , its a non-multi-ligual-German-Application in which they used jumploader. But in that application, I am unable to see resumable functionality. Scratching my head against their documentation, i found out http : // jumploader.com / doc_resume.html It tells that jumploader has resume functionality in Cross session resume, the one i am looking for (if the user close the browser the new session gets hold on uncompleted uploaded files from the old session against the user id). But I cant find any example on their demos page which actually pause/RESUME functionality in a continuous manner! Is it even possible to achieve that kind of resumable functionality. Please tell me about any options/example/demos preferable deployed in rails. I shall be very much obliged. ~ Thanks

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• My C# UploadFile method successfully uploads a file, but then my UI hangs...

  - by kyrathaba

  I have a simple WinForms test application in C#. Using the following method, I'm able to upload a file when I invoke the method from my button's Click event handler. The only problem is: my Windows Form "freezes". I can't close it using the Close button. I have to end execution from within the IDE (Visual C# 2010 Express edition). Here are the two methods: public void UploadFile(string FullPathFilename) { string filename = Path.GetFileName(FullPathFilename); try { FtpWebRequest request = (FtpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(_remoteHost + filename); request.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.UploadFile; request.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(_remoteUser, _remotePass); StreamReader sourceStream = new StreamReader(FullPathFilename); byte[] fileContents = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(sourceStream.ReadToEnd()); request.ContentLength = fileContents.Length; Stream requestStream = request.GetRequestStream(); requestStream.Write(fileContents, 0, fileContents.Length); FtpWebResponse response = (FtpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); response.Close(); requestStream.Close(); sourceStream.Close(); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message, "Upload error"); } finally { } } which gets called here: private void btnUploadTxtFile_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string username = "my_username"; string password = "my_password"; string host = "ftp://mywebsite.com"; try { clsFTPclient client = new clsFTPclient(host + "/httpdocs/non_church/", username, password); client.UploadFile(Path.GetDirectoryName(Application.ExecutablePath) + "\\myTextFile.txt"); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message, "Upload problem"); } }

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• Handling Apache Thrift list/map Return Types in C++

  - by initzero

  First off, I'll say I'm not the most competent C++ programmer, but I'm learning, and enjoying the power of Thrift. I've implemented a Thrift Service with some basic functions that return void, i32, and list. I'm using a Python client controlled by a Django web app to make RPC calls and it works pretty well. The generated code is pretty straight forward, except for list returns: namespace cpp Remote enum N_PROTO { N_TCP, N_UDP, N_ANY } service Rcon { i32 ping() i32 KillFlows() i32 RestartDispatch() i32 PrintActiveFlows() i32 PrintActiveListeners(1:i32 proto) list<string> ListAllFlows() } The generated signatures from Rcon.h: int32_t ping(); int32_t KillFlows(); int32_t RestartDispatch(); int32_t PrintActiveFlows(); int32_t PrintActiveListeners(const int32_t proto); int64_t ListenerBytesReceived(const int32_t id); void ListAllFlows(std::vector<std::string> & _return); As you see, the ListAllFlows() function generated takes a reference to a vector of strings. I guess I expect it to return a vector of strings as laid out in the .thrift description. I'm wondering if I am meant to provide the function a vector of strings to modify and then Thrift will handle returning it to my client despite the function returning void. I can find absolutely no resources or example usages of Thrift list< types in C++. Any guidance would be appreciated.

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• sendto is returning ENOBUF

  - by user338159

  Hi, I am currently running an old system on Tru64 which involves lots of UDP sockets using the sendto() function. The sockets are used in our code to send messages to/from various processes and then eventually on to a thick client app that is connected remotely. Occasionally the socket to the thick client gets stuck, this can cause some of these messages to get built up. My question is how can I determine the current buffer size, and how do I determine the maximum message buffer. The code below gives a snippet of how I set up the port and use the sendto function. /* need to adjust the maximum size we can send on this / / as it needs to be able to cope with the biggest / / messages we send / lenlen = sizeof(len) ; / allow double for when the system is under load */ len = 2 * C_MAX_MESSAGE_DATA_SIZE ; lpos_setsockopt(FATAL, msg_socket,SOL_SOCKET, SO_SNDBUF, &len, lenlen, &error_no) ; result = sendto( msg_socket, (char *)message, (int)message_len, flags, dest_addr, addrlen); Note. We have ported this application to Linux and the problem does not seem to appear there. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Regards

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• Consume a JSON webservice and process data in Android

  - by user1783391

  I am trying to consume a the webservice below http://62.253.195.179/disaster/webservices/login.php?message=[{"email":"[email protected]","password":"welcome"}] This returns a JSON array [{"companyuserId":"2","name":"ben stein","superiorname":"Leon","departmentId":"26","departmentname":"Development","companyId":"23","UDID":"12345","isActive":"1","devicetoken":"12345","email":"[email protected]","phone":"5456465465654","userrole":"1","chngpwdStatus":"1"}] My code is below try{ String weblink = URLEncoder.encode("http://62.253.195.179/disaster/webservices/login.php?message=[{\"email\":\"[email protected]\",\"password\":\"welcome\"}]"); HttpParams httpParameters = new BasicHttpParams(); int timeoutConnection = 7500; HttpConnectionParams.setConnectionTimeout(httpParameters, timeoutConnection); int timeoutSocket = 7500; HttpConnectionParams.setSoTimeout(httpParameters, timeoutSocket); HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(httpParameters); HttpGet request = new HttpGet(); URI link = new URI(weblink); request.setURI(link); HttpResponse response = client.execute(request); BufferedReader rd = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader( response.getEntity().getContent())); result = rd.readLine(); JSONObject myData = new JSONObject(result); JSONArray jArray = myData.getJSONArray(""); JSONObject steps = jArray.getJSONObject(0); String name = steps.getString("name"); } catch (JSONException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } But its not working and I am not 100% sure this is the best way to do it. 11-10 10:49:55.489: E/AndroidRuntime(392): java.lang.IllegalStateException: Target host must not be null, or set in parameters.

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• How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

  - by Dimitri C.

  In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

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• Phonegap Android application exiting - but not really - when home button is pressed

  - by Lucas T

  I have created an Phonegap 1.5/Android application. My client reports that, when he leaves the app using the Home button, and then relaunches it using the app icon, the app relaunches from the start instead of resuming. However, when he holds the home button, the app appears in the running apps, and when he accesses the app through this menu, the app resumes in the expected way. I thought this could be linked to the app being automatically closed by the OS due to a lack of memory, but if that was the case the app shouldn't appear in the running apps. I could not reproduce the bug on my Sony Ericsson XPERIA with Android 2.3.4, the client has experienced this behaviour on a Motorola Defy and on another phone (i'll add the reference of the other phone and the OS versions as soon as I get them). The initialization process of the app is declared this way : window.addEventListener('load', function(){ document.addEventListener('deviceready', _onDeviceReady, false); }, false); Could this be fixed by attaching the processes to other events (although I doubt it, the app really seems to be relaunched from the start) ? Is there a declaration to make in the Android Manifest to prevent this behavior ? Is that a known bug in some Android phones/versions ?

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• AIX specific socket programming query

  - by kumar_m_kiran

  Hi All, Question 1 From SUSE man pages, I get the below details for socket connect options If the initiating socket is connection-mode, then connect() shall attempt to establish a connection to the address specified by the address argument. If the connection cannot be established immediately and O_NONBLOCK is not set for the file descriptor for the socket, connect() shall block for up to an unspecified timeout interval until the connection is established. If the timeout interval expires before the connection is established, connect() shall fail and the connection attempt shall be aborted. If connect() is interrupted by a signal that is caught while blocked waiting to establish a connection, connect() shall fail and set errno to [EINTR], but the connection request shall not be aborted, and the connection shall be established asynchronously. Question : Is the above contents valid for AIX OS (especially the connection time-out, timed wait ...etc)?Because I do not see it in AIX man pages (5.1 and 5.3) Question 2 I have a client socket whose attributes are a. SO_RCVTIMEO ,SO_SNDTIMEO are set for 5 seconds. b. AF_INET and SOCK_STREAM. c. SO_LINGER with linger on and time is 5 seconds. d. SO_REUSEADDR is set. Note that the client socket is not O_NONBLOCK. Question : Now since O_NONBLOCK is not set and SO_RCVTIMEO and SO_SNDTIMEO is set for 5 seconds, does it mean a. connect in NON Blocking or Blocking? b. If blocking, is it timed blocking or "infinite" time blocking? c. If it is infinite, How do I establish a "connect" system call which is O_BLOCKING with timeout to t secs. Sorry if the questions are be very naive. Thanks in advance for your input.

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• CXF code first service, WSDL generation; soap:address changes?

  - by jcalvert

  I have a simple Java interface/implementation I am exposing via CXF. I have a jaxws element in my Spring configuration file like this: <jaxws:endpoint id="managementServiceJaxws" implementor="#managementService" address="/jaxws/ManagementService" > </jaxws:endpoint> It generates the WSDL from my annotated interface and exposes the service. Then when I hit http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService?wsdl I get a lovely WSDL. At the bottom in the wsdl:service element, I'll see <soap:address location="http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService"/> However, some time a day or so later, with no application restart, hitting that same url produces: This causes a number of problems, but what I really want is to fix it. Right now, there's a particular client to the webservice that sets the endpoint to localhost; because it runs on the same machine. Is it possible the wsdl is getting regenerated and cached and then exposing the 'localhost' version? In part I don't know the exact mechanism by which one goes from a ?wsdl request in CXF to the response. It seems almost certain that it's retrieving some cached version, given that it's supposed to be determining the address by asking the servletcontainer (Jetty). For reference I know a stopgap solution is using the hostname on the client and making sure an alias in place so that it goes over the loopback. EDIT: For reference, I confirmed that if I bring my application up and first hit it over localhost, then querying for the wsdl via the hostname shows the address as localhost. Conversely, first hitting it over the hostname causes localhost requests to show the hostname. So obviously something is getting cached here.

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• Legacy application creates dialogs in non-ui thread.

  - by Frater

  I've been working support for a while on a legacy application and I've noticed a bit of a problem. The system is an incredibly complex client/server with standard and custom frameworks. One of the custom frameworks built into the application involves validating workflow actions. It finds potential errors, separates them into warnings and errors, and passes the results back to the client. The main difference between warnings and errors is that warnings ask the user if they wish to ignore the error. The issue I have is that the dialog for this prompt is created on a non-ui thread, and thus we get cross-threading issues when the dialog is shown. I have attempted to invoke the showing of the dialog, however this fails because the window handle has not been created. (InvokeRequired returns false, which I assume in this case means it cannot find a decent handle in its parent tree, rather than that it doesn't require it.) Does anyone have any suggestions for how I can create this dialog and get the UI thread to set it up and call it?

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• Invalid Argument javascript error only on certain computers

  - by Jen

  Getting an error whenever we click a particular button/link on our site. It is generating a javascript "Invalid Argument" error. I know in the other posts it is typically because it is a syntax error in the javascript however it only just seems to have started happening and it doesn't happen on all pcs. ie. in our client's environment if I remote onto their web server and view the uat website I get the javascript error. If I remote onto their sql server and view the uat website I don't get the javascript error. If it was a syntax error then I would always get the error wouldn't I? both browsers are the same version of IE6 (yeah I know...) :) I have tried deleting temporary internet files - including viewing the files and deleting them myself - but no joy. client uses citrix.. and they're all getting the error :( Any ideas would be appreciated - Thanks! :) Update - Sorry I haven't posted specific code as there is too much to post (and I'm not sure where the error is occurring). The "button" launches a new window which in turn opens up a couple of aspx pages and calls lots of javascript. So the window opens ok, and there's a function that gets called to resize the window - but before it calls the resizing of the window/content it throws the invalid argument error. Am busy trying to get alerts to trigger to see if I can see where it's falling over but so far no luck. Again not sure why this error doesn't occur when I use a particular PC (same browser version)

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• How can I map to a field that is joined in via one of three possible tables

  - by Mongus Pong

  I have this object : public class Ledger { public virtual Person Client { get; set; } // .... } The Ledger table joins to the Person table via one of three possible tables : Bill, Receipt or Payment. So we have the following tables : Ledger LedgerID PK Bill BillID PK, LedgerID, ClientID Receipt ReceiptID PK, LedgerID, ClientID Payment PaymentID PK, LedgerID, ClientID If it was just the one table, I could map this as : Join ( "Bill", x => { x.ManyToOne ( ledger => ledger.Client, mapping => mapping.Column ( "ClientID" ) ); x.Key ( l => l.Column ( "LedgerID" ) ); } ); This won't work for three tables. For a start the Join performs an inner join. Since there will only ever be one of Bill, Receipt or Payment - an inner join on these tables will always return zero rows. Then it would need to know to do a Coalesce on the ClientID of each of these tables to know the ClientID to grab the data from. Is there a way to do this? Or am I asking too much of the mappings here?

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